MOCK EXAM 2 1/80 1. What is a micro processor? a. Rainbow memory of computer b. CPU integrated circuit c.

Another name of computer d. Name of calculator 1/78 2. A vessel is subjected to hogging when it: a. Has its botton plating under tensile stress b. Is supported on wave whose crest are at bow and aster c. Is supported on wave whose crest amidship d. Has its main desk under compressive stress 1/76 3. The most crucial time for any bearing in regard to lubrication. a. After proper oil viscosity is reached b. During starting c. During low loads d. After cleaning filter 1/74 4. In a desk type centrifugal purifier the contaminated oil enter to bowl. a. At the top through the regulating tube b. At the button through the oil inlet c. Through the neck of the disk d. Through the funnel body 1/72 5. What is the effect if moisture that will enter a typical refrigeration system. a. Will cause sweating and frost in the evaporator coil b. Will freeze in the expansion valve c. Oil in the condenser d. Will be remove by the strainer 1/70 6. Sewage treatment where raw sewage through commuter into collection compartment where overflow occurs sewage flow into variation compartment where sewage is broken down by aerobic activation by what system. a. Chemical treatment b. Biological c. None of these d. All of these 1/68 7. Instrument used to measure brake horsepower. a. Viscosimeter b. Oscilometer c. Tachometer d. Prony brake 1/66 8. Allowed to carry product oil but is prohibited from carrying oil. a. Product carrier b. Bulk carrier c. Automobile carrier d. Crude tanker 1/64 9. You could generally improve your vessel stability in hazardous situation by: a. Ballasting deep tank b. Transferring ballast temperature c. Pumping double botton to the forepeak d. De-ballasting double botton

1/62 10. R-718 is known as: a. Ammonia b. Water c. Carbon dioxide d. Dichlorodiflouromethane 1/60 11. Which of the following should be done so that fuel oil viscosity at the atomizer can be reduced. a. Increase the FO heater steam supply b. Used lighter kind of FO c. Increase delivery pressure of FO d. Increase FO specific gravity 1/58 12. What is the electrical power in KC used 200 volts motor drawing 15 amps. is: a. 3.2 b. 3.0 c. 3.3 d. 3.5 1/56 13. On law temperature condition on air stared the engine turn over too slow and fails to start the probably cause. a. High oil viscosity b. Faulty air starting v/v c. Low oil temperature d. Low oil viscosity 1/54 14. Which of the following is the primary operational difference between a hudding chamber safety valve and a nozzle reaction safety valve? a. Adjustment of lifting pressure b. Valve relieving capacities c. Principle in accomplishing blow down d. Initial valve opening cause by steam pressure 1/52 15. The reverse current relay prevent DC generator motorized by: a. Automatically speeding up the prine maneuver b. Automatically directing c. Tripping circuit breaker d. Tripping circuit breaker 1/50 16. Ship found discharge water containing more than of oil can be heavily lined. a. 62.0 mg/liter b. 58.0 mg/liter c. 100.0 mg/liter d. 86.0 mg/liter 1/48 17. On low temperature condition on air started diesel engine turn over too and fails to start the probable cause is: a. High on viscosity b. Faulty air starting valve c. Low oil temperature d. None of the above 1/46 18. In an air conditioning room if the people complained of being too cool the problem might be. a. Relative humidity to high b. Air velocity is too low

c. Heater failure to cut out at proper temperature d. Relative humidity too low 1/44 19. What causes ignition failure in an auxiliary boiler? a. Excess air b. Burned out solenoid valve c. Lack of oil pressure d. Incorrect stilling 1/42 20. What is the use of a re-circulating line in the potable hot water system? a. Maintain desired water temperature to system b. For constant speed of pumps c. For return overflow d. Maintain flow rate 1/40 21. What is the possible cause of a marine diesel engine having a poor combustion? a. Very high compression pressure b. Exhaust pressure low c. Low intake air pressure d. High scavenge pressure 1/38 22. What is the main purpose why check valve is located between economizer and steam drum? a. Pressurize water flow b. Prevent back pressure c. Prevent steam and water drum losses should an economizer casualty occur d. Positive feed water flow 1/36 23. What is the purpose of thrust bearing? a. To control axial movement of the crank shaft b. Absorb vibration c. Transmit engine thrust d. Prevent propeller thrust 1/34 24. When the engine is running, what part in a large slow speed engine is under tension? a. Bed plate b. Tie rod c. Column d. Rod 1/32 25. What causes gas leaks through boilers? a. Uptakes overheating b. Malfunctioning limit switch c. Impairs the effectiveness of the air purge cycles d. Improper combustion 1/30 26. What causes a pump fails to deliver liquid? a. Air suction line b. RPM too high c. Faulty relief valve d. Damaged impeller 1/28 27. What causes excessive scale in an evaporating plant? a. Low boiling temperature b. Poor distillate c. Low vacuum d. Low pressure

1/26 28. Freon 12 tends to short cycle when at a. Light loads b. Normal condition c. Starting d. Heavy loads 1/24 29. What is the part found between engine and pinion? a. Flexible coupling b. Duplex coupling c. Main coupling d. Auxiliary coupling 1/22 30. What may cause a leaky oil seal in a turbo charge? a. Low scavenge temperature b. Blow by c. Overspeeding d. Insufficient air-fuel ration 2/1 31. Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathes centers is usually held in a ___________. a. Crotch center b. Chuck c. Lathe dig d. Spindle 2/3 32. If you are machining work held between lathe centers and the lathe centers begin to squeal, you should first __________. a. Lubricate the centers b. Stop the lathe c. Change the cutting bit d. Run the lathe to a finished dimension 2/5 33. A lathe dog fitted with a headless set screw is known as a ____________. a. Clamp lathe dog b. Safety lathe dog c. Standard lathe dog d. Common lathe dog 2/7 34. In machine shop practice, a center gauge is used for checking the angle of ___________. a. Drill points b. Screw thread pitch c. Screw threads d. 60 thread cutting tools 2/9 35. What type of electric light fittings is used in pipe tunnels? a. Shock proof b. Water proof c. Flame proof d. Acid proof 2/11 36. What happens when high PPM alarm is actuated in an automatic oily bilge water separator? a. Generator lubricating oil pump b. Bilge pump suction is shut c. Fuel oil purifier will stop d. Overboard discharge is shut

2/13 37. A metal fire that has become clogged with fillings is said to be PINNED and should be cleaned with a file __________. a. Scraper b. Pick c. Oil stone d. Dressing tool 2/15 38. The temper is likely to be drawn out in the chisel edge when you _________. a. Hold it next to a wet grinding wheel b. Soak it in hot oil for long periods c. Grind the cutting angle too small d. Grind it for long periods of time with much pressure 2/17 39. Hacksaw cutting is more effective when pressure is applied on the ___________. a. Backward stroke b. Forward stroke c. Top of the hacksaw frame d. Front of hacksaw frame 2/19 40. In cut angular iron and heavy pipe with a hand hacksaw, a blade with ___________ teeth per inch should be used. a. 14 b. 18 c. 24 d. 32 2/21 41. A taper shank drill is removed from the drill press with a _________. a. Taper punch b. Vice grip c. Drill grip d. Leather mallet 2/23 42. Which process is used to bring a hole to finished a size with a high accuracy? a. Boring b. Reaming c. Sizing d. Drilling 2/25 43. Round, split dies are usually adjustable to ____________. a. Allow threading on oversized stock b. Control the diameter of thread cut c. To help start the die squarely on the round stock d. Allow threading up to a shoulder 2/27 44. The proper screw thread nomenclature, PITCH is the __________. a. Angle formed by adjacent flanks of a thread b. Number of threads divided by the length of the threaded portion of the screw c. Distance between corresponding point on adjacent thread d. Angle of taper formed by he centerline on the screw and crest of the thread 2/29 45. The master of person-in-charge of a vessel is required to submit a casually report of an international grounding under what condition? a. At the owners discretion b. If it creates a hazard to navigation c. If the grounding lasts over 49 hours d. Under any condition

2/30 46. During maneuvering situation and at bridge control mode, what precaution should be observed? a. Chief engineer office and the officer in charge of the engineering watch should be in the machinery space b. Chief engineer officer and second engineer officer must be at the bridge c. Second engineer officer and third engineer officer shall be doing maintenance d. Chief engineer officer should be at his cabin waiting the alarms to sound 2/33 47. All members of the engineering watch should have adequate knowledge of the ___________. I- Use of the appropriate internal communication II- Escape routes from machinery space III- Location of fire fighting equipments a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I, II and III 2/35 48. During relieving time, the outgoing in charge of the engineering watch should ___________. a. Check that the reliever is capable to carry out watch keeping duties b. Stop the main engine before relieving time c. Hand over the main engine telegraph d. Leave the engine room immediately 2/37 49. Gasket material/s used in Freon system is/are _________. I- Asbestos II- Rubber III- Metallic a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I and III 2/39 50. The thermo bulb of a solenoid valve in provision refrigeration is connected _________. a. Before the evaporator oil b. Inside the cooling chambers c. After the compression d. Outside the meat room 2/41 51. What is the reason why the bowl of a fuel oil purifier fails to open for sludge discharge? a. Clogged strainer of operating water high pressure side b. The operating water tank is full of water c. There is a mixture of sea water in the operating water line d. Too much speed of the purifier in the machinery spaces 2/43 52. What appropriate precaution should be taken when an engineer on duty enters a UMS- mode operated engine room due to an ALARM? a. Switch on the dead man upon entering the control room b. Leave the UMS selector switch to UMS mode c. Switch the engineers call alarm to notify other engines d. Do not silence the alarm so the other engineer coil hear 2/45 53. When opening pressure of a diesel fuel injector GREATER THAN that specified by the engine manufacturer, what is the expected effect? a. Quantity of the fuel injected tends to decrease b. Quantity of the fuel injected will always be increased c. Start of injection tends to advance

d. Duration of injection will always be longer 2/47 54. When the opening pressure of a diesel fuel injector is LOWER THAN that specified by the engine manufacturer, the _____________. a. Start of injection delayed b. Duration of injection reduced c. Quantity of fuel injected decreased d. Quantity of fuel injected increased 2/49 55. Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service? A. Copper B. Copper and carbon C. Carbon D. Bronze 2/51 56. A perfect vacuum is represented by _______. a. 30 in. Hg b. 24 in. Hg c. 15 in. Hg d. 10 in. Hg 2/53 57. What is the refrigerating effect that is equal to the melting of one ton ice in 24 hours? a. 288,000 BTU b. 188,000 BTU c. 388,000 BTU d. 488,000 BTU 2/55 58. In a diesel engine, the fuel consumption is expressed in __________. a. Grams per horsepower b. Tons per day c. Liters per horsepower per hour d. Kiloliters per day 2/57 59. Movement of the pump control rack in a fuel injection system having individual plunger type pumps __________. a. Changes the position of the fuel inlet ports b. Changes the length of the pump stroke c. Varies the quantity of fuel delivered d. Varies the compression of the delivery valve spring 2/59 60. Dirt lodged on the nozzle valve seat of a fuel injection nozzle will cause __________. a. Erosion of the nozzle orifices b. Fuel leakage into the nozzle drain line c. Fuel leakage before and after injection d. Insufficient fuel delivery through the nozzle 3/2 61. To anneal a copper is done by heating into a cherry red color and ____________. a. Dousing cold water b. Dousing in oil c. Cooling slowly in air d. Dousing in hot water 3/4 62. The maximum stress to which a material can be subjected without causing permanent deformation is called __________. a. Elasticity

b. Strain c. Modulus of Elasticity d. Elastic limit

3/6 63. Which of the following is NOT considered as ferrous metal? a. Steel b. Iron c. Cast iron d. Manganese 3/8 64. Which metal is boiled to the ships bull to preserve the steel against pitting? a. Zinc b. Lead c. Nickel d. Tin 3/10 65. Which of these kind of iron that have a composition of about 93% iron? a. Pig b. Wrought c. Cast d. Mild 3/12 66. A corrosion resistant metal is an alloy with large amount of nickel and _________. a. Chromium b. Vanadium c. Molybdenum d. Aluminum 3/14 67. Which of these ferrous metals is commonly used as cutting tools? a. High carbon steel b. Stainless steel c. Low carbon steel d. Medium carbon steel 3/16 68. Rapid identification of metal can be determined through the following physical observations? I- Surface appearance II- Reaction to magnet III- Length of the material a. I only b. II only c. I and II d. I and III 3/18 69. A kind of material that can be easily bent and cut and does NOT exhibit great tensile strength as compared with other materials: a. Cast iron b. Mild steel c. Tool steel d. Wrought iron 3/20 70. Which of the following is the property of a material that enables it to resist strain when stress is applied? a. Strength b. Brittleness c. Fatigue d. Hardness

3/22 71. It is the tendency of a material to suddenly break with little or no prior deformation: a. Brittleness b. Strength c. Toughness d. Malleability 3/24 72. A ductile and malleable metal usually corroded by air or water: a. Tin b. Aluminum c. Titanium d. Bronze 3/26 73. The variable gas pressure within the cylinders and connecting rod mechanisms during the working cycle creates ____________. a. Thrust bearing b. Flywheel c. Cross head d. Reduction gear 3/28 74. What metal is used as an alloying material in the manufacture of various special steels? a. Zinc b. Copper c. Titanium d. Vanadium 3/30 75. Brass is an alloy of copper and ____________. a. Manganese b. Zinc c. Tin d. Aluminum 3/32 76. What are hard brittle substances that are insoluble in water? a. Nylon b. Resin c. Glass reinforced plastics d. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) 3/34 77. What is the reduction of metals by chemical or electrochemical reactions within their surroundings? a. Erosion b. Friction c. Abrasion d. Corrosion 3/36 78. What kind of non metallic minerals can withstand very high temperatures and unaffected by steam petrol paraffin, fuel oil, and lubricants? a. Asbestos b. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) c. Lignum vitae d. Polytetraflourethylene (PTFE 3/38 79. What kind of metal that is light, strong and corrosion resistant usually is used as plate material in plane type heat exchanger? a. Bronze b. Aluminum c. Titanium

d. Bronze 3/40 80. What is the process of reheating hardened STEEL to temperature lower than the hardening temperatures and then cooling it? a. Hardening b. Normalizing c. Tempering d. Annealing 3/42 81. The internal force of a material, which leads to resist deformation when subjected to external force is known as _____________. a. Stress b. Strain c. Shear strength d. Tensile strength 3/44 82. The rate of heat transfer from the hot region to a cold region is affected most by the ____________. a. Size of heat sink b. Temperature differences between the regions c. Size of heat source d. Total heat of the system 3/46 83. The purpose of tampering is to make a metal ___________. a. Harder b. Softer c. Less brittle d. More brittle 3/48 84. The composition of babbit metal includes ____________. I- Tin II- Lead III- Antimony IV- Copper a. I, II and III b. II, III and IV c. I, III and IV d. I, II III, and IV 3/50 85. Which of these metals is usually used in incandescent lights aboard ship? a. Platinum b. Vanadium c. Cadmium d. Titanium 3/52 86. When other elements are added to iron during the refining process, the resulting metal is called ________. a. Carbon steel b. Alloy steel c. Pig iron d. Ferrous metal 3/54 87. Soft solder have relatively low melting point. These consists mainly of _________. a. Silver b. Lead c. Copper d. Nickel

3/56 88. In an oxyacetylene welding outfit, each cylinder has a regulator and two pressure gauges. One pressure gauge indicates cylinder pressure and the other is used to indicate the ____________. a. Tip pressure b. Hose pressure c. Upstream pressure d. Air pressure 3/58 89. When securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended period, you should close the _________. a. Hand valve on the torches only b. Cylinder valves only c. Cylinder valves and close torch valves with 4-5 pounds of pressure in hose d. Cylinder valves and close torch valves when pressure in hose and regulations in zero 3/60 90. To ensure a good weld, post heating is required whenever an are weld repair is made _____________. a. With straight polarity rod b. To cast component casting c. With a reverse polarity rod d. To a part of the ships main structure 3/62 91. Which of these listed metals has STRONG reaction to magnets? a. Iron b. Brass c. Zinc d. Bronze 3/64 92. The maximum stress applied to rupture a material is called ____________. a. Ultimate strength b. Elastic limit c. Compression strain d. Yield point 3/66 93. Which statement best defines DEPTH of cut lathe work? a. The distance to tool point advances with each revolution of the work b. The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the work piece c. The distance of the work piece circumference moves pass the cutting tool point in one minute d. The ship length that will be removed from the work in 1 minute 2/2 94. A follower rest should be used with a lathe to machine _________. a. Large diameter stock between center b. Threads on long slender shafts c. Work mounted on the lathe carriage d. Round stock to a finished dimension 2/4 95. To properly use a lathe crotch center to drill an oil hole in a brushing, you should mount the crotch center in the ________. a. Compound test b. Headstock c. Tailstock d. Chuck 2/6 96. The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is that the latter _____. a. Is more easily centered b. Has a headless set screw c. Has a spring loaded catch d. Allows for misaligned center holes

2/8 97. When an engineer on duty is inspecting a UMS-mode operated engine room at NIGHT, what precaution should be taken? a. Leave the UMS selector switch to UMS-mode b. Switch the engineers call alarm to notify other engineer c. Do not silence the alarm so the other engineer can hear d. Switch on the dead man alarm upon entering the control room 1/2 98. What is the purpose of the pneumatic pressure tank in a sanitary system? a. Provide higher pressure b. Reduce pressure fluctuation c. Increase water flow d. Prevent losing suction 1/4 99. The effect of defective injector nozzle in D.E is: a. Poor combustion b. High exhaust temperature c. Smoky exhaust d. Late injection 1/6 100. Water is a form of refrigerant known as: a. NH3 b. R-718 c. CO2 d. R-12