1. t? a. b. c. d. 2. a. b. c. d. 3. a. b. c. d. 4. a. b. c. d.

Which of the following arteries primarily feeds the anterior wall of the hear Circumflex artery Internal mammary artery Left anterior descending artery Right coronary artery When do coronary arteries primarily receive blood flow? During inspiration During diastole During expiration During systole Which of the following illnesses is the leading cause of death in the US? Cancer Coronary artery disease Liver failure Renal failure Which of the following conditions most commonly results in CAD? Atherosclerosis DM MI Renal failure

5. Atherosclerosis impedes coronary blood flow by which of the following mechani sms? a. Plaques obstruct the vein b. Plaques obstruct the artery c. Blood clots form outside the vessel wall d. Hardened vessels dilate to allow the blood to flow through 6. Which of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease cannot be cor rected? a. Cigarette smoking b. DM c. Heredity d. HPN 7. Exceeding which of the following serum cholesterol levels significantly incre ases the risk of coronary artery disease? a. 100 mg/dl b. 150 mg/dl c. 175 mg/dl d. 200 mg/dl 8. Which of the following actions is the first priority care for a client exhibi ting signs and symptoms of coronary artery disease? a. Decrease anxiety b. Enhance myocardial oxygenation c. Administer sublignual nitroglycerin d. Educate the client about his symptoms 9. Medical treatment of coronary artery disease includes which of the following procedures? a. Cardiac catheterization b. Coronary artery bypass surgery c. Oral medication administration d. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty

10. Prolonged occlusion of the right coronary artery produces an infarction in w hich of he following areas of the heart? a. Anterior b. Apical c. Inferior d. Lateral 11. Which of the following is the most common symptom of myocardial infarction? a. Chest pain b. Dyspnea c. Edema d. Palpitations 12. Which of the following landmarks is the corect one for obtaining an apical p ulse? a. Left intercostal space, midaxillary line b. Left fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line c. Left second intercostal space, midclavicular line d. Left seventh intercostal space, midclavicular line 13. Which of the following systems is the most likely origin of pain the client describes as knifelike chest pain that increases in intensity with inspiration? a. Cardiac b. Gastrointestinal c. Musculoskeletal d. Pulmonary 14. A murmur is heard at the second left intercostal space along the left sterna l border. Which valve area is this? a. Aortic b. Mitral c. Pulmonic d. Tricuspid 15. Which of the following blood tests is most indicative of cardiac damage? a. Lactate dehydrogenase b. Complete blood count c. Troponin I d. Creatine kinase 16. What is the primary reason for administering morphine to a client with myoca rdial infarction? a. To sedate the client b. To decrease the client's pain c. To decrease the client's anxiety d. To decrease oxygen demand on the client's heart 17. Which of the followng conditions is most commonly responsible for myocardial infarction? a. Aneurysm b. Heart failure c. Coronary artery thrombosis d. Renal failure 18. What supplemental medication is most frequently ordered in conjuction with f urosemide (Lasix)? a. Chloride b. Digoxin c. Potassium

d. Sodium 19. After myocardial infarction, serum glucose levels and free fatty acids are b oth increase. What type of physiologic changes are these? a. Electrophysiologic b. Hematologic c. Mechanical d. Metabolic 20. Which of the following complications is indicated by a third heart sound (S3 )? a. Ventricular dilation b. Systemic hypertension c. Aortic valve malfunction d. Increased atrial contractions 21. After an anterior wall myocardial infarction, which of the following problem s is indicated by auscultation of crackles in the lungs? a. Left-sided heart failure b. Pulmonic valve malfunction c. Right-sided heart failure d. Tricuspid valve malfunction 22. Which of the following diagnostic tools is most commonly used to determine t he location of myocardial damage? a. Cardiac catheterization b. Cardiac enzymes c. Echocardiogram d. Electrocardiogram 23. What is the first intervention for a client experiencing myocardial infarcti on? a. Administer morphine b. Administer oxygen c. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin d. Obtain an electrocardiogram 24. What is the most appropriate nursing response to a myocardial infarction cli ent who is fearful of dying? a. "Tell me about your feeling right now." b. "When the doctor arrives, everything will be fine." c. "This is a bad situation, but you'll feel better soon." d. "Please be assured we're doing everything we can to make you feel better." 25. Which of the following classes of medications protects the ischemic myocardi um by blocking catecholamines and sympathetic nerve stimulation? a. Beta-adrenergic blockers b. Calcium channel blockers c. Narcotics d. Nitrates 26. What is the most common complication of a myocardial infarction? a. Cardiogenic shock b. Heart failure c. Arrhythmias d. Pericarditis 27. With which of the following disorders is jugular vein distention most promin ent? a. Abdominal aortic aneurysm

b. Heart failure c. Myocardial infarction d. Pneumothorax 28. What position should the nurse place the head of the bed in to obtain the mo st accurate reading of jugular vein distention? a. High-fowler's b. Raised 10 degrees c. Raised 30 degrees d. Supine position 29. Which of the following parameters should be checked before administering dig oxin? a. Apical pulse b. Blood pressure c. Radial pulse d. Respiratory rate 30. Toxicity from which of the following medications may cause a client to see a green halo around lights? a. Digoxin b. Furosemide c. Metoprolol d. Enalapril 31. Which ofthe following symptoms is most commonly associated with left-sided h eart failure? a. Crackles b. Arrhythmias c. Hepatic engorgement d. Hypotension 32. In which of the following disorders would the nurse expect to assess sacral eddema in bedridden client? a. DM b. Pulmonary emboli c. Renal failure d. Right-sided heart failure 33. Which of the following symptoms might a client with right-sided heart failur e exhibit? a. Adequate urine output b. Polyuria c. Oliguria d. Polydipsia 34. Which of the following classes of medications maximizes cardiac performance in clients with heat failure by increasing ventricular contractility? a. Beta-adrenergic blockers b. Calcium channel blockers c. Diuretics d. Inotropic agents 35. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system produces which of the followin g responses? a. Bradycardia b. Tachycardia c. Hypotension d. Decreased myocardial contractility

36. Which of the following conditions is most closely associated with weight gai n, nausea, and a decrease in urine output? a. Angina pectoris b. Cardiomyopathy c. Left-sided heart failure d. Right-sided heart failure 37. What is the most common cause of abdominal aortic aneurysm? a. Atherosclerosis b. DM c. HPN d. Syphilis 38. In which of the following areas is an abdominal aortic aneurysm most commonl y located? a. Distal to the iliac arteries b. Distal to the renal arteries c. Adjacent to the aortic branch d. Proximal to the renal arteries 39. A pulsating abdominal mass usually indicates which of the following conditio ns? a. Abdominal aortic aneurysm b. Enlarged spleen c. Gastic distention d. Gastritis 40. Which of the following heart muscle diseases is unrelated to other cardiovas cular disease? a. Cardiomyopathy b. Coronary artery disease c. Myocardial infarction d. Pericardial Effusion 41. Which of the following types of cardiomyopathy can be associated with childb irth? a. Dilated b. Hypertrophic c. Myocarditis d. Restrictive 42. Septal involvement occurs in which type of cardiomyopathy? a. Congestive b. Dilated c. Hypertrophic d. Restrictive 43. Which of the following recurring conditions most commonly occurs in clients with cardiomyopathy? a. Heart failure b. DM c. MI d. Pericardial effusion 44. What is the term used to describe an enlargement of the heart muscle? a. Cardiomegaly b. Cardiomyopathy c. Myocarditis d. Pericarditis

45. Dyspnea, cough, expectoration, weakness, and edema are classic signs and sym ptoms of which of the following conditions? a. Pericarditis b. Hypertension c. Obliterative d. Restricitve 46. Which of the following cardiac conditions does a fourth heart sound (S4) ind icate? a. Dilated aorta b. Normally functioning heart c. Decreased myocardial contractility d. Failure of the ventricle to eject all the blood during systole 47. Which of the following classes of drugs is most widely used in the treatment of cardiomyopathy? a. Antihypertensive b. Beta-adrenergic blockers c. Calcium channel blockers d. Nitrates 48. Before administering digoxin (Lanoxin), what is the most important action fo r the nurse to take? A. Provide foods high in potassium (K+). B. Take the client's blood pressure. C. Take an apical pulse. D. Weigh the client daily. 49. The client is complaining of a headache after administration of nitroglyceri ne. What should the nurse instruct the client to do? A. Decrease the nitroglycerine dose. B. Do not take the next scheduled dose of nitroglycerine. C. Lie down in a cool environment and rest. D. Tell a healthcare worker immediately. 50. The client is diagnosed with angina. What should the nurse teach the client about taking Nitroglycerine SL? A. After taking one SL NTG without a relief of symptoms, the client should call his doctor. B. Carry NTG in your pocket when you leave the house. C. Replace the NTG every year. D. Take NTG before exercising to prevent angina from occurring. 51. What should the nurse have available if the patient receives an overdose of heparin? A. Iron. B. Platelets. C. Protamine Sulfate. D. Vitamin K. 52. A client has just returned from a cardiac catheterization. Nursing care for this client would include which of the following options? A. Check the extremity, distal to catheterization site for color, temperature, p ulse, and capillary refill. B. Keep the extremity bent at a 45 angle immediately postoperative. C. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 45. D. Place a loose dressing over the catheterization site. 53. Dyspnea, edema, fatigue, and tachycardia are clinical manifestations of whic h of the following? A. Asthma. B. Aortic valve regurgitation. C. Heart failure. D. Pneumonia. 54. Which of the following is a manifestation of chronic venous insufficiency?

A. Dry, necrotic ulcers in the feet. B. Edema. C. Hair loss. D. Thick, deformed toenails. 55. Which of the following may contribute to deep vein thrombosis? A. Dehydration, immobility, and oral contraceptives. B. Dehydration, oral contraceptives, and a high intake of calcium. C. Hypertension, immobility, and dehydration. D. Immobility, diabetes, and digoxin (Lanoxin). 56. When auscultating a client's heart sounds, the nurse hears turbulence occurr ing between the S1 and S2 heart sounds. The nurse recognizes this finding as ind icative of which of the following? A. Cardiac murmurs. B. Fourth heart sound (S4). C. Normal heart sounds. D. Third heart sound (S3). 57. A P wave on an ECG represents an impulse that begins in which of the followi ng? A. In the AV node and depolarizes the atria. B. In the AV node and repolarizes the atria. C. In the SA node and depolarizes the atria. D. In the SA node and repolarizes the atria. 58. Unmodifiable risk factors for a client with coronary artery disease include which of the following? A. Age. B. Cigarette smoking. C. Hypertension. D. Physical inactivity. 59. A client in the hospital with angina tells his nurse that he is having chest pain. What does the nurse understand this to mean? A. The client's symptoms are associated with irreversible cardiac muscle damage. B. The client is experiencing a heart attack. C. The client will have pain relief with rest, nitroglycerine, or both. D. The client will have ST changes on the ECG. 60. Antiplatelet aggregation therapy is a first line of treatment for which of t he following? A. Angina. B. Arrhythmia. C. Pulmonary embolus. D. Valve disease. 61. A client in the CCU is complaining of chest pain. He categorizes his chest p ain as a 6 (on a 1 to 10 scale). His BP is 108/72. The nurse gives the client NTG 1/150 sublingual. After 5 minutes, the client states that his chest pain is now a 2. What should the nurse do next? A. Administer another NTG. B. Check the blood pressure. C. Check the pulse rate. D. Obtain an EKG. 62. A client is experiencing shortness of breath in the supine position, fatigue , jugular vein distention, and a third heart sound (S3). The nurse concludes tha t these are signs and symptoms of which of the following? A. Coronary artery disease. B. Heart failure. C. Hypertension. D. Valvular heart disease. 63. Which diuretic is a potassium sparing diuretic? A. Furosemide (Lasix). B. 2.. Hydrochlorothiazide (Esidrix). C. Mannitol (Osmitrol).

D. Spironolactone (Aldactone). 64. Which anticoagulant requires less laboratory monitoring and is often used to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) following total knee or hip surgery? A. Aspirin. B. Enoxaparin (Lovonox). C. Heparin. D. Warfarin sodium (Coumadin). 65. Which is the antidote for a severe warfarin (Coumadin) overdose? A. Protamine zinc. B. Protamine sulfate. C. Vitamin E. D. Vitamin K. 66. Nursing considerations when administering digoxin (Lanoxin) to an adult incl ude which of the following? A. Holding the medication if the heart rate is above 100 beats per minute. B. Instructing the client to eat foods that are low in potassium. C. Taking an apical pulse for 15 seconds before administration. D. Understanding that signs and symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and anorexia need to be reported to the physician. 67. A client comes to the ER and states that she has had chest pain lasting for 10 minutes after walking up the steps. After resting, her pain subsided. Which o f the following is the client experiencing? A. Acute myocardial infarction. B. Angina. C. Heart failure. D. Pneumothorax. 68. Which of the following assessment findings by the nurse indicates right vent ricular failure? A. A dry hacking cough. B. Jugular vein distention. C. Nocturia. D. Pulmonary edema. 69. When checking capillary refill on a client, the color returns to normal in 1 0 seconds. The nurse understands that this finding is indicative of which of the following? A. Impaired arterial blood flow to the extremities. B. Impaired venous blood flow to the extremities. C. Normal capillary refill time. D. Thrombus formation in the vein. 70. The nurse is giving warfarin (Coumadin) to a client with atrial fibrillation . What does the nurse understand the implications of this medication to be? A. Coumadin is helpful in converting atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm. B. Coumadin is used to dissolve clots. C. Coumadin is used to prevent heart attacks in clients with atrial fibrillation . D. Coumadin is used to prevent strokes in clients with atrial fibrillation. dri sa fb ra naq gi send.