Blake Summary

Chapter 1: Introduction to Communication Systems
TRUE/FALSE

1. The first electronic communications device was the telephone.
ANS: F
2. Transatlantic radio communication started in 1901.
ANS: T
3. A communication system may or may not include a channel.
ANS: F
4. "Baseband" refers to the basic carrier frequency band.
ANS: F
5. Putting an information signal onto a carrier is called "modulation".
ANS: T
6. The carrier frequency is higher than the highest baseband frequency.
ANS: T
7. A modulated carrier occupies a band of frequencies.
ANS: T
8. "Detection" is another term for demodulation.
ANS: T
9. The amount of information per second that can be sent is independent of bandwidth.
ANS: F
10. It is possible to combine FDM and TDM in the same system.
ANS: T
11. For radio signals, longer wavelength means higher frequency.
ANS: F
12. Noise is easily removed from an analog signal by using filters.
ANS: F
13. As long as a one can be distinguished from a zero, a digital signal corrupted by noise can be restored
to its original form.
ANS: T
14. Audio signals are in the time-domain, but radio signals are in the frequency domain.
ANS: F
15. Any periodic AC signal contains an infinite series of harmonic frequencies.
ANS: T
16. Every term in a Fourier series must be used in calculations.
ANS: F
17. All noise in a system can be eliminated by using good grounding and shielding.
ANS: F
18. The sparking brushes of a DC motor can cause radio frequency noise.
ANS: T
19. Signals with fast rise and fall times can cause radio frequency noise.
ANS: T
20. Digital systems such as computers are not affected by noise.
ANS: F
21. Every component in an electronic system generates noise.
ANS: T

22. The hotter a component gets, the more noise it will generate.
ANS: T
23. "Shot" noise creates a "noise current" in an electronic device such as a transistor.
ANS: T
24. "Flicker" noise is worst at radio frequencies.
ANS: F
25. Signal-to-noise ratio is more important than noise power.
ANS: T
26. With cascaded stages in a communication system, the noise from the first stage is the least
important.
ANS: F
27. Due to the frequency, a radio signal requires a "real-time" analyzer to look at the spectrum.
ANS: F

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The theory of radio waves was originated by:
a. Marconi c. Maxwell
b. Bell d. Hertz
2. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was:
b. Bell d. Hertz
3. The transmission of radio waves was first done by:
b. Bell d. Hertz
4. A complete communication system must include:
a. a transmitter and receiver
b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel
c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer
d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel
5. Radians per second is equal to:
a. 2t f
c. the phase angle
b. f 2t d. none of the above
6. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on:
a. the carrier frequency c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio
b. the signal-to-noise ratio d. the baseband frequency range
7. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called:
a. sub-channeling c. SINAD
b. signal switching d. multiplexing
8. TDM stands for:
a. Time-Division Multiplexing c. Time Domain Measurement
b. Two-level Digital Modulation d. none of the above

9. FDM stands for:
a. Fast Digital Modulation c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing
b. Frequency Domain Measurement d
.
none of the above
10. The wavelength of a radio signal is:
a. equal to f c
b. equal to c
c. the distance a wave travels in one period
d. how far the signal can travel without distortion
11. Distortion is caused by:
a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies
b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other
c. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies
d. all of the above
12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its:
a. frequency-domain representation c. spectrum
b. Fourier series d. all of the above
13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is:
a. approximately 3 kHz c. at least 5 kHz
b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz d. none of the above
14. Noise in a communication system originates in:
a. the sender c. the channel
b. the receiver d. all of the above

15. "Man-made" noise can come from:
a. equipment that sparks c. static
b. temperature d. all of the above
16. Thermal noise is generated in:
a. transistors and diodes c. copper wire
b. resistors d. all of the above
17. Shot noise is generated in:
a. transistors and diodes c. copper wire
b. resistors d. none of the above
18. The power density of "flicker" noise is:
a. the same at all frequencies c. greater at low frequencies
b. greater at high frequencies d. the same as "white" noise
19. So called "1/f" noise is also called:
a. random noise c. white noise
b. pink noise d. partition noise
20. "Pink" noise has:
a. equal power per Hertz c. constant power
b. equal power per octave d. none of the above

21. When two noise voltages, V
1
and V
2
, are combined, the total voltage V
T
is:
a. V
T
= sqrt(V
1
V
1
+ V
2
V
2
)
c. V
T
= sqrt(V
1
V
2
)
b. V
T
= (V
1
+ V
2
)/2 d. V
T
= V
1
+ V
2

22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as:
a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage
b. signal power divided by noise power
c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power
d. none of the above
23. SINAD is calculated as:
a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage
b. signal power divided by noise power
c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power
24. Noise Figure is a measure of:
a. how much noise is in a communications system
b. how much noise is in the channel
c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal
d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB
25. The part, or parts, of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are:
a. its amplitude c. its amplitude, frequency, and
direction
b. its amplitude and frequency d. its amplitude, frequency, and phase
angle
COMPLETION
1. The telephone was invented in the year ____________________.
ANS: 1863
2. Radio signals first were sent across the Atlantic in the year ____________________.
ANS: 1901
3. The frequency band used to modulate the carrier is called the ____________________ band.
ANS: base
4. The job of the carrier is to get the information through the ____________________.
ANS: channel
5. The bandwidth of an unmodulated carrier is ____________________.
ANS: zero
6. The 'B' in Hartley's Law stands for _________________.
ANS: bandwidth
7. The more information per second you send, the ____________________ the bandwidth required.
ANS: greater/larger/wider
8. In ____________________, you split the bandwidth of a channel into sub-channels to carry multiple
signals.
ANS: FDM
9. In ____________________, multiple signal streams take turns using the channel.
ANS: TDM
10. VHF stands for the ____________________ frequency band.
ANS: very high
11. The VHF band starts at ____________________ MHz.
ANS: 30
12. The UHF band starts at ____________________ MHz.
ANS: 300
13. A radio signal's ____________________ is the distance it travels in one cycle of the carrier.
ANS: wavelength
14. In free space, radio signals travel at approximately ____________________ meters per second.
ANS: 300 million
15. The equipment used to show signals in the frequency domain is the _________________________.
ANS: spectrum analyzer
16. Mathematically, a spectrum is represented by a ____________________ series.
ANS: Fourier
17. Disabling a receiver during a burst of atmospheric noise is called ____________________.
ANS: noise blanking /blanking
18. For satellite communications, ____________________ noise can be a serious problem.
ANS: solar
19. Thermal noise is caused by the random motions of ____________________ in a conductor.
ANS: electrons

SHORT ANSWER
1. Name the five elements in a block diagram of a communications system.
ANS: Source, Transmitter, Channel, Receiver, Destination
2. Name five types of internal noise.
ANS: Thermal, Shot, Partition, 1/f, transit-time
3. Why is thermal noise called "white noise"?
ANS: White light is composed of equal amounts of light at all visible frequencies. Likewise,
thermal noise has equal power density over a wide range of frequencies.
4. What is "pink noise"?
ANS: Light is pink when it contains more red than it does other colors, and red is at the low end
of the visible spectrum. Likewise, pink noise has higher power density at lower frequencies.
5. Suppose there is 30 V from one noise source that is combined with 40 V from another noise source.
Calculate the total noise voltage.
ANS: 50 V
6. If you have 100 mV of signal and 10 mV of noise, both across the same 100-ohm load, what is the
signal-to-noise ratio in dB?
ANS: 20 dB
7. The input to an amplifier has a signal-to-noise ratio of 100 dB and an output signal-to-noise ratio of 80
dB. Find NF, both in dB and as a ratio.
ANS: 20 dB, NF = 100
8. A microwave receiver has a noise temperature of 145 K. Find its noise figure.
ANS: 1.5
9. Two cascaded amplifiers each have a noise figure of 5 and a gain of 10. Find the total NF for the pair.
ANS: 5.4
10. Explain why you could use a diode as a noise source with a spectrum close to that of pure thermal
noise. How would you control the amount of noise generated?
ANS: When current flows through a diode, it generates shot noise that can be represented as
a current source, the output of which is a noise current. The equation for the noise current is very similar
to the equation for thermal noise voltage. Since the power in the shot noise is proportional to the diode
current, controlling the diode current controls the noise power.

Chapter 2: Radio-Frequency Circuits

TRUE/FALSE

1. In general, components behave the same at 20 MHz as they do at 1 kHz.
ANS: F
2. Stray capacitance is important in high-frequency amplifiers.
ANS: T
3. Microwave-frequency circuits look much different from circuits designed for 1 MHz.
ANS: T
4. All electronic devices have both capacitive and inductive properties.
ANS: T
5. As frequency increases, capacitive effects decrease.
ANS: F
6. At some frequency, a capacitor will self-resonate with the inductance of its leads.
ANS: T
7. An "unstable" amplifier is one that oscillates, or is close to oscillating.
ANS: T
8. Base-to-emitter capacitance can cause a common-emitter amplifier to oscillate.
ANS: F
9. "Distributed Constants" refers to a mathematical operation to calculate gain.
ANS: F
10. "Shielding" prevents RF signals from coupling between components in a system.
ANS: T
11. A "ground-plane" is a type of shielding.
ANS: T
12. A "gimmick" is a type of shielding.
ANS: F
13. Removing any RF signals off the V
CC
lines is an example of "decoupling".
ANS: T
14. Decoupling usually involves a "bypass" capacitor.
ANS: T
15. Basically, radio-frequency amplifiers cannot be distinguished from other amplifiers.
ANS: F
16. Resonant circuits are common in RF amplifiers.
ANS: T
17. Increasing the load on a tuned amplifier increases its Q.
ANS: F
18. In a common-emitter amplifier, the collector-base capacitance "looks" bigger than it is.
ANS: T
19. The Miller Effect only occurs in common-base amplifiers.
ANS: F
20. The Miller Effect can reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier.
ANS: T
21. The Miller Effect can be reduced using neutralization.
ANS: T
22. A piezoelectric crystal behaves like a very low-Q tuned circuit.
ANS: F
23. The frequency of a crystal oscillator is much more stable than an LC oscillator.
ANS: T
24. Mixers must be nonlinear in order to work.
ANS: T
25. A mixer will produce "sum and difference" frequencies.
ANS: T

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the collector is called:
a. base time c. charge time
b. transit time d. Miller time
2. A real capacitor actually contains:
a. capacitance and resistance only c. capacitance, inductance, and
resistance
b. capacitance and inductance only d. reactance only
3. Bypass capacitors are used to:
a. remove RF from non-RF circuits c. neutralize amplifiers
b. couple RF around an amplifier d. reduce the Miller effect
4. A resonant circuit is:
a. a simple form of bandpass filter c. both a and b
b. used in narrowband RF amplifiers d. none of the above
5. Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will:
a. raise the Q of the tuned circuit c. "multiply" the Q
b. lower the Q of the tuned circuit d. have no effect on Q
6. The "Miller Effect" can:
a. cause an amplifier to oscillate c. reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier
b. cause an amplifier to lose gain d. all of the above
7. The Miller Effect can be avoided by:
a. using a common-emitter amplifier c. increasing the Q of the tuned circuit
b. using a common-base amplifier d. it cannot be avoided
8. In a BJT, the Miller Effect is due to:
a. inductance of collector lead c. base-to-emitter capacitance
b. collector-to-emitter capacitance d. base-to-collector capacitance
9. In RF amplifiers, impedance matching is usually done with:
a. RC coupling c. direct coupling
b. transformer coupling d. lumped reactance
10. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by:
a. adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback
b. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane
c. decoupling it
11. For a "frequency multiplier" to work, it requires:
a. a nonlinear circuit
b. a linear amplifier
c. a signal containing harmonics
12. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires:
a. loop gain equal to unity
b. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees
c. both a and b, but at just one frequency
13. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called:
a. the loop-gain criteria c. the Bode criteria
b. the Hartley criteria d. the Barkhausen criteria
14. The Hartley oscillator uses:
a. a tapped inductor c. an RC time constant
b. a two-capacitor divider d. a piezoelectric crystal
15. The Colpitts VFO uses:
a. a tapped inductor c. an RC time constant
b. a two-capacitor divider d. a piezoelectric crystal
16. The Clapp oscillator is:
a. a modified Hartley oscillator c. a type of crystal-controlled oscillator
b. a modified Colpitts oscillator d. only built with FETs
17. A varactor is:
a. a voltage-controlled capacitor c. used in tuner circuits
b. a diode d. all of the above

18. Crystal-Controlled oscillators are:
a. used for a precise frequency
b. used for very low frequency drift (parts per million)
c. made by grinding quartz to exact dimensions
d. all of the above

19. If two signals, V
a
= sin(e
a
t) and V
b
= sin(e
b
t), are fed to a mixer, the output:
a. will contain e
1
= e
a
+ e
b
and e
2
= e
a
e
b

b. will contain e
1
= e
a
/ e
b
and e
2
= e
b
/ e
a

c. will contain e = (e
a
+ e
b
) / 2

20. In a balanced mixer, the output:
a. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies
b. contains the input frequencies
c. does not contain the input frequencies
d. is a linear mixture of the input signals

21. "VFO" stands for:
a. Voltage-Fed Oscillator c. Varactor-Frequency Oscillator
b. Variable-Frequency Oscillator d. Voltage-Feedback Oscillator

22. A "frequency synthesizer" is:
a. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency
b. a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency
c. a fixed-frequency RF generator
d. same as a mixer

COMPLETION

1. Generally, conductor lengths in RF circuits should be ____________________.
ANS: short
2. At UHF frequencies and above, elements must be considered as ____________________ instead of
as being "lumped".
ANS: distributed
3. When one side of a double-sided pc board is used for ground, it is called a ____________________.
ANS: ground-plane
4. Interactions between parts of an RF circuit can be reduced by using ____________________
between them.
ANS: shielding
5. In high-frequency RF circuits, the placement of wires and ____________________ can be critical.
ANS: components
6. A ____________________ circuit is used to remove RF from the DC voltage bus.
ANS: decoupling
7. A ____________________ capacitor is used to short unwanted RF to ground.
ANS: bypass
8. The bandwidth of a tuned-circuit amplifier depends on the ____________________ of the tuned
circuit.
ANS: Q
9. A value of ____________________ or more for Q is required for the approximate tuned circuit
equations to be valid.
ANS: 10
10. In a class C RF amplifier, the ____________________ extracts one frequency from all the harmonics
contained in the device current (e.g. collector current).
ANS: tuned circuit
11. Using additional feedback to compensate for "stray" feedback is called ____________________.
ANS: neutralization
12. A Colpitts oscillator uses a ____________________ voltage divider to provide feedback.
ANS: capacitive
13. Electrically, a piezoelectric crystal has both a ____________________ and a
____________________ resonant frequency.
ANS: series, parallel
14. To produce sum and difference frequencies, a mixer must be a non-____________________ circuit.
ANS: linear
15. At some bias point, a diode or a transistor can act as a ____________________-law mixer.
ANS: square

SHORT ANSWER

1. What inductance would you use with a 47-pF capacitor to make a tuned circuit for 10 MHz?
ANS: 5.4 H
2. What value of Q is required for a 10-MHz tuned circuit to have a bandwidth of 100 kHz?
ANS: 100
3. A tuned-circuit amplifier with a gain of 10 is being used to make an oscillator. What should be the
value of the feedback ratio to satisfy the Barkhausen criteria?
ANS: 0.1
4. What is the advantage of a Clapp oscillator compared to a Colpitts oscillator?
ANS: It is more stable because it "swamps" the device capacitance with large value
capacitors in the feedback divider.
5. If a varactor has a capacitance of 90 pF at zero volts, what will be the capacitance at 4 volts?
ANS: 30 pF
6. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz at 20C, and a tempco of +10 ppm per degree Celsius.
What will be the shift in frequency at 70C? What percentage is that?
ANS: 50 kHz, 0.05%
7. Two sinusoidal signals, V
1
and V
2
, are fed into an ideal balanced mixer. V
1
is a 20-MHz signal; V
2
is a
5-MHz signal. What frequencies would you expect at the output of the mixer?
ANS: 15 MHz and 25 MHz
8. Suppose the phase-locked-loop frequency synthesizer of Figure 2.39 has a reference frequency of 1
MHz and a fixed-modulus divider of 10. What should be the value of the programmable divider to get
an output frequency of 120 MHz?
ANS: 12
Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation

TRUE/FALSE

1. It is easy to modulate and demodulate a carrier using AM.
ANS: T
2. AM makes efficient use of transmitter power.
ANS: F
3. AM signals are affected by relatively low levels of electrical noise.
ANS: T
4. The "envelope" of an AM signal resembles the modulating signal.
ANS: T
5. AM works by varying the carrier power.
ANS: F
6. Modulation is not a linear process.
ANS: T
7. In AM, the amplitude of the carrier changes in step with the modulation.
ANS: F
8. Mathematically, AM involves multiplication of the carrier by the information signal.
ANS: T
9. Sideband power is a linear function of the modulation index.
ANS: F
10. The modulation index should be greater than 1 for best efficiency.
ANS: F
11. Overmodulation produces "splatter".
ANS: T
12. Modulation index can be derived from a time-domain view of the AM signal.
ANS: T
13. Modulation index can be derived from a frequency-domain view of the AM signal.
ANS: T
14. In AM, the lower baseband frequencies are in the LSB and the higher baseband frequencies are in the
USB.
ANS: F
15. The upper sideband contains the same information as the lower sideband.
ANS: T
16. In AM, most of the power is in the sidebands.
ANS: F
17. In plain AM, the job of the carrier is to allow simple demodulation.
ANS: T
18. The upper sideband has twice the power of the lower sideband.
ANS: F
19. In AM, only one information signal can be sent on any given frequency.
ANS: F
20. It is possible to transmit stereo audio signals using AM.
ANS: T
21. SSBSC is derived from DSBSC.
ANS: T
22. SSB AM requires twice the bandwidth of plain AM.
ANS: F
23. SSB AM is much more efficient than plain AM.
ANS: T
24. To see an envelope in SSB AM, at least two modulating audio tones are required.
ANS: T
25. AM has inherently worse fidelity than FM.
ANS: F

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. AM stands for:
a. Audio Modulation c. Angle Modulation
b. Amplitude Modulation d. Antenna Modulation

2. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to:
a. the baseband signal c. the amplitude signal
b. the carrier signal d. none of the above

3. If the audio V
a
sin(e
a
t) modulates the carrier V
c
sin(e
c
t), then the modulation index, m, is:
a. m = e
a
/ e
c
c. m = (V
a
/ V
c
)
2

b
.
m = V
a
/ V
c
d. m = V
a
/ e
a

4. The equation for full-carrier AM is:
a. v(t) = (E
c
+ E
m
) sin(e
c
t) c. v(t) = (E
c
E
m
) sin(e
m
t) sin(e
c
t)
b. v(t) = (E
c
+ E
m
) sin(e
m
t) + sin(e
c
t) d
.
v(t) = (E
c
+ E
m
sin(e
m
t)) sin(e
c
t)
5. Overmodulation causes:
a. distortion c. both a and b
b. splatter d. none of the above

6. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from E
max
to E
min
. The modulation index, m, is:
a. m = E
min
/ E
max
c. m = (E
max
E
min
) / (E
max
+ E
min
)
b. m = E
max
/ E
min
d. m = (E
max
+ E
min
) / (E
max
E
min
)

7. If V
a
sin(e
a
t) amplitude modulates the carrier V
c
sin(e
c
t), it will produce the frequencies:
a. e
c
+ e
a
and e
c
e
a

c. e
c
+ e
a
and 2e
c
+ 2e
a

b. (e
c
+ e
a
)/2 and (e
c
e
a
)/2 d. none of the above

8. At 100% modulation, the total sideband power is:
a. equal to the carrier power c. half the carrier power
b. twice the carrier power d. 1.414 carrier power

9. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier, the bandwidth of the AM signal will be:
a. 5 kHz c. 1.005 MHz
b
.
10 kHz d. none of the above
10. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index, you would expect:
a. the audio to get louder at the receiver c. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase
b. the received RF signal to increase d
.
all of the above
11. The modulation index can be derived from:
a. the time-domain signal c. both a and b
b. the frequency-domain signal d. none of the above

12. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be:
a. requires too much bandwidth c. incompatibility with ordinary AM radios
b. requires too much power d. all of the above

13. As compared to plain AM, SSB AM:
a. is more efficient
b. requires a more complex demodulator circuit
c. requires less bandwidth
d
.
all of the above
14. The SC in SSB SC stands for:
a. single-carrier c. sideband-carrier
b
.
suppressed-carrier d. none of the above
15. PEP stands for:
a. Peak Envelope Power c. Peak Envelope Product
b. Peak Efficiency Power d. none of the above

16. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation, what will it radiate with no modulation?
a. 1000 watts c. 250 watts
b. 500 watts d
.
0 watts
17. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because:
a. AM is susceptible to noise
b. commercial AM stations use low power
c. commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth
d. all of the above

18. The type of information that can be sent using AM is:
a. audio c. digital data
b. video d
.
all of the above
19. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. One tone causes a modulation index of m
1
and the other tone
causes a modulation index of m
2
. The total modulation index is:
a. m
1
+ m
2
c. sqrt(m
1
m
2
+ m
2
m
1
)
b. (m
1
+ m
2
) / 2 d
.
sqrt(m
1
m
1
+ m
2
m
2
)
20. To demodulate a USB SSB signal, the receiver must:
a. be set to USB mode c. both a and b
b. reinsert the carrier d. none of the above

COMPLETION

1. An advantage of AM is that the receiver can be very ____________________.
ANS: simple
2. A disadvantage of AM is its ____________________ use of power.
ANS: inefficient
3. The ____________________ of an AM signal resembles the shape of the baseband signal.
ANS: envelope
4. In AM, modulating with a single audio tone produces ____________________ sidebands.
ANS: two
5. Compared to the USB, the information in the LSB is ____________________.
ANS: the same
6. Compared to the USB, the power in the LSB is ____________________.
ANS: the same
7. In AM, total sideband power is always ____________________ than the carrier power.
ANS: less
8. In AM, as the modulation index increases, the carrier power _________________________.
ANS: remains constant
9. The power in an AM signal is maximum when the modulation index is ____________________.
ANS: one
10. In AM, a voice-band signal of 300 Hz to 3000 Hz will require a bandwidth of ____________________.
ANS: 6000 Hz
11. With a 1-MHz carrier, if the LSB extends down to 990 kHz, then the USB will extend up to
____________________.
ANS: 1010 kHz
12. If an AM transmitter puts out 100 watts with no modulation, it will put out ____________________
watts with 100% modulation.
ANS: 150

SHORT ANSWER

1. An AM transmitter generates 100 watts with 0% modulation. How much power will it generate with
20% modulation?
ANS: 102 watts

2. If the carrier power is 1000 watts, what is the power in the USB at 70.7% modulation?
ANS: 125 watts

3. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones. If the modulation indexes for the tones are 0.3, 0.4, and
0.5, then what is the total modulation index?
ANS: 0.707

4. You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the maximum V
pp
is 100 volts and the
minimum V
pp
is 25 volts. What is the modulation index?
ANS: 0.6

5. A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-ohm antenna. If the peak output voltage of the transmitter is
20 volts, what is the PEP?
ANS: 4 watts

Chapter 4: Angle Modulation
TRUE/FALSE

1. PM is another term for FM.
ANS: F
2. In FM, the frequency of the modulated signal varies with the instantaneous amplitude of the
modulating signal.
ANS: T
3. Unlike AM, the amplitude of an FM signal does not change with modulation.
ANS: T
4. Similar to AM, the power of an FM signal changes with modulation.
ANS: F
5. Class C amplifier stages can be used throughout an FM transmitter.
ANS: T
6. PM is often used to send digital data.
ANS: T
7. A carrier can be frequency modulated with audio at the same time it is phase modulated with data.
ANS: F
8. Mathematically, an FM signal has an infinite number of sidebands.
ANS: T
9. At certain modulation frequencies, the power in the carrier frequency of an FM signal can go to zero.
ANS: T
10. In FM, the modulation index depends on the frequency deviation.
ANS: T
11. In FM, the modulation index depends on the frequency of the modulating signal.
ANS: T
12. In FM, as in AM, the modulation index cannot exceed one.
ANS: F
13. In PM, the phase shift is proportional to the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal.
ANS: T
14. A PM signal can be converted into an FM signal.
ANS: T
15. Unlike AM, a single modulating tone can produce many sidebands.
ANS: T
16. In FM, more sidebands means more power.
ANS: F
17. FM is sometimes called a constant-bandwidth communications mode.
ANS: T
18. An FM signal is best looked at with a spectrum analyzer.
ANS: T
19. An oscilloscope display will reveal much detail about an FM signal.
ANS: F
20. There is no such thing as narrowband FM.
ANS: F
21. In FM, the signal-to-noise ratio of a receiver's output can be better than that at the receiver's input.
ANS: T
22. In the presence of noise, an FM system exhibits an abrupt transition called "threshold effect".
ANS: T
23. Stereo FM signals produce a better signal-to-noise ratio at the receiver than mono does.
ANS: F
MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The FM modulation index:
a. increases with both deviation and modulation frequency
b. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency
c. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency
d. is equal to twice the deviation

2. One way to derive FM from PM is:
a. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator
b. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator
c. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator
d. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator

3. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because:
a. there can only be a finite number of sidebands
b. it is equal to the frequency deviation
c. it is band-limited at the receiver
d. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible

4. Mathematically, the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of:
a. ordinary trigonometry and algebra c. Taylor series
b. Bessel functions d. fractals

5. FM bandwidth can be approximated by:
a. Armstrong's Rule c. Carson's Rule
b. Bessel's Rule d. none of the above

6. NBFM stands for:
a. National Broadcast FM c. Near Band FM
b. Non-Broadcast FM d. Narrowband FM

7. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise, it is called:
a. the capture effect c. the noise effect
b. the threshold effect d. the limit effect

8. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is called:
a. the capture effect c. the "two-station" effect
b. the threshold effect d. none of the above

9. Pre-emphasis is used to:
a. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies
b. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies
c. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies
d. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations

10. A pre-emphasis of 75 s refers to:
a. the time it takes for the circuit to work
b. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs
c. the time delay between the L and R channels
d. the time-constant of the filter circuits used

11. FM stereo:
a. uses DSBSC AM modulation c. has a higher S/N than mono FM
b. is implemented using an SCA signal d. is not compatible with mono FM

12. An SCA signal:
a. can use amplitude modulation c. is monaural
b. can use FM modulation d. all of the above

13. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily:
a. using measurements at points where J
0
equals one
b. using measurements at points where J
0
equals zero
c. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero
d. only by using Bessel functions

COMPLETION

1. FM and PM are two forms of ____________________ modulation.
ANS: angle
2. PM is extensively used in ____________________ communication.
ANS: data
3. Compared to AM, the signal-to-noise ratio of FM is usually ____________________.
ANS: better
4. Compared to AM, the bandwidth of FM is usually ____________________.
ANS: wider
greater
5. FM transmitters can use Class ____________________ amplifiers since amplitude linearity is not
important.
ANS: C
6. Both the power and amplitude of an FM signal ____________________ as modulation is applied.
ANS: stay constant
7. In FM, the frequency deviation is proportional to the instantaneous ____________________ of the
modulating signal.
ANS: amplitude
8. The frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at a rate equal to the ____________________ of the
modulating signal.
ANS: frequency
9. Mathematically, the number of sidebands in an FM signal is ____________________.
ANS: infinite
10. As FM sidebands get farther from the center frequency, their power ____________________.
ANS: decreases
11. Mathematically, the value of an FM modulation index can be as high as ____________________.
ANS: any number
12. In FM, as the modulating frequency decreases, the modulation index ____________________.
ANS: increases
13. In FM, as the frequency deviation decreases, the modulation index ____________________.
ANS: decreases

14. As the FM modulation index increases, the number of significant sidebands ____________________.
ANS: increases
15. For certain values of m
f
, such as 2.4, the amplitude of the carrier frequency ____________________.
ANS: disappears
goes to zero
16. The bandwidth of an FM signal can be approximated using ____________________ rule.
ANS: Carson's

17. FM bandwidth can be calculated precisely using ____________________ functions.
ANS: Bessel
18. The ____________________ effect is characteristic of FM reception in a noisy environment.
ANS: threshold
19. The ____________________ effect is seen when an FM receiver is exposed to two FM signals that are
close to each other in frequency.
ANS: capture
20. Rest frequency is another name for an FM ____________________ frequency.
ANS: carrier

SHORT ANSWER

1. If a 2-volt instantaneous value of modulating signal amplitude causes a 10-kHz deviation in carrier
frequency, what is the deviation sensitivity of the modulator?
ANS: 5 kHz / volt

2. If a 2-kHz audio tone causes a frequency deviation of 4 kHz, what is the modulation index?
ANS: 2

3. What will be the deviation caused by a 3-kHz tone if the modulation index is 3?
ANS: 9 kHz

4. If the deviation sensitivity of an FM modulator is 2 kHz /V, what will be the modulation index caused
by a 1-volt, 1-kHz audio signal?
ANS: 2

5. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the carrier of a 1000-watt FM transmitter?
ANS: 48.4 watts

6. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the first pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM
transmitter?
ANS: 673 watts

7. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the fifth pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM
transmitter?
ANS: 200 mW (0.2 watt)

8. Using Carson's rule, what is the approximate bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2
being modulated by a 5-kHz signal?
ANS: 30 kHz

9. Using the Bessel chart of Figure 4.1, what is the bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index
of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal if we ignore sidebands containing less than 1% of the total power?
ANS: 30 kHz

10. How would you use the fact that J
0
is zero for certain known values of m
f
(2.4, 5.5, etc) to measure the
frequency deviation of an FM modulator?

ANS: Use an audio frequency generator to modulate the FM carrier. Using a spectrum
analyzer, adjust the audio frequency until the carrier amplitude vanishes. Record the audio frequency.
Then do the calculation: o = f
m
m
f
where m
f
will have one of the known values. For example, if f
m
is
measured to be 2 kHz when m
f
is 5.5, then o is 11 kHz.

Chapter 5: Transmitters

TRUE/FALSE

1. All transmitters produce spurious signals.
ANS: T
2. Any amplifier will produce harmonic distortion.
ANS: T
3. There is a simple correlation between supply power and output power for transmitters.
ANS: F
4. Transmitters designed for two-way voice communications must be rated for continuous operation at
full power.
ANS: F
5. Baseband spectrum often must be restricted to keep transmitted bandwidth within legal limits.
ANS: T
6. Compression is used to restrict baseband spectrum.
ANS: F
7. The opposite of compression is expansion.
ANS: T
8. In a transmitter, the ALC circuit prevents overmodulation.
ANS: T
9. In a transmitter, the ALC circuit causes compression.
ANS: T
10. Compression is commonly used in commercial broadcast transmitters.
ANS: T
11. In full-carrier AM, modulation is typically done before the RF power amplifier.
ANS: F
12. If the RF stages are all Class C, then AM must be done with low-level modulation.
ANS: F
13. Commercial broadcast AM stations typically use high-level modulation.
ANS: T
14. Low-level AM modulation requires linear RF amplifiers.
ANS: T
15. For good frequency stability, a crystal oscillator is generally required.
ANS: T
16. A variable-frequency oscillator cannot be crystal-controlled.
ANS: F
17. Vacuum tubes are still used in high-power transmitters, even new ones.
ANS: T
18. In a commercial broadcast AM transmitter, all the power in the sidebands came from the audio
amplifier.
ANS: T
19. Typically, some kind of matching circuit is required between a transmitter's output stage and the
antenna.
ANS: T
20. For testing purposes, the output of a transmitter should be disconnected from the antenna and left with
an open-circuit load.
ANS: F
21. In a transceiver, the same audio circuits are used by both the transmitter and the receiver.
ANS: T

22. In solid-state transmitters, it is common to modulate both the driver and the power RF stage.
ANS: T
23. Mixing and amplitude modulation are essentially the same process.
ANS: T
24. DSBSC is never done at low level.
ANS: F
25. To generate SSB from DSBSC, a mechanical filter can be used.
ANS: T
26. To generate SSB from DSBSC, a crystal filter can be used.
ANS: T
27. It is possible that the LSB and the USB can become swapped during a mixing process.
ANS: T
28. The RF power amplifiers in a SSB transmitter are Class C for better efficiency.
ANS: F
29. In FM, a frequency multiplier will also multiply the deviation.
ANS: T
30. Frequency doublers are usually Class B.
ANS: F
31. Mixing can lower a carrier frequency as well as raise it.
ANS: T
32. Indirect FM uses a phase modulator.
ANS: T
33. Even low-power transmitters can cause an RF burn to the skin.
ANS: T

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is called:
a. agility c. VFO
b. expansion d. spread-spectrum

2. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power coming out:
a. is a measure of efficiency c. may require water cooling
b. heats the transmitter d. all of the above

3. Baseband compression produces:
a. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high
b. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud
c. a smaller number of signals

4. ALC stands for:
a. Amplitude Level Control c. Accurate Level Control
b. Automatic Level Control d. none of the above

5. In an AM transmitter, ALC is used to:
a. keep the modulation close to 100% c. maximize transmitted power
b. keep the modulation below 100% d. all of the above

6. With high-level AM:
a. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear c. minimum RF power is required
b. minimum modulation power is required d. all of the above
7. With high-level AM:
a. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A c. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C
b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB

8. With low-level AM:
a. the RF amplifiers must be Class A c. the RF amplifiers must be linear
b. the RF amplifiers must be Class B d. the RF amplifiers must be low-power
9. Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that:
a. is complex c. has variable frequency
b. has variable amplitude d. all of the above

10. In high-level AM, "high-level" refers to:
a. the power level of the carrier c. the power level of the final RF amplifier
b. the power level of the modulation d. none of the above

11. In high-level AM, the power in the sidebands comes from:
a. the modulating amplifier c. the driver stage
b. the RF amplifier d. the carrier

12. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation, the voltage of the final RF stage will be:
a. approximately half the DC supply voltage
b. approximately twice the DC supply voltage
c. approximately four times the DC supply voltage

13. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of:
a. 50 ohms resistive c. 300 ohms resistive
b. 75 ohms resistive d. 600 ohms resistive

14. Which of the following can be used for impedance matching?
a. pi network c. both a and b
b. T network d. a bridge circuit

15. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor is called:
a. a heavy load c. a temporary load
b. a dummy load d. a test load

16. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor must be:
a. wire-wound c. 1% tolerance or better
b. noninductive d. all of the above

17. A Class D amplifier is:
a. very efficient c. essentially pulse-duration modulation
b. essentially pulse-width modulation d. all of the above

18. To generate a SSB signal:
a. start with full-carrier AM c. start with a quadrature signal
b. start with DSBSC d. all of the above

19. The carrier is suppressed in:
a. a balanced modulator c. a frequency multiplier
b. a mixer d. none of the above

20. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use:
a. a mechanical filter c. both a and b
b. a crystal filter d. none of the above

21. A direct FM modulator:
a. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator
b. integrates the modulating signal
c. both a and b
22. An indirect FM modulator:
a. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator
b. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator
c. both a and b

23. AFC stands for:
a. Amplitude to Frequency Conversion c. Automatic Frequency Control
b. Automatic Frequency Centering d. Audio Frequency Control

24. Frequency multipliers are:
a. essentially balanced modulators c. essentially mixers
b. essentially Class C amplifiers d. none of the above

25. With mixing:
a. the carrier frequency can be raised
b. the carrier frequency can be lowered
c. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value
d. the deviation is altered

COMPLETION
1. The accuracy and stability of a transmitter frequency is fixed by the ____________________
oscillator.
ANS: carrier
2. In the USA, the ____________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's
frequency.
ANS: FCC
3. In Canada, _________________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a
transmitter's frequency.
ANS: Industry Canada
4. Frequency ____________________ is the ability of a transmitter to change frequency without a lot of
retuning.
ANS: agility
5. Power output of SSB transmitters is rated by ____________________.
ANS: PEP
6. Reducing the dynamic range of a modulating signal is called ____________________.
ANS: compression
7. The opposite of compression is called ____________________.
ANS: expansion
8. ALC is a form of ____________________.
ANS: compression
9. High-level modulation allows the RF amplifiers to operate more ____________________.
ANS: efficiently
10. Low-level modulation requires the RF amplifiers to be ____________________.
ANS: linear
11. To isolate the oscillator from load changes, a ____________________ stage is used.
ANS: buffer
12. The peak collector voltage in a Class C RF amplifier is ____________________ than the DC supply
voltage.
ANS: higher
13. Most practical transmitters are designed to operate into a ____________________-ohm load.
ANS: 50
14. Transmitters built with transistor RF amplifiers often use a ____________________ network for
impedance matching.
ANS: T
15. Matching networks also act as filters to help reduce ____________________ levels.
ANS: harmonic
16. Severe impedance ____________________ can destroy a transmitter's output stage.
ANS: mismatch
17. Transceivers combine a transmitter and a ____________________ into one "box".
ANS: receiver
18. To allow a high modulation percentage, it is common to modulate the ____________________ as well
as the power amplifier in transistor modulators.
ANS: driver
19. Pulse-width modulation is the same as pulse-____________________ modulation.
ANS: duration
20. Switching amplifiers are sometimes called Class ____________________ amplifiers.
ANS: D
21. Because the sideband filter in a SSB transmitter is fixed, ____________________ is used to operate at
more than one frequency.
ANS: mixing
22. To generate a SSB signal, it is common to start with a ____________________ signal.
ANS: DSBSC
23. Indirect FM is derived from ____________________ modulation.
ANS: phase
24. Using a varactor to generate FM is an example of a ____________________ modulator.
ANS: reactance
25. The modern way to make a stable VFO is to make it part of a ____________________ loop.
ANS: phase-locked

SHORT ANSWER

1. If a 50-MHz oscillator is accurate to within 0.001%, what is the range of possible frequencies?
ANS: 50 MHz 500 hertz
2. What is the efficiency of a 100-watt mobile transmitter if it draws 11 amps from a 12-volt car battery?
ANS: 75.8%
3. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power supply with no
modulation. Assuming high-level modulation, how much power does the modulation amplifier deliver for
100% modulation?
ANS: 50 watts
4. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC, what is the maximum
collector voltage at 100% modulation?
ANS: 400 volts
5. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz. The audio modulation
frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz. To pass the USB, what should be the center frequency of an ideal
crystal filter?
ANS: 10.005 MHz
6. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier frequency of 10 MHz. What is
the minimum frequency the SSB signal can be mixed with so that the output signal has a nominal carrier
frequency of 50 MHz?
ANS: 40 MHz
7. Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1 MHz carrier with a 100-hertz deviation. If
frequency multiplication is used to increase the deviation to 400 hertz, what will be the new carrier
frequency?
ANS: 4 MHz
8. Suppose you had an FM signal with a carrier of 10 MHz and a deviation of 10 kHz. Explain how you
could use it to get an FM signal at 100 MHz with a deviation of 20 kHz.
ANS: First, put the signal through a frequency doubler to get a 20-MHz carrier with a 20-
kHz deviation. Then mix that signal with an 80-MHz carrier to generate a 100-MHz carrier with 20-kHz
deviation.

Chapter 6: Receivers

TRUE/FALSE

1. The first radio receiver was built in 1918.
ANS: F
2. Almost all modern receivers use the superheterodyne design.
ANS: T
3. A tuned circuit at the input increases receiver sensitivity
ANS: F
4. Since both f
o
and Q increase with frequency, the bandwidth of a resonant LC circuit remains constant
as it is tuned to higher frequencies.
ANS: F
5. The resistance of a coil is a function of frequency.
ANS: T
6. The superhet was invented by Heinrich Hertz.
ANS: F
7. In a receiver, the first RF amplifier is largely responsible for overall noise performance.
ANS: T
8. In a superhet, the local oscillator must be set to the transmitter's carrier frequency.
ANS: F
9. In a superhet, the output of the mixer is the IF.
ANS: T
10. In a superhet, most of the gain comes from the IF amplifiers.
ANS: T
11. In a superhet, most of the selectivity comes from the IF amplifiers.
ANS: T
12. All superhets use a separate local oscillator.
ANS: F
13. In high-side injection, the incoming RF is at a higher frequency than the local oscillator.
ANS: F
14. The mixer and the local oscillator can use the same transistor.
ANS: T
15. The IF frequency is constant as a receiver is tuned to various frequencies.
ANS: T
16. There can be only one mixer and one IF in a superhet receiver.
ANS: F
17. In AM receivers, the antenna and the inductor of the tuner circuit can be the same thing.
ANS: T
18. Bandwidth and signal-to-noise-ratio are not related in a superhet.
ANS: F
19. Shape-factor is a measure of selectivity.
ANS: T
20. Phase distortion should be minimized for reliable voice communications.
ANS: F
21. A receiver's response to weak signals is limited by the noise generated inside the receiver.
ANS: T
22. The AGC in a receiver can cause "blocking".
ANS: T
23. Careful design can eliminate all spurious responses.
ANS: F
24. Image frequencies are eliminated by the IF.
ANS: F
25. "Software radios" use a DSP to replace all hardware up to and including the detector.
ANS: F
26. It is possible that a transmitter on one frequency can appear at two spots on a receiver's dial.
ANS: T
27. A detector is the same as a demodulator.
ANS: T
28. Envelope detectors are typically used in FM receivers.
ANS: F
29. Envelope detectors are complicated, but extremely linear.
ANS: F
30. There is a way to use a diode to demodulate a SSB signal.
ANS: T
31. A SSB signal requires a ratio detector.
ANS: F
32. In a SSB receiver, the BFO injects the carrier into the detector.
ANS: T
33. In a SSB receiver, it is relatively easy for the injected carrier to match the frequency and phase of the
transmitter's carrier.
ANS: F
34. If the BFO in a SSB receiver is 100 hertz low, what comes out of the speaker may sound like Donald
Duck, but it will be understandable.
ANS: T
35. DSBSC transmitters often use a pilot carrier to allow coherent detection.
ANS: T
36. FM receivers are similar to AM receivers in basic design.
ANS: T
37. There is no way to demodulate an FM signal with an AM receiver.
ANS: F
38. Modern FM receivers commonly use Foster-Seeley discriminators.
ANS: F
39. Both PLLs and quadrature detectors can be used to demodulate FM.
ANS: T
40. Quadrature detectors are sensitive to variations in carrier amplitude.
ANS: T
41. Squelch is the same as muting.
ANS: T
42. A bipolar transistor can be used as a mixer, but a FET cannot.
ANS: F

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The two basic specifications for a receiver are:
a. the sensitivity and the selectivity
b. the number of converters and the number of IFs
c. the spurious response and the tracking
d. the signal and the noise

2. The superheterodyne receiver was invented by:
a. Foster c. Armstrong
b. Seeley d. Hertz
3. Trimmers and padders are:
a. two types of adjusting tools c. small adjustable inductors
b. small adjustable resistors d
.
small adjustable capacitors
4. "Skin effect" refers to:
a. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface
b. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal
c. the increase of wire resistance with frequency

5. The "front end" of a receiver can include:
a. the tuner c. the mixer
b. the RF amplifier d
.
all of the above
6. "IF" stands for:
a. intermediate frequency c. indeterminate frequency
b. intermodulation frequency d. image frequency

7. AGC stands for:
a. Audio Gain Control c. Active Gain Control
b
.
Automatic Gain Control d. Active Gain Conversion
8. The frequency of the local oscillator:
a. is above the RF frequency
b. is below the RF frequency
c. can be either above of below the RF frequency
d. is fixed, typically at 455 kHz.

9. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because:

10. Basically, sensitivity measures:
a. the weakest signal that can be usefully received
b. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received
c. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier

11. Basically, selectivity measures:
a. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select
b. with two signals close in frequency, the ability to receive one and reject the other
c. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator
d. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer

12. When comparing values for shape factor:
a. a value of 1.414 dB is ideal c. a value of 1.0 is ideal
b. a value of 0.707 is ideal d. there is no ideal value

13. When comparing values for shape factor:
a. a value of 2 is better than a value of 4 c. both values are basically equivalent
b. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 d. none of the above

14. Distortion in a receiver can occur in:
a. the mixer c. the IF amplifiers
b. the detector d
.
all of the above
15. Phase distortion is important in:
a. voice communications systems c. monochrome video receivers
b
.
color video receivers d. all of the above
16. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by:
a. the AGC c. the dynamic range of the receiver
b
.
noise generated in the receiver d. the type of detector circuit being used
17. Image frequencies occur when two signals:
a. are transmitted on the same frequency
b. enter the mixer, with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency
c. enter the mixer, one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference
equal to the IF
d. enter the mixer, and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF

18. An image must be rejected:
a. prior to mixing c. prior to detection
b. prior to IF amplification d. images cannot be rejected

19. Image frequency problems would be reduced by:
a. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor
b. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer
c. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer

20. A common AM detector is the:
a. PLL c. ratio detector
b
.
envelope detector d. all of the above
21. An FM detector is the:
a. PLL c. quadrature detector
a. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses
b. it increases sensitivity
c. it increases selectivity
d
.
it is cheaper
b. ratio detector d
.
all of the above
22. Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because:
a. they are faster than silicon diodes
b. they are cheaper than silicon diodes
c. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity
d. all of the above

23. A common SSB detector is:
a. a PLL c. a BFO
b. a diode d
.
a product detector

24. BFO stands for:
a. Beat Frequency Oscillator c. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator
b. Barrier Frequency Oscillator d. Bistable Frequency Oscillator

25. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC, you need to:
a. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator
b. reinject the carrier
c. use double conversion
d. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC

26. Which would be best for DSBSC:
a. carrier detection c. envelope detection
b. coherent detection d. ratio detection

27. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is:
a. Foster-Seeley detector c. a PLL detector
b. a quadrature detector d. all of the above

28. The function of a limiter is:
a. to remove amplitude variations c. to limit dynamic range
b. to limit spurious responses d. to limit noise response

29. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called:
a. AGC c. AFC
b. squelch d. limiting

30. LNA stands for:
a. Limited-Noise Amplifier c. Low-Noise Audio
b. Low-Noise Amplifier d. Logarithmic Noise Amplification

31. AFC stands for:
a. Audio Frequency Compensator c. Automatic Frequency Control
b. Autodyne Frequency Compensation d. Autonomous Frequency Control

32. The function of AFC is:
a. maintain a constant IF frequency
b. match the local oscillator to the received signal
c. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency

33. SAW stands for:
a. Symmetrical Audio Wave c. Silicon-Activated Wafer
b. Surface Acoustic Wave d. Software-Activated Wave

34. The important property of a SAW is:
a. it stabilizes the audio in a receiver c. it is a stable bandpass filter
b. it allows software radios to be built d. none of the above

35. The main function of the AGC is to:
a. keep the gain of the receiver constant
b. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant
c. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude
d. all of the above
36. DSP stands for:
a. Dynamic Signal Properties c. Distorted Signal Packet
b. Direct Signal Phase d. Digital Signal Processor

37. SINAD stands for:
a. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion
b. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion
c. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio
d. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio

38. TRF stands for:
a. Tuned Radio Frequency c. Transmitted Radio Frequency
b. Tracking Radio Frequency d. Tuned Receiver Function
COMPLETION

1. Almost all modern receivers use the _________________________ principle.
ANS: superheterodyne
2. The first radio receiver of any kind was built in the year ____________________.
ANS: 1887
3. When two tuned circuits ____________________ each other, it means that when the frequency of
one is adjusted, the other changes with it.
ANS: track
4. The ____________________ effect causes the resistance of wire to increase with frequency.
ANS: skin
5. The superhet was invented in the year ____________________.
ANS: 1918
6. In a receiver, the ____________________ refers to the input filter and RF stage.
ANS: front end
7. In a superhet, the output of the ____________________ goes to the IF amplifiers.
ANS: mixer
8. In a superhet, the ____________________ frequency is the difference between the local oscillator
frequency and the received signal frequency.
ANS: intermediate IF
9. The ____________________ circuit adjusts the gain of the IF amplifiers in response to signal
strength.
ANS: AGC
10. An ____________________ converter uses the same transistor for both the local oscillator and the
mixer.
ANS: autodyne
11. In low-side injection, the local oscillator is ____________________ than the received signal
frequency.
ANS: lower
12. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to separate two signals that are close to each
other in frequency.
ANS: Selectivity
13. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to receive and successfully demodulate a very
weak signal.
ANS: Sensitivity
14. A receiver with two different IF frequencies is called a double-____________________ receiver.
ANS: conversion

15. A multiple-conversion receiver will have better rejection of ____________________ frequencies.
ANS: image
16. A demodulator is also called a ____________________.
ANS: detector
17. An ____________________ detector uses a diode to half-wave rectify an AM signal.
ANS: envelope
18. A ____________________ detector is used for SSB signals.
ANS: product
19. A BFO produces a locally generated ____________________.
ANS: carrier
20. A DSBSC signal requires a ____________________ detection circuit.
ANS: coherent
21. FM detectors have a characteristic ____________________-shaped curve.
ANS: S
22. While still commonly found, the Foster-Seeley and ratio detectors are ____________________.
ANS: obsolescent
23. Unlike the PLL detector, the quadrature detector is sensitive to changes in ____________________
of the input signal.
ANS: amplitude
24. A dual-____________________ MOSFET is useful for AGC.
ANS: gate
25. Diode mixers are too ____________________ to be practical in most applications.
ANS: noisy
26. The IF amplifiers in an AM receiver must be Class ____________________.
ANS: A
27. A double-tuned IF transformer is usually ____________________ coupled for the response to have
a flat top and steep sides.
ANS: over
28. Multiple IF stages can be ____________________-tuned to increase the bandwidth.
ANS: stagger
29. Compared to tuned circuits, ceramic and crystal IF filters do not require ____________________.
ANS: adjustment
30. Up-conversion is when the output of the mixer is a ____________________ frequency than the
incoming signal.
ANS: higher
31. In a block converter, the frequency of the first local oscillator is ____________________.
ANS: fixed constant
32. Typically, AGC reduces the gain of the ____________________ amplifiers.
ANS: IF
33. An ____________________-meter is designed to indicate signal strength in many communications
receivers.
ANS: S
34. The effectiveness of FM ____________________ is measured by a receivers quieting sensitivity.
ANS: limiting
35. A ____________________ refers to any kind of FM or PM detector.
ANS: discriminator

SHORT ANSWER
1. Suppose the bandwidth of a tuned circuit is 10 kHz at 1 MHz. Approximately what bandwidth would
you expect it to have at 4 MHz
ANS: 20 kHz

2. Using high-side injection for a 1-MHz IF, what is the frequency of the local oscillator when the
receiver is tuned to 5 MHz?
ANS: 6 MHz

3. An IF filter has a 60 dB bandwidth of 25 kHz and a 6 dB bandwidth of 20 kHz. What is the shape
factor value?
ANS: 1.25

4. Suppose a receiver uses a 5-MHz IF frequency. Assuming high-side injection, what would be the
image frequency if the receiver was tuned to 50 MHz?
ANS: 60 MHz

5. Suppose a SSB receiver requires an injected frequency of 1.5 MHz. What would be the acceptable
frequency range of the BFO if the maximum acceptable baseband shift is 100 hertz?
ANS: 1.5 MHz 100 hertz

6. The transformer of a double-tuned IF amplifier has a Q of 25 for both primary and secondary. What
value of k
c
do you need to achieve optimal coupling?
ANS: 0.06

7. What value of transformer coupling would a double-tuned 10-MHz IF amplifier with optimal
coupling needs to get a bandwidth of 100 kHz?
ANS: 0.01
Chapter 7: Digital Communications

TRUE/FALSE

1. Analog signals cannot be sent using digital techniques.
ANS: F
2. Digitizing a signal can reduce distortion.
ANS: T
3. Digitizing a signal can improve the signal-to-noise ratio.
ANS: T
4. Morse code is an example of a binary digital transmission system.
ANS: F
5. Digital signals can be modulated onto an analog carrier.
ANS: T
6. Digitization removes noise and distortion from analog signals.
ANS: F
7. A digital signal can be changed from a 1 to a 0 by noise
ANS: T
8. A regenerative repeater converts a degraded pulse into a new pulse.
ANS: T
9. TDM is easy to implement with digital signals.
ANS: T
10. Unlike analog, digital communications is not band-limited.
ANS: F
11. The amount of digital data that can be sent is limited by the channel capacity (C).
ANS: F
12. The digital data rate is limited by the bandwidth of the channel.
ANS: T
13. The digital data rate is limited by the SNR of the channel.
ANS: T
14. The digital data rate is limited by the number of levels transmitted.
ANS: T
15. The Shannon-Hartley theorem describes how to obtain the Shannon limit for transmission.
ANS: F
16. Digital data can be sent through a channel no matter how low the SNR is, as long as it is not zero.
ANS: T
17. Analog signals must be sampled before they can be sent in digital form.
ANS: T
18. Mathematically, it is not possible to completely reconstruct a band-limited signal from only samples
of the signal.
ANS: F
19. The Nyquist Rate is equal to half the highest frequency component of the analog signal.
ANS: F
20. Natural sampling is also called "flat-top" sampling.
ANS: F
21. Flat-top sampling requires a sample-and-hold circuit.
ANS: T
22. Aliasing occurs when the sampling rate is too high.
ANS: F
23. Foldover distortion occurs when the sampling rate is too low.
ANS: T
24. Sampling is actually a form of modulation.
ANS: T
25. The output of a sampler is a PDM signal.
ANS: F
26. The most commonly used digital modulation scheme is PCM.
ANS: T
27. In PCM, the number of levels is the same as the number of bits.
ANS: F
28. Quantizing is converting a sample of an analog signal to a binary number.
ANS: T
29. Quantizing always introduces some error.
ANS: T
30. Quantizing always introduces some "noise".
ANS: T
31. The significance of quantizing noise increases as the number of bits per sample increases.
ANS: F
32. The dynamic range of a digital transmission system depends on the number of bits per sample.
ANS: T
33. The bandwidth required by a digital transmission system depends on the number of bits per sample.
ANS: T
34. Companding allows improved dynamic range for a given bandwidth.
ANS: T
35. The companding system used in America is known as "A-Law" companding.
ANS: F
36. Companding is basically a linear process.
ANS: F
37. Companding can be done with analog circuitry.
ANS: T
38. Digital companding is used by most modern telephone systems.
ANS: T
39. With delta modulation, only one bit is transmitted per cycle.
ANS: T
40. Delta modulation is particularly well suited to rapidly changing analog signals.
ANS: F
41. Delta modulation is prone to "granular noise".
ANS: T
42. Adaptive delta modulation reduces the occurrence of "slope-overload".
ANS: T
43. A disadvantage of adaptive delta modulation is that it requires a higher bit rate than PCM.
ANS: F
44. Digital data is put onto a cable using a line code.
ANS: T
45. Unipolar line coding requires DC continuity.
ANS: T
46. Bipolar RZ coding generates DC and low-frequency AC components.
ANS: F
47. The Manchester line code provides strong timing information.
ANS: T
48. The basic DS-1 signal consists of 12 voice channels.
ANS: F
49. In DS-1, each analog voice channel is sampled 8000 times per second.
ANS: T
50. In DS-1, the bit rate for each voice channel is 56 kbits per second.
ANS: F
51. A T-1 frame contains 193 bits.
ANS: T
52. T-1 uses AMI.
ANS: T
53. A T-1 cable can be twisted-pair copper wires.
ANS: T
54. A T-1 line runs at 1.544 Mbits per second.
ANS: T
55. In DS-1, bits are sometimes "stolen" from the voice channel to be used for signaling.
ANS: T
56. "Lossy" compression involves transmitting all the data in the original signal, but with fewer bits.
ANS: F
57. "Lossless" compression schemes look for redundancies in the data.
ANS: T
58. "Run-Length" encoding is a type of lossless compression.
ANS: T

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The first digital code was the:
a. ASCII code c. Morse code
b. Baudot code d. none of the above

2. In digital transmission, signal degradation can be removed using:
a. an amplifier c. a regenerative repeater
b. a filter d. all of the above

3. TDM stands for:
a. Time-Division Multiplexing c. Ten-Digital Manchester
b. Time-Domain Multiplexing d. Ten Dual-Manchester

4. Hartley's Law is:
a. I = ktB c. C = B log
2
(1 + S/N)
b. C = 2B log
2
M d. SR = 2f
max

5. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is:
2
(1 + S/N)
b. C = 2B log
2
M d. SR = 2f
max

6. The Shannon Limit is given by:
2
(1 + S/N)
b. C = 2B log
2
M d. SR = 2f
max

7. The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as:
2
(1 + S/N)
b. C = 2B log
2
M d
.
SR = 2f
max

8. Natural Sampling does not use:
a. a sample-and-hold circuit c. a fixed sample rate
b. true binary numbers d. an analog-to-digital converter
9. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion?
a. They are two types of sampling error.
b. You can have one or the other, but not both.
c. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion.
d. They are the same thing.

10. Foldover distortion is caused by:
a. noise c. too few samples per second
b. too many samples per second d. all of the above

11. The immediate result of sampling is:
a. a sample alias c. PCM
b. PAM d. PDM

12. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique:
a. PDM c. PPM
b. PWM d. PPS

13. Quantizing noise (quantization noise):
a. decreases as the sample rate increases
b. decreases as the sample rate decreases
c. decreases as the bits per sample increases
d. decreases as the bits per sample decreases

14. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of:
a. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal
b. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion
c. the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample

15. Companding is used to:
a. compress the range of base-band frequencies
b. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates
c. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low
d. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission

16. In North America, companding uses:
a. the Logarithmic Law c. the o Law (alpha law)
b. the A Law d
.
the Law (mu law)
17. In Europe, companding uses:
a. the Logarithmic Law c. the o Law (alpha law)
b. the A Law d. the Law (mu law)

18. Codec stands for:
a. Coder-Decoder c. Code-Compression
b. Coded-Carrier d. none of the above

19. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives:
a. 4-bit numbers c. 12-bit numbers
b. 8-bit numbers d. 16-bit numbers
20. Compared to PCM, delta modulation:
a. transmits fewer bits per sample c. can suffer slope overload
b. requires a much higher sampling rate d. all of the above

21. In delta modulation, "granular noise" is produced when:
a. the signal changes too rapidly c. the bit rate is too high
b. the signal does not change d. the sample is too large

22. Compared to PCM, adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice:
a. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality c. only over shorter distances
b. with a lower bit rate but the same
quality
d. only if the voice is band-limited

23. Which coding scheme requires DC continuity?
a. AMI c. unipolar NRZ
b. Manchester d. bipolar RZ

24. Manchester coding:
a. is a biphase code
b. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period
c. provides strong timing information
d. all of the above

25. The number of framing bits in DS-1 is:
a. 1 c. 4
b. 2 d. 8

26. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to:
a. detect errors c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver
b. carry signaling d. all of the above

27. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to:
a. detect errors c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver
b. carry signaling d. all of the above

28. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is:
a. 1 c. 4
b. 2 d
.
8
29. The number of samples per second in DS-1 is:
a. 8 k c. 64 k
b. 56 k d. 1.544 10
6

30. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is:
a. 1.544 Mb/s c. 56 kb/s
b
.
64 kb/s d. 8 kb/s
31. In DS-1, bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at:
a. 1.544 MB/s c. 56 kb/s
b. 64 kb/s d. 8 kb/s

32. A T-1 cable uses:
a. Manchester coding c. NRZ coding
b. bipolar RZ AMI coding d. pulse-width coding

33. The number of frames in a superframe is:
a. 6 c. 24
b. 12 d. 48

34. A typical T-1 line uses:
a. twisted-pair wire c. fiber-optic cable
b. coaxial cable d. microwave
35. "Signaling" is used to indicate:
a. on-hook/off-hook condition c. ringing
b. busy signal d. all of the above

36. A vocoder implements compression by:
a. constructing a model of the transmission medium
b. constructing a model of the human vocal system
c. finding redundancies in the digitized data
d. using lossless techniques

37. Compared to standard PCM systems, the quality of the output of a vocoder is:
a. much better c. about the same
b. somewhat better d. not as good

COMPLETION

1. Digitizing a signal often results in ____________________ transmission quality.
ANS: improved / better
2. To send it over an analog channel, a digital signal must be ____________________ onto a carrier.
ANS: modulated
3. To send it over a digital channel, an analog signal must first be ____________________.
ANS: digitized
4. In analog channels, the signal-to-noise ratio of an analog signal gradually ____________________ as
the length of the channel increases.
ANS: decreases / gets worse
5. The ____________________ value of a pulse is the only information it carries on a digital channel.
ANS: binary
6. A ____________________ repeater is used to restore the shape of pulses on a digital cable.
ANS: regenerative
7. There are techniques to detect and ____________________ some errors in digital transmission.
ANS: correct
8. Converting an analog signal to digital form is another source of ____________________ in digital
transmission systems.
ANS: error / noise
9. ____________________-division multiplexing is easily done in digital transmission.
ANS: Time
10. All practical communications channels are band-____________________.
ANS: limited
11. ____________________ Law gives the relationship between time, information capacity, and
bandwidth.
ANS: Hartley's
12. Ignoring noise, the _________________________ theorem gives the maximum rate of data
transmission for a given bandwidth.
ANS: Shannon-Hartley
13. The ____________________ limit gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given
bandwidth and a given signal-to-noise ratio.
ANS: Shannon
14. ____________________ sampling is done without a sample-and-hold circuit.
ANS: Natural
15. The ____________________ Rate is the minimum sampling rate for converting analog signals to
digital format.
ANS: Nyquist
16. ____________________ distortion occurs when an analog signal is sampled at too slow a rate.
ANS: Foldover
17. ____________________ means that higher frequency baseband signals from the transmitter "assume
the identity" of low-frequency baseband signals at the receiver when sent digitally.
ANS: Aliasing
18. The output of a sample-and-hold circuit is a pulse-____________________ modulated signal.
ANS: amplitude
19. ____________________ modulation is the most commonly used digital modulation scheme.
ANS: Pulse-code
20. ____________________ noise results from the process of converting an analog signal into digital
format.
ANS: Quantizing
21. ____________________ is used to preserve dynamic range using a reasonable bandwidth.
ANS: Companding
22. In North America, compression is done using the ____________________-law equation.
ANS: / mu
23. In Europe, compression is done using the ____________________-law equation.
ANS: A
24. A ____________________ is an IC that converts a voice signal to PCM and vice versa.
ANS: codec
25. In a PCM system, the samples of the analog signal are first converted to ____________________ bits
before being compressed to 8 bits.
ANS: 12
26. The number of bits per sample transmitted in delta modulation is ____________________.
ANS: 1 /one
27. Delta modulation requires a ____________________ sampling rate than PCM for the same quality of
reproduction.
ANS: higher
28. ____________________ noise is produced by a delta modulator if the analog signal doesn't change.
ANS: Granular
29. In delta modulation, ____________________ overload can occur if the analog signal changes too
fast.
ANS: slope
30. The ____________________ size varies in adaptive delta modulation.
ANS: step
31. Adaptive delta modulation can transmit PCM-quality voice at about ____________________ the bit
rate of PCM.
ANS: half
32. Unipolar NRZ is not practical because most channels do not have ____________________
continuity.
ANS: DC
33. In AMI, binary ones are represented by a voltage that alternates in ____________________.
ANS: polarity
34. Long strings of ____________________ should be avoided in AMI.
ANS: zeros
35. Manchester code has a level ____________________ in the center of each bit period.
ANS: transition
36. Manchester coding provides ____________________ information regardless of the pattern of ones
and zeros.
ANS: timing
37. There are ____________________ channels in a DS-1 frame.
ANS: 24
38. DS-1 uses a ____________________ bit to synchronize the transmitter and receiver.
ANS: framing
39. In DS-1, each channel is sampled ____________________ times per second.
ANS: 8000
40. Data is carried over a T-1 line at a rate of ____________________ bits per second.
ANS: 1.544 10
6

41. A group of 12 DS-1 frames is called a ____________________.
ANS: superframe
42. From a group of twelve frames, signaling bits are "stolen" from every ____________________
frame.
ANS: sixth
43. ____________________ compression transmits all the data in the original signal but uses fewer bits
to do it.
ANS: Lossless

SHORT ANSWER

1. Use Hartley's Law to find how much time it would take to send 100,000 bits over a channel with a
bandwidth of 2,000 hertz and a channel constant of k = 10.
ANS: 5 seconds

2. Use the Shannon-Hartley theorem to find the bandwidth required to send 12,000 bits per second if the
number of levels transmitted is 8.
ANS: 2000 hertz

3. What is the Shannon Limit of a channel that has a bandwidth of 4000 hertz and a signal-to-noise ratio
of 15?
ANS: 16 kbps

4. What is the minimum required number of samples per second to digitize an analog signal with
frequency components ranging from 300 hertz to 3300 hertz?
ANS: 6600 samples/second

5. What is the approximate dynamic range, in dB, of a linear PCM system that uses 12 bits per sample?
ANS: 74 Db

6. What is the approximate data rate for a system using 8 bits per sample and running at 8000 samples
per second?
ANS: 64 kbps

7. If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1 frame, what would the useable data-rate be for each channel in
the frame?
ANS: 56 kbps

8. Assuming maximum input and output voltages of 1 volt, what is the output voltage of a -law
compressor if the input voltage is 0.388 volt?
ANS: 0.833 volt

Chapter 8: The Telephone System

TRUE/FALSE

1. A telephone from 1930 could not work on today's public switched telephone network.
ANS: F
2. The public switched telephone network is changing from an all analog to a mostly digital system.
ANS: T
3. A LATA is a local calling area.
ANS: T
4. A feature of the public switched telephone system is that calls cannot be "blocked".
ANS: F
5. Telephones connect to the central office via trunk lines.
ANS: F
6. The telephone switching hierarchy is being replaced by a "flat" network topology.
ANS: T
7. Most local loops still use copper wire.
ANS: T
8. A "twisted-pair" is twisted to minimize "crosstalk".
ANS: T
9. The wires in a local loop are called TIP and GND.
ANS: F
10. In a local loop, the red wire is positive.
ANS: F
11. In a local loop, the TIP wire is positive.
ANS: T
12. Local loops can carry voice signals in only one direction at a time.
ANS: F
13. Local loops carry DC current.
ANS: T
14. Local loops carry signaling information.
ANS: T
15. Loading coils allow high-speed data loads to be carried on a local loop.
ANS: F
16. Typically, when a phone is on hook, a voltage of 48 volts appears across it.
ANS: T
17. When a telephone is off hook, the DC voltage across it can drop substantially from its on-hook value.
ANS: T
18. The DC resistance of a telephone is about 2000 ohms.
ANS: F
19. When a telephone is on hook, the DC current through it is in the range of 20 to 80 mA.
ANS: F
20. Touch-Tone is a registered trademark of AT&T.
ANS: T
21. DTMF is the same as Touch-Tone.
ANS: T
22. DTMF uses sets of 3 tones.
ANS: F
23. The technology to "dial" telephone numbers was invented in 1893.
ANS: T

24. A crosspoint switch allows any incoming line to be connected to any outgoing line.
ANS: T
25. The central office uses 24 volts AC at 20 hertz to cause a telephone to ring.
ANS: F
26. The local-loop is full-duplex.
ANS: T
27. Telephones usually contain a hybrid coil or an equivalent circuit.
ANS: T
28. To allow for "sidetone", a hybrid coil should be slightly unbalanced.
ANS: T
29. The signal levels in analog telephone systems have increased substantially over the past 100 years.
ANS: F
30. The signal levels in modern analog telephone systems are still based on 19
th
-century technology.
ANS: T
31. To allow multiplexing, the bandwidth of voice-grade telephone signals is deliberately restricted.
ANS: T
32. The net gain of a telephone system must be greater than 0 dB for an acceptable signal level.
ANS: F
33. Too much gain in a telephone system causes "singing".
ANS: T
34. Echo suppressors prevent oscillations on long-distance telephone circuits.
ANS: T
35. Echo suppressors can be switched off by a subscriber's equipment.
ANS: T
36. C-message weighting increases the bandwidth of a local loop.
ANS: F
37. The reference level for measuring noise in a telephone system is 10
12
Watts.
ANS: T
38. In a telephone system, signal strength is given relative to the zero transmission loss point.
ANS: T
39. TDM is being replaced by the newer FDM technology in telephone systems.
ANS: F
40. DS-1 can be used to carry digital data that did not originate as a voice signal.
ANS: T
41. When using DS-1 to carry data, it is common to use each channel to carry 64 kbps.
ANS: F
42. Digital carriers up to T3 can use copper wires.
ANS: F
43. A DS-1C signal carries twice as many channels as a DS-1 signal.
ANS: T
44. A DS-1C signal uses twice the bit rate of a DS-1 signal.
ANS: F
45. "Stuff" bits are used to compensate for differences in clock rates.
ANS: T
46. Every "in-channel" signal is also an "in-band" signal.
ANS: F
47. Common-channel signaling is being replaced by the more modern MF signaling.
ANS: F
48. Common-channel signaling reduces opportunities for stealing telephone service.
ANS: T
49. ADSL is faster than ISDN.
ANS: T
50. B-ISDN is a slower version of standard ISDN.
ANS: F

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. DTMF stands for:
a. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency c. Dual-Tone Multifrequency
b. Dial Tone Master Frequency d. Digital Trunk Master Frequency

2. PSTN stands for:
a. Public Switched Telephone Network c. Primary Service Telephone Network
b. Private Switched Telephone Network d. Primary Service Telephone Numbers

3. POTS stands for:
a. Private Office Telephone System c. Primary Operational Test System
b. Primary Office Telephone Service d. Plain Old Telephone Service

4. LATA stands for:
a. Local Access and Transport Area c. Local Area Telephone Access
b. Local Access Telephone Area d. Local Area Transport Access

5. A LATA is a:
a. a local calling area c. a way of accessing a tandem office
b. a type of digital local network d. a way of accessing a central office

6. Central offices are connected by:
a. local loops c. both a and b
b. trunk lines d. none of the above

7. Local loops terminate at:
a. a tandem office c. a central office
b. a toll station d. an interexchange office

8. Call blocking:
a. cannot occur in the public telephone network
b. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure
c. occurs only on long-distance cables
d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded

9. In telephony, POP stands for:
a. Post Office Protocol c. Power-On Protocol
b. Point Of Presence d. none of the above

10. The cable used for local loops is mainly:
a. twisted-pair copper wire c. coaxial cable
b. shielded twisted-pair copper wire d. fiber-optic

11. FITL stands for:
a. Framing Information for Toll Loops c. Framing In The Loop
b. Fiber In the Toll Loop d. Fiber-In-The-Loop

12. Loading coils were used to:
a. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data
b. reduce the attenuation of voice signals
c. reduce crosstalk
d. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop

13. DC current flows through a telephone:
a. when it is on hook c. as long as it is attached to a local loop
b. when it is off hook d. only when it is ringing

14. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is:
a. 20 A to 80 A c. 2 mA to 8 mA
b. 200 A to 800 A d. 20 mA to 80 mA

15. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as:
a. step-by-step switching control c. common control
b. crossbar control d. ESS

16. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is:
a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC
b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC

17. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is:
a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC
b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC

18. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to:
a. allow lines to be "conditioned" c. allow signals to be multiplexed
b. prevent "singing" d. all of the above

19. VNL stands for:
a. voltage net loss c. via net loss
b. volume net loss d. voice noise level

20. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to:
a. eliminate reflections c. improve signal-to-noise ratio
b. prevent oscillation d. reduce power consumption

21. The reference noise level for telephony is:
a. 1 mW c. 1 pW
b. 0 dBm d. 0 dBr

22. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is:
a. 6 c. 24
b. 12 d. 60

23. Basic FDM groups can be combined into:
a. supergroups c. jumbogroups
b. mastergroups d. all of the above

24. In telephone system FDM, voice is put on a carrier using:
a. SSB c. PDM
b. DSBSC d. PCM
25. PABX stands for:
a. Power Amplification Before Transmission
b. Private Automatic Branch Exchange
c. Public Automated Branch Exchange
d. Public Access Branch Exchange

26. SLIC stands for:
a. Single-Line Interface Circuit c. Subscriber Line Interface Card
b. Standard Line Interface Card d. Standard Local Interface Circuit
27. In DS-1, bits are "robbed" in order to:
a. provide synchronization c. cancel echoes
b. carry signaling d. check for errors

28. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called:
a. compensation c. justification
b. rectification d. frame alignment

29. ISDN stands for:
a. Integrated Services Digital Network c. Integrated Services Data Network
b. Information Services Digital Network d. Information Systems Digital Network

30. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because:
a. it took too long to develop
b. it is too slow
c. it has been surpassed by newer technologies
d. all of the above

31. ADSL stands for:
a. All-Digital Subscriber Line c. Allocated Digital Service Line
b
.
Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber
Line
d. Access to Data Services Line

32. Compared to ISDN, internet access using ADSL is typically:
a. much faster c. much more expensive
b. about the same speed d. none of the above

COMPLETION
1. A ____________________ is a local calling area.
ANS: LATA
2. Central offices are connected together by ____________________ lines
ANS: trunk
3. One central office can be connected to another through a ____________________ office.
ANS: tandem
4. With 7-digit phone numbers, ____________________ thousand telephones can connect to a central
office.
ANS: ten
5. Call ____________________ is when it becomes impossible for a subscriber to place a call due to an
overload of lines being used.
ANS: blocking
6. New ____________________ switching equipment uses TDM to combine signals.
ANS: digital
7. Most local loops still use ____________________ copper wire.
ANS: twisted-pair
8. As compared to a hierarchical network, a ____________________ network never needs more than
one intermediate switch.
ANS: flat
9. ____________________ coils were used to reduce the attenuation of voice frequencies.
ANS: Loading
10. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the red wire is called ____________________.
ANS: ring
11. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the green wire is called ____________________.
ANS: tip
12. Of the red and green 'phone wires, the ____________________ wire is positive with respect to the
other.
ANS: green
13. A telephone is said to have ____________________ the line when the central office sends it dial
tone.
ANS: seized
14. The ____________________ functions are provided by a SLIC.
ANS: BORSCHT
15. A ____________________ coil prevents loss of signal energy within a telephone while allowing full-
duplex operation over a single pair of wires.
ANS: hybrid
16. In a crosspoint switch, not all ____________________ can be in use at the same time.
ANS: lines
17. The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively ____________________ signal voltage.
ANS: large
18. The generic term for Touch-Tone
signaling is ____________________.
ANS: DTMF
19. A ____________________ line provides more bandwidth than a standard line.
ANS: conditioned
20. In the telephone system, amplifiers are called ____________________.
ANS: repeaters
21. An echo ____________________ converts a long-distance line from full-duplex to half-duplex
operation.
ANS: suppressor
22. ____________________ weighting is an attempt to adjust the noise or signal level to the response of
a typical telephone receiver.
ANS: C-message
23. In FDM telephony, the modulation is usually ____________________.
ANS: SSB
SSBSC
24. In FDM telephony, ____________________ bands separate the channels in a group.
ANS: guard
25. Because of "bit robbing", a channel in a DS-1 frame allows only ____________________ kbps when
used to send digital data.
ANS: 56
26. A ____________________ is a group of 12 DS-1 frames with signaling information in the sixth and
twelfth frames.
ANS: superframe
27. In DS-1C, ____________________ bits are used to compensate for differences between clock rates.
ANS: stuff
28. Busy and dial tone are referred to as ____________________ signals because they use the same pair
of wires as the voice signal.
ANS: in-channel
29. SS7 is the current version of _________________________ signaling.
ANS: common-channel
30. SS7 is a ____________________-switched data network.
ANS: packet
31. In ISDN, the ____________________ channel is used for common-channel signaling.
ANS: D
32. In ISDN, the ____________________ channels are used for voice or data.
ANS: B
33. Terminal equipment especially designed for ISDN is designated ____________________ equipment.
ANS: TE1
34. The A in ADSL stands for ____________________.
ANS: asymmetrical
35. In ADSL, the speed from the network to the subscriber is ____________________ than the speed in
the opposite direction.
ANS: greater
faster
SHORT ANSWER

1. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If the loop current is
40 mA, what is the DC resistance of the local loop?

ANS: 1000 ohms

2. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If the loop current is
40 mA, what is the DC resistance of the telephone?

ANS: 200 ohms

3. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text.)

ANS: 697 Hz and 1209 Hz

4. Calculate the dB of VNL required for a channel with a 3 ms delay.

ANS: 1 dB

5. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm, what is its level in dBrn?

ANS: 90 dBrn

6. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB TLP. If C-weighting
produces a 10-dB loss, what would the signal level be in dBrnc0?

ANS: 65 dBrnc TLP

Chapter 9: Data Transmission

TRUE/FALSE
1. Data can be sent either in serial format or in parallel format.
ANS: T
2. For practical reasons, virtually all data communications is done in serial format.
ANS: T
3. The first binary code was invented in 1914.
ANS: F
4. A character code is the same as a data code.
ANS: T
5. The old Baudot code is no longer used.
ANS: F
6. How fast data can be transferred is independent of the character code used.
ANS: F
7. Both synchronous and asynchronous transmission require bit timing.
ANS: T
8. There is no "framing" in asynchronous transmission.
ANS: F
9. A "mark" is the same as a binary 1.
ANS: T
10. Digital modulation is sometimes called "keying".
ANS: T
11. Due to the "bursty" nature of most channel noise, simple parity is more or less useless.
ANS: T
12. An advantage of using a UART is that "buffer overflow" cannot happen.
ANS: F
13. Synchronous transmission is much more efficient than asynchronous transmission.
ANS: T
14. In synchronous transmission, the data stream is used to "lock" the receiver's clock onto the
transmitter's clock.
ANS: T
15. Bit-oriented protocols are being replaced by the newer character-oriented protocols.
ANS: F
16. In synchronous transmission, control characters in the data require special handling, but flag
sequences in the data do not.
ANS: F
17. HDLC is very similar to SDLC.
ANS: T
18. HDLC is a bit-oriented protocol.
ANS: T
19. When receiving digital data, it is possible to detect errors, but not to correct them.
ANS: F
20. In digital data transmission, bad frames are usually retransmitted.
ANS: T
21. CRC codes are particularly good at detecting burst errors.
ANS: T
22. Hamming codes allow errors to be corrected without requiring retransmission.
ANS: T
23. All schemes to detect errors require adding extra bits to the data being transmitted.
ANS: T
24. Huffman codes are as good as CRC codes at detecting errors, but are faster
ANS: F
25. Run-length encoding is a data-compression technique.
ANS: T
26. A "cipher" is, essentially, a secret code.
ANS: T
27. Both "private-key" and "public-key" encryption always require the addition of extra bits to the data.
ANS: T
28. An advantage of public-key encryption is that it is not "computation-intensive", meaning a computer
doesn't have to do many numerical calculations to unencrypt (decrypt) the data.
ANS: F
29. A "digital signature" does not require the use of encryption.
ANS: F

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. In practical terms, parallel data transmission is sent:
a. over short distances only c. over any distance
b. usually over long distances d. usually over a coaxial cable

2. The five-level teletype code was invented by:
a. the Morkum Company c. Western Union
b. the Teletype Company d. Emile Baudot

3. Data codes are also called:
a. character codes c. they do not have any other name
b. character sets d. both a and b

4. Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called:
a. FIGS data c. numerical data
b. binary data d. all of the above

5. Character codes include:
a. alphanumeric characters c. graphic control characters
b. data link control characters d. all of the above

6. ASCII stands for:
a. American Standard Character-set 2
b. American Standard Code for Information Interchange
c. American Standard Code 2
d. Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange

7. BS, FF, and CR are examples of:
a. nonstandard character codes c. control characters
b. escape characters d. none of the above
8. LF stands for:
a. Line Feed c. Line Forward
b. Link Feed d. Link Forward

9. UART stands for:
a. Universal Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter
b. Unidirectional Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter
c. Unaltered Received Text
d. Universal Automatic Receiver for Text

10. In asynchronous transmission, the transmitter and receiver are:
a. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits
b. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock
c. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits
d. not synchronized at all, hence the name "asynchronous"

11. In asynchronous transmission, the time between consecutive frames is:
a. equal to zero c. equal to the start and stop bit-times
b. equal to one bit-time d. not a set length

12. In synchronous transmission, the frames are:
a. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames
b. much longer than asynchronous frames
c. 128 bytes long
d. 1024 bytes long

13. Synchronous transmission is used because:
a. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency
b. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required
c. it is easier to implement than asynchronous
d. all of the above

14. In synchronous transmission, the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by using:
a. the clock bits c. the CRC bits
b. the data bits d. a separate clock line

15. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission:
a. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed
b. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization
c. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted
d. the channel must be noise-free

16. BISYNC:
a. is an IBM product c. requires the use of DLE
b. is a character-oriented protocol d. all of the above

17. HDLC:
a. is an IBM product c. is identical to SDLC
b. is a bit-oriented protocol d. all of the above

18. The use of flags in SDLC requires:
a. "bit-stuffing" c. FEC
b. different flags at either end of a frame d. ARQ

19. The initials ARQ are used to designate:
a. automatic request for resynchronization c. automatic receiver queue
b. automatic request for retransmission d. automatic request for queue
20. ARQ is used to:
a. correct bit errors c. put data into a temporary buffer
b. correct synchronization problems d. none of the above

21. FEC stands for:
a. Fixed Error Control c. Forward Error Correction
b. Forward Error Control d. False Error Condition

22. VRC is another name for:
a. FEC c. LRC
b. ARQ d. parity

23. CRC stands for:
a. Control Receiver Code c. Cyclic Redundancy Check
b. Correct Received Character d. Cycle Repeat Character

24. Huffman codes:
a. allow errors to be detected but not corrected
b. allow errors to be detected and corrected
c. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected
d. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed

25. Run-length encoding is used to:
a. encrypt data c. correct data
b. compress data d. none of the above

26. Public-key encryption:
a. allows the use of digital signatures c. avoids the "password problem"
b. is used to convey symmetric keys d. all of the above

27. SDLC stands for:
a. Synchronous Data Link Control c. Synchronous Data Link Character
b. Synchronous Data Line Control d. Synchronous Data Line Character

28. HDLC is:
a. a bit-oriented protocol c. an ISO standard
b. based on SDLC d. all of the above

COMPLETION

1. Parallel transmission can be used only for ____________________ distances.
ANS: short
2. The term "baud" was named after Emil ____________________.
ANS: Baudot
3. Data codes are also called ____________________ codes.
ANS: character
4. The ____________________ code is a 7-bit code commonly used in communication between
personal computers.
ANS: ASCII
5. The two letters ____________________ designate the code character used to advance a printer to
the next page.
ANS: FF
6. An asynchronous frame begins with the ____________________ bit.
ANS: start
7. An asynchronous frame ends with the ____________________ bit.
ANS: stop
8. At the end of an asynchronous frame, the line will be at the ____________________ level.
ANS: mark
binary 1
9. An integrated circuit called a ____________________ is used in an asynchronous communication
system to convert between parallel and serial data.
ANS: UART
10. When receiving digital data, ____________________ are used to hold data until they can be read.
ANS: buffers
11. Synchronous communication is more ____________________ than asynchronous since there are
fewer "overhead" bits.
ANS: efficient
12. There must be sufficient 1-to-0 ____________________ to maintain synchronization in synchronous
transmission.
ANS: transitions
13. Clock sync is derived from the stream of ____________________ bits in synchronous transmission.
ANS: data
14. In the ____________________ protocol, each frame begins with at least two SYN characters.
ANS: BISYNC
15. In HDLC, each frame starts with an 8-bit ____________________.
ANS: flag
16. The first eight bits of an SDLC frame are ____________________.
ANS: 01111110
17. BCC stands for ____________________ check character.
ANS: block
18. DLE stands for data link ____________________.
ANS: escape
19. HDLC uses bit-____________________ to prevent accidental flags.
ANS: stuffing
20. ____________________ errors cause many consecutive bits to be bad.
ANS: Burst
21. FEC stands for ____________________ error correction.
ANS: forward
22. An ____________________ scheme corrects errors by requiring the retransmission of bad blocks.
ANS: ARQ
23. Parity fails when an ____________________ number of bits are in error.
ANS: even
24. CRC codes are particularly good at detecting ____________________ errors.
ANS: burst
25. Huffman coding and run-length encoding are examples of data ____________________.
ANS: compression
26. A ____________________ is an encoding scheme that is not public in order to protect data.
ANS: cipher
27. A ____________________ is often used to generate an encryption key because it is easier to
remember.
ANS: password
28. If the key is ____________________ enough, private-key encryption can be quite secure.
ANS: long

29. Messages cannot be ____________________ using a public key.
ANS: decrypted
30. Because it is ____________________-intensive, public-key encryption can be slow.
ANS: computation

SHORT ANSWER

1. How many different characters could be encoded using a six-bit code?

ANS: 64

2. What is the numerical difference between ASCII 'a' and ASCII 'A' if you treat them as hexadecimal
(hex) numbers?

ANS: 20 hex (32 decimal)

3. The ASCII codes for the characters '0' through '9' are what hex numbers?

ANS: 30H to 39H

4. If an asynchronous frame is used to send ASCII characters in the form of bytes (8 bits), what is the
shortest time it could take to send 1000 characters if each bit in a frame is 1 msec long?

ANS: 10 seconds

5. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8 bits of data, a parity bit, and two stop bits (it could happen).
Calculate the efficiency of the communication system.

ANS: 66.7%

6. Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits of non-data in the front and a 16-bit BCC at the end. The
frame carries 1024 bytes of actual data. Calculate the efficiency of the communication system.

ANS: 97.0%

Chapter 10: Local Area Networks
TRUE/FALSE

1. The maximum extent of a local area network is one building.
ANS: F
2. An organization could have several local area networks in the same room.
ANS: T
3. LANs can allow several people to access the same file at the same time.
ANS: T
4. LANs often use "dumb" terminals as workstations.
ANS: F
5. On a circuit-switched network, a data stream has a channel all to itself for the duration of the
connection.
ANS: T
6. A "node" is a workstation or PC connected to a network.
ANS: T
7. In a star network, if one node fails, the entire network goes down.
ANS: F
8. Hubs are, by definition, passive.
ANS: F
9. Token passing can be implemented as a ring or as a bus.
ANS: T
10. A token is used to control access to the network.
ANS: T
11. A token is generated by a node wishing to access the network.
ANS: F
12. On a bus network, all traffic shares a common channel.
ANS: T
13. CSMA networks must deal with "contention".
ANS: T
14. Token-passing networks must deal with "collisions" between two tokens.
ANS: F
15. On a CSMA/CD network, several nodes can try to access the channel simultaneously.
ANS: T
16. A "collision" will take a CSMA network down.
ANS: F
17. Token rings never have collisions.
ANS: T
18. CSMA works best when traffic is relatively light.
ANS: T
19. A token-ring network can be implemented with a bus topology.
ANS: T
20. A MAU will disconnect a defective node from a CSMA network.
ANS: F
21. Token-ring networks usually operate at 100 megabits per second.
ANS: F
22. Most LANs are based on the Ethernet type of network.
ANS: T
23. Ethernet was originated by Microsoft with participation by Intel.
ANS: F
24. IEEE 802.3 is a protocol based on Ethernet.
ANS: T
25. Ethernet-type networks are limited to a maximum speed of 100 Mbits per second.
ANS: F
26. Classic Ethernet is no longer used for new networks.
ANS: T
27. Originally, Ethernet used 10Base2 coaxial cable.
ANS: F
28. 100BaseT cable could be used in a new LAN installation.
ANS: T
29. The "100" in 100BaseT designates the supported bit rate.
ANS: T
30. The "Base" in 100BaseT indicates the cable carries an unmodulated signal.
ANS: T
31. The "T" in 100BaseT indicates the cable is Thick coax.
ANS: F
32. Ethernet uses CSMA/CD.
ANS: T
33. Ethernet type LANs use token passing.
ANS: F
34. In CSMA, a node must "listen" to the channel before trying to use it.
ANS: T
35. 10BaseT cable usually uses RJ-45 connectors.
ANS: T
36. 100BaseT cable requires a BNC connector.
ANS: F
37. Ethernet cannot use fiber-optic cables.
ANS: F
38. Packets on a CSMA/CD network must be equal to or longer than some minimum size.
ANS: T
39. On a CSMA/CD network, there will be fewer collisions if longer packets are used.
ANS: T
40. Longer packets means more bits must be retransmitted after a collision.
ANS: T
41. On a CSMA/CD network, only one node actually needs to "hear" a collision.
ANS: F
42. A NIC gives a unique address to a node on a network.
ANS: T
43. If coax is used, the ends must be left open to avoid reflections.
ANS: F
44. Typically, a NIC requires a 4-wire cable to connect to a hub.
ANS: T
45. CAT-5 UTP is actually the same as ordinary twisted-pair telephone wire.
ANS: F
46. Standard Manchester line encoding can be used up to 100 Mbits per second.
ANS: F
47. If 10BaseT cabling is used in a multinode LAN, then a hub cannot be used.
ANS: F
48. Compared to a hub, a switch reduces the chances for a collision.
ANS: T
49. "Jabber" is failure mode for a NIC.
ANS: T
50. "Stacking" is a failure mode for a hub.
ANS: F
51. Network software is generally independent of the network topology.
ANS: T
52. The same network software can be used on a token-passing network and on an Ethernet LAN.
ANS: T
53. To a user on the network, a hard drive on the server looks like it is on the workstation.
ANS: T
54. In a client-server network, each node takes a turn at being the server.
ANS: F
55. Software that runs a client-server network must have true multitasking ability.
ANS: T

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. CSMA stands for:
a. Client-Server Multi-Access c. Carrier Server Master Application
b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access d. none of the above

2. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for:
a. Carrier Detection c. Collision Detection
b. Carrier Delay d. Collision Delay

3. The Internet is:
a. a network of networks c. a very large CSMA/CD network
b. a very large client-server network d. not really a network at all

4. Most LANs:
a. are based on Ethernet c. use UTP cable
b. use CSMA/CD d. all of the above

5. Dumb terminals are still used:
a. in token-passing networks
b. in networks requiring central monitoring
c. in networks that cannot provide central monitoring

6. In a circuit-switched network:
a. communication is half-duplex only
b. each channel carries only one data stream
c. connection is usually done using a bus topology
d. all of the above

7. Each computer on a network is called a:
a. hub c. node
b. token d. circuit

8. Compared to CSMA/CD systems, token-passing rings are:
a. slower c. not as widely used
b. more expensive d. all of the above

9. The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected to:
a. a central ring c. a node
b. a central bus d. none of the above

10. On networks, long messages are divided into "chunks" called:
a. packets c. carriers
b. nodes d. tokens

11. When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same time, it is called:
a. a collision c. excess traffic
b. contention d. multiple access
12. When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time, it is called:
a. a collision c. excess traffic
b. contention d. multiple access

13. One type of network that never has a collision is:
a. CSMA c. token-passing
b. Ethernet d. all networks have collisions

14. In an Ethernet-based network, a switch can be used to reduce the number of:
a. nodes c. packets
b. users d. collisions

15. The effect of too many collisions is:
a. the network goes down c. the cable overheats
b. the network slows down d. data is lost

16. MAU stands for:
a. Multistation Access Unit c. Multiple Auxiliary Units
b. Multiple Access Unit d. none of the above

17. The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is:
a. EIA 232 c. IEEE 802.3
b. IEEE 488.1 d. CCITT ITU-E

18. Ethernet was invented by:
a. IBM c. Xerox
b. INTEL d. Digital Equipment Corporation

19. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses:
a. Manchester encoding c. NRZ encoding
b. Three-Level encoding d. AMI encoding

20. A 100BaseT cable uses:
a. fiber-optic cable c. RG-58U coaxial cable
b. twisted-pair copper wires d. 50-ohm coaxial cable

21. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means:
a. the cable carries baseband signals
b. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps
c. it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system
22. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is:
a. to increase the data rate
b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission
c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress
d. all of the above

23. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is:
a. to increase the data rate
b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission
c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress
d. all of the above

24. NIC stands for:
a. Network Interface Card c. Network Interface Code
b. Network Interface Cable d. Network Internal Code

25. 10BaseT cable typically uses:
a. a BNC connector c. an RJ45 connector
b. a T connector d. an RS11 connector

26. UTP stands for:
a. Untwisted-Pair copper wire c. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet
b. Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire d. Unicode Text Packet
27. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables, CAT-5 cables:
a. are cheaper c. allow faster bit rates
b. are easier to crimp connectors onto d. all of the above

28. A hub:
a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it
b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports
c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network
d. are more common in token-passing networks

29. A switch:
a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it
b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports
c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network
d. are more common in token-passing networks

30. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is:
a. it is cheaper when used in large networks
b. it is faster when used in large networks
c. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks
d. all of the above

31. Broadband LANs:
a. modulate the data onto a carrier
b. use coaxial cables
c. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access
d. all of the above

32. Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in:
a. peer-to-peer networks c. both a and b
b. client-server networks d. none of the above

33. Record locking is used to:
a. store records securely on a server
b. prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously
c. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to

34. The software that runs a client-server network must be:
a. UNIX-based c. multitasking
b. WINDOWS-based d. Novell certified

35. A "thin" client is:
a. basically, a PC with no disk drives c. same as a "dumb" terminal
b. a node that rarely sends data d. all of the above

COMPLETION

1. A LAN is a ____________________ Area Network.
ANS: Local
2. The Internet is a network of ____________________.
ANS: networks
3. In a ____________________ network, all nodes are connected to a central computer.
ANS: star
4. In a ____________________-switched network, users have a dedicated channel for the duration of
communications.
ANS: circuit
5. The ____________________ of a network describes how it is physically connected together.
ANS: topology
6. Ring networks often use ____________________-passing.
ANS: token
7. A ____________________ is a short section of a message in digital form.
ANS: packet
8. ____________________ is when two nodes try to seize the same cable at the same time.
ANS: Contention
9. A ____________________ occurs when two nodes transmit simultaneously on the same baseband
cable.
ANS: collision
10. In CSMA/CD networks, all collisions must be ____________________.
ANS: detected
11. Carrier-Sense means that a node "listens" for the cable to be ____________________ before using it.
ANS: quiet
free
unused
available

12. A "____________________" cable links clusters of computers together.
ANS: backbone
13. 100BaseT cables can reliably carry up to ____________________ bits per second.
ANS: 100 mega
14. In CSMA/CD, packets must have a ____________________ length to ensure that collisions are
detected.
ANS: minimum
15. In CSMA/CD, the ____________________ of a cable is limited to ensure that collisions are detected.
ANS: length
16. A unique numerical address is provided to a node by its ____________________.
ANS: NIC
17. A 100BaseTX cable is a ____________________ cable.
ANS: fiber-optic
18. Hubs can be ____________________ to form, in effect, one big hub.
ANS: stacked
19. A switch looks at the ____________________ of each incoming packet.
ANS: address
20. The effect of a switch is to greatly reduce ____________________.
ANS: contention

SHORT ANSWER

1. Explain how a network can be a physical bus but a logical ring.

ANS: A token-passing network sends the token from node to node in a prescribed order.
So it doesn't matter how the physical connection is made. It still works like a token-passing ring.

2. What is the key difference between a hub and a switch?

ANS: A hub sends incoming packets out to all other ports on the hub. A switch sends a
packet to a specific port based on the address in the packet.

3. What is the advantage of a CSMA/CD network over a basic star network?

ANS: If the central computer in a star network fails, the entire network is inoperative. If a
node fails in a CSMA/CD network, it can be disconnected and the network still functions.

4. Why do CSMA/CD packets have a minimum size limit?

ANS: If a packet is too short, nodes at either end of a cable could get on, send a packet,
and get off before the packets travel far enough to collide. The collision would not be detected.

5. What is a NIC address, and why is it unique?

ANS: The address is a long binary number "burned" into a NIC's memory chip at the
factory. Each factory uses a different sequence of numbers, so the chances of two NICs on the same
network having the same address is extremely small.

Chapter 11: Wide-Area Networks and the Internet

TRUE/FALSE

1. Leased lines are the least expensive way to connect a WAN.
ANS: F
2. A WAN can be implemented using circuit switching.
ANS: T
3. A WAN can be implemented using packet switching.
ANS: T
4. A WAN can be implemented using analog lines.
ANS: T
5. A WAN can be implemented using digital lines.
ANS: T
6. Packet switching uses the shortest route.
ANS: F
7. With packet switching, you never get a "busy signal".
ANS: T
8. With packet switching, you always get a "real-time" connection.
ANS: F
9. Packets may not arrive at the destination in the same order they were sent.
ANS: T
10. Packets are often blocked by channels that are too full or are disconnected.
ANS: F
11. Packets received out of order is a failure mode in packet switching.
ANS: F
12. In digital communications, errors within frames are detected and corrected at the data-link layer of a
protocol stack.
ANS: T
13. Protocols are the various pieces of hardware used to transmit and receive digital data.
ANS: F
14. The ISO OSI is a protocol.
ANS: F
15. The network layer sets up the path through the network.
ANS: T
16. X.25 is a protocol.
ANS: T
17. An X.25 frame is similar to an HDLC frame.
ANS: T
18. Each frame contains a virtual circuit.
ANS: F
19. Some packets only carry control bits.
ANS: T
20. X.25 gives reliable service even over relatively poor cables.
ANS: T
21. Frame relay uses more error detection and correction than does X.25.
ANS: F
22. Frame relay requires better quality cables than does X.25.
ANS: T
23. Frame relay is faster than X.25.
ANS: T
24. Variable-length frames allow faster data rates than do fixed-length frames.
ANS: F
25. Frame relay allows for variable-length packets.
ANS: T
26. ATM is faster than frame relay.
ANS: T
27. ATM uses relatively large fixed-length frames.
ANS: F
28. ATM is designed to carry real-time information such as video.
ANS: T
29. ATM is best suited to fiber-optic cables.
ANS: T
30. Most WANs are set up to work as extensions of the LANs they interconnect.
ANS: T
31. There are only two ways to set up a WAN.
ANS: F
32. The term "bridge" is another name for a repeater.
ANS: F
33. Bridges must examine the address field of each packet they see.
ANS: T
34. Bridges function at the data-link level.
ANS: T
35. Routers operate at the network level.
ANS: T
36. TCP/IP predates ISO OSI.
ANS: T
37. TCP/IP contains additional levels beyond the seven described by ISO OSI.
ANS: F
38. The task of IP is to get packets to their intended destination.
ANS: F
39. IP is simple but very "robust".
ANS: T
40. A problem with IP is that packets can get stuck traveling the network in an endless loop.
ANS: F
41. IP continues to function even if parts of the network are destroyed.
ANS: T
42. One task of TCP is to detect lost packets.
ANS: T
43. One task of TCP is to reorder received packets into their correct sequence.
ANS: T
44. UDP is a more sophisticated version of TCP.
ANS: F
45. The Internet is a large network of other networks running the TCP/IP protocols.
ANS: T
46. The current 32-bit address scheme used on the Internet is highly efficient.
ANS: F
47. A domain-name server stores the address of every computer attached to the Internet.
ANS: F
48. An intranet is essentially a private Internet.
ANS: T

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. MAN stands for:
a. Manchester Access Network c. Metropolitan-Area Network
b. Multiple-Area Network d. Multiple Access Network

2. Packet switching is based on:
a. store-and-forward c. real-time delivery
b. switched circuits d. all of the above

3. SNA stands for:
a. Standard Network Access c. Standard Network Architecture
b. Small Network Access d. Systems Network Architecture

4. The number of layers in ISO OSI is:
a. 3 c. 7
b. 5 d. 8

5. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called the:
a. physical layer c. cable layer
b. link layer d. transport layer

6. Bad frames are usually detected by the:
a. frame layer c. error-check layer
b. physical layer d. link layer

7. A virtual circuit is set up by the:
a. user c. network
b. link layer d. frame

8. Frame Relay:
a. is faster than X.25 c. allows for variable length packets
b. does less error checking than X.25 d. all of the above

9. ATM stands for:
a. Asynchronous Transfer Mode c. Asynchronous Transmission Model
b. Asynchronous Transmission Mode d. Automatic Test Mode

10. A bridge:
a. separates a network into "collision domains"
b. looks at the address of each packet
c. operate at the data-link level
d. all of the above

11. IP stands for:
a. Internet Process c. Interconnect Protocol
b. Internet Protocol d. Interconnect Procedure

12. TCP stands for:
a. Transmission Control Process c. Transfer Connection Protocol
b. Transmission Control Protocol d. none of the above

13. Together, TCP/IP consists of:
a. 5 layers c. an application and a process
b. 7 layers d. datagrams
14. IP is a:
a. connection-oriented protocol c. connectionless protocol
b. virtual circuit d. non-robust protocol

15. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network:
a. is essentially forever
b. depends on elapsed time since transmission
c. depends on number of "hops" between nodes
d. is approximately 200 milliseconds

16. UDP stands for:
a. User Datagram Protocol c. User Data Packet
b. User Data Protocol d. Universal Data Packet

17. HTTP stands for:
a. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure
b. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure
c. Hypertext Transmission and Transport Procedure
d. Hypertext Transport Protocol

18. HTTP allows the use of:
a. dumb terminals c. browsers
b. file transport d. none of the above

19. HTML stands for:
a. Hypertext Markup Language c. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer
b. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level d. High-speed Transfer-Mode Language

20. HTML allows:
a. telneting c. web page layout
b. high-speed file transfer d. all of the above

21. FTP stands for:
a. File Transfer Protocol c. File Test Procedure
b. File Transport Protocol d. Fast Transport Packet

22. FTP is used to:
a. transfer files between a server on the network and a user
b. test files to see if their data has been "corrupted"
c. transport packets at maximum speed through the network

23. SMTP stands for:
a. Short Message Transport Protocol c. Simple Mail Transport Protocol
b. Simple Message Transport Protocol d. Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure

24. ISP stands for:
a. Internet Service Protocol c. Internet Service Procedure
b. Internet Service Provider d. none of the above

25. The standard Internet address (or URL) is:
a. a 32-bit binary number c. running out of available values
b. four groups of base-ten numbers d. all of the above

26. DNS stands for:
a. Domain Name Server c. Domain Numbering System
b. Domain Name System d. Domain Naming System
27. A DNS:
a. has become obsolete on the Internet
b. translates words to numbers
c. stores all domain addresses
d. describes the Internet address-naming procedure

28. An intranet connected to the Internet is often protected by:
a. a DNS c. a "firewall"
b. a "brick wall" d. the use of "spoofing" protocols

29. OSI stands for:
a. Open Systems Interconnection c. Open Systems Internet
b. Open Standard Interconnection d. none of the above

COMPLETION

1. A ____________________-Area Network would extend typically across a city.
ANS: Metropolitan
2. A ____________________-Area Network could extend across a nation.
ANS: Wide
3. A dedicated telephone line can be ____________________ on a monthly basis.
ANS: leased
4. The use of digital circuit-____________________ lines is cheaper than dedicated lines.
ANS: switched
5. Packet switching is done on a store-and-____________________ network.
ANS: forward
6. A ____________________ is a hierarchy of procedures for implementing digital communications.
ANS: protocol
7. Voltage levels on a cable are specified at the ____________________ layer.
ANS: physical
8. Bad frames are usually detected at the ____________________ layer.
ANS: data-link
9. Setting up a path through the network is done by the ____________________ layer.
ANS: network
10. The X.25 protocol was developed by the ____________________.
ANS: CCITT
11. In X.25, the data-link layer is called the ____________________ layer.
ANS: frame
12. In X.25, the network layer is called the ____________________ layer.
ANS: packet
13. The physical route of a ____________________ circuit changes each time it is used.
ANS: virtual
14. Frame Relay requires channels with low ____________________ rates.
ANS: bit-error
15. Compared to X.25, Frame Relay does ____________________ error checking.
ANS: less
16. All ATM frames contain just ____________________ bytes.
ANS: 53
17. Small frame size and a high-speed channel allow ____________________-time communications.
ANS: real
18. ____________________ simply regenerate and retransmit packets in a network.
ANS: Repeaters
19. ____________________ look at the address inside a packet to decide whether or not to retransmit it.
ANS: Bridges
20. ____________________ decide the best network path on which to forward a packet.
ANS: Routers
21. TCP/IP goes back to the ____________________ of the 1970s.
ANS: ARPANET
DARPANET
22. Between ISO OSI and TCP/IP, ____________________ was used first.
ANS: TCP/IP
23. A ____________________ protocol does not track packets after they are sent.
ANS: connectionless
24. HTTP allows the use of ____________________ that jump to other pages on the web.
ANS: hyperlinks
25. The Internet "backbone" mostly uses high-speed ____________________ cables.
ANS: fiber-optic
26. A ____________________ translates words in an Internet address to numbers.
ANS: DNS
27. Intranets usually connect to the Internet through a ____________________ for security.
ANS: firewall
28. Voice over ____________________ is telephony done over the Internet.
ANS: IP
29. "____________________" is another term for real-time transmission over the Internet.
ANS: Streaming
30. Most people gain access to the Internet by subscribing to an ____________________.
ANS: ISP

SHORT ANSWER

1. Name the three parts of an IP address as used on the Internet.
ANS: Network number, Subnet number, Host number

2. Why is a logical channel called a "virtual" circuit?
ANS: A logical channel is a way of keeping track of which two nodes on the network have
messages for each other. The actual physical path can change while packets are being sent. Virtual means
it behaves like direct circuit between 'A' and 'B', but it is not a direct circuit.

3. Why is it faster to send packets of a fixed size compared to packets of variable size?
ANS: The processing required to store and forward packets of different lengths is greater
than that required for packets of a fixed length. More processing implies more time per packet, which
implies fewer packets per second through the network.

4. Why are the tasks involved in digital communications divided into layers in a protocol stack? Why
not just have one layer that does it all?
ANS: Divide and conquer: it reduces complexity to a manageable job. One big layer could
not be adapted to newer media etc as easily as a system of independent layers. Think of subroutines in a
computer program.

5. What is a "hop"?
ANS: Every time a packet is forwarded on to the next store-and-forward node in the
network, it is considered to be one "hop".

6. What does it mean to say a packet has a lifetime measured in hops?
ANS: Each packet contains a number representing the maximum number of allowed hops.
At each hop, this number is reduced by one. When it gets to zero, the packet is deleted from the network.

7. Why should packets have a lifetime?
ANS: If they didn't, then the number of "lost" packets traveling around the network would
continuously increase. At some point, there would be no bandwidth left to carry real traffic.
Chapter 12: Digital Modulation and Modems
TRUE/FALSE

1. Little data communication is carried over voice-grade telephone lines.
ANS: F
2. The word "keying" is still used to denote digital modulation schemes.
ANS: T
3. ASK is rarely used for data communications.
ANS: T
4. Information capacity is proportional to bandwidth.
ANS: T
5. Information capacity is independent of noise.
ANS: F
6. "Baud rate" is the same as bits per second.
ANS: F
7. A "mark" is a binary one.
ANS: T
8. "Space" is another term for bandwidth.
ANS: F
9. FSK is slow, but "robust".
ANS: T
10. FSK makes efficient use of available bandwidth.
ANS: F
11. FSK is used extensively in high-frequency radioteletype transmission.
ANS: T
12. PSK is typically faster than FSK.
ANS: T
13. "Dibit" is another term for PSK.
ANS: F
14. PSK is typically DPSK.
ANS: T
15. QPSK is typically DQPSK.
ANS: T
16. Digital amplitude modulation is called QAM.
ANS: F
17. QAM uses PSK.
ANS: T
18. A "constellation diagram" shows the "symbols" used in QAM.
ANS: T
19. CCITT is now ITU-T.
ANS: T
20. Equalization compensates for phase and frequency distortions in a channel.
ANS: T
21. Signal complexity compensates for low S/N during transmission.
ANS: F
22. Receiver equalization requires a "training sequence" be sent at startup.
ANS: T
23. 54 kbps is about the maximum speed you can get from a telephone line modem.
ANS: T
24. High-speed modems cannot do data compression.
ANS: F
25. High-speed modems cannot do error correction.
ANS: F
26. MNP4 is an error-correction protocol.
ANS: T
27. V.42 is a data-compression scheme.
ANS: F
28. A computer is a DTE.
ANS: T
29. A MODEM is a DCE.
ANS: T
30. EIA-232D is the same as RS-232C.
ANS: T
31. RS-232 describes a parallel port protocol.
ANS: F
32. The response to RTS is DSR.
ANS: F
33. RTS and CTS provide a "handshake" between a DTE and a DCE.
ANS: T
34. +10 volts on an RS-232 control line is a HIGH or TRUE level.
ANS: T
35. +12 volts on an RS-232 signal line is a binary ONE.
ANS: F
36. A line is active when it is "asserted".
ANS: T
37. "Smart" MODEMS are initialized with a string of "AT" commands.
ANS: T
38. Twisted-pair telephone wire is not capable of more than about 4 kHz of bandwidth.
ANS: F
39. DSL carries high-speed data over twisted-pair telephone wire.
ANS: T
40. CATV cables only carry signals one way: from the head-end to the subscriber.
ANS: F
41. Fiber-optic CATV cables carry analog signals.
ANS: T
42. Typically, a NIC is required to interface a PC to a cable modem.
ANS: T
43. A cable modem is always on.
ANS: T
44. A DSL connection is always on.
ANS: T
45. A cable modem shares the channel with other users.
ANS: T
46. A DSL connection shares the loop with other subscribers.
ANS: F
47. ADSL Lite is faster than standard ADSL.
ANS: F
48. ADSL Lite requires a splitter at the subscriber end.
ANS: F
49. In practice, both ADSL Lite and a cable modem have comparable data rates.
ANS: T

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. FSK stands for:
a. Full-Shift Keying c. Full-Signal Keying
b. Frequency-Shift Keying d. none of the above

2. PSK stands for:
a. Pulse-Signal Keying c. Phase-Signal Keying
b. Pulse-Shift Keying d. Phase-Shift Keying

3. QAM stands for:
a. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation c. Quadrature Amplitude Marking
b. Quadrature Amplitude Masking d. none of the above

4. In the equation I = ktB, I is measured in:
a. amperes c. bits
b. amperes per second d. bits per second

5. In the equation C = 2Blog
2
M, M is the:
a. margin of noise c. number of possible states per symbol
b. modulation index d. maximum number of symbols per second

6. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when:
a. the eye is maximally open c. the eye is half open
b. the eye is maximally closed d. the eye alternately opens and closes

7. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of:
a. too many bits high c. intermodulation distortion
b. too many bits low d. intersymbol interference

8. High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use:
a. FSK c. PSK
b. AFSK d. QAM

9. Instead of a single bit, a QPSK symbol contains:
a. a byte c. a dibit
b. 4 bits d. a Q-bit

10. To reduce the need for linearity, t/4 DQPSK uses:
a. angles of 0, 90, 180, and 270 degrees c. angles of t/4, 2t/4, 3t/4, and 4t/4
b. angles of 45, 135, 225, and 315 degrees d. double phase-shift angles

11. For QAM, a "constellation diagram" shows:
a. location of symbols in "symbol space" c. effects of noise on symbols
b. separation of symbols in "symbol space" d. all of the above

12. For QAM, the two dimensions of its symbol space are:
a. amplitude and frequency c. frequency and phase angle
b
.
amplitude and phase angle d. I-bits and Q-bits
13. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were:
a. 300 bps, full-duplex, FSK c. 1200 bps, full-duplex, FSK
b. 600 bps, full-duplex, FSK d. 1200 bps, half-duplex, FSK

14. ITU is an abbreviation for:
a. International Telephony Unit c. International Telecommunications Union
b. International Telephony Union d. International Telecommunications Units
15. The ITU is under the auspices of:
a. CCITT c. IEEE
b. the U.N. d. ANSI

16. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for:
a. noise and interference
b. uneven phase and frequency response
c. low SNR
d. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel

17. The bits sent to allow equalization are called:
a. Gaussian bits c. a training sequence
b. random bits d. a random sequence

18. The V.90 standard is issued by:
a. the EIA c. the ITU
b. the TIA d. the ISO

19. MNP2, MNP3, MNP4, and MNP10 are all:
a. data-compression schemes c. both a and b
b. error-correction protocols d. none of the above

20. MNP5 and V.42 bis are both:
a. data-compression schemes c. both a and b
b. error-correction protocols d. none of the above

21. In RS-232, flow control is done using:
a. RTS/CTS handshake c. both a and b
b. XON/XOFF characters d. none of the above

22. The official name for RS-232C is:
a. RS-232C c. ISO-232C/D
b. EIA-232D d. ANSI-232C

23. In RS-232, a modem would be:
a. a DTR c. a DCE
b. a DSR d. a DTE

24. In RS-232, a personal computer would be:
a. a DTR c. a DCE
b. a DSR d. a DTE

25. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector, signal ground is pin:
a. 1 c. 5
b. 3 d. 7

26. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector, signal ground is pin:
a. 1 c. 5
b. 3 d. 7
27. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are:
a. TD and RD c. TD, RD, DSR, and signal ground
b. TD, RD, and signal ground d. TD, RD, RTS, CTS, and signal ground
28. Hardware flow control uses:
a. XON and XOFF c. RTS and CTS
b. TD and RD d. DSR and DCD

29. Software flow control uses:
a. XON and XOFF c. RTS and CTS
b. TD and RD d. DSR and DCD

30. Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin:
a. +15 volts c. +9 volts
b. +12 volts d. all of the above

31. DSL stands for:
a. Data Signal Line c. Digital Subscriber Line
b. Digital Signal Line d. Double-Speed Loop

32. ADSL stands for:
a. Asynchronous DSL c. Analog DSL
b. Asymmetrical DSL d. All DSL

33. In a CATV system, HFC stands for:
a. Head Frequency Control c. Hybrid Fiber-Coax
b. Hybrid Frequency Control d. Hybrid Fiber Control

34. In a CATV system, CMTS stands for:
a. Cable Modem Terminal Server c. Cable Modem Terminal System
b. Cable Modem Transmission System d. Cable Modem Transmission Server

35. A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for:
a. Any DSL scheme c. ADSL Lite
b. ADSL d. none of the above

COMPLETION

1. RTS means Request To ____________________.
ANS: Send
2. The response to RTS is ____________________.
ANS: CTS
3. FSK stands for Frequency-Shift ____________________.
ANS: Keying
4. DSR stands for ____________________ Set Ready.
ANS: Data
5. QAM stands for ____________________ Amplitude Modulation.
ANS: Quadrature
6. The number of symbols per second is called the ____________________ rate.
ANS: baud
7. The 2 bits of information in a QPSK symbol is called a ____________________.
ANS: dibit
8. QPSK uses ____________________ different phase angles.
ANS: four
9. DPSK stands for ____________________ PSK.
ANS: Delta
10. The QAM amplitude-phase combinations are shown with a ____________________ diagram.
ANS: constellation
11. ITU stands for International _________________________ Union.
ANS: Telecommunications
12. In QAM modems, ____________________ coding adds extra bits to improve performance on a noisy
line.
ANS: Trellis
13. ____________________ is used in a high-speed modem to compensate for uneven frequency and
phase response on a line.
ANS: Equalization
14. The maximum allowed speed for a modem on a dial-up line is about ____________________ bps.
ANS: 54k
15. The nominal maximum speed on an RS-232 cable is ____________________ bps.
ANS: 20k
16. In RS-232, the ____________________ line is asserted when the analog carrier from another modem
is being received.
ANS: CD
DCD
RLSD
17. Between hardware flow control and software flow control, ____________________ flow control is
preferred.
ANS: hardware
18. A voltage higher than ____________________ volts should be considered a high on an RS-232
receiver.
ANS: 3
19. A ____________________ modem cable is used to connect two DTEs via their serial ports.
ANS: null
20. ADSL stands for ____________________ DSL.
ANS: Asymmetrical
21. A typical CATV system is organized as a ____________________ network.
ANS: tree

22. In a CATV system using cable modems, a ____________________ is used to put several channels of
data onto a fiber-optic backbone.
ANS: CMTS
23. ____________________ is the process of synchronizing transmitted data from cable modems to a
CMTS.
ANS: Ranging
24. ____________________ systems send high-speed data over a POTS line while sharing the line with
dial-up service.
ANS: ADSL
25. The ____________________ version of ADSL does not require a splitter at the subscriber end.
ANS: lite
26. ____________________ modulation divides the line bandwidth into many narrow bands called tones
or bins for ADSL.
ANS: DMT
27. A DSLAM is a DSL Access ____________________.
ANS: Multiplexer

SHORT ANSWER

1. Calculate the bits per second capacity of a system sending 1000 symbols per second with 16 possible
states per symbol.
ANS: 4000
2. How many points will be on the constellation diagram of a QAM system using 8 phase angles and 2
amplitude levels?
ANS: 16
3. A CATV system has 100 cable-modem customers sharing a single channel with a data rate of 36
Mbps. If half the modems are active at any given time, what bit rate can a customer expect?
ANS: 720 kbps
4. A DMT system uses 4.3-kHz bins on a 1-MHz cable. Approximately how many bins are there?
ANS: 230
5. Assuming a maximum symbol rate of 400 per second, how many possible states must a symbol have
to achieve a data rate of 1200 bps?
ANS: 8

Chapter 13: Multiplexing and Multiple-Access Techniques

TRUE/FALSE

1. Most communications systems require the sharing of channels.
ANS: T
2. Multiple-access is the same as multiplexing.
ANS: F
3. There are three basic ways to share media.
ANS: T
4. In FDM, each transmission has a frequency band all to itself.
ANS: T
5. TDM and FDM cannot be used simultaneously.
ANS: F
6. FDM cannot be used on fiber-optic cables.
ANS: F
7. DS-1 uses TDM.
ANS: T
8. In one out of every six DS-1 frames, the LSBs are used for signaling.
ANS: T
9. DS-3 is three times as fast as DS-1.
ANS: F
10. A "time switch" is used to increase or decrease the bit rate.
ANS: F
11. A "space switch" is used to change the time slot of the samples on a bus.
ANS: F
12. A space switch is used only with analog signals.
ANS: F
13. The bus of a time switch is often called a "highway".
ANS: T
14. Spread-spectrum is used on radio channels to overcome interference.
ANS: T
15. A problem with spread-spectrum is that it is easily "blocked".
ANS: F
16. With spread-spectrum, the signal-to-noise ratio can be less than one.
ANS: T
17. Spread-spectrum is affected less by Rayleigh fading than standard RF technology.
ANS: T
18. "Frequency-hopping" is the only practical way to implement spread-spectrum.
ANS: F
19. Direct-sequence spread-spectrum adds "pseudo-random" bits to the data bits.
ANS: T
20. In direct-sequence spread-spectrum, the number of added bits cannot exceed the number of data bits.
ANS: F
21. Both frequency-hopping and direct-sequence require synchronization of receiver to transmitter.
ANS: T
22. CDMA uses spread-spectrum.
ANS: T
23. With CDMA, all stations can be transmitting on the same band at the same time.
ANS: T

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. TDMA stands for:
a. Time Domain Multiple Access c. Tone Division Multiple Access
b. Time-Division Multiple Access d. none of the above

2. CDMA stands for:
a. Code-Division Multiple Access c. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement
b. Carrier Division Multiple Access d. none of the above

3. TDMA is used instead of TDM when:
a. all the signals come from the same source
b. the signals come from different sources
c. TDM is used in RF communications
d. they mean the same thing

4. When calculating the maximum number of users, a limiting factor in FDM is:
a. the type of media used c. the bandwidth of each signal
b. the length of the channel d. all of the above

5. A DS-1 signal contains:
a. 12 channels c. 32 channels
b. 24 channels d. 64 channels

6. The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is:
a. 64 kbps c. 1.536 Mbps
b. 256 kbps d. 1.544 Mbps

7. Besides data bits, a DS-1 frame contains a:
a. timing bit c. signaling bit
b. T-bit d. framing bit

8. In DS-1, a bit is "stolen" out of each channel:
a. every frame c. every sixth frame
b. every other frame d. every twelfth frame

9. Moving signals from one line to another is called:
a. time switching c. line switching
b. space switching d. cross-point switching

10. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot to another is called:
a. time switching c. signal switching
b. space switching d. crosspoint switching

11. A digital space switch is a:
a. multiplexer c. computerized Strowger switch
b. TDM switch d. crosspoint switch

12. Spread-spectrum can be done by using:
a. computer-controlled frequency reuse c. direct-sequence method
b. frequency-hopping d. all of the above
13. The term "chip rate" is used in describing:
a. computer-controlled frequency reuse c. direct-sequence method
b. frequency-hopping d. all of the above
14. For a given data rate, direct-sequence systems, compared to standard RF systems, use:
a. about the same bandwidth c. much less bandwidth
b. much more bandwidth d. approximately double the bandwidth

15. "Processing gain" is another term for:
a. RF gain c. spreading gain
b. computer speed d. improved signal-to-noise ratio

16. To calculate processing gain, divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by:
a. the digital data bit rate c. the S/N ratio
b. bandwidth of original baseband d. the chip size

17. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread-spectrum would be:
a. a narrowband receiver c. a direct-conversion receiver
b. a wideband receiver d. a CDMA receiver

18. A receiver for direct-sequence spread-spectrum would be:
a. a narrowband receiver c. a direct-conversion receiver
b. a wideband receiver d. a "chip-rate" receiver

19. CDMA:
a. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum
b. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum
c. cannot be used on an RF channel
d. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously

20. For optimal performance, CDMA requires the use of:
a. orthogonal PN sequences c. true-random PN sequences
b. non-orthogonal PN sequences d. none of the above

COMPLETION

1. Multiplexing allows many signals to ____________________ a channel.
ANS: share
2. Three methods of multiple access are FDMA, TDMA, and ____________________.
ANS: CDMA
3. In FDM, each signal uses part of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time.
ANS: all
4. In TDM, each signal uses all of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time.
ANS: part
5. Using CDMA on a radio channel, all signals can transmit ____________________ of the time.
ANS: all
6. DS-1 is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing.
ANS: time
7. The AM radio band is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing.
ANS: frequency
8. A DS-1 frame contains one sample from each of ____________________ channels.
ANS: 24
9. T1 uses the ____________________ line code.
ANS: AMI
10. Each DS-1 frame contains a total of ____________________ bits.
ANS: 193
11. A DS-1 frame is transmitted at a rate of ____________________ bits per second.
ANS: 1.544 Meg
12. Each sample in a DS-1 frame contains ____________________ bits.
ANS: 8
13. A group of twelve DS-1 frames is called a ____________________.
ANS: superframe
14. Switching signals from one line to another is called ____________________ switching.
ANS: space
15. Moving PCM samples from one time slot to another is called ____________________ switching.
ANS: time
16. The deep fades caused by signal-cancellation due to reflection are called ____________________
fading.
ANS: Rayleigh
17. A PN sequence is a ____________________-random noise sequence.
ANS: pseudo
18. One method of spread-spectrum is frequency ____________________.
ANS: hopping
19. It is ____________________ to jam a spread-spectrum signal.
ANS: difficult
20. It is ____________________ to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal.
ANS: difficult
21. The extra bits added to the data in direct-sequence spread-spectrum are called
____________________.
ANS: chips
22. A chipping-rate of at least ____________________ times the bit rate of the data is common.
ANS: ten
23. The 'C' in CDMA stands for ____________________.
ANS: code
24. In a frequency-hopping CDMA system, when no two transmitters use the same frequency at the same
time the PN sequences are said to be ____________________.
ANS: orthogonal

SHORT ANSWER

1. What does Hartley's Law tell us about the relationship between time and bandwidth for digital
transmission?
ANS: The more bandwidth, the less time it takes to send a given amount of information.
So the more bandwidth available, the higher the possible bit rate.
2. How many signals could fit into 1 MHz of bandwidth if each signal required 100 kHz of bandwidth
and the separation between adjacent channels was 10 kHz?
ANS: 9
3. Why is it difficult to jam a spread-spectrum signal?
ANS: Jamming requires an interference signal of sufficient power in the same part of the
spectrum the information signal occupies. Because a spread-spectrum signal is, by definition, spread out
over a very wide bandwidth, jamming can interfere with only a small fraction of the total signal.
4. Why is it difficult to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal?
ANS: In a spread-spectrum transmission, the signal power at any given frequency in its
band is so low that it is virtually indistinguishable from noise. An eavesdropper would not know a signal
was being sent. And without knowing the exact sequence being used, it is virtually impossible to "de-
spread" the signal.
5. Why is autocorrelation used to receive direct-sequence spread-spectrum signals?
ANS: Autocorrelation allows a signal to be "pulled out of" the noise even when the signal-
to-noise ratio is less than one, as it is in spread-spectrum.
6. What is meant by "orthogonal sequences" in CDMA?
ANS: During transmission, the PN sequences determine which parts of the available
bandwidth the spread-spectrum signal will occupy. Assume you have two PN sequences: PN1 and PN2.
At some point in time, suppose PN1 would cause a transmission to occupy frequencies f11, f12, f13, and
so forth. Now suppose PN2 would cause the transmission to occupy frequencies f21, f22, f23, and so
forth. If the two sets of frequencies, (f11, f12, f13, ...) and (f21, f22, f23, ...), have no frequencies in
common, then the two PN sequences are said to be orthogonal.

Chapter 14: Transmission Lines

TRUE/FALSE

1. A transmission line is a metallic cable.
ANS: T
2. Coaxial cables are referred to as "unbalanced".
ANS: T
3. "Balanced" means that both conductors are the same size.
ANS: F
4. Twisted-pair telephone wire is a kind of transmission line.
ANS: T
5. Cable resistance does not depend on frequency.
ANS: F
6. Losses occur in the plastic dielectric of a transmission line.
ANS: T
7. Basically, a transmission line looks like an inductor in series with a small resistor.
ANS: F
8. Distributed parameters (inductance and capacitance) are characteristic of transmission lines.
ANS: T
9. Transmission lines are often considered to be "lossless" at higher frequencies.
ANS: T
10. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends mostly on the resistance of the wires.
ANS: F
11. For coaxial cables, there are only a few standard values in common use.
ANS: T
12. The value of the load at the end of a transmission line must be equal to or less than Z
0
.
ANS: F
13. RF signals travel slower on a transmission line than they would through free space.
ANS: T
14. Energy can "reflect" from a load at the end of a cable and travel back to the source.
ANS: T
15. A "mismatched" line will cause reflections.
ANS: T
16. The typical load on a cable, such as an antenna, has the same value at any frequency.
ANS: F
17. A mismatched line between a transmitter and an antenna could actually damage the transmitter.
ANS: T
18. A matched transmission line will exhibit "standing" waves.
ANS: F
19. The optimum value for SWR is one.
ANS: T
20. "Ghost" images on a cable TV indicate an impedance mismatch.
ANS: T
21. If a cable is shorter than 1/16 of the signal's wavelength, it does not really behave as a transmission
line.
ANS: T
22. Shorted stubs radiate more energy than open stubs do.
ANS: F
23. It is often better to measure SWR at the load rather than the source.
ANS: T
24. The only limit to the power that a transmission line can carry is the heat from I
2
R losses.
ANS: F

25. A length of transmission line can be used to match impedances at very high frequencies.
ANS: T
26. A circular graph called a "Jones" chart is commonly used to analyze transmission lines.
ANS: F
27. There is no practical way to connect a balanced line to an unbalanced line.
ANS: F
28. A 1/4 wavelength transmission line can be used as a transformer.
ANS: T
29. When used, stubs are usually inserted in series with a transmission line.
ANS: F
30. Slotted-lines are only useful at lower frequencies.
ANS: F

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. SWR stands for:
a. Shorted Wave Radiation c. Shorted Wire Region
b. Sine Wave Response d. none of the above

2. TDR stands for:
a. Total Distance of Reflection c. Time-Domain Response
b. Time-Domain Reflectometer d. Transmission Delay Ratio

3. An example of an unbalanced line is:
a. a coaxial cable c. an open-wire-line cable
b. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable d. all of the above

4. When analyzing a transmission line, its inductance and capacitance are considered to be:
a. lumped c. equal reactances
b. distributed d. ideal elements

5. As frequency increases, the resistance of a wire:
a. increases c. stays the same
b. decreases d. changes periodically

6. The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called:
a. I
2
R loss c. the skin effect
b. the Ohmic effect d. there is no such effect

7. As frequency increases, the loss in a cable's dielectric:
a. increases c. stays the same
b. decreases d. there is no loss in a dielectric

8. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on:
a. the resistance per foot of the wire used
b. the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot
c. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot
d. the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot

9. For best matching, the load on a cable should be:
a. lower than Z
0
c. equal to Z
0

b. higher than Z
0
d. 50 ohms

10. The characteristic impedance of a cable:
a. increases with length c. increases with voltage
b. increases with frequency d. none of the above

11. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on:
a. the wire resistance c. the inductance per foot
b. the dielectric constant d. all of the above

12. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit:
a. would reflect as a positive pulse
b. would reflect as a negative pulse
c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
d. would not reflect at all

13. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its characteristic impedance:

14. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-circuit:

15. The optimum value for SWR is:
a. zero c. as large as possible
b. one d. there is no optimum value

16. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause:
a. standing waves c. higher voltage peaks on cable
b. loss of power to load d. all of the above

17. VSWR stands for:
a. variable SWR c. voltage SWR
b. vacuum SWR d. none of the above

18. The impedance "looking into" a matched line:
a. is infinite c. is the characteristic impedance
b. is zero d. 50 ohms

19. A Smith Chart is used to calculate:
a. transmission line impedances c. optimum length of a transmission line
b. propagation velocity d. transmission line losses

20. Compared to a 300-ohm line, the loss of a 50-ohm cable carrying the same power:
a. would be less c. would be the same
b. would be more d. cannot be compared

21. A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable:
a. directly c. by using a "balun"
b. by using a filter d. cannot be connected

22. On a Smith Chart, you "normalize" the impedance by:
a. assuming it to be zero c. multiplying it by 2t
b. dividing it by 2t d. dividing it by Z
0

23. The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents:
a. the voltage c. the impedance
b. the current d. none of the above

24. The center of the Smith Chart always represents:
a. zero c. the characteristic impedance
b. one d. none of the above

25. A TDR is commonly used to:
a. measure the characteristic impedance of a cable
b. find the position of a defect in a cable
c. replace a slotted-line
d. all of the above

COMPLETION

1. A cable that lacks symmetry with respect to ground is called ____________________.
ANS: unbalanced
2. Parallel lines are usually operated as ____________________ lines since both wires are symmetrical
with respect to ground.
ANS: balanced
3. Normally, a transmission line is terminated with a load equal to its ____________________
impedance.
ANS: characteristic
4. Twisted-pair cables are transmission lines for relatively ____________________ frequencies.
ANS: low
5. To analyze a transmission line, it is necessary to use ____________________ parameters instead of
lumped ones.
ANS: distributed
6. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is called the ____________________ effect.
ANS: skin
7. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is caused by the ____________________ field
inside the wire.
ANS: magnetic
8. Dielectrics become more ____________________ as the frequency increases.
ANS: lossy
9. The inductance and capacitance of a cable are given per unit ____________________.
ANS: length
10. Characteristic impedance is sometimes called ____________________ impedance.
ANS: surge
11. A cable that is terminated in its characteristic impedance is called a ____________________ line.
ANS: matched
12. A pulse sent down a cable terminated in a short-circuit will reflect with the ____________________
polarity.
ANS: opposite
13. The apparently stationary pattern of waves on a mismatched cable is called a ____________________
wave.
ANS: standing
14. SWR stands for ____________________-wave ratio.
ANS: standing
15. The ideal value for SWR is ____________________.
ANS: one

16. Transmission line impedances can be found using a ____________________ chart.
ANS: Smith
17. Short transmission-line sections called ____________________ can be used as capacitors or
inductors.
ANS: stubs
18. Any cable that radiates energy can also ____________________ energy.
ANS: absorb
19. A ____________________-dB loss in a cable means only half the power sent reaches the load.
ANS: 3
20. It is often best to measure SWR at the ____________________ end of a cable.
ANS: load
21. Besides heat from I
2
R, the power a cable can carry is limited by the ____________________ voltage
of its dielectric.
ANS: breakdown
22. To normalize an impedance on a Smith Chart, you divide it by ____________________.
ANS: Z
0

23. The ____________________ of a Smith Chart always represents the characteristic impedance.
ANS: center
24. A ____________________ wavelength transmission line can be used a transformer.
ANS: one-quarter
25. A slotted line is used to make measurements in the ____________________ domain.
ANS: frequency

SHORT ANSWER

1. A transmission line has 2.5 pF of capacitance per foot and 100 nH of inductance per foot. Calculate its
characteristic impedance.
ANS: Z
0
= 200 ohms
2. Two wires with air as a dielectric are one inch apart. The diameter of the wire is .04 inch. Calculate,
approximately, its characteristic impedance.
ANS: 386 ohms
3. If a coaxial cable uses plastic insulation with a dielectric constant e
r
= 2.6 , what is the velocity factor
for the cable?
ANS: 0.62
4. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, how long would it take a signal to travel 3000 kilometers along
the cable?
ANS: 12.5 ms
5. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, what length of cable is required for a 90 phase shift at 100
MHz?
ANS: 0.6 meters
6. A cable has a VSWR of 10. If the minimum voltage along the cable is 20 volts, what is the maximum
voltage along the cable?
ANS: 200 volts
7. A lossless line has a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms, but is terminated with a 75-ohm resistive
load. What SWR do you expect to measure?
ANS: 1.5
8. If a cable has an SWR of 1.5, what will be the absolute value of its voltage coefficient of reflection?
ANS: 0.2
9. A generator matched to a line with a voltage coefficient of reflection equal to 0.2 transmits 100 watts
into the line. How much power is actually absorbed by the load?
ANS: 96 watts
10. Using a Smith Chart to analyze a 50-ohm cable, what would be the normalized value of an impedance
equal to 200 + j50 ohms?
ANS: 4 + j1

Chapter 15: Radio-Wave Propagation

TRUE/FALSE

1. James Clerk Maxwell predicted radio waves in 1865 based on a set of equations he derived.
ANS: T
2. Marconi demonstrated the existence of radio-waves in 1887.
ANS: F
3. Electromagnetic radiation is in the form of TEM waves.
ANS: T
4. Electromagnetic radiation is in the form of particles called photons.
ANS: T
5. X rays are not electromagnetic radiation.
ANS: F
6. Gamma rays are not electromagnetic radiation.
ANS: F
7. Radio waves are electromagnetic radiation.
ANS: T
8. Like light rays, Radio waves can be reflected.
ANS: T
9. Free, empty space has a characteristic impedance of 377 ohms.
ANS: T
10. Radio waves, like all other waves, must travel through some sort of medium.
ANS: F
11. An isotropic radiator radiates in one direction only.
ANS: F
12. A "point source" would be an isotropic radiator.
ANS: T
13. The wavefront of a point source radiator would be a sphere.
ANS: T
14. Beyond some distance from the source, we can approximate a wavefront by assuming it is flat.
ANS: T
15. The polarization of a plane wave is the direction of its magnetic field.
ANS: F
16. Polarization is either vertical or horizontal.
ANS: F
17. For best results, the transmitting and receiving antennas should have opposite polarizations.
ANS: F
18. As radio waves travel outward, they are effectively attenuated by the "spreading out" of the wavefront.
ANS: T
19. A power density of 100 10
-9
W/m
2
would be a strong radio signal.
ANS: T
20. An antenna is a passive device.
ANS: T
21. An antenna can have a gain specification greater than one.
ANS: T
22. The power absorbed by a receiving antenna depends on its shape, not its size.
ANS: F
23. Reflection of plane waves off a smooth surface is called "specular" reflection.
ANS: T
24. Radio waves can be reflected, but not diffracted.
ANS: F

25. Space waves work on a "line-of-sight" basis.
ANS: T
26. Ground waves can follow the curvature of the earth to travel over the horizon.
ANS: T
27. Ground waves are not reliable because they are affected by bad weather.
ANS: F
28. Because of refraction in ionized layers of air, sky waves appear to "bounce" off the sky and come back
down to earth far from the source.
ANS: T
29. Because of diffraction, radio waves can sometimes "bend" around a corner.
ANS: T
30. At gigahertz frequencies, radio waves are absorbed by the ionosphere.
ANS: F
31. Transmission of high-frequency (HF) radio waves is affected by "spots" on the surface of the sun.
ANS: T
32. It's possible for a radio signal to be detected 1000 miles from the transmitter but not detected 500
miles from the transmitter.
ANS: T
33. There is no effective way to compensate for fading.
ANS: F
34. Communication by "bouncing" radio signals off the ionization trails of meteors is routinely done by
some organizations.
ANS: T

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by:
a. Armstrong c. Maxwell
b. Hertz d. Marconi

2. Radio waves were first demonstrated experimentally by:
a. Armstrong c. Maxwell
b. Hertz d. Marconi

3. The technology that made cell phones practical was:
a. the microprocessor chip c. high-power microwave transmitters
b. the miniature cell-site d. all of the above

4. Cell phones reduce much of the problems of mobile communications with:
a. high power levels c. reuse of frequencies
b. high antennas d. all of the above

5. Which of the following are electromagnetic:
a. radio waves c. gamma waves
b. light d. all of the above

6. The electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are:
a. perpendicular to each other c. both a and b
b. perpendicular to the direction of travel d. none of the above

7. TEM stands for:
a. Transverse Electromagnetic c. True Electromagnetic
b. Transmitted Electromagnetic d. none of the above

8. In free space, radio waves travel at a speed of:
a. 3 10
6
meters per second c. 3 10
6
miles per second
b. 300 10
6
meters per second
d. 300 10
6
miles per second

9. Which is a possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave:
a. vertical c. circular
b. horizontal d. all of the above

10. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized antenna:
a. vertical c. circular
b. horizontal d. all of the above

11. The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is:
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. many

12. An antenna has "gain" as compared to:
a. an isotropic radiator c. a ground-wave antenna
b. a vertically polarized radiator d. none of the above

13. EIRP stands for:
a. the E and I fields of the Radiated Power
b. the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power
c. the Effective Internal Reflected Power
d. the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power

14. The "attenuation of free space" is due to:
a. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space
b. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere
c. the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront
d. the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront

15. Ground waves are most effective:
a. below about 2 MHz c. at microwave frequencies
b. above about 20 MHz d. when using horizontally polarized
waves
16. Radio waves would most strongly reflect off:
a. a flat insulating surface of the right size c. a flat metallic surface of the right size
b. a flat dielectric surface of the right size d. a flat body of water

17. Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a corner because of:
a. reflection c. refraction
b. diffusion d. diffraction

18. Space waves are:
a. line-of-sight
b. reflected off the ionosphere
c. same as sky waves
d. radio waves used for satellite communications

19. Sky waves:
a. are line-of-sight
b. "bounce" off the ionosphere
c. are same as space waves
d. are radio waves used for satellite communications

20. Sky waves cannot be "heard":
a. close to the transmitter c. in the "silent" zone
b. far from the transmitter d. in the "skip" zone

21. A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called:
a. fading c. frequency diversity
b. diffraction d. spatial diversity

22. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of:
a. fading c. multipath distortion
b. diffraction d. cancellation due to reflection

23. A "repeater" is used to:
a. send a message multiple times over a channel
b. send a message over multiple channels at the same time
c. extend the range of a radio communications system
d. cancel the effects of fading

24. Cellular phone systems rely on:
a. high power c. the radio horizon
b. repeaters d. the reuse of frequencies

25. If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit:
a. the cell area is increased c. the power levels are increased
b. the cell area is split d. the number of channels is reduced

26. As a cell-phone user passes from one cell to another:
a. a "handoff" process occurs c. both cells will handle the call
b. a "sectoring" process occurs d. nothing occurs

27. To receive several data streams at once, a CDMA spread-spectrum system uses:
a. a "funnel" receiver c. multiple receivers
b. a "rake" receiver d. none of the above

28. The troposphere is the:
a. highest layer of the atmosphere c. lowest layer of the atmosphere
b. middle layer of the atmosphere d. the most ionized layer of the
atmosphere
29. Meteor-trail propagation is:
a. used for radio telephony c. also called "ducting"
b. used to send data by radio d. not possible

COMPLETION

1. Radio waves were mathematically predicted by ____________________.
ANS: Maxwell
2. Radio waves were first demonstrated by ____________________.
ANS: Hertz
3. Radio waves are ____________________ electromagnetic waves.
ANS: transverse
4. The propagation speed of radio waves in free space is ____________________ m/sec.
ANS: 300 10
6

5. Electromagnetic radiation can be thought of as a stream of particles called ____________________.
ANS: photons
6. Unlike sound or water waves, radio waves do not need a ____________________ to travel through.
ANS: medium
7. The dielectric strength of clean dry air is about ____________________ volts per meter.
ANS: 3 10
6

8. Waves from an ____________________ source radiate equally in all directions.
ANS: isotropic
9. The wavefront of a point source would have the shape of a ____________________.
ANS: sphere
10. At a far distance from the source, a radio wavefront looks like a flat ____________________-wave.
ANS: plane
11. The polarization of a radio wave is the direction of its ____________________ field.
ANS: electric
12. The electric field of a radio wave is ____________________ to its magnetic field.
ANS: perpendicular
13. Both the electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are ____________________ to its propagation
direction.
ANS: perpendicular
14. With ____________________ polarization, the direction of a radio wave's electric field rotates as it
travels through space.
ANS: circular
15. An antenna is said to have ____________________ in a certain direction if it radiates more power in
that direction than in other directions.
ANS: gain
16. The watts per square meter of a radio wave ____________________ as the wave-front moves through
space.
ANS: decrease
17. Reflection of plane-waves from a smooth surface is called ____________________ reflection.
ANS: specular
18. ____________________ is the "bending" of radio waves as they travel across the boundary between
two different dielectrics.
ANS: Refraction
19. The process of ____________________ makes radio waves appear to "bend around a corner".
ANS: diffraction
20. ____________________ waves travel from transmitter to receiver in a "line-of-sight" fashion.
ANS: Space
21. ____________________ waves are vertically polarized radio waves that travel along the earth's
surface.
ANS: Ground
22. ____________________ waves are radio waves that "bounce off" the ionosphere due to refraction.
ANS: Sky
23. The ____________________ zone is a region where sky waves cannot be received.
ANS: skip

24. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of ____________________ distortion.
ANS: multipath
25. The "fast fading" seen in mobile communications is caused by ____________________ waves
interfering with direct waves.
ANS: reflected
26. Cell phones typically operate at a ____________________ power level.
ANS: low
27. The ____________________ of frequencies allows many cell-phone users to share a geographical
area.
ANS: reuse
28. ____________________ is when a cell-site uses three directional antennas, each covering a third of
the cell area, to reduce interference.
ANS: Sectoring
29. The use of ____________________ chips makes cell phones a practical technology.
ANS: microprocessor

SHORT ANSWER

1. A certain dielectric has permittivity of 6.3 10
10
F/m and the same permeability as free space. What
is the characteristic impedance of that dielectric?

ANS: 45 ohms

2. If a point source of radio waves transmits 1 watt, what is the power density 10,000 meters from the
source?

ANS: 796 pW/m
2

3. What power must a point-source of radio waves transmit so that the power density at 3000 meters
from the source is 1 W/m
2
?

ANS: 113 watts

4. If a radio receiver needs 1 nW/m
2
of power density to function, how far away from a 1-watt point
source will it continue to work?

ANS: 8.9 km

5. A line-of-sight radio link over flat terrain needs to use antenna towers 50 km apart. What,
approximately, is the minimum height for the towers assuming all the towers are the same?

ANS: 37 meters

6. A mobile radio is being used at 1 GHz in an urban environment with lots of reflecting structures. If the
car is traveling 36 km/hour, what is the expected time between fades?

ANS: 15 msec

Chapter 16: Antenna

TRUE/FALSE

1. Antennas are considered to be active devices.
ANS: F
2. Any antenna can transmit a signal as well as receive one.
ANS: T
3. A half-wave dipole is an isotropic radiator.
ANS: F
4. The "gain" of an antenna is often given as its performance relative to a half-wave dipole.
ANS: T
5. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called a "Hertz" antenna.
ANS: T
6. A "Hertzian Dipole" is a theoretical concept and not a real antenna.
ANS: T
7. A half-wave dipole is actually 5% longer than half a wavelength.
ANS: F
8. A half-wave dipole radiates uniformly in all directions.
ANS: F
9. The horizontal radiation pattern of a half-wave dipole is symmetrical front and back.
ANS: T
10. Compared to a point-source radiator, a half-wave dipole has gain.
ANS: T
11. A half-wave dipole does not have directivity.
ANS: F
12. In general, the near-field radiation pattern of an antenna is not the same as its far-field radiation
pattern.
ANS: T
13. The front-to-back ratio of a dipole is 0 dB.
ANS: T
14. Antenna gain given in dBd is gain relative to a half-wave dipole.
ANS: T
15. The input impedance of an antenna at resonance is infinity.
ANS: F
16. A center-fed dipole antenna is a balanced load.
ANS: T
17. The input impedance of a center-fed dipole increases as the separation between the cable connections
is increased.
ANS: T
18. The polarization of a dipole antenna is always horizontal.
ANS: F
19. A folded dipole has a wider bandwidth than a simple dipole.
ANS: T
20. A folded dipole has a higher input impedance than a simple dipole.
ANS: T
21. There is actually no such thing as a "monopole" antenna.
ANS: F
22. Vertical antennas typically need a ground plane.
ANS: T
23. The earth itself can be a ground plane.
ANS: T
24. The sheet-metal body of a car can be a ground plane.
ANS: T

25. A helical antenna cannot receive vertically polarized radio waves.
ANS: F
26. A helical antenna cannot receive horizontally polarized radio waves.
ANS: F
27. A typical helical antenna can receive either clockwise or counterclockwise circularly polarized waves,
but not both.
ANS: T
28. An antenna must be resonant at the frequency it is transmitting or receiving.
ANS: F
29. A nonresonant antenna can cause a high SWR in the transmission line connected to it.
ANS: T
30. Any antenna will transmit radio waves as long as an RF current is flowing in it.
ANS: T
31. A "loading coil" is used to make an antenna appear longer to a signal than its physical length.
ANS: T
32. Antennas cannot be made to appear shorter to a signal than their actual physical length.
ANS: F
33. A phased array is a driven array.
ANS: T
34. A Yagi array is a "parasitic" array.
ANS: T
35. A Yagi array is unidirectional.
ANS: T
36. A Log-Periodic Dipole array is a "parasitic" array.
ANS: F
37. A Log-Periodic Dipole array is unidirectional.
ANS: T
38. A Turnstile array is unidirectional.
ANS: F
39. Stacked Yagis form a phased array.
ANS: T
40. A parabolic "dish" can be a reflector.
ANS: T
41. A flat piece of metal can be a reflector.
ANS: T
42. A piece of sheet metal bent at a 90 angle can be a reflector.
ANS: T
43. A piece of thin metal tubing can be a reflector.
ANS: T
44. Only certain types of antennas, such as "horns", can be used with a parabolic reflector.
ANS: F
45. An anechoic chamber requires highly reflective surfaces.
ANS: F

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to:
a. the radiated signal c. the SWR
b. the reflected signal d. all of the above

2. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called:
a. a Marconi antenna c. a Yagi antenna
b. a Hertz antenna d. none of the above
3. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually:
a. one wavelength c. slightly longer than a half-wavelength
b. one half-wavelength d. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength

4. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the:
a. standing wave pattern around the antenna c. radiation resistance of the antenna
b. SWR along the feed cable d. I
2
R loss of the antenna

5. Measured on the ground, the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole antenna is
strongest:
a. in one direction c. in all directions
b. in two directions d. depends on the number of elements

6. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other directions is called:
a. directivity c. active antenna
b. selectivity d. resonance

7. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is:
a. 0 dB c. 10 dB
b. 3 dB d. infinite

8. An antenna's beamwidth is measured:
a. from +90 to 90 c. between half-power points
b. from front to back d. between the minor side-lobes

9. ERP stands for:
a. Equivalent Radiation Pattern c. Equivalent Radiated Power
b. Effective Radiation Pattern d. Effective Radiated Power

10. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by:
a. radio signals reflecting off the ground
b. buildings and other structures on the ground
c. fading
d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground

11. A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be:
a. mounted vertically c. at least one half-wavelength long
b. mounted horizontally d. at least one wavelength long

12. The typical antenna in an AM radio is a:
a. dipole c. ferrite "loop-stick"
b. folded dipole d. none of the above

13. The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by:
a. gamma rays c. helical rotation
b. Faraday Rotation d. the distance traveled

14. A nonresonant antenna:
a. will not transmit c. will cause SWR on the feed cable
b. will not receive d. all of the above

15. At resonance, the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be:
a. resistive c. capacitive
b. inductive d. infinite
16. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using:
a. a shorted stub c. an LC network
b. a loading coil d. all of the above

17. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased:
a. the number of lobes increases c. efficiency decreases
b. the number of nodes decreases d. none of the above

18. Arrays can be:
a. phased c. parasitic
b. driven d. all of the above

19. An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors is called a:
a. Marconi c. Log-Periodic Dipole
b. Yagi d. stacked array

20. LPDA stands for:
a. Low-Power Dipole Array c. Log-Periodic Dipole Array
b. Low-Power Directed Array d. Log Power Dipole Array

21. The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is:
a. collimated c. dispersed
b. phased d. none of the above

22. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the:
a. center c. focus
b. edges d. horn

23. Antennas are often tested in:
a. an echo chamber c. a vacuum chamber
b. an anechoic chamber d. an RF reflective chamber

24. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with:
a. a slotted line c. an EIRP meter
b. a dipole d. a field-strength meter

COMPLETION

1. An antenna is the interface between the transmission line and ____________________.
ANS: space
2. Hertz antenna is another name for a half-wave ____________________.
ANS: dipole
3. The length of a half-wave dipole is about ____________________ % of a half-wave in free space.
ANS: 95
4. The ____________________ resistance is the portion of an antenna's input impedance due to
transmitted radio waves leaving the antenna.
ANS: radiation
5. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant half-wave dipole is about
____________________ O.
ANS: 70
6. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant folded dipole is about ____________________
O.
ANS: 280 300
7. The vertical angle of radiation is called the angle of ____________________.
ANS: elevation

8. Antenna radiation patterns are typically drawn on graphs with ____________________ coordinates.
ANS: polar
9. As compared to a ____________________ source, a half-wave dipole has a gain of about 2 dBi.
ANS: point
isotropic
10. Antenna gain measured in ____________________ is with reference to a half-wave dipole.
ANS: dBd
11. ____________________ is the same as the gain for a lossless antenna.
ANS: Directivity
12. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole is ____________________ dB.
ANS: 0
13. The ____________________ of a directional antenna is the angle between its half-power points.
ANS: beamwidth
14. ERP stands for ____________________ radiated power.
ANS: effective
15. ERP is the power input to the antenna multiplied by the antenna's ____________________.
ANS: gain
16. A ____________________ is required to connect a coaxial cable to a center-fed dipole antenna.
ANS: balun
17. A horizontally mounted dipole will radiate waves with ____________________ polarization.
ANS: horizontal
18. A folded dipole has ____________________ bandwidth than a standard dipole.
ANS: wider
greater
more
19. A monopole antenna is typically mounted in the ____________________ direction.
ANS: vertical
20. The length of a typical monopole antenna is ____________________ wavelength.
ANS: one-quarter
1/4
21. A monopole antenna mounted high on a tower typically uses a ____________________ plane.
ANS: ground
22. A vertical antenna has an _________________________ radiation pattern for ground-based receivers.
ANS: omnidirectional
23. The number of driven elements in a Yagi antenna is typically ____________________.
ANS: one
24. The reflector on a Yagi antenna is called a ____________________ element.
ANS: parasitic
25. An LPDA is a ____________________ dipole array.
ANS: log-periodic
26. If an LPDA had five elements, the number of driven elements it had would be
____________________.
ANS: five
27. All the waves that hit the surface of a parabolic antenna merge at the ____________________.
ANS: focus
28. A ____________________ beam has all its individual rays parallel to each other.
ANS: collimated
29. A microwave ____________________ antenna is essentially an extension of a waveguide.
ANS: horn
30. An ____________________ chamber is often used to test microwave antennas.
ANS: anechoic

SHORT ANSWER

1. Calculate the physical length of a half-wave dipole for use at 300 MHz.

ANS: 475 millimeters

2. How much power will a 95% efficient antenna radiate if driven with 100 watts?

ANS: 95 watts

3. If an antenna has 10.14 dB of gain compared to a point source, how much gain does it have compared
to a half-wave dipole?

ANS: 8 dB

4. What is the ERP of an antenna with 10 dBd of gain and driven by one watt?

ANS: 10 watts

5. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts. What is the RMS
current in the antenna?

ANS: 1 ampere

6. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts. What is the RMS
voltage at the feed-point of the antenna?

ANS: 100 volts

Chapter 17: Microwave Devices

TRUE/FALSE

1. By convention, microwave frequencies are 1 GHz and above.
ANS: T
2. Transmission line losses decrease at microwave frequencies.
ANS: F
3. Semiconductor transit time can be ignored at microwave frequencies.
ANS: F
4. Leads on semiconductor devices have significant inductance at microwave frequencies.
ANS: T
5. Waveguides are essentially pipes through which electromagnetic fields propagate.
ANS: T
6. Waveguides act as low-pass frequency filters for microwaves.
ANS: F
7. Waveguides often have significant radiation loss.
ANS: F
8. Waveguides do not have significant dielectric losses.
ANS: T
9. Multimode propagation causes dispersion of a pulse as it travels through a waveguide.
ANS: T
10. Usually, a waveguide should use only one mode of propagation.
ANS: T
11. Single-mode propagation causes some dispersion of a pulse as it travels through a waveguide.
ANS: T
12. Typically, waveguides carry TEM waves.
ANS: F
13. In a rectangular waveguide, TE
10
is the dominant mode.
ANS: T
14. Circular waveguides are possible, but are not used in practice.
ANS: F
15. The cutoff frequency for a rectangular waveguide depends on the longer dimension of its cross
section.
ANS: T
16. Group velocity is how fast a signal travels through a waveguide.
ANS: T
17. Group velocity is significantly less than the speed of light.
ANS: T
18. Phase velocity is another term for group velocity.
ANS: F
19. Group velocity increases as the signal frequency increases.
ANS: T
20. Guide wavelength is calculated using the phase velocity.
ANS: T
21. Guide wavelength is always shorter than free-space wavelength.
ANS: F
22. Phase velocity in a waveguide is always greater than the speed of light.
ANS: T
23. Waveguide impedance is a function of frequency.
ANS: T
24. Waveguide impedance is always equal to or less than 377 ohms.
ANS: F

25. Impedance matching on a waveguide can be done with a brass screw.
ANS: T
26. At microwave frequencies, a cavity in a piece of metal acts like an LC circuit.
ANS: T
27. Resonant cavities cannot be tuned.
ANS: F
28. An isolator uses multiple ports to separate signals.
ANS: F
29. Circulators rely on the magnetic properties of ferrites.
ANS: T
30. A Gunn device contains a P-N junction.
ANS: F
31. A Gunn device uses its transit time to produce microwave oscillations.
ANS: T
32. A Gunn device uses "negative resistance" to produce microwave oscillations.
ANS: T
33. An IMPATT diode is often a 4-layer device.
ANS: T
34. The frequency of oscillation of an IMPATT diode depends on its physical dimensions.
ANS: T
35. The frequency of oscillation of an IMPATT diode depends on the resonant cavity it is in.
ANS: T
36. A YIG oscillator cannot be tuned.
ANS: F
37. A magnetron is actually a type of vacuum tube.
ANS: T
38. A magnetron is a high-power fixed-frequency oscillator.
ANS: T
39. A magnetron is easily tuned.
ANS: F
40. A klystron is a vacuum tube device used for high-stability amplification of microwave signals.
ANS: T
41. Klystrons can produce power in the megawatt range.
ANS: T
42. Traveling-wave tubes can oscillate, but not amplify.
ANS: F
43. Traveling-wave tubes are distinguished by their wide bandwidths.
ANS: T
44. A parabolic dish, like a dipole, is a type of antenna.
ANS: F
45. A parabolic dish is commonly used with a "horn".
ANS: T
46. A horn is a type of impedance matcher.
ANS: T
47. A horn is a type of antenna.
ANS: T
48. A piece of Teflon in front of a horn can act as a lens.
ANS: T
49. All radar devices rely on the Doppler effect.
ANS: F
50. Radar has a maximum range, but no minimum range.
ANS: F
51. Radar can discriminate between two targets that are in the same "line-of-sight".
ANS: T

52. Absorption and scattering by a target can reduce the effectiveness of radar.
ANS: T

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The microwave frequency range is considered to start at:
a. 100 MHz c. 10 GHz
b. 1 GHz d. 100 GHz

2. The UHF range is:
a. below the microwave range c. above the microwave range
b. inside the microwave range d. same as the microwave range

3. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on:
a. the shape of the waveguide c. the point of signal injection
b. the power level of the signal d. none of the above

4. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is:
a. TE
01
c. TE
10

b. TM
01
d. TM
10

5. The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is:
a. TE
01
c. TE
11

b. TM
01
d. TM
11

6. Circular waveguides use TM
01
mode because:
a. it is dominant c. it is the only mode possible
b. of its circular symmetry d. it is more efficient

7. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide:
a. is fixed
b. depends on the frequency it carries
c. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section
d. both b and c

8. Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide:
a. with a magnetic field probe c. through a hole in the waveguide
b. with an electric field probe d. all of the above

9. Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by:
a. their insertion loss c. their directivity
b. their coupling specification d. all of the above

10. Striplines and microstrips are used to:
a. couple sections of waveguide c. couple components on a circuit board
b. couple waveguides to antennas d. none of the above

11. A resonant cavity is a type of:
a. tuned circuit c. antenna
b. defect in a waveguide d. none of the above

12. A TEE connector used with waveguides is:
a. an H-plane TEE c. a "magic" TEE
b. an E-plane TEE d. all of the above
13. TWT stands for:
a. Transverse Wave Transmission c. Traveling-Wave Tube
b. Transverse-Wave Tube d. Traveling-Wave Transmission

14. An "isolator" is a device that:
a. isolates frequencies in a waveguide
b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only
c. separates signals among various ports
d. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide

15. A "circulator" is a device that:
a. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide
b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only
c. separates signals among various ports
d. prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide

16. GaAs stands for:
a. gallium arsenide c. gallium astenite
b. gallium assembly d. none of the above

17. IMPATT stands for:
a. impact avalanche and transit time c. implied power at transmission terminal
b. induced mobility at transmission time d. none of the above

18. YIG stands for:
a. Yttrium-Iron-Gallium c. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet
b. Yttrium-Iron-Germanium d. none of the above

19. A YIG can be tuned by applying:
a. an electric field c. mechanical pressure
b. a magnetic field d. an "exciter" signal

20. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the:
a. TWT c. magnetron
b. klystron d. YIG

21. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the:
a. TWT c. magnetron
b. klystron d. YIG

22. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the:
a. TWT c. magnetron
b. klystron d. YIG

23. A microwave phased array is often made using:
a. slots c. Fresnel lenses
b. Yagis d. all of the above

24. RADAR stands for:
a. radio ranging c. radio detection and ranging
b. radio depth and ranging d. remote detection and ranging

25. RADAR uses:
a. pulsed transmission c. the Doppler effect
b. continuous transmission d. all of the above

26. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar:
a. increases with increasing repetition rate c. decreases with increasing pulse period
b. decreases with increasing repetition rate d. none of the above
27. The minimum effective range for pulsed radar:
a. increases with increasing pulse duration c. is always a tenth of the maximum range
b. decreases with increasing pulse duration d. none of the above

COMPLETION

1. ____________________ is the effect of a pulse "spreading out" as it travels through a waveguide.
ANS: Dispersion
2. The electric field is ____________________ along the walls of a rectangular waveguide.
ANS: zero
3. The waveguide mode with the lowest cutoff frequency is the ____________________ mode.
ANS: dominant
4. In TE
10
mode, the ____________________ field peaks in the middle of the waveguide cross section.
ANS: electric
5. In TE
20
mode, the electric field has ____________________ peaks in the waveguide cross section.
ANS: two
6. In a circular waveguide, ____________________ mode is used because of its circular symmetry.
ANS: TM
01

7. A waveguide acts as a ____________________-pass filter.
ANS: high
8. In a waveguide, group velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light.
ANS: slower
9. In a waveguide, phase velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light.
ANS: faster
10. In a waveguide, impedance ____________________ as frequency increases.
ANS: decreases
11. A ____________________ TEE is a combination of E-plane and H-plane TEES.
ANS: hybrid
12. The Q of a resonant cavity is very ____________________ compared to lumped LC circuits.
ANS: high
13. A wavemeter is a resonant ____________________ with an adjustable plunger.
ANS: cavity
14. A Gunn device oscillates because of its negative ____________________.
ANS: resistance
15. Both magnetrons and TWTs are slow ____________________ tubes.
ANS: wave
16. Both klystrons and TWTs are ____________________-beam tubes.
ANS: linear
17. A ____________________ antenna is just a waveguide with a hole in it.
ANS: slot
18. A ____________________ antenna is a flat piece of copper on an insulating substrate with a ground
plane on the other side.
ANS: patch
19. The radar cross section of a target is typically ____________________ than its actual size.
ANS: smaller
20. The frequency of the returned signal will be ____________________ than the transmitted signal if the
target is moving toward the radar antenna.
ANS: higher

SHORT ANSWER

1. Calculate the TE
10
cutoff frequency for a rectangular waveguide if the longer dimension of its cross
section is 5 cm.

ANS: 3 GHz

2. Calculate the group velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency.

ANS: 260 10
6
meters per second

3. Calculate the phase velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency.

ANS: 346 10
6
meters per second

4. Calculate the wavelength of a 2-GHz signal in a waveguide with a 1-GHz cutoff frequency.

ANS: 173 millimeters

5. Find the gain in dBi of a 10-GHz horn antenna with d
E
= d
H
= 60 mm.

ANS: 14.8

6. Find the maximum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 10k pulses per second.

ANS:15 km

7. Find the minimum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 2-sec duration pulses.

ANS: 300 meters

Chapter 18: Terrestrial Microwave Communication Systems

TRUE/FALSE

1. Microwave links are still used to carry telephone signals.
ANS: T
2. Microwave links carry analog data only.
ANS: F
3. Microwave links carry video signals for television.
ANS: T
4. Microwave links are point-to-point.
ANS: T
5. Microwave links are always "multi-hop".
ANS: F
6. Microwave links are line-of-sight.
ANS: T
7. Because of reliability, microwave links typically suffer about one hour of "downtime" a month.
ANS: F
8. Microwave systems should use as few repeaters as possible.
ANS: T
9. In analog microwave systems, additional links add to the noise level.
ANS: T
10. In digital microwave systems, additional links have no negative affects.
ANS: F
11. Microwave links typically use power levels under 10 watts.
ANS: T
12. The "line-of-sight" distance for microwaves is about a third longer than it is for visible light.
ANS: T
13. Diffraction is not an issue with microwave links.
ANS: F
14. Antenna height for microwave links must be below the "Fresnel zone".
ANS: F
15. For analog microwave systems, the carrier-to-noise ratio must exceed a certain minimum.
ANS: T
16. For microwave links, it is more convenient to use noise temperature than noise figure.
ANS: T
17. For digital microwave links, energy per bit is a key parameter.
ANS: T
18. An E
b
/ N
0
ratio of about 3 dB is sufficient for most digital microwave links.
ANS: F
19. Above 10 GHz, fading due to rain is not a problem.
ANS: F
20. One cause of fading in a microwave system is "ducting".
ANS: T
21. Compensation for fading due to multipath reception is usually done using "diversity".
ANS: T
22. Diversity can be achieved by mounting two antennas on a tower, one above the other.
ANS: T
23. Diversity can be achieved by using two microwave frequencies.
ANS: T
24. Repeaters typically receive a signal and retransmit it on the same frequency.
ANS: F

25. Analog microwave repeaters can be either "baseband" or "IF" repeaters.
ANS: T
26. MMDS systems are bidirectional.
ANS: F
27. LMDS systems are bidirectional.
ANS: T

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Another term for a single microwave link is a:
a. section c. skip
b. hop d. jump

2. Microwave systems use:
a. FM c. QAM
b. SSB d. all of the above

3. The typical reliability of a microwave system is:
a. 90% c. 99.9%
b. 99% d. 99.99%

4. A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about:
a. 2 watts c. 200 watts
b. 20 watts d. none of the above

5. In analog microwave systems, additional repeaters increase the:
a. reliability c. jitter
b. noise level d. all of the above

6. In digital microwave systems, additional repeaters increase the:
a. reliability c. jitter
b. noise level d. all of the above

7. LOS stands for:
a. Loss Of Skip c. Line-Of-Sight
b. Loss Of Signal d. Line-Of-Signal

8. Too much antenna gain causes:
a. a very narrow microwave beam c. excessive noise
b. a very wide microwave beam d. jitter

9. The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at least:
a. 60% of the Faraday zone c. 60% of the height of the antenna tower
b. 60% of the Fresnel zone d. 60% of the highest obstacle height

10. Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as:
a. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value
b. an ERP level that exceeds a given value
c. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value

11. Satisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a:
a. low level of transmitted power
b. high level of ERP
c. good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio
d. good energy per bit per noise density ratio
12. Fading is caused by:
a. multipath reception c. ducting
b. attenuation due to weather d. all of the above

13. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using:
a. diversity c. high-gain antennas
b. power d. all of the above

14. Repeaters are used in a microwave system:
a. always c. above 10 GHz
b. when distance exceeds line-of-sight d. below 10 GHz

15. Microwave repeaters can be:
a. IF type c. regenerative type
b. baseband type d. all of the above

16. An advantage of digital techniques over analog in a microwave system is:
a. less bandwidth is required c. it requires less power
b. accumulation of noise is reduced d. all of the above

17. MMDS stands for:
a. Multichannel Microwave Distribution System
b. Multipoint Microwave Distribution System
c. Multichannel Multipoint Distribution System
d. Multiple Microwave Distribution Systems

18. LMDS stands for:
a. Local Microwave Distribution System
b. Local Multipoint Distribution System
c. Local Multichannel Distribution System
d. Low-power Microwave Distribution System

19. LMDS is:
a. bidirectional c. multidirectional
b. unidirectional d. none of the above

COMPLETION

1. One microwave link is called a ____________________.
ANS: hop
2. STL stands for ____________________-to-transmitter links.
ANS: studio
3. A typical microwave system has about one hour per ____________________ or less of downtime.
ANS: year
4. Adding more links causes ____________________ in a digital microwave system.
ANS: jitter
5. In microwave systems, it is more convenient to use noise ____________________ than noise figure
in calculations.
ANS: temperature
6. In digital microwave systems, the energy per bit per ____________________ is a key parameter.
ANS: noise density
7. Multipath reception can cause 20 dB or more of ____________________.
ANS: fading

8. Two antennas stacked one above the other on a tower is an example of ____________________
diversity in a microwave system.
ANS: space
9. The ability to use two frequencies simultaneously is an example of ____________________.
ANS: diversity
10. Microwave systems generally use less than ____________________ watts of power.
ANS: ten
11. ____________________ are necessary in a microwave system that extends beyond the line-of-sight
distance.
ANS: Repeaters
12. Analog microwave systems use both IF and ____________________ repeaters.
ANS: baseband
13. Microwave digital radio techniques reduce the accumulation of ____________________ as a signal
goes from link to link.
ANS: noise
14. MMDS is unidirectional, but ____________________ is bidirectional.
ANS: LMDS

SHORT ANSWER

1. If the line-of-sight distance for an optical beam is 12 km, what would it be, approximately, for a
microwave beam?

ANS: 16 km

2. A line-of-sight microwave link operating at 4 GHz has a separation of 40 km between antennas. An
obstacle in the path is located midway between the two antennas. By how much must the beam clear the
obstacle?

ANS: 16.4 meters

3. A transmitter and receiver operating at 1 GHz are separated by 10 km. How many dBm of power gets
to the receiver if the transmitter puts out 1 Watt, and both the sending and receiving antennas have a gain
of 20 dBi?

ANS: 42.4 dBm

4. A microwave system has a feed-line loss of 2 dB and sees a sky temperature of 150 K. Calculate the
noise temperature of the antenna/feed-line system referenced to the receiver input.

ANS: 201 K

5. A microwave receiver receives 60 dBm of signal. The noise power is 100 dBm. What is the carrier-
to-noise power ratio?

ANS: 40 dB

Chapter 19: Television

TRUE/FALSE

1. Video systems form pictures by a scanning process.
ANS: T
2. The NTSC system is used in North America.
ANS: T
3. The NTSC system is used in Europe.
ANS: F
4. The NTSC system is used in Japan.
ANS: T
5. The PAL system is no longer used in much of the world.
ANS: F
6. The SECAM system is used in Europe.
ANS: T
7. In North America, TV uses 60 frames a second.
ANS: F
8. NTSC systems use an interlaced scan.
ANS: T
9. The standard TV aspect ratio is 5:3.
ANS: F
10. The electron beam in a TV CRT is blanked during horizontal retrace.
ANS: T
11. The electron beam in a TV CRT is blanked during vertical retrace.
ANS: T
12. The standard analog TV signal is called composite video.
ANS: T
13. A few commercial TV stations broadcast RGB video.
ANS: F
14. Most color monitors for personal computers use RGB video.
ANS: T
15. The luminance signal controls the brightness of a scan line.
ANS: T
16. The standard synchronization for TV is called positive sync.
ANS: F
17. The sync pulses are said to be "blacker than black".
ANS: T
18. The negative peak of a video signal occurs during a sync pulse.
ANS: T
19. The peak video signal occurs at the blanking level.
ANS: F
20. The duration of the vertical blanking pulse identifies which picture field is present.
ANS: F
21. Closed-caption signals can be sent during the vertical blanking time.
ANS: T
22. Horizontal and vertical resolution in a TV system are determined in the same way.
ANS: F
23. The resolution seen by a viewer depends to a certain extent on the TV receiver.
ANS: T
24. Horizontal resolution is equal to the number of visible scan lines.
ANS: F

25. Resolution is proportional to bandwidth.
ANS: T
26. Because of the way people perceive color, any color can be made with red, green, and blue.
ANS: T
27. NTSC color television is not compatible with NTSC monochrome television.
ANS: F
28. In an NTSC color TV system, luminance is derived from the RGB signals.
ANS: T
29. Horizontal resolution for color in NTSC is much less than it is for luminance.
ANS: T
30. NTSC uses a suppressed-carrier system to add color information to the video signal.
ANS: T
31. NTSC uses a type of amplitude modulation for the video signal.
ANS: T
32. A standard video broadcast channel is about 4.5 MHz wide.
ANS: F
33. The audio signal in NTSC video uses FM.
ANS: T
34. Color NTSC receivers use a "color-burst" oscillator to create the color signals.
ANS: F
35. A standard broadcast video signal reaches zero level twice per frame.
ANS: F
36. An analog television receiver uses a type of superheterodyne circuit.
ANS: T
37. The accelerating voltage applied to the CRT in a TV receiver is several thousand volts.
ANS: T
38. Color TVs use a higher accelerating voltage than do monochrome receivers.
ANS: T
39. The CRTs commonly used in TV receivers use electrostatic deflection.
ANS: F
40. The "yoke" is part of the deflection circuit.
ANS: T
41. Color TV receivers do not have a "raster".
ANS: F
42. There is very high voltage at the flyback transformer in a TV receiver.
ANS: T
43. Most of the supply voltages in a TV receiver come from the horizontal output transformer.
ANS: T
44. A typical color CRT contains three electron guns.
ANS: T
45. A typical monochrome CRT contains a "shadow mask".
ANS: F
46. In a color CRT, "purity" means each electron beam hits the correct color phosphor.
ANS: T
47. "Aquadag" is a color phosphor.
ANS: F
48. "Ultor" is a color phosphor.
ANS: F
49. In a CATV system, the main antenna is at the "head end".
ANS: T
50. Like a PSTN central office, the typical CATV system is configured as a star network.
ANS: F
51. Noninterlaced scanning is called "progressive" scanning.
ANS: T
52. HDTV uses the same aspect ratio as standard NTSC.
ANS: F
53. An HDTV signal cannot fit into the bandwidth of a standard broadcast TV channel.
ANS: F
54. Digital encoding and compression play a significant role in HDTV.
ANS: T
55. The FCC has set the phase-out of analog TV broadcasting for the year 2006.
ANS: T
56. Color CRTs emit X rays.
ANS: T

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. NTSC stands for:
a. National Television Systems Commission
b. National Television Systems Committee
c. National Television Systems Council
d. Nippon Television Systems Commission

2. The NTSC specification was drawn up by the:
a. FCC c. EIA
b. IRE d. IEEE

3. RGB stands for:
a. Red-Green Burst c. Red-Green Bandwidth
b. Red-Green Brightness d. Red-Green-Blue

4. The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is:
a. 525 c. 1024
b. 625 d. 1250

5. The number of NTSC frames sent per second is:
a. 25 c. 50
b. 30 d. 60

6. The number of NTSC fields sent per second is:
a. 25 c. 50
b. 30 d. 60

7. The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is:
a. 3 : 4 c. 525 : 625
b. 4 : 3 d. 625 : 525

8. Luminance refers to:
a. brightness c. chroma
b. contrast d. raster

9. Luminance is measured in:
a. foot-candles c. IRE units
b. lumins d. NTSC units

10. The maximum luminance level is called:
a. max white c. all white
b. peak white d. whiter than white
11. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of:
a. white c. whiter than white
b. black d. blacker than black

12. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of:
a. white c. whiter than white
b. black d. blacker than black

13. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to:
a. maintain horizontal sync c. equalize the DC level
b. maintain vertical sync d. all of the above

14. When measured in lines, horizontal resolution:
a. is greater than vertical resolution
b. is about the same as vertical resolution
c. is less than vertical resolution
d. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines

15. The smallest picture element is called a:
a. dot c. pixel
b. pic d. none of the above

16. In a color TV receiver, Y I Q refers to:
a. luminance signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color component
b. composite color signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color component
c. composite video signal, in-phase video component, quadrature video color component
d. a method of demodulating stereo sound

17. Compared to the luminance signal, the horizontal resolution for color is:
a. much greater c. much less
b. about the same d. resolution does not apply to color

18. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:
a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM
b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM

19. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:

20. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:

21. The function of the "color burst" is to:
a. detect the presence of a color video signal
b. regenerate the color sub-carrier
c. to synchronize the color demodulation line by line
d. all of the above

22. SAP stands for:
a. separate audio program c. sync amplitude pulse
b. separate audio pulse d. sync audio pulse

23. The horizontal output transformer is also called:
a. the isolation transformer c. the flyback transformer
b. the video transformer d. the yoke

24. Compared to a monochrome CRT, the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is:
a. about the same c. much lower
b. much higher d. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration

25. Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done:
a. magnetically for both vertical and horizontal
b. electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal
c. electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal
d. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal

26. AFPC stands for:
a. allowed full picture chroma c. automatic frequency and picture control
b. automatic frequency and phase control d. none of the above

COMPLETION

1. ____________________ is a conductive coating on both the inside and outside of the CRT in a TV.
ANS: Aquadag
2. The ____________________ standard for TV has been in use since 1953.
ANS: NTSC
3. Video systems form pictures by a ____________________ process.
ANS: scanning
4. During the horizontal blanking interval, the electron beam ____________________ from right to left.
ANS: retraces
5. The NTSC specifies a ____________________ video signal.
ANS: composite
6. The ____________________ ratio of a CRT screen is the ratio of width to height.
ANS: aspect
7. Brightness information is called ____________________.
ANS: luma
luminance
8. Color information is called ____________________.
ANS: chroma
chrominance
9. The blanking period before the sync pulse is called the front ____________________.
ANS: porch
10. Odd and even fields are identified by the ____________________ of the vertical sync pulse.
ANS: position
11. Each horizontal scan line takes ____________________ microseconds, not including blanking.
ANS: 62.5
12. Horizontal blanking lasts ____________________ microseconds.
ANS: 10
13. Vertical blanking lasts about ____________________ milliseconds.
ANS: 1.3
14. Picture elements are called ____________________.
ANS: pixels
15. The maximum number of scan lines under NTSC is ____________________.
ANS: 525
16. The human eye is most sensitive to the color ____________________.
ANS: green
17. The color sub-carrier frequency is approximately ____________________ MHz.
ANS: 3.58
18. SAP stands for ____________________ audio program.
ANS: separate
19. The second anode of a CRT is often called the ____________________.
ANS: ultor
20. The accelerating voltage for a color CRT is about ____________________ kV.
ANS: 20 to 30
21. The inside of a CRT's face-plate is coated with ____________________ to generate the picture.
ANS: phosphor
22. The horizontal output transformer is called the ____________________ transformer.
ANS: flyback
23. A good way to separate luma from chroma is to use a ____________________ filter.
ANS: comb
24. The color ____________________ turns off the color circuitry when a color TV is receiving a
monochrome signal.
ANS: killer
25. Signal levels in cable TV systems are usually measured in ____________________.
ANS: dBmV
26. The antenna for a CATV system is located at the ____________________ end.
ANS: head
27. A ____________________ shows a color-bar signal with predetermined levels and phases.
ANS: vectorscope
28. Color intensity is called ____________________.
ANS: saturation
29. The ____________________ of the chroma signal represents the color hue.
ANS: phase
30. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct
color phosphor dots.
ANS: purity
31. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct
triad of phosphor dots.
ANS: convergence

Chapter 20: Satellite Communications

TRUE/FALSE

1. Communications satellites could be just passive reflectors.
ANS: T
2. A typical communications satellite can cover half of the earth's surface.
ANS: F
3. Most communications satellites are in a geosynchronous orbit.
ANS: T
4. Most communications satellites are in a geostationary orbit.
ANS: T
5. "Geostationary" means the same thing as "geosynchronous".
ANS: F
6. A geosynchronous orbit is about 3,600 km above the equator.
ANS: F
7. Signals from satellites in a geosynchronous orbit suffer a great deal of free-space attenuation.
ANS: T
8. It is easier to reach a geosynchronous satellite from higher northern latitudes.
ANS: F
9. At the frequencies satellites use, the ionosphere has negligible effect.
ANS: T
10. The closer a satellite is to earth, the faster the velocity it needs to stay in orbit.
ANS: T
11. In the Northern Hemisphere, an antenna must face south to reach a satellite.
ANS: T
12. You cannot communicate with a geosynchronous satellite from the Southern Hemisphere.
ANS: F
13. You cannot communicate with a geosynchronous satellite from the South Pole.
ANS: T
14. Typically, ground antennas must be movable to "track" a geosynchronous satellite.
ANS: F
15. The azimuth and elevation needed for an antenna to "see" a certain satellite depend on the location of
the antenna on the ground.
ANS: T
16. The power in the uplink signal to a typical communications satellite is in the range of 50 to 240 watts.
ANS: F
17. The power in the downlink signal from a typical communications satellite is in the range of 10 to 250
watts per transponder.
ANS: T
18. The EIRP of a satellite depends on the gain of its antenna.
ANS: T
19. The EIRP of a satellite is the same anywhere reception is possible.
ANS: F
20. It takes over half a second for a signal to go from point A to point B and back again via geostationary
satellite.
ANS: T
21. The useful life of a communications satellite is over when it runs out of fuel.
ANS: T
22. The maximum useful life of a communications satellite is about three years.
ANS: F
23. Using the C band for satellites may conflict with terrestrial microwave communications.
ANS: T
24. Ku-band antennas can be smaller than C-band antennas.
ANS: T
25. Conventional analog satellite transponders cannot be used with digital data signals.
ANS: F
26. It is possible to transmit signals from one satellite to another.
ANS: T
27. In practice, the beamwidth of a parabolic reflector is independent of its diameter.
ANS: F
28. Communications satellites are particularly well suited to long-distance telephony.
ANS: F
29. With TDMA, more than one hundred earth stations can use the same satellite transponder.
ANS: T
30. LEO communications satellite systems have been a great commercial success.
ANS: F

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about:
a. 3,578 km c. 357,800 km
b. 35,780 km d. depends on satellite velocity

2. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called, respectively,:
a. apogee and perigee c. uplink and downlink
b. perigee and apogee d. downlink and uplink

3. The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its:
a. earth station c. footprint
b. downlink d. plate

4. The velocity required to stay in orbit:
a. is constant
b. is zero (freefall)
c. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth
d. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth

5. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called:
a. azimuth and elevation c. declination and elevation
b. azimuth and declination d. apogee and perigee

6. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range:
a. 5 to 25 watts c. 500 to 2500 watts
b. 50 to 250 watts d. depends on its orbit

7. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of:
a. 10
1
watts c. 10
3
watts
b. 10
2
watts d. 10
4
watts

8. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of:
a. transponders c. solar cells
b. batteries d. all of the above

9. "Station-keeping" refers to:
a. antenna maintenance c. orbital adjustments
b. power-level adjustments d. none of the above
10. DBS stands for:
a. decibels of signal c. direct-broadcast system
b. down-beam signal d. direct-broadcast satellite

11. LNA stands for:
a. low-noise amplifier c. low-noise amplitude
b. low north angle d. low-noise array

12. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called:
a. backdown c. power-down
b. backoff d. EIRP drop

13. TVRO stands for:
a. television receive only c. television remote origin
b. television repeater only d. none of the above

14. TDMA stands for:
a. transponder-directed multiple antennas c. time-division multiple access
b. television distribution master antenna d. transmit delay minimum aperture

15. VSAT stands for:
a. video satellite c. very small antenna terminal
b. video signal antenna terminal d. very small aperture terminal

16. On the uplink from a terminal, a VSAT system uses:
a. high power to a small antenna c. low power to a large antenna
b. low power to a small antenna d. LEO satellites

17. A typical VSAT system is configured as a:
a. star c. ring
b. mesh d. repeater

18. LEO stands for:
a. long elliptic orbit c. lateral earth orbit
b. low-earth orbit d. longitudinal earth orbit

19. For real-time communication, LEO systems require:
a. a constellation of satellites c. very high power
b. tracking dish antennas d. all of the above

20. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are:
a. 4 GHz and 6 GHz c. 20 GHz and 30 GHz
b. 12 GHz and 14 GHz d. none of the above

COMPLETION

1. A satellite in geosynchronous orbit takes ____________________ hours to complete one orbit.
ANS: 24
2. The ____________________ is the signal path from the earth station to the satellite.
ANS: uplink
3. The ____________________ is the signal path from the satellite to the earth station.
ANS: downlink
4. A satellite in a ____________________ orbit appears to stay directly above one spot on the equator.
ANS: geostationary
5. Non-geostationary satellites are sometimes called ____________________ satellites.
ANS: orbital
6. A geosynchronous orbit is about ____________________ km above the earth.
ANS: 35,780
7. A ____________________ is an outline of the area on the earth's surface that a satellite broadcasts to.
ANS: footprint
8. All satellite orbits are ____________________ in shape.
ANS: elliptical
9. The ____________________ is the distance of a satellite's closest approach to the earth.
ANS: perigee
10. The ____________________ is a satellite's farthest distance from the earth.
ANS: apogee
11. An antenna's ____________________ is its angular direction between east and west.
ANS: azimuth
12. An antenna's ____________________ is its vertical angle with respect to the earth's surface.
ANS: elevation
13. An antenna's ____________________ is the angle by which it is offset from the earth's axis.
ANS: declination
14. Satellites using the ____________________ band operate on 12 GHz.
ANS: Ku
15. The time for a signal to make a round trip via satellite is about ____________________ milliseconds.
ANS: 500
16. A ____________________ is a type of repeater used on communications satellites.
ANS: transponder
17. Both the gain and the beamwidth of a dish antenna depend on its ____________________.
ANS: diameter
18. VSAT systems commonly use a ____________________ network configuration.
ANS: star
19. To date, LEO satellite systems have been a financial ____________________.
ANS: failure
20. C-band antennas are ____________________ than Ku-band antennas.
ANS: larger

SHORT ANSWER

1. A receiving antenna with a gain of 44.4 dBi looks at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K. The loss
between the output of the antenna and the input of the LNA is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a noise
temperature of 40 K. Calculate the G/T.

ANS: 25 dB

2. A receiver has a noise figure of 1.7 dB. Find its equivalent noise temperature.

ANS: 139 K.

3. A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite 38,000 km away.
The satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a gain of 30 dBi. The signal has a bandwidth
of 1 MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz. Calculate the C/N at the receiver.

ANS: 38 dB

Chapter 21: Cellular Radio
TRUE/FALSE

1. AMPS was the original mobile phone system in America.
ANS: F
2. AMPS is an analog system.
ANS: T
3. AMPS is a circuit-switched system.
ANS: T
4. Originally, only one carrier was allowed to operate an AMPS system in any given region.
ANS: F
5. High path loss makes it easier to reduce interference in a cellular system.
ANS: T
6. Adjacent cell sites usually have some overlap.
ANS: T
7. Portable handheld cell phones have a maximum ERP of 4 watts.
ANS: F
8. All cell sites in a region are connected to a central office.
ANS: T
9. AMPS provides for direct cell phone-to-cell phone connection.
ANS: F
10. AMPS reuses frequencies over a relatively short distance.
ANS: T
11. AMPS uses narrowband FM.
ANS: T
12. With AMPS, each individual cell uses all available voice channels.
ANS: F
13. Besides voice channels, AMPS uses a set of control channels.
ANS: T
14. In AMPS, some control functions are done over the voice channels.
ANS: T
15. Paging signals are sent over voice channels in AMPS.
ANS: F
16. For efficient handoff, an optimum cell-site radius is a bit less than 0.5 km.
ANS: F
17. With AMPS, a cell phone can receive a voice channel and a control channel simultaneously.
ANS: F
18. "Blank-and-burst" control signaling is done over the voice channel.
ANS: T
19. There is no encryption in AMPS.
ANS: T
20. The MIN represents the 10-digit phone-number of the cell phone.
ANS: T
21. The MIN is stored in the NAM.
ANS: T
22. If used, the ESN must be keyed in by the cell phone user.
ANS: F
23. Both the ESN and the MIN are required for proper billing.
ANS: T
24. The power a cell phone transmits is controlled by the land station.
ANS: T
25. It is possible to have a "collision" when two cell phones try to use the same control channel at the
same
ANS: T
26. The DCC is used to tell a cell phone it is "roaming".
ANS: F
27. With AMPS, handoffs always involve a change in the voice channel.
ANS: T
28. With AMPS, handoffs result in a 100-msec interruption of the voice signal.
ANS: T
29. The AMPS system was designed to ensure privacy.
ANS: F
30. It is relatively easy to "clone" an AMPS cell phone.
ANS: T
31. The AMPS system is full-duplex.
ANS: T
32. Analog cell phones require linear RF amplifiers.
ANS: F
33. The optimum size of a cell depends on the amount of traffic.
ANS: T
34. Calls can never be blocked on a cell phone.
ANS: F
35. Calls can be "dropped" when a cell phone moves into another cell.
ANS: T
36. Capacity can be increased by using fewer cells.
ANS: F
37. Digital data cannot be sent over an AMPS system.
ANS: F
38. Digital cellular systems actually use less bandwidth than analog systems.
ANS: T
39. Digital cellular systems in North America use the same frequencies, power levels, and channels as
AMPS.
ANS: T
40. Privacy using the digital cellular system is much better than using AMPS.
ANS: T

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. AMPS stand for:
a. American Mobile Phone System c. Advanced Mobile Phone System
b. Analog Mobile Phone Service d. Advanced Mobile Phone Service

2. PCS stands for:
a. Personal Communications Service c. Personal Cell phone Service
b. Personal Communications Systems d. Portable Communications Systems

3. RCC stands for:
a. Radio Common Carrier c. Regional Cellular Carrier
b. Radio Cellular Carrier d. none of the above

4. MSC stands for:
a. Mobile Switching Center c. Maximum Signal Carrier
b. Mobile Service Cellular d. Minimum Signal Carrier

5. MTSO stands for:
a. Minimum Transmitted Signal Output c. Mobile Telephone Switching Office
b. Maximum Transmitted Signal Output d. Mobile Transmission Time-Out

6. MIN stands for:
a. Manual Identification Number c. Maximum In-band Noise
b. Mobile Identification Number d. Minimum In-band Noise

7. NAM stands for:
a. Numerical Access Mode c. Number Access Module
b. Numerical Assignment Mode d. Number Assignment Module

8. ESN stands for:
a. Electronic Serial Number c. Emission Strength Number
b. Emitted Signal Number d. none of the above

9. SCM stands for:
a. Service Class Mark c. Signal Class Mark
b. Station Class Mark d. Serial-Code Mode

10. SCM identifies the:
a. code number of a cell phone c. signal classification (analog or digital)
b. base-station class d. maximum power level of a cell phone
11. SID stands for:
a. Sequential Interrupt Demand c. System Identification Number
b. Standard Identification Number d. Signal Intensity Descriptor

12. The SID is used by a cell phone to:
a. identify the type of system (analog or digital)
b. recognize an AMPS system
c. set its transmitted power level
d. recognize that it is "roaming"

13. DCC stands for:
a. Digital Color Code c. Digital Communications Carrier
b. Digital Communications Code d. Direct Channel Code

14. SAT stands for:
a. Station Antenna Tower c. Supervisory Access Tone
b. Supervisory Audio Tone d. none of the above

15. CMAC stands for:
a. Control Mobile Attenuation Code c. Central Mobile Access Control
b. Control Mobile Access Code d. Carrier Mode Attenuation Control

16. The CMAC is used to:
a. control access to the cell site
b. set the access code of the cell phone
c. set the transmit power of the cell phone
d. select the transmit channel for the cell phone

17. In an AMPS system, voice is sent using:
a. AM c. FSK
b. FM d. CDMA

18. In an AMPS system, control-channel signals are sent using:
a. AM c. FSK
b. FM d. CDMA

19. The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell phone is:
a. less than 600 W. c. between 1 and 2 watts
b. less than 600 mW. d. 4 watts

20. BSC stands for:
a. Base Station Controller c. Basic Service Contract
b. Base Signal Controller d. Basic Service Code

21. The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is called the:
a. BSC c. RF interface
b. MTSO d. air interface

22. The optimum cell-site radius is:
a. 2 km c. as small as possible
b. 0.5 km d. none of the above

23. Phone traffic is measured in:
a. calls c. number of users
b. erlangs d. number of blocked calls

24. One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is:
a. increase the number of cells c. increase the ERP
b. decrease the number of cells d. decrease the ERP

25. CDPD stands for:
a. Code-Division Packet Data c. Coded Digital Packet Data
b. Cellular Digital Packet Data d. Cellular Digital Pulse Data

COMPLETION

1. AMPS uses the ____________________-MHz band.
ANS: 800
2. ____________________ is still the most common cellular phone system in North America.
ANS: AMPS
3. Frequency ____________________ is what makes cellular phone systems complex.
ANS: reuse
4. A ____________________ occurs when an in-use cell-phone moves from one cell site to another.
ANS: handoff
5. If a cell-site radius drops below ____________________ km, handoffs will occur too frequently.
ANS: 0.5
6. The number of ERP classes in AMPS is ____________________.
ANS: three
7. A cell phone permanently installed in a car would be ERP class ____________________.
ANS: I
one
8. The maximum ERP of class III cell phones is ____________________.
ANS: 600 mW
9. A portable, handheld cell phone would be ERP class ____________________.
ANS: III
three
10. Mobile transmitter power is controlled by the ____________________.
ANS: land station
11. A MAC is a mobile ____________________ code.
ANS: attenuation
12. For security, you should always assume that AMPS transmissions are ____________________.
ANS: public
13. A mobile switching center is also called an ____________________.
ANS: MTSO
14. The optimum size of a cell site depends on the amount of ____________________.
ANS: traffic
15. Telephone call traffic is measured in ____________________.
ANS: erlangs
16. A cell phone moving into a site with no available frequencies will have a ____________________
call.
ANS: dropped
17. The reduction in cell size to increase traffic is called cell ____________________.
ANS: splitting
18. A ____________________ site is a very small unit that can mount on a streetlight pole.
ANS: microcell
19. Very small cells called ____________________ are used for reliable indoor reception.
ANS: picocells
20. Compared with AMPS, digital cellular phones require ____________________ bandwidth.
ANS: less

SHORT ANSWER

1. Give two reasons why digital cell phone systems are more secure than analog cell phone systems.

ANS:
1. Digital is inherently more secure because of its format.
2. Digitized voice signals are easily encrypted.

2. If a 28.8-kbps modem is being used over a cell phone, how many words of text would be lost during a
100-msec handoff interruption assuming 10 bits per letter and 5 letters per word?

ANS: 57.6

3. A certain cell site contains 200 cell phones. The probability that a given cell phone is being used is
15%. What is the traffic in erlangs?

ANS: 30

4. What is "trunking gain"?

ANS: For a given probability of being blocked, the maximum allowable traffic per
channel increases as the number of channels increases.

Chapter 22: Personal Communications Systems

TRUE/FALSE

1. There are three competing, and incompatible, PCS systems in North America.
ANS: T
2. The current PCS systems are "true" personal communications systems in their performance.
ANS: F
3. Europe has basically one PCS system based on GSM technology.
ANS: T
4. GSM is used in North America.
ANS: T
5. Current PCS systems are referred to as "third-generation", with AMPS and digital cell phones being
the first and second generations.
ANS: F
6. One reason for developing PCS was that the 800-MHz band was too crowded.
ANS: T
7. The North American PCS band is 1.9 GHz.
ANS: T
8. PCS cells are typically smaller than AMPS cells.
ANS: T
9. All first generation cellular systems are analog.
ANS: T
10. Current digital technology is not as efficient as analog FM in its use of bandwidth.
ANS: F
11. Today, roaming is easier with PCS than it is with AMPS.
ANS: F
12. IS-136 PCS is usually just called TDMA PCS.
ANS: T
13. In TDMA PCS, control frames are mixed in with frames carrying voice.
ANS: T
14. GSM is a TDMA system.
ANS: T
15. GSM is not as sophisticated as IS-136.
ANS: F
16. In GSM PCS, control frames are mixed in with frames carrying voice.
ANS: T
17. GSM uses extensive frequency hopping for spread-spectrum.
ANS: F
18. Frequency hopping lessens the impact of multipath fading.
ANS: T
19. The SIM used in a GSM phone helps prevent unauthorized use.
ANS: T
20. GSM security is not as good as it is in IS-136.
ANS: F
21. IS-95 PCS uses CDMA technology.
ANS: T
22. IS-95 allows a "soft" handoff.
ANS: T
23. A "soft" handoff is done without interrupting service.
ANS: T
24. IS-95 can achieve space diversity by using antennas in separate cell-sites.
ANS: T
25. One drawback of IS-95 is its lack of frequency diversity.
ANS: F
26. Security with CDMA is not as good as it is in GSM.
ANS: F
27. Unlike AMPS, CDMA PCS does not require the cell phone to adjust its ERP.
ANS: F
28. Potentially, CDMA makes the best use of available bandwidth.
ANS: T
29. In CDMA it is common for the signal power in the receiver to be less than the noise power.
ANS: T
30. The Walsh code is used for error detection in CDMA systems.
ANS: F

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Current PCS systems are referred to as:
a. first-generation c. third-generation
b. second-generation d. digital-generation

2. The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is:
a. 800 MHz c. 1.9 GHz
b. 900 MHz d. 12 GHz

3. The "forward" PCS channel is:
a. from the base to the mobile c. from mobile to mobile
b. from the mobile to the base d. same as the uplink

4. Compared to AMPS, PCS cell sites are:
a. bigger c. distributed
b. smaller d. higher-power

5. AMPS was designed for:
a. POTS c. use built into an automobile
b. voice d. all of the above

6. The number of competing PCS systems in North America is:
a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. many

7. CDMA technology was invented by:
a. AT&T c. Bell Labs
b. Lucent d. Qualcomm

8. GSM is used in:
a. Asia c. North America
b. Europe d. all of the above

9. In GSM, voice channels are called:
a. traffic channels c. bearer channels
b. voice channels d. talking channels

10. AMPS uses:
a. CDMA c. spread-spectrum
b. TDMA d. none of the above
11. Other things being equal, battery life in a GSM phone should be:
a. less than in a TDMA phone c. greater than in a TDMA phone
b. no better than in an AMPS phone d. no better than a TDMA phone

12. It is necessary to send control information on traffic channels in:
a. no PCS system c. TDMA only
b. GSM only d. both GSM and TDMA

13. GSM uses:
a. frequency hopping c. CDMA
b. direct-sequence modulation d. all of the above

14. In GSM, SIM stands for:
a. Short Inbound Message c. Subscriber ID Module
b. Subscriber-Initiated Message d. Subscriber ID Method

15. IMSI stands for:
a. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification
b. International Mobile Subscriber Identification
c. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification
d. Intermodulation System Interference

16. IS-95 uses:
b. TDMA d. all of the above

17. IS-136 uses:
b. TDMA d. all of the above

18. In CDMA:
a. all frequencies are used in all cells
b. each cell uses half the available frequencies
c. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base
d. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone

19. CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are:
a. common c. rotating
b. unique d. orthogonal

20. The next generation of PCS is expected to have:
a. faster data rates c. wider roaming area
b. Internet access d. all of the above

COMPLETION

1. PCS stands for ____________________ Communications System.
ANS: Personal
2. Current PCS systems are called ____________________-generation systems.
ANS: second
3. In North America, PCS is assigned the ____________________-MHz band.
ANS: 1900
4. Compared to AMPS, PCS cells are ____________________ in size.
ANS: smaller
5. Besides TDMA and CDMA, ____________________ is also used in North America for PCS.
ANS: GSM
6. The spread-spectrum technique used in IS-95 PCS is ____________________.
ANS: CDMA
direct sequence
7. The spread-spectrum technique used in GSM is _________________________.
ANS: frequency hopping
8. Unlike AMPS, CDMA allows for a ____________________ handoff.
ANS: soft
9. The orthogonal PN sequences used in CDMA are called a ____________________ code.
ANS: Walsh
10. Unlike other systems, in CDMA ____________________ frequencies are used in all cells.
ANS: all
11. PN stands for Pseudo-____________________ Noise.
ANS: random
12. ____________________ diversity is inherent in any spread-spectrum system.
ANS: Frequency
13. RF channel S/N ratios ____________________ than zero are typical in CDMA systems.
ANS: less
14. CDMA uses a ____________________-rate vocoder.
ANS: variable
15. A phone user typically talks less than ____________________% of the time during a conversation.
ANS: 50
16. CDMA requires ____________________-loop power control to work properly.
ANS: closed
17. GPRS stands for General ____________________ Radio Service.
ANS: Packet
18. IMT stands for International ____________________ Telecommunications.
ANS: Mobile
19. UPT stands for ____________________ Personal Telecommunications.
ANS: Universal
20. UWT stands for Universal ____________________ Telecommunications.
ANS: Wireless
21. W-CDMA stands for ____________________ CDMA.
ANS: Wideband

SHORT ANSWER

1. What is the advantage of a "soft" handoff?

ANS: No calls are dropped.

2. If CDMA receivers hear all frequencies all the time, how do they pick a specific frequency?

ANS: Each frequency is modulated using a separate orthogonal PN sequence. To
demodulate, the receiver uses the PN sequence specific to the channel it wants.

3. What is the effect of cochannel interference in CDMA?

ANS: It increases the background noise level, but CDMA can tolerate a lot of such noise.

4. How does GSM achieve frequency diversity?

ANS: It uses limited frequency hopping.

5. Why was PCS assigned to 1.9 GHz instead of the 800-MHz band used for AMPS?

ANS: The 800 MHz band was already overcrowded.

6. Why would a battery in a GSM phone be expected to last longer than a battery in a TDMA phone?

ANS: A TDMA phone is active during one out of every three time slots. A GSM phone is
active during one out of every eight.

7. What is the advantage of using offset QPSK over standard QPSK?

ANS: With standard QPSK, the transmitted power repeatedly goes to zero. With offset
QPSK, it never goes to zero. Linearity requirements are less strict for offset QPSK transmitters.

8. What is the "near/far" effect in CDMA, and what causes it?

ANS: A stronger station farther away can "drown out" a weaker station that is near. This
happens when the power transmitted by mobile units is not well controlled by the base.

Chapter 23: Paging and Wireless Data Networking
TRUE/FALSE

1. Traditional paging systems use low-power transmitters.
ANS: F
2. Traditional paging systems use widely spaced transmitters.
ANS: T
3. Pagers use the VHF band.
ANS: T
4. Pagers use the UHF band.
ANS: T
5. Pager messages typically require a lot of bandwidth.
ANS: F
6. Each pager has a unique address.
ANS: T
7. Typically, pager systems keep track of each pager's location.
ANS: F
8. Satellite systems are used by pagers.
ANS: T
9. All pagers are one-way only.
ANS: F
10. Wireless LANs are typically slower than wired LANs.
ANS: T
11. Wireless LANs are typically more expensive than wired LANs.
ANS: T
12. The IEEE 802.33 covers wireless LANs.
ANS: F
13. Few companies actually use the IEEE 802 wireless LAN specifications.
ANS: F
14. Wireless LANs typically use a spread-spectrum modulation.
ANS: T
15. IEEE 802 allows up to 1 watt of transmitter power.
ANS: T
16. The typical range of a wireless LAN in an office environment is about 10 meters.
ANS: F
17. The range of a Bluetooth system in an office environment is about 0.01 meters to 10 meters.
ANS: T
18. Any Bluetooth device should be able to communicate with any other Bluetooth device.
ANS: T
19. Bluetooth has a channel bit rate of 100 Mbps.
ANS: F
20. Bluetooth devices communicate automatically once they are in range of each other.
ANS: T
21. Bluetooth uses spread-spectrum modulation.
ANS: T
22. Bluetooth uses frequency hopping.
ANS: T
23. Bluetooth is designed for audio as well as data.
ANS: T
24. Currently, no wireless LAN uses light-wave transmission.
ANS: F
25. A wireless LAN based on light waves would need direct line of sight for connections.
ANS: F
MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Pagers use:
a. the VHF band only
b. the UHF band only
c. both the VHF and UHF bands
d. the VHF band, the UHF band, and the ISM band

2. ISM stands for:
a. IEEE Standard Message c. Industrial, Scientific, and Messaging
b. IEEE Secure Message d. Industrial, Scientific, and Medical

3. CAPCODE is:
a. an encryption scheme used for pagers
b. an addressing scheme used for pagers
c. an error-detection scheme used for pagers
d. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers

4. In a one-way pager system:
a. all pages are sent from all transmitters
b. each transmitting antenna covers a wide area
c. transmitters use relatively high power
d. all of the above

5. POCSAG stands for:
a. Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group
b. Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group
c. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group
d. Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group

6. A typical pager system does not:
a. require "handoffs" c. require error detection
b. allow "roaming" d. all of the above

7. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is:
a. 802.10 c. 802.12
b. 802.11 d. 802.13

8. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the:
a. VHF band c. ISM band
b. UHF band d. infrared band

9. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of:
a. CSMA/CA c. CDMA
b. CSMA/CD d. all of the above

10. BSS stands for:
a. Basic Service Set c. Bluetooth Service System
b. Basic Service System d. none of the above

11. Bluetooth uses:
a. CDMA c. QPSK
b. frequency hopping d. all of the above

12. Bluetooth uses the:
a. VHF band c. ISM band
b. UHF band d. infrared band
13. TDD stands for:
a. Time-Division Duplex c. Time Delay Difference
b. Time-Delayed Duplex d. Total Distance Delay

14. A Bluetooth "piconet" has:
a. 2 nodes c. 2 to 8 nodes
b. 2 to 4 nodes d. 2 to 16 nodes

15. Two or more connected piconets forms a:
a. micronet c. TDD net
b. multinet d. scatternet

16. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is:
a. 10 cm to 1 meter c. 10 cm to 100 meters
b. 10 cm to 10 meters d. within 10 feet

17. IRDA stands for:
a. Infrared Data Association c. Infrared Restricted Data Area
b. Infrared Digital Association d. Infrared Roaming Data Area

18. The range of an IRDA system is:
a. 1 meter c. 1 foot
b. 10 meters d. 10 feet

19. Infrared networks:
a. cannot penetrate walls c. can use reflected infrared beams
b. can use diffused infrared beams d. all of the above

20. The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is:
a. 1 meter c. several hundred meters
b. several meters d. several thousand meters.

COMPLETION

1. Each pager has a unique address called a ____________________.
ANS: capcode
2. Many pagers can share a frequency using ____________________.
ANS: TDMA
3. The POCSAG was devised by the British ____________________ Office.
ANS: Post
4. A POCSAG message uses a ____________________-bit error correction code.
ANS: 10
5. IEEE ____________________ covers wireless LANs.
ANS: 802.11
6. The IEEE document specifies a maximum power of ____________________ for wireless LANs.
ANS: 1 watt
7. Bluetooth uses the ____________________ band.
ANS: ISM
8. A network of 2 to 8 Bluetooth devices is called a ____________________.
ANS: piconet
9. A Bluetooth scatternet consists of 2 or more ____________________.
ANS: piconets
10. An IRDA system is deliberately restricted to a range of ____________________.
ANS: 1 meter
Chapter 24: Fiber Optics
TRUE/FALSE

1. An optical fiber is a waveguide for light.
ANS: T
2. Fiber has greater bandwidth than copper cable.
ANS: T
3. Optical fiber has greater loss per kilometer than copper cable.
ANS: F
4. Fiber is immune to crosstalk.
ANS: T
5. Optical fiber carries a very small amount of current.
ANS: F
6. Optical fiber is easy to "tap".
ANS: F
7. Optical fiber is easy to splice.
ANS: F
8. Optical fiber can be used safely in an atmosphere of explosive gas.
ANS: T
9. Optical fiber can be used to connect a radio transmitter to an antenna.
ANS: F
10. The core has a higher index of refraction than does the cladding.
ANS: T
11. Single-mode fiber causes less dispersion than does multimode fiber.
ANS: T
12. Single-mode fiber is always made from glass.
ANS: T
13. The core of a single mode fiber is on the order of 1000 m.
ANS: F
14. Single-mode fiber is free of all dispersion effects.
ANS: F
15. Dispersion can be expressed in units of time.
ANS: T
16. The terms "linewidth" and "bandwidth" are equivalent for fiber.
ANS: T
17. Dispersion increases with cable length.
ANS: T
18. Glass fiber-optic cables have a loss of about 3dB per km.
ANS: F
19. Plastic fiber-optic cables have a loss of several hundred dB per km.
ANS: T
20. The losses due to splicing can be greater than the losses due to the cable itself.
ANS: T
21. The purpose of the cladding is to add strength to the fiber-optic cable.
ANS: F
22. The terms "splice" and "connector" are equivalent for fiber.
ANS: F
23. A typical splice has a loss of 0.2 dB or less.
ANS: T
24. Unlike copper cables, it is not possible to make an optical power splitter.
ANS: F
25. Like copper cables, it is possible to make an optical directional coupler.
ANS: T
26. It is possible to make an optical switch.
ANS: T
27. Energy can be expressed in electron-volts.
ANS: T
28. LEDs are commonly used to drive single-mode fiber cables in communications systems.
ANS: F
29. PIN diodes are used as receivers on single-mode fiber cables in communications systems.
ANS: T
30. A LASER diode can be turned on and off at a rate of 10 GHz.
ANS: T

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Compared to the core, the index of refraction of the cladding must be:
a. the same c. less
b. greater d. doesn't have an index of refraction

2. Fiber-optic cables do not:
a. carry current c. generate EMI
b. cause crosstalk d. all of the above

3. Single-mode fiber is made from:
a. glass c. both a and b
b. plastic d. none of the above

4. Fiber-optic cable cannot be used:
a. in an explosive environment
b. to connect a transmitter to an antenna
c. to isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard

5. A single-mode cable does not suffer from:
a. modal dispersion c. waveguide dispersion
b. chromatic dispersion d. all of the above

6. Scattering causes:
a. loss c. intersymbol interference
b. dispersion d. all of the above

7. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to the glass is about:
a. 40 dB per km c. 0.4 dB per km
b. 4 db per km d. zero loss

8. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a splice is about:
a. 0.02 dB c. 1 dB
b. 0.2 db d. 3 dB

9. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a connector is about:
a. 0.02 dB c. 1 dB
b. 0.2 db d. 3 dB

10. Which of the following is a type of fiber connector:
a. ST c. SMA
b. SC d. all of the above

11. The quantum of light is called:
a. an erg c. a photon
b. an e-v d. a phonon

12. LASER stands for:
a. Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation
b. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
c. Light Amplification by Simulated Emitted Rays
d. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emitted Rays
13. APD stands for:
a. Avalanche Photodiode c. Avalanche Photo Detector
b. Advanced Photodiode d. Advanced Photo Detector

14. In a PIN diode, leakage current in the absence of light is called:
a. baseline current c. dark current
b. zero-point current d. E-H current

15. For a light detector, responsivity is measured in:
a. amps per watt c. mA per joule
b. W per amp d. sec per W

COMPLETION

1. In the core, the angle of incidence equals the angle of ____________________.
ANS: reflection
2. The core is surrounded by the ____________________.
ANS: cladding
3. The ____________________ angle is where refraction changes to reflection.
ANS: critical
4. An electron-volt is a measure of ____________________.
ANS: energy
5. The numerical aperture is the ____________________ of the angle of acceptance.
ANS: sine
6. Optical fiber relies on total ____________________ reflection.
ANS: internal
7. Chromatic dispersion is also called ____________________ dispersion.
ANS: intramodal
8. With optical fiber, ____________________ light is more common than visible light.
ANS: infrared
9. In multimode fiber, ____________________ index has less dispersion than step index.
ANS: graded
10. For laser diodes, the term ____________________ is used instead of bandwidth.
ANS: linewidth
11. Dispersion can be expressed in units of ____________________ rather than bandwidth.
ANS: time
12. ____________________ interference is when one pulse merges with the next pulse.
ANS: Intersymbol
13. The optical fiber is free to move around in a ____________________ cable.

ANS: loose-tube
14. The optical fiber is not free to move around in a ____________________ cable.
ANS: tight-buffer
15. A ____________________ is a short length of fiber that carries the light away from the source.
ANS: pigtail
16. Good connections are more critical with ____________________-mode fiber.
ANS: single
17. A ____________________ diode is the usual light source for single-mode cable.
ANS: laser
18. The quantum of light is called the ____________________.
ANS: photon
19. A ____________________ diode is the usual light detector for single-mode cable.
ANS: PIN
20. For safety, you should never ____________________ at the end of an optical fiber unless you know it
is not connected to a light source.
ANS: look
Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems
TRUE/FALSE

1. Most new telephone trunk cables are fiber-optic.
ANS: T
2. Cable TV systems use fiber-optic cable.
ANS: T
3. Many data network cables are fiber-optic.
ANS: T
4. Fiber-optic cable is not practical for telephone trunk cables.
ANS: F
5. CATV uses analog modulation on fiber-optic cables.
ANS: T
6. Usually, splicing losses can be disregarded in loss-budget calculations.
ANS: F
7. The rise time of a transmitter limits its bandwidth.
ANS: T
8. RZ encoding allows twice as much pulse spreading as NRZ.
ANS: F
9. The product of bandwidth times distance describes dispersion in a multimode fiber-optic cable.
ANS: T
10. Regenerative repeaters for fiber-optic cables typically convert the light signal to an electrical signal,
and then back to light.
ANS: T
11. Optical amplifiers are not suitable for digital signals.
ANS: F
12. Dispersion effects accumulate when optical amplifiers are used.
ANS: T
13. Most fiber-optic systems use TDM.
ANS: T
14. Fiber-optic cables shorter than 100 km typically do not require repeaters.
ANS: T
15. SONET operates at a base speed of 25 Mbps.
ANS: F
16. SONET solves many of the timing problems in synchronizing digital signals.
ANS: T
17. SONET is typically used on LANs.
ANS: F
18. FDDI can be used on a LAN.
ANS: T
19. Soliton pulses can travel down a fiber-optic cable with no dispersion.
ANS: T
20. TDR cannot be used on fiber-optic cables.
ANS: F

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. FDDI stands for:
a. Fiber Digital Data Interface c. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface
b. Fiber Distributed Data Interface d. Frequency-Division Data Interface

2. FITL stands for:
a. Fiber In The Loop c. Frequency Input to The Loop
b. Fiber Input Timing Loss d. Fiber Input Timing Loop

3. FTTC stands for:
a. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint
b. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee
c. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable
d. Fiber To The Curb

4. SONET stands for:
a. Simple Optical Network c. Synchronous Optical Network
b. Standard Optical Network d. none of the above

5. DWDM stands for:
a. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation
b. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation
c. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation
d. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing

6. A Soliton is a:
a. defect in the glass c. type of pulse
b. type of particle d. type of optical network

7. Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called:
a. bit stuffing c. SDH
b. bit-synch d. WDM

8. Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called:
a. gain margin c. excess gain
b. system margin d. overdrive

9. Typically, repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to:
a. 1000 miles c. 100 km
b. 100 miles d. 10 km

10. In SONET, OC-1 stands for:
a. Optical Carrier level one c. Optical Channel one
b. Optical Coupler unidirectional d. Optical Cable type 1

11. In SONET, STS stands for:
a. Synchronous Transport Signal c. Synchronous Transmission Signal
b. Synchronous Transport System d. Synchronous Transmission System

12. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is:
a. FDDI c. gigabit Ethernet
b. high-speed Ethernet d. all of the above

13. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is:
a. common c. obsolete
b. experimental d. not possible

14. OTDR stands for:
a. Optical Time-Delay Response c. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer
b. Optical Timing Delay Requirement d. Optical Time-Division Relay

15. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is
called:
a. FDDI c. FITL
b. FTTC d. SONET

COMPLETION

1. FTTC stands for Fiber To The ____________________.
ANS: Curb
2. FITL stands for Fiber In The ____________________.
ANS: Loop
3. SDH stands for Synchronous Data ____________________.
ANS: Hierarchy
4. WDM stands for ____________________-division multiplexing.
ANS: Wavelength
5. SONET stands for ____________________ Optical Network.
ANS: Synchronous
6. FDDI stands for Fiber ____________________ Data Interface.
ANS: Distributed
7. Optical amplifiers use ____________________-doped glass.
ANS: erbium
8. Optical amplifiers use a ____________________ laser.
ANS: pump
9. Dense ____________________ allows many different wavelengths of light to share a cable.
ANS: WDM
10. The OC-1 line rate is ____________________ Mbps.
ANS: 51.84
11. SONET does not use bit ____________________ to synchronize two digital signals.
ANS: stuffing
12. SONET uses a ____________________ to denote the starting position of an information frame.
ANS: pointer
13. FDDI systems use two ____________________ rings to carry signals.
ANS: token
14. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in ____________________ directions.
ANS: opposite
15. Each ____________________ in an FDDI system acts as a regenerative repeater.
ANS: node
16. FDDI uses ____________________ mode cables.
ANS: multi
17. The data rate of an FDDI system is ____________________ bps.
ANS: 100 M
18. SONET frames have considerably more ____________________ than do DS frames for information
about signal routing and setup.
ANS: overhead
19. The number of bytes in a SONET frame is ____________________.
ANS: 810

20. The number of bytes in the payload of a SONET frame is ____________________.
ANS: 774
21. The number of rows in a SONET frame is ____________________.
ANS: 9
22. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________.
ANS: 4
23. The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________.
ANS: 1
24. SONET frame rows contain path overhead and ____________________ overhead.
ANS: transport
25. In SONET, SPE stands for synchronous payload ____________________.
ANS: envelope

SHORT ANSWER

1. What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds?
ANS: 1 MHz
2. Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter, receiver, and cable each have a
rise time of 50 nanoseconds.
ANS: 86.6 nanoseconds

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Chapter 1: Introduction to Communication Systems

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