Dr.

Ashok D Gaur
Asst. Prof.
B.J Vanijya Mahavidyalaya
(BJVM)

UGC NET Coaching Class

DECEMBER 2016
 UGC NET Exam Pattern

• The National Educational Testing Bureau of University Grants Commission (UGC) conducts
National Eligibility Test (NET) to determine eligibility for lectureship and for award of Junior
Research Fellowship (JRF) for Indian nationals in order to ensure minimum standards for the
entrants in the teaching profession and research.
• The Test is conducted in Humanities (including languages), Social Sciences, Forensic Science,
Environmental Sciences, Computer Science and Applications and Electronic Science.

The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) conducts the UGC-CSIR NET for other
Science subjects, namely, Life Sciences, Physical Sciences, Chemical Sciences, Mathematical
Sciences and Earth Atmospheric Ocean & Planetary Sciences jointly with the UGC.
• The tests are conducted twice in a year generally in the months of June and December.
• For candidates who desire to pursue research, the Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) is
available for five years subject to fulfillment of certain conditions. UGC has allocated a number
of fellowships to the universities for the candidates who qualify the test for JRF. The JRFs are
awarded to the meritorious candidates from among the candidates qualifying for eligibility for
lectureship in the NET. JRFs are available only to the candidates who opt for it in their
application forms.
• By qualifying this test, post graduate students may apply for lecturer-ship in reputed
universities and may also seek admissions for PhD Programs in Net Coordinating Universities.
• The candidates who wish to appear in Net Exam must have fulfilled eligibility criteria declared
by Net Coordinating Institutes.
 Exam Scheme for UGC NET 2017

• The Test will consist of three papers. All the three papers will consist of only
objective type questions and will be held on 22nd January 2017 (Sunday) in all
three separate session as under:

• First (Paper-I): 100 Marks (60 out of which 50 questions to be attempted) [Duration:
1¼ Hours (09.30 am to 10.45 am, IST)]

• Second (Paper-II): 100 Marks (50 questions all are compulsory) [Duration: 1¼ Hours
(11.15 am to 12.30 pm, IST)]

• Third (Paper-III): 150 Marks (75 questions all are compulsory) [Duration: 2½ Hours
(02.00 pm to 04.30 pm, IST)]

• All the questions of Paper-II and Paper-III will be compulsory, covering entire
syllabus (including all electives, without options)

• The candidate will have to mark the responses for questions of Paper-I, Paper-II and
Paper-III on the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) Sheet provided along with the test
booklet
1. Paper-I
This round is General Aptitude Test which consists of sections like– Reasoning
Ability, Comprehension Reading, Mental Ability, and General Awareness etc.
There will be 60 questions each of two marks, out of which 50 questions would
be required to answer.
In that case candidate attempts more than 50 questions then first 50 questions
will be considered for marking.
2. Paper-II
This round will consist of 50 compulsory MCQ(Multiple choices with single
correct answer)questions each of two marks.
3. Paper-III
This is the third and final round of UGC/CBSE NET Exam. It will consist of 75
objective type compulsory questions from the subject selected by the candidate
and each question will carry two marks.

Time Duration of Paper-I and Paper-II is same 75 minutes each and for Paper-
III, it is 150 minutes .
 PROCEDURE & CRITERIA FOR DECLARATION OF RESULT :
This will comprise of following steps:
Step I: Minimum marks to be obtained in NET for considering a candidate for the
award of JRF and eligibility for Assistant Professor:
The candidates are required to obtain following minimum marks separately in Paper-I,
Paper-II and Paper-III as given below:

Step II: Amongst those candidates who have cleared step I, a merit list will be prepared
subject-wise and category-wise using the aggregate marks of all the three papers secured
by such candidates.
Step III: Top 15% candidates (for each subject and category), from the merit list
mentioned under step II, will be declared NET qualified for eligibility for Assistant
Professor only.
Step IV: A separate merit list for the award of JRF will be prepared from amongst the NET
qualified candidates figuring in the merit list prepared under step III.
It may be noted that the above qualifying criteria decided by UGC is final and binding.
• In case of any discrepancy found in the English and Hindi versions, the questions in
English version shall be taken as final.
Syllabus N E T Subject
 Environment and people
• Environment rights • Deserts
• Women and Environment • Soil
• Health and Environment • Energy and its types
• Disaster • Mining
• HD Index • Transportations
• Conservation of environment • Technology and Biotechnology
• Farmer ,Tribal and Urbanization
• Forest and Biodiversity
• National parks,
• Wild life Sanctuary
• Water, Rainwater, Ground water,
• Lake, Seas, wetland, Mountains
• Dams
• Glaciers
• Climate Change
• GHG
• Global Warming
• Ozone layer
• Protocols
• Pollutions, types of pollutions
• Solid Wastes
• Plastics
• Noise poulutions
• Radiations
• Heavy Metals
PUC
• Bhopal Gas problem Recycling
• Eco friendly products
• Environment educations
 Higher education in India
• India's higher education system
• University Grants Commission,
• Accreditation for higher learning is overseen by 12 autonomous institutions established by the
University Grants Commission.
• Colleges
• Students
• Universities - central universities, state universities deemed universities, private universities,
• Institutions established and functioning under the State Act,
• Institutes of National Importance which includes AIIM, IIT's , NIT's
• Government Degree Colleges and Private Degree Colleges, women's colleges,
• Distance learning and open education
• The Distance Education Council
• Indira Gandhi National Open University
• Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs), National Institute of Technology (NITs),
Indian Institutes of Information Technology (IIITs), Indian Institutes of Management (IIMs),
International Institute of Information Technology (IIIT-H), University of Mumbai and Jawaharlal Nehru University
have been globally acclaimed for their standard of education.
• India still lacks internationally behind prestigious universities such as Harvard, Cambridge, and Oxford.
• Indian higher education is in need of radical reforms.
•
• Accreditation for higher learning is overseen by autonomous institutions
established by the University Grants Commission:[30]
• All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
• Distance Education Council (DEC)
• Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
• Bar Council of India (BCI)
• National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
• National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
• Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI)
• Medical Council of India (MCI)
• Pharmacy Council of India (PCI)
• Indian Nursing Council (INC)
• Dental Council of India (DCI)
• Central Council of Homeopathy (CCH)
• Central Council of Indian Medicine (CCIM)
• Veterinary Council of India (VCI)
1. Which of the following is meteorological hazard?
(1) Avalanche (2) Coastal crosion (3) Landslide (4) Blizzard

2. Which of the following universities/institutes is ranked first in the India Rankings 2016?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru University, New Delhi (2) Central University, Hyderabad
(3) Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore (4) Institute of chemical Technology, Mumbai

3. Which of the following statements are correct about distance education in India?
(a) It supplements formal education. (b) It reduces the cost of education. (c) It replaces the formal
education. (d) It enhances access to education.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:
(1) (a),(b),(c) and (d)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
4. Assertion (A): The problems of environmental sustainability are difficult to resolve.
Reason (R): Our understanding how environment works and how different human choices affect
environment is inadequate.
Choose the correct code:
(1)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3)(A) is true and (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
5. The percentage share of electrical power from solar energy in the total electric power generation from all renewable
energy source sought to be achieved by Indian government by the year 2022, is
(1) ~57.1% (2) ~65.5% (3) ~47.5% (4) ~75%
6. As part of Intended Nationally Determined contributions, India government through additional forest and tree cover has
resolved to create an additional carbon sink (in terms of carbon dioxide equivalent) by year 2030 to the extent of
(2) 3.5 to 4 billion tons (2) 2.5 to 3 billion tons (3) 1.5 to 2 billion tons (4) 1 to 1.5 billion tons
7. In which of the following cases, the principle of natural justice (hear the other party) must be followed?
(a) Dismissal of an employee
(b) Supersession of municipality
(c) Threat to national security
(d) Disciplinary action against a student or an employee
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
8. Which of the following are statutory bodies?
(e) Election Commission of India
(f) University Grant Commission (UGC)
(g) All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
(h) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b),(c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (b) and (d)
9. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of Rajya Sabha?
(a) It has same power as those of Lok Sabha.
(b) It can pass a vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.
(c) It can amend a money bill.
(d) It can be dissolved during emergency.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:
(1) (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
10. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct the powers of the Governor of a State?
(e) He has the power to dissolve the Legislative Assembly.
(f) He has the power to appoint judges of the State High Court.
(g) He has the power to grant pardon in case of death sentence.
(h) He has diplomatic powers.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:
(1) (a) only
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
11. Which of the following set of statements reflects the basic characteristics of teaching? Select the correct alternative from the codes:
(i) Teaching is the same as training.
(j) Teaching is related to learning.
(k) Teaching is a ‘task’ word while learning is an ‘achievement’ word.
(l) Teaching means giving information. One may teach without learning taking place.
Codes:
(m) (1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(n) (iii),(iv) and (vi)
(o) ( (ii), (iii) and (v)
(p) (4) (i), (iv) and (vi) Answer: 3