GENERAL

EDUCATION
Jancel Delrod Q. Dela Peña
May 29, 2016
1. Many a child _____________ left to
the care of relatives while parents
work.

A. are
B. is
C. has been
D. will be
2. She hurt ____________ when
she was slicing the onions.

A.himself C. ourselves
B. myself D. herself
3. If you forgot ___________ textbook,
you can use ___________ Mark.

A. yours, ours C. your, mine

B. his, hers D. our, hers
4. Mr. Tolentino was concerned about
the safety of motorists and so he issued
a circular containing __________ safety
instructions.

A. himself C. his
B. themselves D. their
5. The green revolution refers to food production
by planting vegetables and fruit trees. A natural
resource that has not been sufficiently
developed is the world’s bodies of water which
promise abundant source of food. Referred to as
blue revolution this food source refers to
_____________.

A. corals C. algae
B. fish D. seashells
6. Some animals perform services to
assist man. Canines serve in war and in
peace. Cats safeguard the from pests.
Pigeons can transmit messages. This is
possible if these animals are __________.

A. fed C. trained
B. drugged D. kept
7. Nelson Mandela sacrificed so much in
his life – family, friends and a big chunk of
his life for things he believed in a
democratic South Africa, with equal rights
and a beacon of hope for the rest of the
world. Nelson Mandela’s dream for South
Africa, which was realized, was __________.

A. cooperation C. democracy
B. unity D. supremacy
8. “As far back as I can remember, our
family had always been an extended one.
Our grandmother was the mainstay in the
family, the silent strength behind our
mother who is her daughter.”
The informal guide and honorary
household chief in the extended family is
the _______________.
A. grandmother C. father
B. mother D. aunt
9. Shirley has not forgotten that she was
betrayed by her best friend and carried
such ___________ in her deeply offended
heart for a long time.

A. rancor C. souvenir
B. doubt D. offense
10. Even when her friends betray her,
Perla bears no rancor in her heart
because she is not ___________.

A. embarrassed C. bitter
B. consoled D. insulted
11. Clara would read any book or
magazine she could lay her hands on
an read from cover to cover in one
sitting. She is such a __________ reader.

A. tedious C. leisurely
B. serious D. voracious
12. A lot of water __________ needed to
irrigate the parched land.

A. is
B. are being
C. is being
D. are
13. You __________ finished eating
before we arrive.

A. have
B. should
C. have been
D. will have
14. Let us campaign for the total ban
___________ of harmful insecticides.

A. on the use
B. with the use
C. on using
D. with using
15. She is a vision of feminine
pulchritude. The underlined word
means _______________.

A. homeliness C. plain
B. loveliness D. ugliness
16. “If you want the moon I will get it for
you” is an example of ____________.

A. hyperbole
B. metaphor
C. personification
D. irony
17. “We listened to a loquacious
speaker.” The underlined word means
____________.

A. quiet C. verbose
B. simple D. lousy
18. What emotion or feeling is expressed in
the following lines?
To be, or not to be, it is the question
whether ‘tis nobler in the mind to suffer the
slings and arrows of outrageous Fortune,
or to take arms against a Sea of Troubles,
and by opposing end them?

A. sadness C. joy
B. anger D. indecision
19. How is “mercy” described in the
following lines?
The quality of mercy is not strained,
It droppeth as the gentle rain from heaven
Upon the place beneath; it is twice blest;
It blesseth him that gives and him that takes

A. Everybody deserves mercy

B. Mercy is difficult to give
C. Mercy drops as rain.
D. Mercy is given only to a few.
20. What figure of speech is the
following: “He is the black sheep of the
family.”

A. metaphor C. hyperbole
B. simile D. alliteration
21. “The princess is a phantom of
delight” is _____________.

A. simile C. metaphor
B. hyperbole D. irony
22. Poem which is usually composed of
14 lines which follows specific patterns
of rhyme is called __________.

A. haiku C. elegy
B. sonnet D. free verse
23. “… it droppeth as a gentle rain from
heaven” is what figure of speech?

A. personification
B. simile
C. metaphor
D. hyperbole
24. Haiku is traditional Japanese poem
consisting of ____________.

A. 3 lines totalling 17 syllables with nature

as topic
B. 8 lines ending in rhyming couplet with
death as topic
C. 4 lines that rhyme with love as topic
D. lines of poetry in free verse with ordinary
things as topic
25. Jose Rizal’s Novel which revealed
the abuses of the Spanish government
in the Philippines and the sufferings of
the Filipinos.

A. Noli Me Tangere
B. Mi ultimo adios
C. La Solidaridad
D. La Independencia
26. Ang mga salitang teka, saan, tena,
dali ay nagtataglay ng __________.

A. pagkaltas
B. tono
C. metatesis
D. asimilasyon
1. Hinatay ka - Tayka - teka
2. Tayo na - Tayna - tena, tana
3. Wikain mo - Ikamo - kamo
4. Wika ko - ikako - kako
27. Tumutukoy ito sa taas-baba ng
pantig ng isang salita upang maging
mabisa ang pakikipag-usap.

A. diin
B. antala
C. tono
D. segmental
28. Ang mga salitang tanaw, aliw,
kamay, reyna ay mga halimbawa ng
____________.

A. diptonggo
B. pares minimal
C. klaster
D. ponema
29. Uri ng pangatnig na ginagamit sa
pagpili, pagbubukod at pagtatangi ay
___________.
A. pamukod
B. panapos
C. paninsay
D. panlinaw
30. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang
nararapat sa komunikasyon na pasulat?

A. pagkibit ng balikat
B. maliksing mga mata
C. lakas ng boses
D. maayos na pagpapalugit
31. Ang wikang nabuo mula sa
pangunahing wika ng isang lalawigan
na sinasalita sa ibang bayan ay
tinatawag na _____________.

A. ekolek C. etnolek
B. dayalek D. sosyolek
32. Ang wikang nabuo mula sa
pangunahing wika ng isang lugar o
lalawigan na kadalasang sinasalita sa
ibang bayan ng naturang lugar.

A. ekolek C. dayalek
B. etnolek D. sosyolek
33. Bantas na ginagamit sa pagitan ng
paglalaping ika at tambilang.

A. gitling
B. tuldok
C. kuwit
D. panaklong
34. Ang pariralang nalaglag -- nahulog
ay nagpapakahulugan ng ____________.

A. magkahawig
B. magkasalungat
C. magkaparehas
D. Idyoma
E. marupok
35. Ano ang kahulugan ng “Neneng is
the apple of Daddy’s eye”?

A. Paborito ni Daddy ang mansanas.

B. Mahal ni Daddy si Neneng.
C. Si Neneng ay tulad ng mansanas.
D. Tawag-pansin ang mansanas.
36. Uri ng pagsasaling-wika na
tumutukoy sa mga disiplinang
akademiko, agham, kalikasan, at
lipunan ay tinatawag na ___________.

A. pangkasaysayan
B. pangkultura
C. teknikal
D. pampanitikan
37. Sa pangungusap na “Malakas ang
boses mo”, ang salitang malakas ay
isang _________.

A. pang-uri
B. pangatnig
C. panghalip
D. pandiwa
38. Isang disenyo ng pananaliksik na
nagsisiyasat sa pamamagitan ng
palatanungan o pakikipanayam.

A. sarbey C. feasibility study

B. case study D. etnograpiya
39. Ang wastong kahulugan ng:
The present problem is only a storm in a
teacup.

A. balewala C. may galit

B. buong puso D. matagumpay
40. Sa anong bahagi ng pananaliksik
matatagpuan ang mga lugar at
babasahing mapagkukunan ng mga
literature at pag-aaral.

A. Kabanata I C. Kabanata II
B. Kabanata IV D. Kabanata V
41. Isang uri ng pamahayagan na nag-
uulat ng tunay na pangyayari batay sa
pag-aaral, pananaliksik, o
pakikipanayam at isinusulat sa paraang
kawili-wili.
A. editoryal
B. pangulong tudling
C. lathalain
D. kumento
42. Uri ng pagsulat na ang pokus ay
ang imahinasyon ng manunulat;
pukawin ang damdamin

A. malikhain C. teknikal
B. jornalistik D. akademiko
43. Ang proseso ng paghahatid ng
saloobin, opinion, karunungan sa
pamamagitan ng makabuluhang
tunog ay tinatawag na ___________.

A. pagtatala C. pagsasalita
B. pakikinig D. pagbabasa
44. Nakikipag-away ka sa speaker. Ito
ay pakikinig na __________.

A. pasibo
B. masusi
C. may lugod
D. kombatib
45. Ito ay rutang dinaraanan ng
mensahe ng tagapagsalita.

A. konteksto
B. tsanel
C. participant
D. pidbak
46. Regala company manufactures
beds; in its catalogue, a double bed is
priced at P 5,000.00 less a discount of
20%. What will Rizza have to pay for the
bed she ordered?

A. P 4,150.00 C. P 4,200.00
B. P 4,100.00 D. P 4,000.00
47. Clara Ramos works as a sales clerk.
She is paid a salary of P 3,000.00 a week
plus 2% commission on sales over
P4,000.00. Find her gross pay for a week
in which her sales are P 9,500.00.

A. P 3,500.00 C. P 3,110.00
B. P 3,250.00 D. P 3,210.00
48. A Toyota car traveling at a rate of 70
km/h leaves the house 2 hours after a
Kia car has left and overtakes it in 5
hours. At what rate was the Kia car
traveling?

A. 40km/h C. 50 km/h
B. 30 km/h D. 20 km/h
49. How many prime numbers are there
between 1 and 100?

A. 24
B. 23
C. 22
D. 25
50. What number must be subtracted
from both numerator and denominator
of the fraction 11/23 to give a fraction
whose value of 2/5?

A. 4 C. 5
B. 2 D. 3
51. The fraction halfway between 3/7
and 4/7 is _________.

A. 1/2
B. 1/8
C. 1/4
D. 1/3
52. A recipe calls for 2 cups of milk for
every 7 cups of flour. A chef will use 28
cups of flour, how many cuos of milk
must he have?

A. 12 C. 14
B. 10 D. 8
53. If Karl has an average of 76% on his
first 2 tests and has an average of 85%
on the next 4 tests, what is his final
average on all 6 tests?

A. 82.5% C. 81.3%
B. 80.5% D. 82.0%
54. A room is 30 ft long, 25 ft wide and
14 ft high, If 42 balloons are inside the
room, how many cubic feet of space
does this allow for each balloon?

A. 11 C. 12.5
B. 12 D. 11.9
E. 250 cubic feet
55. What percent of 75 is 15?

A. 30%
B. 40%
C. 20%
D. 38%
56. All right angles are ________.

A. parallel
B. oblique
C. supplementary
D. equal
57. The side opposite the right angle of
a right triangle is the ________ and each
of the other 2 sides is _________.

A. hypotenuse, leg
B. opposite, adjacent
C. leg, hypotenuse
D. adjacent, opposite
58. A 10 meter board leans against the
wall. The foot of the board is 8 meters
from the wall. How far up the wall does
the board reach?

A. 10 meters C. 6 meters
B. 4 meters D. 8 meters
59. The sum of the sides of a polygon is
the _________ of the polygon.

A. volume
B. area
C. legs
D. perimeter
60. If 2 legs of one rigt triangle are equal
respectively to 2 legs of another, the
right triangles are __________.

A. congruent C. supplementary
B. complementary D. adjacent
61. Find the LCM of 8, 6, 3.

A. 24
B. 48
C. 72
D. 96
62. Peform the indicated operation
40𝑥 2 𝑦 2 27𝑥𝑦
÷
4𝑥𝑦 4 8𝑥 2 𝑦 3
40𝑥 3 40
A. C.
81 81

40𝑥 40𝑥 2
B. D.
81 81
𝟖𝟎𝒙 𝟐
E.
𝟐𝟕
63. The measure of an angle is 25 more
than its supplement. What is the
measure of the larger angle?

A. 102.5 º C. 110.5 º
B. 77.5 º D. 95.5 º
64. Find the LCM of 5,2,7.

A. 140
B. 35
C. 15
D. 70
65. Simplify: (3x-9) ÷ (𝑥 -9)
2

3 𝑥+3
A. C.
𝑥+3 3

3 𝑥−3
B. D.
9−3 3
66. Simplify: 8𝑥 − 24 ÷ 2𝑥 2 − 𝑥 − 15

𝑥−4 8
A. 𝑥+4
C. 2𝑥+5

4 5
B. 𝑥−13
D. 2𝑥−5
67. The grades in Math of the students in
section A are as follows: 80, 75, 60, 95,
100. What is the range of their group?

A. 80-95 C. 60-95
B. 60-100 D. 70-100
68. What measure of central tendency
is not influenced by outliers?

A. mean
B. weighted mean
C. median
D. mode
69. What measure of central tendency
can best describe the size of T-shirts
commonly worn by teenagers?

A. mean
B. mode
C. range
D. median
70. If a die is rolled, what is the
probability of getting a number divisible
by 2?

A. 1/2 C. 1/3
B. 1/6 D. 1/4
71. In a Physics test, 9 students obtained
the following scores: 80, 86, 78, 88, 90,
82, 76, 76, 84, 92. What is the median
score.

A. 84 C. 86
B. 82 D. 88
72. What is the pressure exerting on the
plasma membrane against the cell wall
of bacteria, fungi, and plant cells?

A. osmotic pressure
B. wall pressure
C. turgor pressure
D. plasma membrane
73. Which organism is an example of a
fungus?

A. Algae
B. Yeast
C. Euglenoids
D. Entamoeba
74. Which of the following is an example of
a useful action of bacteria?

A. can clean up soil spill by digesting

hydrocarbons
B. maybe used as vectors to introduce
proteins
C. can synthesize new forms of heavy
metals
D. may be pathogenic and cause human
disease
75. Which protest can cause dysentery?

A. Gorilla beringei
B. Plamodium vivax
C. Streptococcus
D. Entamoeba histolytica
76. Which organism is classified under
Kingdom Fungi?

A. Red Algae
B. Microsporidia
C. Diatoms
D. Streptococcus
77. Hmans reproduce when an ovum is
combined with a sperm leading to the
development of an embryo. This form of
reproduction is called ________.

A. asexual reproduction
B. fertilization
C. budding
D. binary fission
78. The waste product of photosynthesis
is ____________.

A. carbon monoxide
B. nitrogen
C. carbon dioxide
D. oxygen
79. A hypothetical ecosystem contains lettuce
(producer), a caterpillar (primary consumer), a
small passerine bird (secondary consumer, and
a lion (tertiary consumer). A gardener arrives
and sprays pesticide, killing all the caterpillars.
What can happen to the ecosystem?

A. The passerine birds will thrive.

B. The lions will eventually die.
C. The passerine birds will convert to herbivores
D. The lettuce will wilt and die.
80. What is the molecule that allows
plants to capture energy from sunlight?

A. Oxygen
B. Carbohydrate
C. ATP
D. Chlorophyll
81. A human arm, a bat’s wing, and a
seal’s flipper are examples of
______________.

A. analogous organs
B. homologous organs
C. embryonic organs
D. vestigial organs
82. An important endocrine gland that is
shaped like a bowtie and located in the
neck is called __________.

A. pituitary gland
B. parathyroid gland
C. adrenal glands
D. thyroid gland
83. Which of the following is an
organism that feeds on necrotic and
decaying matter?

A. vulture C. algae
B. parakeet D. yeast
84. The asexual reproduction which
occurs when a new organism develops
from an outgrowth is called _________.

A. fission
B. fertilization
C. budding
D. grafting
85. Predation is a relationship exemplified
by __________________.

A. An orchid attached to the trunk of a

Narra tree.
B. A hunter shooting a duck in the forest
and having it for dinner.
C. A tapeworm living in the gastrointestinal
tract of a toddler.
D. A clownfish living within a sea
anemone.
86. The molecules that contain an
organism’s genetic make-up is called
___________.

A. genetic membrane
B. nucleic acid
C. nucleolus
D. cytosal
87. What is the process used by plants to
convert the energy from sunlight into
chemical energy?

A. photosynthesis
B. diffusion
C. phytochemical energy
D. cytolysis
88. What are the thin structures essential
cytokinesis, amoeboid movement and
changes the cell shape?

A. nanofilaments
B. myosin filaments
C. microfilaments
D. pseudofilaments
89. What are the small hair-like structures
that serve a sensory function in
eukaryotic cells?

A. plasma membrane
B. centromere
C. actin filaments
D. cilia
90. Who was the father of modern
taxonomy and responsible for coining
the term Homo sapiens for human.

A. Chatton
B. Aristotle
C. H. Copland
D. Linnaeus
91. What is possible consequence of
eutrophication?

A. Water that is colorless and odor-free

B. Significantly diminished sea harvest
by fishermen
C. Decreased in toxicity of bodies of
water.
D. Less turbidity of water.
92. What is the maximum number of
electrons that can occupy a p orbital.

A. 6
B. 10
C. 18
D. 14
93. Which of the following statements is
TRUE about a textbook laid on the table?

A. The textbook undergoes deceleration.

B. The textbook undergoes acceleration
C. No force is acting on it.
D. The sum of the forces acting on it is zero.
94. A population of rabbits live in a stable
habitat with no changes in the environment for
a long time. How will genetic drift possibly
affect this population?

A. It may decrease genetic variation

B. It will promote the dominance of the rabbits
with superior traits.
C. It will decrease the population of the rabbits.
D. It will stimulate the appearance of new
traits.
95. Element X has an electron
configuration of 1s2 2s2 2p2. Based on
the information , element X belongs to
a/an ____________ family.

A. Alkali metal C. Halogen

B. Inert gas D. Coinage
E. Carbon
96. Besides solid, liquid, and gas, what is
the fourth form of matter?

A. gel
B. colloid
C. plasma
D. foam
97. Which of the following is the lowest
rank coal and is otherwise called brown
coal?

A. charcoal
B. lignite
C. anthracite
D. bituminous
Lignite is considered to be "immature" coal at this stage of
development because it is still somewhat light in color and it
remains soft.

As time passes, lignite increases in maturity by becoming

darker and harder and is then classified as sub-
bituminous coal.

As this process of burial and alteration continues, more

chemical and physical changes occur and a the coal is
classified as bituminous. At this point the coal is dark and
hard.

Anthracite is the last of the classifications, and this

terminology is used when the coal has reached ultimate
maturation. Anthracite coal is very hard and shiny.
98.The feeding connections between all
forms of life are referred to as
__________.

A. nutrition cycles
B. food web
C. biochemical pathways
D. fossil cycle
99. What diagnostic test allows
microorganisms to multiply in a medium
under controlled laboratory condition in
order to determine the cause of an
infectious disease?

A. microbial culture
B. hydrophobic
C. complete blood count
D. urinalysis
100. If carbohydrates are hydrophilic
organic compounds, lipids are
____________ organic compounds

A. biomolecules
B. hydrophobic
C. polypeptide
D. simple
101. This is TRUE of recessive genes.

A. Will only have phenotypic expression

if present as a homozygous genotype
B. Should be paired with a dominant
gene for it to be expressed
C. Will prevent a dominant gene from
expressing its phenotype
D. Have more superior phenotypic traits
102. The bond in sodium fluoride is
which of the following types of
chemical bond?
A. halogens
B. alkali metals
C. rare earth
D. alkaline earth metals
E. ionic bond
103. You won the jackpot prize in lottery.
The prize money cannot be paid in
currency but only in gold. Applying your
knowledge in chemistry, select the largest
amount of gold from the choices below.
(Au = 197).

A. 297 g of gold
B. 40 kg of gold
C. Avogadro’s number of atoms of gold
D. 22.4 moles of gold
104. The Brundtland Commission defines it
as: “development that meets the needs of
the present without compromising the
ability of future generations to meet their
own needs.

A. Ecological Development
B. Environmental Development
C. Sustainable Development
D. Uncompromising development
The mission of Brundtland Commission is
to unite countries to pursue sustainable
development together.
105. Which 2 chemical factors cause
decomposition?

A. putrefaction and respiration

B. death and cellular respiration
C. autolysis and photosynthesis
D. autolysis and putrefaction
106. An atom of silicon has a mass
number of 28 and atomic number of 14.
How many protons are in this atom?

A. 14 C. 28
B. 12 D. 7
107. Bats are able to navigate in the dark
without bumping into anything because
they ________________.

A. are able to fluoresce in the dark

B. have supersonic eyesight
C. emit sound waves whose returning
vibrations can detect the presence of
objects
D. can disappear in the dark
108. The protein shell of a virus is called
____________.

A. nucleolus
B. nucleic acid
C. nucleus
D. capsid
109. Alcohol is a class of organic
compound characterized by _________.

A. a halogen attached to an alkyl group

B. a carbonyl group bonded to 2 carbon
atoms
C. A hydroxyl bonded to an alkyl group
D. A carbonyl attached to an ether
linkage
110. Participation in governance,
including the right to vote and seek
public office is secured within the
citizenry’s _____________.

A. right to due process

B. right o suffrage
C. political rights
D. socio-civic rights
 KINDS OF RIGHTS
1. Natural Rights

2. Constitutional
A. Civil

B. Political

3. Statutory
111. The right to search for information is
invoked through the ____________.

writ of habeas corpus

writ of certiorari
writ of habeas data
writ of amparo
2. The writ of habeas corpus is issued to a detaining
authority, ordering the detainer to produce the detained
person in the issuing court, along with the cause of his or
her detention. If the detention is found to be illegal, the
court issues an order to set the person free.

2. The writ of certiorari is issued to a lower court directing

that the record of a case be sent up for review, together
with all supporting files, evidence and documents, usually
with the intention of overruling the judgement of the lower
court. It is one of the mechanisms by which the
fundamental rights of the citizens are upheld.

3. The writ of mandamus is issued to a subordinate court, an

officer of government, or a corporation or other institution
commanding the performance of certain acts or duties.
The writ of quo warranto is issued against
a person who claims or usurps a public
office. Through this writ the court
inquires 'by what authority' the person
supports his or her claim.

A writ of ne exeat restrains a defendant

from fleeing the country or jurisdiction.
A writ of amparo is a remedy available to any
person whose right to life, liberty and security is
violated or threatened with violation by an
unlawful act or omission of a public official or
employee, or of a private individual or entity.
The writ shall cover extralegal killings and
enforced disappearances or threats thereof.

The writ of habeas data is a remedy available to

any person to protect, by means of an
individual complaint presented to a
constitutional court, the image, privacy,
honour, information self-determination and
freedom of information of a person.
112. Which condition contradicts the
social justice mandate in the 1987
constitution.

A. creation of economic opportunities

for all
B. sense of dependency among citizens
C. elimination of cultural inequalities
D. equitable distribution of wealth
113. Which is the fundamental law of
the land?

A. The Philippine Constitution

B. The Civil and Criminal Codes
C. The Ten Commandments
D. The Bill of Rights
114. The fundamental right invoked by
filing the “writ of amparo” is ___________.

A. the right to self-defense

B. the right to due process
C. the right to life, liberty, and security
D. the right to be defended by public
attorney
115. The biggest of the seven continents
of the world is _____________.

A. Asia
B. Australia
C. Africa
D. Europe
116. Which band played the Marcha
Nacional Filipino or the national anthem
on June 12, 1898 during the declaration
of Philippine independence.

A. Malabon Band
B. Kawit Cavite Band
C. Pangkat Kawayan ng Pateros
D. San Francisco Del Monte Band
117. The province in the Philippines
which was called “Ma-i” by the Chinese
in the 14th century is _________.

A. Ilocos
B. Mindoro
C. Cavite
D. Palawan
118. Through the Galleon Trade (1565-
1815), the Philippines had extended
contacts with ___________.

A. Mexico C. China
B. Spain D. Spice Islands
119. Which religious missionary order first
arrived in the Philippines?

A. Augustinian
B. Jesuit
C. Dominican
D. Franciscan
1. Order of St. Augustine (OSA) – 1565
Augustinians
2. Order of Friars Minor (OFM) – 1578
Franciscans
3. Society of Jesus (SJ) – 1581
Jesuits
4. Order of Preachers (OP) – 1587
Dominicans
5. Order of Augustinian Recollects (OAR) -
Recollects
120. which law set a full trade policy
abolishing the quota limitations on
Philippine export to the United States?

A. Payne-Aldrich Act
B. Underwood-Simmons Act
C. Bell Trade
D. Hare-Hawes Cutting Act
Payne-Aldrich Act- a bill raising certain tariffs
on goods entering the United States.

Underwood-Simmons Act- re-imposed the

federal income tax following the ratification of
the Sixteenth Amendment and lowered basic
tariff rates from 40% to 25%, well below the
Payne-Aldrich Tariff Act of 1909

Hare-Hawes Cutting Act- was the first US law

passed setting a process and a date for the
Philippines to gain independence from the
United States.
121. Which power of the state enables I
to impose charge of burden upon
persons, property or property rights for
the use and support of the government
in its discharge of appropriate functions.

A. Eminent Domain
B. Exproriation
C. Value Added Tax
D. Taxation
122. Which best describes the division of
the Legislature into the Senate and the
House of Representatives.

A. Unicameralism
B. Bipartisanship
C. Co-legislative powers
D. Bicameralism
123. What kind of cooperative system
sells farmers’ agricultural produce?

A. service cooperative
B. producers cooperative
C. marketing cooperative
D. multi-purpose cooperative
124. The economic policy that good
action is one that helps the greatest
number of people is called _________,

A. mercantilism
B. colonialism
C. capitalism
D. utilitarianism
125. Which contradicts the Filipino family
value of sacrifice?

A. willingness to forgive
B. delayed satisfaction of desires
C. inability to forgive
D. tolerance of pain and mistakes
126. The smallest unit of society is the
____________.

A. church C. purok
B. family D. government
127. Is it correct to say that “Bahala na” is a
negative trait?

A. Yes, it is tantamount to leaving one’s

fate to another.
B. It depends on the situation of the
person saying it.
C. It depends on the intention of one’s
action.
D. No, “Bahala na” is an attitude of daring
combined with genuine concern
128. Birth place of Jose Rizal.

A. Intramuros, Manila
B. Calamba, Laguna
C. Malolos, Bulacan
D. Kawit, Cavite
129. One instance of taking away the
life of another person without due
process is __________.

A. salvaging
B. suicide
C. capital punishment
D. euthanasia
130. What was the first term given by
Marcelo H. Del Pilar to the hidden
control and domination by Spanish
religious priests over the colonial
government?

A. las suerte partidas

B. pase region
C. frailocracia
D. complace
131. What does a professional code of
conduct prescribe?

A. civil conduct for all

B. professional traditions and mores
C. moral and ethical standards
D. stricter implementation of laws
132. Due to close family ties, Filipino
families are generally ________.

A. secular
B. nuclear
C. extended
D. divided
133. The Philippine president who was
known as the “man of the masses” was
___________________.

A. Fidel Ramos
B. Ramon Magsaysay
C. Manuel Quezon
D. Manuel Roxas
134. A recently awarded national artist
for sculpture was ___________.

A. Blaco
B. Abueva
C. Alcantara
D. Luna
135. The stage actress who brought
fame to her country through her
international awards for her stage
performance was ___________.

A. Isay Alvarez
B. Geneva Cruz
C. Lea Salonga
D. Sharon Cuneta
136. Those who advocate the revival of
the classics in art and literature are
called ___________.

A. humanists
B. rationalists
C. reformists
D. existentialists
137. The part of the body that controls
emotion is ______________.

A. kidney
B. heart
C. endocrine glands
D. lungs
138. Which characterizes
psychologically healthy people?

A. pre-occupied only with their interest

B. concerned with goals beyond
themselves
C. feels superior over others
D. can’t accept others as they are
139. Study of human behaviour

A. Ethics
B. Philosophy
C. Morality
D. Psychology
140. The sum total of a person’s efforts
to cope with stressful situations in life is
called _____________.

A. reaction
B. anger
C. defense mechanism
D. emotion
141. It illustrates a particular data series
through rectangles.

A. bar graph
B. line graph
C. circle graph
D. pie graph
142. It can be used to show the progress
in academic grades over 4 quarters.

A. bar graph
B. pie graph
C. line graph
D. circle graph
143. It is the process of storing,
recovering, and disseminating recorded
data through the computer.

A. Information Technology
B. Information utilization
C. Information Retrieval
D. Information Science
144. Social Network Service available
through the computer is ___________.

A. Wikipedia
B. i-pad
C. Google
D. Facebook
145. ____________ means the graphics
will be displayed more than once.

A. texting
B. tagging
C. timing
D. tiling
146. Face-to-face communication is
made possible via the computer
through ____________.

A. twitter C. skype
B. e-mail D. google
147. Messages are easily transported
anywhere in the world through the
____________.

A. e-shopping C. e-register
B. e-learning D. e-mail
148. What symbol is used to make the
text bold?

A. Ctrl + X
B. Ctrl + V
C. Ctrl + O
D. Ctrl + B
149. Which is the “brain” of the
computer?

A. RAM
B. CPU
C. Program
D. Password
150. Activities connected by a
computer system is described as
___________.

A. Virtual C. Online
B. Distance D. Network