I. ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING A. Electricity/Magnetism Fundamentals 1. Protons are about ___________ heavier than electrons.

a. Less than thrice b. Less c. Twice

d. 1,800 times

2. How many neutrons does a Uranium 238 have?

a. 147 c. 149 b. 146 d. 148 Ion is _________________? a. Free Electron c. Proton b. An atom with unbalanced charges d. Nucleus with protons In electricity, positive electric charge refers to ___________ a. Electrons c. Neutrons b. Protons d. Atoms Amount of additional energy required for electronic emission of metals. a. MeV c. Electron volt b. Band Gap d. Work function Find the charge in coulombs of dielectric that has a positive charge of 14.5 x 10 to the 18th power protons. 18 16 a. 14.5 x 10 Coulombs c. 14.5 x 10 Coulombs 16 18 b. 29 x 10 Coulombs d. 29 x 10 Coulombs When an atom gains an additional __________, it results to a negative ion. a. Neutron c. Atom b. Electron d. Proton What is the smallest element of a matter? a. Atom c. Electron b. Neutron d. Proton What is the ratio of electrons charge to its mass? a. 0 Coul/kg c. Infinite Coul/kg 7 11 b. 9.58 x 10 Coul/kg d. 1.759 x 10 Coul / kg It is the energy of the highest energy electron of a metal at 0 K. a. 1 Joule c. Work Function b. 1 eV d. Fermi characteristic energy What is the law that determines polarity of an induced voltage? a. Thevenins Law c. Faradays Law b. Lenzs Law d. Nortons Law What is the term called magnetic field? a. Current flow through space around a permanent magnet b. The force that drives current through a resistor c. The force between the plates of charge capacitor d. A force set up when current flows through a conductor Current carried by each of two long parallel conductors is doubled, if their separation is also doubled, the force between them would a. Increase four-fold c. Become half b. Increase two-fold d. Remain the same

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14. Which of the following refers to a characteristic of a magnetic line of force? a. Travels back and forth between the north and south pole of a bar magnet b. Travels from north to the south through the surrounding medium of a bar magnet c. Travels from south to north through the surrounding medium of a bar magnet d. Stay stationary between the north and the south of a bar magnet 15. ________ is the physical motion resulting from the forces of magnetic fields. a. Rotation c. Torque action b. Motor action d. Repulsion 16. The magnitude of the core loss is directly proportional to ___________. (n=no. of laminations) a. n c. 1/n 2 2 b. n d. 1/ n 17. This type of magnetic core is usually made up an L-shaped laminations.

a. Shell type b. Wound-core type

c. Cylindrical type d. Core type

18. The power dissipated in the core due to hysteresis and eddy current losses. a. Iron loss c. Copper loss b. Friction loss d. Winding loss 19. What is the unit of magnetic of magnetic flux in SI system? a. Gauss c. Weber b. Tesla d. Maxwell 20. In applying the right hand rule by holding a conductor with your right hand so that the thumb
represents the current, the encircling fingers around the conductor represent ____________. a. Electronic field of force b. Electric lines of force c. Electromagnetic field intensity d. Magnetic lines of force

B. Electrical Circuit 1. A radio equipment will be used 70 % at 50 A rating for 5 hrs., how much capacity of a dry battery is needed? a. 17.5 c. 35 b. 250 d. 175 2. The objective of a capacitor is to a. Block AC and pass DC current b. Block DC and pass AC current c. Block AC current d. Store AC current 3. If two 0.25 F capacitors are connected in series, what will be the total effective capacitance? a. 0.0624 F c. 0.125 F b. 2.5 F d. 0.50 F 4. If you need an LC circuit to be resonant at 2500 Hz and use a 150 mH coil, what should the capacitance value be? a. 0.015 F c. 0.15 F b. 0.027 F d. 27 F 5. A parallel plate capacitor has the following values : k=81; d=0.025 in.; A=6 in2. What is the capacitance of the capacitor? a. 4.372 pF c. 437.2 pF b. 43.72 pF d. 4372 pF 6. Find the required battery capacity needed to operate an equipment of 30 A at 5 hrs. a. 6 Ah c. 3 Ah b. 150 Ah d. 30 Ah 7. The bigger the diameter of a wire, the ________is its resistance. a. Lesser c. Unstable b. Higher d. Stable 8. The area of conductor whose diameter is 0.001 inch is equal to a. One steradian c. One angstrom b. One micron d. One circular mil 9. Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF current than DC? a. Because of the insulation conducts b. Because of skin effect c. Because of the Heisenberg effect d. Current at radio frequency 10. ___________ is the reciprocal of capacitance in electronics. a. Conductance c. Permeability b. Elastance d. Permittivity 11. How much is the equivalent power in watts can a 3 horse power provide? a. 248.66 Watts c. 2238 Watts b. 1492 Watts d. 300 Watts 12. The reciprocal of capacitance is called a. Permeability c. Elastance b. Permittivity d. Conductance 13. What term in electronics is used to express how fast energy is consumed? a. Volt c. Power b. Load

d. Conductance

14. Given the two voltages: S (t) = 10 cos (t Q (t) = 15 cos (t + 45) volts + 30) Find V(t) = S (t) + Q (t)volts a. V (t) = 24.8 cos (t + 39) volts b. V (t) = 5.9 cos (t + 71) volts c. V (t) = 25 cos (t + 75) volts d. V (t) = 13.6 cos (t + 75) volts 15. _____________is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field. a. An inductor c. A capacitor b. A transformer d. A battery 16. The impedance in the study of electronics is represented by resistance and ____________. a. Reactance c. Inductance and Capacitance b. Capacitance

d. Inductance

17. Term used for an out-of-phase, non-productive power associated with inductors and capacitors. a. True power c. Peak envelope power
b. Reactive power d. Effective power 18. Characteristics of the current in a series R-L-C circuit at resonance. a. It is zero c. It is at maximum b. It is dc d. It is a minimum 19. Is a layer of insulating medium that separates the plates of a capacitor. a. Dielectric c. Core b. Insulator d. Space 20. Current in a chemical cell refers to the movement of ___________. a. Negative hole charge c. Positive ions only b. Negative ions only

d. Negative and positive ions

C. Solid State Devices/Circuits 1. Which of the following best describes an intrinsic semi conductor? a. It is monocrystalline b. There is no hole and free electron c. It is only composed of only one kind of element d. The concentration of holes and free electrons are equal 2. What is the atomic number of germanium? a. 4 c. 14 b. 6

d. 32

3. Electrical classification of materials having 5 to 8 valence electrons. a. Compound c. Insulator b. Conductor d. Semi-conductor 4. A hole is electrically _________. a. Negative c. Positive b. Neutral d. Neutron 5. Another name for band gap energy. a. Barrier potential c. Energy gap b. Conduction energy d. Built-in potential 6. What happens to the conductivity of the semiconductor when temperature increases? a. Increases c. Remains the same b. Cannot be predicted d. Decreases 7. In semiconductor physics, it is another word for impure. a. Extrinsic c. Alloy b. Molecule d. Mixture 8. _________ are electrons at the outer shell. a. Valence electrons c. Conductor electrons b. Inside the shell electrons d. Outside the shell electrons 9. What elements possess four valence electrons? a. Semi-insulators c. Conductors b. Insulators d. Semi conductors 10. How much is the resistance of germanium slag 10 cm long and cross sectional area of 1 squared
cm? a. 550 k b. 55 k

c. 5.5 k d. 550

11. The term use to describe sudden reverse conduction of an electronic component cause by
excess reverse voltage across the device. a. Cut-off c. Saturation b. Revertion reverse voltage to another. a. Capacitance factor b. Reactance factor

d. Avalanche

12. It is the factor by which the capacitance of the varactor changes from one specified value of c. Variance factor d. Capacitance ratio

13. A high power, low frequency diode is normally _________ than a low power, high frequency
diode. a. Heavier b. Smaller

c. Smoother d. Larger

14. The term cut-off for a transistor refers to _________. a. Maximum current flow from emitter to collector b. No current flow from emitter to collector c. There is no base current d. The transistor is at its operating point 15. It is a diode whose central material is made up of intrinsic silicon sandwiched by P and N type
materials. a. Zener b. Schottky

c. Tunnel d. PIN

16. The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of ____________.
a. Electron current in the collector b. Hole current in the emitter c. Electron current in the emitter d. Donor ion current 17. Meaning of the term transition region with regard to a transistor. a. The area of maximum P-type charge b. The point where wire leads are connected to the P-or-N type material c. The area of maximum N-type charge d. An area of low charge density around the P-N junction 18. The base of transistor serves as a purpose to what element of the FET? a. Ground c. Substrate b. Gate

d. Source

19. A circuit that is used to increase the strength of and AC signal. a. Amplifier c. Rectifier b. Attenuator d. Transformer 20. In semiconductor technology, the characteristic of a transistor in cut-off refers to a condition when
__________. a. There is no base current b. No current flows from emitter to collector c. The transistor is at its operating point d. Maximum current flows from emitter to collector

D. Power Generator/Sources/Principles/Applications

1. Single device that converts chemical energy into electrical energy is called _____________.
a. Cell b. Battery c. Generator d. Solar

2. Which statement is not true? a. The negative terminal of a chemical cell has a charge of excess electrons. b. The internal resistance of a cell limits the amount of output current. c. Secondary cell can be recharged. d. Two electrodes of the same metal provide the highest voltage output. 3. Which of the following is not a primary type cell?
a. Zinc-Chloride c. Carbon-Zinc b. Silver-Oxide d. Silver-Zinc Which of the following is not a secondary type cell? a. Silver-Cadmium c. Silver-Zinc b. Lithium d. Lead-acid When batteries have cells connected in series, the effect is a. Reduced internal resistance b. Increased voltage supply c. Increased current supply d. Reduced output voltage _____________ is the specific gravity reading for a good lead-acid cell. a. 1070 c. 1270 b. 1370 d. 1170 How much power does electronic equipment consume, assuming a 5.50 A current flowing and a 120 Volt power source? a. 660 Watts c. 60 Watts b. 66 Watts d. 125.5 Watts If a dry cell has an internal resistance of 0.50 and an emf of 2 V, find the power delivered in one-ohm resistor. a. 1.77 Watts c. 1.33 Watts b. 3.66 Watts d. 1.66 Watts Which has the largest diameter of the following dry cells? a. Type D c. Type C b. Type AA d. Type AAAA One of the following items below is not one of the main components of an alternating current power supply. a. Voltage Regulator c. Rectifier b. Power Transformer d. Filter When the cells are in series voltage add, while current capacity is a. The same as one cell c. Zero b. Infinite d. The sum of each cell One of the following is a characteristic of a direct current dc supply voltage. a. Its value cannot be stepped up or down by transformer b. Fluctuates c. Its output reverses polarity d. Easier to amplify What type of transformer that is used to protect technicians from deadly electrical shock? a. Absorber Transformer c. Step-up Transformer b. Step-up Transformer d. Isolation Transformer

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14. How many lithium cells in series are needed for a 12 V battery? a. 12 cells c. 10 cells b. 4 cells d. 8 cells 15. What is the other term for the secondary cells considering its capability to accept recharging a. Reaction Cell c. Storage Cell b. Primary Cell d. Dry Cell 16. A battery should not be charged or discharged at a high current in order to avoid this defect. a. Corrosion c. Buckling b. Sulphation d. Sedimentation 17. The purpose of cells connected in parallel is to a. Increase internal resistance b. Increase in voltage output c. Increase in current capacity d. Decrease current capacity 18. How long will a battery need to operate 240 Watts equipment, whose capacity is 100 Ah and 24 V rating? a. 5 hrs c. 10 hrs b. 0.10 hr d. 1 hr 19. ____________ is the output voltage of a carbon-zinc cell. a. 1.5 V c. 3.5 V b. 2.5 V d. 0.5 V 20. How many Silver-zinc cells in series are needed for a 9 V battery? a. 9 c. 7 b. 3 d. 6

E. Electronic (Audio/RF) Circuit/Analysis/Design 1. In order to obtain the best temperature stability, what should be the operating voltage of the reference diode in a linear voltage regulator? a. Approximately 6.0 Volts c. Approximately 10.0 Volts b. Approximately 2.0 Volts d. Approximately 3.0 Volts 2. Discrete optical waves that can propagate in optical waveguide are called ____________. a. Modes c. Nodes b. Wavefront d. Step index 3. Refers to digital interface in which data characteristics are individually synchronized and may be sent at a time. a. Synchronous c. Asynchronous b. Simplex d. Half-duplex 4. A variation of Colpitts oscillator which employs a small capacitance in addition to the two capacitors to reduce the effect of stray capacitance. a. Hartley Oscillator c. Wien-bridge Oscillator b. Armstrong Oscillator d. Clapp Oscillator 5. An oscillator in which a piezoelectric crystal is connected in a tank circuit between the input and output. a. Pierce c. Armstrong b. Colpitts d. Clapp Oscillator 6. The condition that product of the feedback fraction and the open-loop gain should be 1 for oscillation is known as _____________. a. Osci requirement c. Negative feedback b. Positive feedback d. Barkhausen criterion 7. A circuit that is used to connect a low current output to a relatively high current device. a. Router c. Follower b. Driver d. Buffer 8. A crystal with its major flat surfaces cut so that they are perpendicular to a mechanical axis of the original quartz crystal is called __________ a. A Z cut crystal c. A Y cut crystal b. An XY cut crystal d. An X cut crystal 9. Which of the following crystals is not commonly used as oscillator? a. Rochelle salt c. Quartz b. Tourmaline d. Carbon 10. It is the ability of some material to convert electrical energy to mechanical energy and vice versa. a. Coercitivity c. Conductivity b. Piezoelectrictricity d. Magnetostrictivity 11. Which of the following oscillators employs crystal? a. Pierce oscillator c. Armstrong oscillator b. Colpitts oscillator d. Hartley oscillator 12. Oscillator that employs a transformer in parallel with a capacitor. a. Clapp c. Armstrong Oscillator b. Colpitts oscillator d. Hartley Oscillator 13. The energy of an oscillator can be sourced by __________. a. Connecting capacitors across the supply b. Inserting a resistor in the grid circuit c. Capacitive or inductive coupling from tuned circuit d. Coupling a small coil close to the tube 14. Find, which type network, provides the greatest harmonic suppression. a. L-network c. Pi-L-network b. Pi-network d. Inverse Pi-network 15. Two low pass filter sections each has a roll-off rate of -6 dB/octave. If they are connected in cascade, what will be the overall roll-off rate? a. -12dB/octave c. 6dB/octave

b. -6dB/octave d. 36dB/octave 16. What condition does resonance occurs in an electrical circuit? a. When the square root of the sum of the capacitive and inductive reactances equal to the resonant frequency b. When power factor is at minimum c. When the square root of the product of the capacitive and inductive reactances is equal to the resonant frequency d. When the inductive and capacitive reactances are equal 17. High Audio frequencies usually handled by a tweeter in a sound system. a. Alto c. Bass b. Treble d. Tone 18. What is the effect in terms of bandwidth when the Q of a single-tune stage is doubled? a. Broader c. Higher b. Lower d. Selective 19. What is the resonant frequency of a circuit when L=2 H and C=30 pF are in series? a. 2.65 MHz c. 20.5 MHz b. 20.5 kHz d. 2.65 kHz 20. Device that increases power content from an input signal. a. Transformer c. Oscillator b. Attenuator d. Amplifier

F. Tests and Measurements 1. Another name of PMMC instrument. a. Ferromagnetic c. DArsonval b. Iron vane d. Electrodynamometer 2. It is composed of a moving coil which is free to rotate in reaction the magnetic field generated by passing current through 2 stationary field coils. a. Iron vane c. Ferromagnetic b. Electrodynamometer d. DArsonval 3. Low sensitive DC voltmeter provides accurate reading when measuring __________ circuits. a. Low resistance c. Zero resistance b. At any resistance d. High resistance 4. What is the common type of meter movement? a. DArsonval c. Fixed Coil b. Digital d. Farad 5. Type of power-line frequency meter composed of vibrating iron reeds placed in alternating magnetic field. a. Resonant type c. Electrodynamic type b. Vibrating reed type d. Induction type 6. What should be the resolution of a digital voltmeter having three digit 0-3 V? a. 3 mV c. 30 mV b. V d. 15 V 7. An AC bridge that measures mutual inductance. a. Schering bridge c. Murray loop b. Kelvin bridge d. Owens bridge 8. A _________ is a device that can test all pins of an IC at the same time. a. Pulser c. Logic probe b. Current tracer d. Logic clip 9. What is the degree of exactness of measurement when compared to the expected value of the variable being measured? a. Precision c. Accuracy b. Deviation d. Error 10. What test instrument will you use to make a modulated envelope visible? a. Frequency c. Logic Pulser b. Oscilloscope d. VOM 11. What type of tube is used to display signals on an oscilloscope? a. Filament tube c. Tetrode b. Cathode ray tube d. Pentode 12. Which is not a part of cathode ray-tube oscilloscope? a. Electron gun c. Digital panel meter b. Deflection plates d. Aquadag coating 13. An iron vane is used to measure a. Dynamic resistance c. DC b. AC d. AC and DC 14. It is the reciprocal of the full scale current of a meter. a. Dynamic resistance c. Sensitivity b. Selectivity d. Transconductance 15. Type of waveform generated by the sweep generator of the CRT. a. Sine wave c. Sawtooth b. Spike d. Square wave 16. What is being controlled at the potentials between anodes of an oscilloscope? a. Focus c. Voltage b. Harmonics d. Amplitude 17. The voltmeter is connected _________________ with the component whose voltage is to be measured directly. a. Not connected c. In parallel b. In series d.Either in parallel or series

18. It consists of a diode and an op-amp and has the ability to clip low level signals. a. Precision diode c. Window comparator b. Window comparator d.Level detector 19. An electronic measuring device that provides instantaneous visual indication of voltage excursions. a. Oscilloscope c. Power meter b. Voltmeter d. Power line meter 20. What kind of voltage is applied to the horizontal deflection plates of the oscilloscope? a. Sweep voltage c. Signal voltage b. Supply voltage d. Trigger voltage

G. Microelectronics 1. When a logic circuit rejects an unwanted signal, this is termed as _________. a. Power consumption c. Propagation delay b. Noise margin d. Logic levels 2. What is the feedback element of a differentiator? a. Resistor c. Capacitor b. RC Network d. Inductor 3. Which of the following bipolar digital IC families is the fastest? a. TTL c. I2L b. DTL d. ECL 4. A separately packed circuit element with its own external connections is called a ____________ component. a. Discrete c. Integrated b. Active d. Passive 5. Which of the following can be used as a square to spikes wave converter? a. Level detector c. Integrator b. Differentiator d. Schmitt trigger 6. An IC constructed entirely on a single silicon chip. a. Monolithic c. Hybrid b. Thick-film d. Thin-film 7. A program written in machine language a. Language c. Source program b. Object program d. Database 8. A circuit whose output is the continuous summation of a signal over a period of time. a. Level detector c. Differentiator b. Integrator d. Schmitt trigger 9. __________ refers to circuits with 10 to 100 integrated circuits. a. SSI c. Monolithic b. IC d. MSI 10. Another name for attenuation factor? a. dB c. Negative gain b. feedback fraction d. Loss 11. What technique below is used to increase the gain in linear ICs? a. Use of high resistance transistor b. Use of transistor with narrow bases c. Use of transistor with wide base d. Resistor ratio design 12. A CMOS with parallel PMOS and complementary series NMOS is equivalent to logical. a. NOR Gate c. NAND Gate b. AND Gate d. OR Gate 13. Which of the following circuits is the least probable building block of an op-amp? a. Differential amplifier c. Current source b. Tuned circuit d. Level source 14. Pin 3 of 555 timers. a. Reset c. Output b. Trigger d. Ground 15. It is the current source used for very low current applications. a. Widlar current source c. 2-transistor current source b. 3-transistor current source d. Wilson current source 16. Another name of sacrifice factor. a. Loss factor c. Feedback fraction b. Feedback factor d. Multiplier 17. In a system with MOS devices, the main bus loading factor is likely to be ________. a. Capacitive c. Static Charge b. Current d. Resistive

18. Digital ICs are mostly __________. a. Hybrid c. Thick-film b. Monolithic d. Thin-film 19. Ratio of the voltage gain of an op-amp for differential signals to its voltage gain for common mode signals. a. Differential gain c. Closed loop gain b. Common mode gain d. Common mode rejection ratio 20. Is a data manipulated by a computer program a. Language c. Object program b. Source program d. Data base

H. Industrial Electronics Principles / Applications 1. What happens to the output resistance of an amplifier employing voltage-shunt feedback? a. It is increased c. It remains the same b. It is decreased d. Equals infinity 2. If the gain of an amplifier without feedback is 10 and with negative feedback is 8, then the feedback fraction is a. 0.8 c. 0.025 b. 0.25 d. 0.9 3. What happens to the output resistance of an amplifier employing current-shunt feedback? a. It is increased c. It is decreased b. It remains the same d. Equals infinity 4. What happens to the input resistance of an amplifier employing current - series feedback? a. Equals infinity c. It is increased b. It remains the same d. It is decreased 5. What happens to the input resistance of an amplifier employing voltage - shunt feedback? a. It is increased c. It is decreased b. Equals infinity d. It remains the same 6. What happens to the input resistance of an amplifier employing voltage - series feedback? a. It is increased c. Equals infinity b. It remains the same d. It is decreased 7. What happens to the output resistance of an amplifier employing current-series feedback? a. It remains the same c. Equals infinity b. It is decreased d. It is increased 8. What happens to the output resistance of an amplifier employing voltage - series feedback? a. Equals infinity c. It is increased b. It is decreased d. It remains the same 9. The basic difference between feedbacks in biasing and amplifier circuit is _________. a. Biasing circuit have high input impedance while amplifier circuits have low output impedance b. In biasing circuits AC negative feedback is provided while amplifiers employ DC negative feedback c. In biasing circuits DC negative feedback is provided while amplifiers employ AC negative feedback d. Biasing circuit may employ positive feedback while amplifier circuits use negative feedback. 10. What happens to the input resistance of an amplifier employing current-shunt feedback? a. Equals infinity c. It is increased b. It remains the same d. It is decreased 11. Which is not an end effector of an industrial robot? a. Welder c. Gripper b. Grinder d. Chain knuckle 12. A movement of the wrist of the robot pivoting around the horizontal axis running from left to right. a. Roll c. Yaw b. Slide d. Pitch 13. It is a robot which is capable of decision-making and has memory. a. Voltes V c. Roborat b. Pick and place manipulator d. Intelligent robot 14. Refers to the system that has no feedback and is not self-correcting. a. Feed forward control system c. Coal slurry system b. Open-loop system d. Closed-loop system 15. It is a robot that is capable of point-to-point operation. a. Roborat c. Pick and place manipulator b. Voltes V d. Intelligent robot 16. Robots that are principally designed for assembly. a. Autobots c. Decepticons b. JTA d. SCARA

17. A movement of the wrist of the robot pivoting around the vertical axis running from top to bottom. a. Pitch c. Yaw b. Roll d. Slide 18. The two kinds of relays in programmable controller are a. Input and output relay c. Output relay and control relay b. Electrical and mechanical d. Feedback and open loop 19. What is the reason why robot actuators have lesser capabilities than electric or hydraulic robot actuators? a. It has high initial cost c. It always has oil leaks b. It has a quick response d. It always has all or nothing motion 20. Which of the following robot drive mechanism is the most expensive to buy but can handle heavy payloads and cheap maintenance? a. Hydraulic c. Electric b. Pneumatic d. Thermionic

I. Computer Principles 1. __________ refers to BCD counter. a. Decade counter c. Frequency divider b. Binary counter d. Shift divider 2. Convert 17B.8C16 to decimal. a. 379.578645 c. 379.546875 b. 973.546875 d. 973.578645 3. A detailed step by step of the direction telling a computer exactly how to proceed to solve a specific problem or process a specific task a. Flowchart c. Computer program b. Sequence d. Process 4. For a supply voltage of 10 V, what is the minimum voltage at the input of a CMOS 4000 and 74C00 IC series representing logic 1? a. 9.95 V c. 7 V b. 3 V d. 0.05 V 5. _____________ is a segment register which normally access variables in the program. a. Data c. Code b. Stack d. Extra 6. _______________ are non-semiconductor devices still used in digital memories. a. Gates c. Relay b. Magnetic cores d. Flip-Flops 7. What level is used to represent logic 0 in a negative logic circuit? a. Negative Transition Level c. Low Level b. High Level d. Positive Transition Level 8. One of the following can program PROMs. a. Biasing bipolar transistor c.Blowing a fuse b. Charging a gate d. Effusing input 9. Speed of a logic circuit is normally expressed as __________________. a. Logic levels c.Propagation Delay b. Power Consumption d. Speed Immunity 10. The rapidly flashing logic probe tip tells you that the logic node being probe a. Has an unstable logic activity b. Is struck c. Has rapidly changing logic activity d. Is at an illegal logic level 11. What is the decimal equivalent of 143.44 to decimal? a. 84.69 c. 48.69 b. 84.96 d. 48.96 12. A JK flip-flop whose 2 inputs are both logical 0 is operating in what mode? a. Reset c.Toggle b. Set d. Hold 13. A 4-bit digital word is called a. Byte c. Dibit b. Quarter d. Nibble 14. For a supply voltage of 10 V, what is the maximum voltage at the output of a CMOS 4000 and 74C00 IC series representing logic 0? a. 7 V c. 0.05 V b. 9.95 V d. 3 V 15. What does ALU which carries arithmetic and logic operations process? a. Hexadecimal Numbers c. Binary Numbers b. Octal Numbers d. Binary coded decimal 16. Octal coding involves grouping of bits into a. 2 c. 8 b. 3 d. 4

17. What is the gray code for 35? a. 00110101 c. 100011 b. 01011011 d. 110010 18. In binary counting, the counter right after 0,1,10,11 is a. 110 c. 111 b. 12 d. 100 19. ______________ is a sequence of instruction that tells the computer machine on how available data shall be processed. a. Command c. Program b. RAM d. Flowchart 20. A half-adder is composed of a. 2 OR Gates c. 1 XOR and 1 AND Gates b. 2 AND Gates d. 1 AND and 1 OR Gates

II. ELECTRONIC SYSTEMS AND TECHNOLOGIES A. Radio Communication System Transmission Fundamentals 1. What is the name of the microwave transmission line that is used with printed circuits? a. coax c. waveguide b. ferrite loop d. microstrip 2. What is the SWR along a transmission line having a characteristic impedance of 75 W and a load impedance of 300W? a. 0.25 c. 2 b. 0.5 d. 4 3. A major and basic advantage for the used of a klystron. a. Efficiency c. Lesser Noise b. Cheaper d. High Power 4. Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced with respect to _____. a. Positive Terminal c. Ground b. Negative Terminal d. Input 5. Which of the following is not a method of coupling into or out of a waveguide? a. Holes c. Slot b. Probe d. Loop 6. Which tester is used to measure SWR? a. Multimeter c. Reflectometer b. Spectrum Analyzer d. Oscilloscope 7. What is the effect of standing waves on a transmission line? a. increase in the power fed to antenna b. decrease in the power fed to antenna c. prevention of arcing d. a cooler operating line 8. Which of the following determines the characteristics of a transmission line? a. Length c. Inductance b. Physical dimensions d. Capacitance 9. Transmission line must be matched to the load to a. transfer maximum current to the load b. reduce the load current c. transfer maximum voltage to the load d. transfer maximum power to the load 10. Two 2-mm-diameter wires held 6 cm apart center-to-center has a characteristic impedance of _____. a. 491 Ohms c. 250 Ohms b. 75 Ohms d. 500 Ohms 11. A shorted transmission line less than l / 4 in length will exhibit _____ reactance. a. Inductive c. Maximum b. Capacitive d. Minimum 12. What determines the velocity factor in transmission line? a. The termination impedance b. Dielectrics in the line c. The center conductor resistivity d. The termination impedance 13. When a transmission line uses ground return, it is called a (n) _____ line. a. balanced c. grounded b. unbalanced d. ungrouped 14. A waveguide acts as a _____. a. LPF c. BRF b. Resonator d. HPF 15. What is the phase shift corresponding to wavelenght/4 in standing wave pattern? a. 40 c. 90 b. 0 d. 180

16. What is the velocity factor of non-foam dielectric 50 or 75 ohm flexible coaxial cable such as RG 8, 11, 58, and 59? a. 0.10 c. 0.66 b. 2.67 d. 0.30 17. Best choice of transmission line component to couple a coaxial line to a parallel wire line. a. Slotting c. Slotted Line b. Directional Amplifier d. Balun 18. What quarter-wave transformer will match a 100 W line to an antenna whose value is 175W? a. 132.29 Ohms c. 137.5 Ohms b. 150 Ohms d. 16.58 Ohms 19. What is the function of a resistive pyramid or vane at the end of a waveguide section? a. absorber c. reflector b. termination d. dummy load 20. Energy that has neither been radiated into space nor completely transmitted. a. Incident Waves c. Modulated Waves b. Captured Waves d. Standing Waves

Acoustics 1. Where is the single-button microphone used most? a. Intercom c. Paging System b. Broadcast Studio d. Telephone 2. What is the meaning of kinescope? a. Color CRT c. Enhanced CRT b. Wide screen CRT d. TV Picture Tube 3. A relatively rigid extended surface surrounding an acoustic source. a. Panel Board c. Screen b. Baffle d. Dash Board 4. _____ used to measure speech volume. a. Speech meter c. Audio Frequency Meter b. Volume Unit Meter d. Volume Meter 5. The typical output voltage from a magnetic microphone is a. 1 mV c. 10 mV b. 50 mV d. 5 mV 6. Complex number, equal to the ratio of a complex pressure amplitude to the complex amplitude of the volume velocity a. Acoustic Intensity c. Acoustic Impendance b. Acoustic Pressure d. Air Elasticity 7. How often must remote control instrumentals be calibrated? a. Weekly c. Yearly b. Daily d. Monthly 8. What is the unit of Loudness? a. Phon c. Sone b. dB d. Mel 9. It is an underwater acoustic pressure sensor. a. Hydrophone c. SLM b. Geophone d. Sonar 10. Sound is a wave motion of varying air____. a. Pressure c. Resistance b. Density d. Viscosity 11. A car horn outdoors, produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB at ft away. At this distance, what is the sound power in watt? a. 1.2 W c. 12 W b. 0.12 W d. 0.012 W 12. Sound intensity is given as a. df/dp c. dP/dA b. dE/dP d. dA/dP 13. What is the most common application of carbon microphone? a. TV Transmitter c. AM Radio b. FM Radio d. Telephone 14. Which type of microphone has a high Z output? a. Carbon c. Ribbon b. Dynamic d. Crystal 15. A device used for abating the noise accompanying the flow of gas through a pipe. a. Acoustic Chamber c. Muffler b. Helmholtz Resonator d. Acoustic Filter 16. Designated the sensation of low and high in the sense of the bass and treble a. Pitch c. SPL b. Intensity d. Frequency 17. One-hundred twenty bars of pressure variation is equal to a. 115.56 dBSPL c. 120 dBSPL b. 41.58 dBSPL d. 57.78 dBSPL

18. Tendency of sound energy to spread a. Refraction c. Diffraction b. Rarefaction d. Reflection 19. What is the process where some of the medium through which it impinges? a. absorption c. refraction b. diffraction d. reflection 20. Lowest frequency produced by musical instrument. a. Harmonic c. Period b. Midrange d. Fundamental

Modulation 1. What circuit is used to create vestigial transmission? a. Duplexer c. LPF b. HPF d. Diplexer 2. Pilot carrier transmission, means a. Only one sideband is transmitted b. Two sidebands as well as a trace of carrier are transmitted c. Only two sidebands are transmitted d. One sideband and carrier are transmitted 3. A carrier signal has _____. a. The information c. A varying amplitude b. Frequency range 20-20000 Hz d. Constant peak amplitude 4. What is gained by operating an oscillator on some subharmonic of the transmission frequency? a. Frequency Sensitivity c. High Sensitivity b. Good Selectivity d. Frequency Stability 5. How does a SSB transmitter output power normally expressed? a. Peak Power c. In terms of Peak Envelope Power b. In terms of Peak-to-Peak Power d. Average Power 6. If the percentage of modulation of an AM amplifier is 88% and the modulation signal is 1 volt, the carrier has amplitude of _____. a. 1.14 Volts c. 1.88 Volts b. 0.12 Volt d. 0.88 Volt 7. The total power content of an AM signal is 600 W. What is the percentage modulation if each sideband contains 100 W? a. 83.3 % c. 33.3 % b. 100 % d. 66.7% 8. In Frequency Modulation ______. a. The frequency of carrier varies according to the frequency of the modulating signal. b. The amplitude of the carrier according to the amplitude of the modulating signal. c. The frequency of carrier varies according to the phase of the modulating signal. d. The frequency of carrier varies according to the amplitude of the modulating signal. 9. What percent of the radiated power is in the sidebands with 50% sinusoidal modulation (AM)? a. 11 % c. 20 % b. 16.67 % d. 33 % 10. An FM signal has a frequency deviation of 2000 Hz caused by modulating signal of 500 Hz. What is the modulation index? a. 2 c. 4 b. 5 d. 8 11. A third symbol emission which represent television. a. D c. C b. F d. A 12. In a transmitted AM wave, state where the information is contained? a. Envelope c. Carrier b. Modulating Signal d. Sidebands 13. What pattern of modulation must used when neutralizing an operating transmitter? a. 100 % or over c. 50 % b. 80 % d. 10 % 14. What is the percent modulation of an AM wave that has a power content of 12 kW in each sideband when modulated by a single tone? a. 66 % c. 75 % b. 30 % d. 82 % 15. What is the difference between phase and frequency modulation? a. Is too great to make two systems compatible b. Is purely theoretical because they are the same in practice c. Lies in the different definitions of the modulation index d. Lies in poorer audio response of phase modulation

16. A method of generating SSB signal; that utilizes only one balanced modulator circuit. a. Third Method c. Weaver Method b. Filter Method d. Phase-Shift Method 17. An AM transmission of 1000 W is fully modulated. Calculate the power transmitted as a SSB signal. a. 1000 W c. 333 W b. 167 W d. 667 W 18. The third symbol radio emission which represent telephone transmission including sound broadcasting. a. C c. W b. E d. F 19. For an unmodulated carrier of 1000V and a modulated peak value of 1800 V, what is the modulation index? a. 0.8 c. 0.9 b. 0.7 d. 0.5 20. What is emission C3F? a. Television c. Facsimile b. RTTY d. Modulated CW

Noise 1. Considered as the main source of an internal noise. a. Flicker c. Facsimile b. Thermal Agitation d. Modulated CW 2. Two resistor, 20 kohms and 50 kohms are at ambient temperature. Calculate for a bandwidth equal to 100 kHz, the thermal noise voltage for the two resistors connected in parallel. a. 47.8 V c. 4.78 V b. 4278 V d. 0.4782 V 3. The noise power generated by a resistor depends upon a. Its operating temperature c. Both a and b b. None of the above d. Its resistance value 4. Quantization noise is produced in a. PCM c. FSK b. All modulation system d. All pulse modulation system 5. Unit of noise power of psophometer a. dBm c. pWp b. dBmo d. dBa 6. The equivalent noise temperature of the amplifier is 25 K. What is the noise figure? a. 1.86 c. 10.86 b. 0.1086 d. 1.086 7. Background noise is the same as the following except a. Thermal Noise c. Gaussian Noise b. Impulse Noise d. White Noise 8. The type of device noise, which is important at high frequencies, is ___ noise. a. flicker c. shot b. Johnson d. Transit-Time 9. The signal in a channel is measured to be 23 dB while noise in the same channel is measured to be 9 dB. The signal to noise ratio therefore is ____. a. 9/23 c. 23/9 b. 14-dB d. 32-dB 10. Which is better, an NF of 20 or 10 dB? a. Either c. 10 dB b. Neither d. 20 dB 11. Find the noise voltage for a 1-kohms resistor at 170C tuned by an LC circuit with a BW of 1 MHz. a. 15 V c. 50 V b. 15.01 V d. 5.01 V 12. Extra-terrestrial noise is observable at frequencies from a. 5 to 8 GHz c. Above 2 GHz b. 8 to 1.43 GHz d. 0 to 20 kHz 13. What source of noise is related to system temperature? a. Thermal Noise c. Pink Noise b. Shot Noise d. Burst Noise 14. An amplifier with NF= 6 dB has (S/N), of 25 dB. What is the output S/N? a. 6 dB c. 31 dB b. 19 dB d. 25 dB 15. Determine the equivalent noise bandwidth for a single RC low-pass filter if R=20 kohms and C= 0.1 uF a. 125 Hz c. 250 Hz b. 200 Hz d. 500 Hz 16. Which of the following must not be included? a. Solar Noise c. Cosmic Noise b. Galactic Noise d. Atmospheric Noise 17. A decibel notation relative to a reference noise level. a. dBa c. dBpwp b. dBf d. dBrn

18. What happens to noise when you increase the bandwidth of an amplifier? a. fluctuates c. Remain constant b. it decreases d. it increases 19. Which of the following is not associated with transistors? a. jitter c. Transit-time b. flicker noise d. shot noise 20. It is the interference of a signal from one channel into another channel. a. Sidebnd Splatter c. Inter-modulation distortion b. Crosstalk d. Spur

Radiation and Wave Propagation 1. *Nominal voice channel a. 3 to 3 kHz c. 4 kHz b. 16 to 16 kHz d. 20 to 20 kHz 2. *The lowest layer in the ionosphere. a. E c. D b. F2 d. F1 3. Tropospheric scatter may be used in what frequency range? a. UHF c. VLF b. VHF d. HF 4. *____ is the upper portion of the earths atmosphere, which absorbs large quantities of suns radiation. a. Plutoshpere c. Ionosphere b. Troposphere d. Stratosphere 5. Tropospheric scatter uses the frequencies in the ____ band. a. VHF c. UHF b. UF d.VLF 6. *The lowest resistance ground on earth. a. Sand c. Clay b. Limestone d. Surface loam soil 7. *When the transmitting and receiving antennas are in line-of-sight with each other, the mode of propagation is ____ wave. a. Space or direct c. Ground b. Surface d. Sky 8. *How often does sunspot (short term) activity repeat? a. 365 days c. 366 days b. 27 days d. 60 days 9. *____ waves can propagate on piezoelectric substrates. a. Wavelets c. Sky b. Surface d. Space 10. *Scatter transmission is used at what frequencies? a. ELF and SHF c. HF and LF b. MF and HF d. VHF and UHF 11. *In what region of the world is sporadic-E most prevalent? a. The arctic regions c. The polar regions b. The northern hemisphere d. The equatorial regions 12. The relative permittivity of air is much ____ that of empty space. a. None of the above c. Less than b. Greater than d. The same 13. To install an antenna with a line-of-sight transmission at a distance of 75 miles, determine the height of a receiving antenna if the transmitting antenna is 250 ft. a. 1385 ft. c. 400 ft. b. 255 ft. d. 600 ft. 14. *In what unit is field intensity measured? 2 2 a. W/m c. mW/m 2 b. mV/m d. V/m 15. *It is described as the MUF factor a. Cos c. Csc b. Sec d. Sin 16. *The type of wave propagation in the UHF band a. Space wave c. Ground wave b. Sky wave d. Surface wave 17. *The critical frequency is ____ the maximum usable frequency. a. Equal to c. Lower than b. Has no relation with d. Higher than

18. *What happens to the wave velocity as it passes from air to ionosphere? a. Remain the Same c. Fluctuates b. Decreases d. Increases 19. A field of 25 mV/m develops 2V in a certain antenna. What is its effective height? a. 80 m c. 160 m b. 50 m d. 12.5 m 20. *A transmitting antenna is on a 50-ft. tower and the receiving antenna is on an identical tower. How far apart is the potential distance between them? a. 60 mi c. 20 mi b. 57 mi d. 100 mi

Antennas 1. What is the ability of an antenna to concentrate radiated energy in a desired direction? a. Directivity c. Efficiency b. ERP d. Beamwidth 2. *What is the term for the ratio of the radiation resistance of an antenna to the total resistance of the antenna system? a. Effective radiated power c. Beamwidth b. Radiation conversion loss d. Antenna Efficiency 3. Why is a half-wavelength antenna always shorter than that computed by = v/f? a. Air resistance c. Ground plane b. End effects d. Top loading 4. *A method used in determining the feed-point impedance of a vertical antenna. a. Delta match c. Impedance bridge b. Top loading d. Sleeve bridge 5. Radiation pattern of a discone. a. Bidirectional c. Uniderctional b. Omnidirectional d. Figure of eight 6. *The main advantage of dielectric lens antennas over a parabolic reflector is that they _____. a. Have low dielectric losses b. Can be zoned to reduce weight c. Have large frequency range d. Have no primary antenna mount to obstruct radiation 7. What is the bridge circuit used in conjunction with a turnstile antenna for the purpose of feeding two separate signals to a single antenna? a. Circulator c. Duplexer b. Isolator d. Diplexer 8. *A device that radiates electromagnetic energy and/ or intercepts electromagnetic radiation. a. Antenna c. Transmitter b. Transceiver d. Transmission Line 9. The angle measured between the 3 dB down points on the major lobe of an antennas radiation pattern. a. Azimuth c. Beamwidth b. Null Angle d. Bandwidth 10. Which reactance would a dipole have if it is 0.6 long? a. Inductive c. Resistive b. Capacitive d. Conductance 11. The frequency of operation of a dipole antenna cut to length of 3.4m. a. 38.5 MHz c. 42.9 MHz b. 53.5 MHz d. 61.3 MHz 12. What is an inverted V antenna? a. Dipole array c. A-antenna b. Parasitic antenna d. Drooping dipole 13. *What is meant by a driven element of an array? a. Not connected to the transmitter c. Shortest element b. Directly connected to the transmitter d. Longest element 14. *An antenna which is not resonant at particular frequencies and so can be used over a wide band of frequencies is called _____. a. Periodic c. Cassegrain b. Top-loaded d. Boresight 15. Which of the following has circularly polarization? a. Parabolic Reflector c. Circular Horn b. Helical d. Small Circular Hoop 16. *Determine the gain of a 6 ft. parabolic dish operating at 1800 MHz. a. 15.5 dB c. 30 dB b. 28.17 dB d. 11.2 dB

17. *The antenna used at microwave frequencies to focus its waves is a(n) ____ antenna. a. Log-periodic c. Horn b. Periodic d. Loop 18. The approximate impedance of a half-wave floded dipole antenna is ____ . a. 150 c. 75 b. 600 d. 300 19. What is the resistance of a lossless Hertz antenna in free space? a. 50 c. 36.5 b. 300 d. 73 20. How is capacitive reactance compensated in an antenna? a. Add series inductance c. Using electron ball b. Use counterpoise d. Use earth mat

Wire and Wireless Communication System 1. In a telephone system, the handset; a. converts electrical movement into sound b. does both A and B c. reconstructs the original voice d. converts the voice into electrical movement 2. _____ are transmission circuits interconnecting two different switching centers. a. Trunk circuits c. PBX b. Crossbar switch d. Strowger switch 3. A form of distortion that occurs on terminal equipment channels due to different propagation speeds of signals at the different voice frequencies. a. Harmonic distortion c. Phase delay distortion b. Envelope delay distortion d. Intermodulation distortion 4. In a cellular telephone communications, the term MTSO stands for: a. Metered Time Storage Operations b. Main Transmitting and Sending Office c. Mobile Transmitting and Shipping Operations d. Mobile Telephone Switching Office 5. What is the part of a switching system that establishes transmission paths between pairs of terminals? a. Switching network c. Switching trunk b. Switching bridge d. Switching array 6. In what frequency range might radio-telegraph transmitter operate? a. 3 - 30 GHz c. 5 20 kHz b. 15 30 kHz d. 10 kHz 200 MHz 7. Station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in motion. a. Coast station c. Base station b. Land station d. Fixed station 8. A telephone channel has a bandwidth of about _____. a. 50 kHz c. 4 kHz b. 10 kHz d. 20 kHz 9. A BER tester sends bits at 2000 baud for 10 s. There are total of 50 errors. What is the BER? a. 1 in 2000 bits c. 1 in 1000 bits b. 1 in 500 bits d. 1 in 400 bits 10. It is a partition located within the E field or H field of a waveguide for the purpose of introducing a capacitance or inductance in the guide structure. a. slot c. iris b. cornea d. creep 11. An important operational point with the SPADE system is that the carriers are _____. a. Voice operated c. filtered b. Always present d. suppressed 12. In a telephone system, the customers telephone directory numbering is from 000 to 99, what is the capacity of the system? a. 1000 lines c. 100,000 lines b. 10,000 lines d. 100 lines 13. What is the method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on 2 different frequencies over the same path? a. Polarization c. Frequency b. Space d. Quadruple 14. In the normal loop design the maximum value of loop resistance must not exceed _____. a. 1500 Ohms c. 75 Ohms b. 100 Ohms d. 1300 Ohms 15. A digital carrier facility used to transmit a DSI-formatted signal at 1.554 Mbps. a. T3 c. T1 b. T2 d. T4

16. Refers to the duration occupancy period of call during its use. a. Holding Time c. Use Time b. Traffic Time d. Occupancy Period 17. The International Radio Consultative Committee is referred to in international radio communication as _____. a. ITU c. IRCC b. CCIR d. IRR 18. What do you call the velocity with which a point of constant phase on a progressive TEM wave is propagated? a. Linear velocity c. Phase velocity b. Wave velocity d. Group velocity 19. The process of _____ is used to overcome the degradation of the S / N ratio. a. equalization c. regeneration b. companding d. suppression 20. What is the small manually operated system with several telephones near a single switchboard? a. PTN c. PABX b. PBX d. PMBX

Microwave Communications and Principles 1. A microwave link between the earth station and the down-town terminal a. Uplink c. STL b. Terrestrial Link d. Downlink 2. A microwave link uses only _____ propagation. a. Sky wave c. Space wave b. Surface wave d. Ground wave 3. What diode makes a good low-noise detector at higher microwave frequencies? a. PIN c. Led b. Gunn d. Schottky 4. In a microwave system, what part is considered to have a gain? a. Speaker c. Transmission Line b. Parabolic Antenna d. IF Tuner 5. MASER is used in communications at a. Light frequencies c. X-rays b. Microwave frequencies d. Infrared 6. Microwave system uses a. Long-wave antennas c. Rhombic antennas b. Paraboloidal antennas d. loop antennas 7. A waveguide flange used to suppress wave reflections by acting like a short across mating flange discontinuities. a. Ferrite flange c. bunches b. SAW d. Choke flange 8. It is a microwave oscillator capable of being tuned over a wide range of frequencies. a. BWO c. Magnetron b. Klystron d. VCO 9. A microwave communications system space loss calculation formula is a. 94.2 + 10 log F + 20 log D c. 92.4 + 10 log F + 20 log D b. 92.4 + 20 log F + 20 log D d. 94.2 + 20 log F + 20 log D 10. Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on a. two or more antennas operating on two different frequencies b. two or more different frequencies c. two or more antennas operating on the same frequencies d. two or more identical frequencies 11. Radio fading resulting from obstruction losses. a. Multi-path fading c. Log normal fading b. Rayleigh fading d. none of these 12. Microwave systems use ______ transmission. a. Surface wave c. Ground wave b. Sky wave d. line-of-sight 13. Which of the following is most commonly used for microwave links? a. discone c. Log-periodic antenna b. V-antenna d. paraboloidal dish 14. For what are PIN codes used in microwaves? a. Amplifier c. Modulator b. Buffer d. Detector 15. It is a major source of thermal noise in microwave system. a. Waveguide feeder c. Receiver mixer b. FM demodulator d. TWT amplifier in transmitter 16. It is generally a hallow-metallic structure through which microwave energy propagates by reflection rather than conduction. a. Micro Strip c. Waveguide b. Pipeline d. Optical Fiber 17. A type of diversity reception, where the output of a transmitter is fed to two or more antennas that are physically separated by an appreciable number of wavelengths. a. Space Diversity c. Frequency Diversity

b. Angle Diversity d. Polarization Diversity 18. What is the linear propagation velocity of a wave down a waveguide? a. Speed of light c. Group velocity b. Phase velocity d. Linear velocity 19. The K-factor under normal atmospheric conditions in a microwave radio data profile calculation is equal to _____. a. 4 / 3 c. infinity b. 2 / 3 d. 0 20. A material used as an absorber of microwave energy consisting of a highly conductive suspension of graphite. a. aquadag c. YAG b. ferrite d. YIG

Basic Principles of various electronics systems 1. What is the function of the magnetron in a radar set? a. Acts as the local oscillator b. Generates the transmitter RF power c. Modulates the transmitter d. Fixes the transmitter pulse width 2. What is another name for 180 longitude? a. Prime Meridian c. IDT b. Equator d. International Date Line 3. It is the ability of radar to separate adjacent equidistant targets. a. Bearing resolution c. Range resolution b. Radar directivity d. Radar scope 4. A duplexer is a a. Single sideband filter c. Balance mixer b. Transmit receive switch d. IF-log amplifier 5. Who is the responsible for determining whether an aircraft is in condition for safe flight? a. The pilot in command b. The maintenance inspector c. The maintenance man who maintains the aircraft d. The owner of the aircraft 6. The outer marker of the ILS has a modulation frequency of _____. a. 1300 Hz c. 75 MHz b. 3000 Hz d. 400 Hz 7. The Glide Slope Transmitter operates in what frequency range? a. 30 - 300 MHz c. 328 - 336 MHz b. 108 - 112 MHz d. 70 120 MHz 8. In what way are radar emissions similar to microwave ovens? a. Can cool objects c. All of the above b. Can cook you d. Fluctuating frequency 9. What is a constant time loran line called? a. Center line c. Circle b. Base line d. Parabolic line 10. What is the name of the stationary two-loop RDF system? a. Goniometer c. Squad loop b. Adcock d. Ferrite loop 11. The Doppler frequency is small if a. The relative velocity of target with respect to radar is large b. The transmitted frequency is large c. The size of the antenna is large d. The relative velocity of target with respect to radar is small 12. _____ is a radar beacon which transmits either continuously or at intervals. a. Rho-Rho c. Remark b. Rho-Theta d. MB 13. Low-power radar uses a. TRAPATT c. RIMPATT b. Magnetron d. IMPATT 14. Marine radars are calibrated in what distance unit? a. Statute mile c. Nautical mile b. Land mile d. Radar mile 15. The lighted spot on a radar display caused by target echo. a. Phosphor c. CRT b. pulse d.Blip 16. What is the operating cycle of the radar? a. Peak power c. Pulse width b. Duty cycle d. Pulse repetition time

17. The middle marker of the ILS has a modulation frequency of _____.
a. 1300 Hz c. 75 MHz b. 400 Hz d. 3000 Hz 18. LORAN is a navigational system used primarily for_____. a. Approach control b. Blind landing c. Obtaining your fixes location over large distances d. Automatic collision warning 19. Loran C operates at a frequency of a. 100 MHz c. 100 kHz b. 1 kHz d. 10.02 kHz 20. A type of radar using the Doppler Effect to remove clutter and render moving targets visible. a. Pulse Radar c. PPI b. Doppler Radar d. MTI

B. Digital and Data Communications Digital Communication Networks 1. Is the transmission of digital information subject to noise? a. Cannot be answered c. sometimes b. no d. Yes 2. What is the most common modulation technique used for radio telegraphy? a. Two-tone modulation c. PCM b. Single-tone modulation d. FSK 3. A ____ interconnects LAN having identical protocols at the physical and data link layers. a. router c. bridge b. gateway d. All of these 4. The process of assigning PCM codes to absolute magnitude. a. All of these c. Overloading b. Quantizing d. Multiplexing 5. The series of periodically recurrent pulses is modulated in amplitude by the corresponding instantaneous samples. a. PFM c. PAM b. PWM d. PDM 6. A block size is typically ___ character(s). a. 1 c. 256 b. 64 d. 8 7. _____ is the method of encoding audio signals used in US standard 1544 kbit / s 24 channel PCM system. a. Newtons law c. Shannon law b. Mu-law d. A-law 8. It is the number of errors in a given number of transmitted bits. a. FEC c. BER b. GOS d. TER 9. ____ is a 7-bit code used for representing alphanumeric symbols with a distinctive code word. a. ASK c. EBCDIC b. ASCII d. Baudot 10. What is the number of pairs in the RS-232C interface? a. 21 c. 15 b. 25 d. 20 11. An invitation from primary to a secondary to transmit a messege. a. Polling c. Selection b. Reuse d. Retransmission 12. What do you call the condition when two or more stations attempt to use the same channel at the same time? a. contention c. crosstalk b. demand assignment d.checksum 13. Another name for delta modulation is ____. a. Quadrature Modulation c. Slope Modulation b. PCM d. PPM 14. What is the parity for the bit pattern 11001011? a. 1100011-1 c. 11001011-0 b. 1100011-0 d. 11001011-1 15. What is the channel capacity of a standard phone line that has an S/N of 511? a. 312 kbps c. 27 kps b. 256 kbps d. 511 kps 16. What is the minimum sampling frequency for a modulating signal of 10 kHz? a. 15 kHz c. 10 kHz b. 20 kHz d. 40 kHz 17. Responsible for some local area network standards.

a. ITU c. CCR b. IEEE d. ENIAC 18. What is the principal difference between asynchronous and synchronous transmission? a. The clocking is mixed with the data in synchronous transmission b. The pulse height are difficult c. The clocking is derived from the data in synchronous transmission d. The bandwidth required is difficult 19. _____ manages traffic on the link. a. Data Link Control c. Network Layer b. Transport Layer d. Application Layer 20. A device that connects two dissimilar networks performs the protocol conversion. a. Gateway c. Transformer b. Converter d. Coupler

Fiber Optics 1. What is the critical angle (of incidence) at a glass/fused-quartz interface? a. 76.7 c. 63.6 b. 45 d. 30 2. Which of the following is not used as an optical detector? a. Avalanche photodiode c. Photodiode b. ILD d. PIN diode 3. It is an optical network transmission standard that has an international connectivity. a. STS c. SDH b. SONET d. PDH 4. (Nov 1996) The different angles of entry of light into an optical fiber when the diameter of the core is many times the wavelength of the light transmitted is known as _____. a. Sensor c. Mode b. Refraction d. Emitter 5. What are the rays which do not pass though the core axis, but follow a spiral path of reflecting segments down the fiber core? a. Skew rays c. Meridional rays b. Convergent rays d. Divergent rays 6. Which of the following is contained in a fiber optic transmitter? a. Fiber-to-detector connector c. Light source b. An output circuit d. Light detector 7. Which of the following is used to send multiple signals over a single optical fiber? a. FDM c. TDM b. Sync-encoding d. Manchester code 8. Where can one found a fiber-to-detector connector? a. Light emitting diodes circuit block c. Transmitter b. Analog transmitter circuit block d. Receiver 9. Which of the following is not a class of laser radiation? a. Class X c. Class II b. Class IV d. Class I 10. The amount of power per unit area in optical fiber is called _____. a. Reflectance c. Irradiance b. Discerneance d. Permeance 11. The measurement of the strength of the light source is called _____. a. Radiance c. Permeance b. Scerneance d. Reflectance 12. The main cause of attenuation in an optical fiber is _____. a. Ideal Waveguide c. Resistance and capacitance b. Wavelength d. Scattering and absorption 13. Which of the following is not a major section required by laser? a. Output c. Feedback b. Monitor d. Exciter 14. What is the most common type of damage to the skin by laser radiation? a. Excema c. Espedema b. Erythema d. Burn 15. Which of the following will indicate the distance to a faulty fiber-optic connection? a. Fiber-optic light source c. Fiber-optic power meter b. Digital voltmeter d. Optical time-domain reflectometer 16. (Nov 1998) An advantage of optic fiber rejecting an induced noise signals from magnetic field or solar storms flux. a. Shielding c. Cross talk b. Immunity to noise d. Electric hazard 17. (Apr 1997) Fiber optic cable operates near _____ frequencies. a. 20 MHz c. 800 THz b. 2 GHz d. 200 MHz

18. Which of the following is an advantage of fiber-optic cable over conventional cable? a. Light weight c. Wider bandwidth b. All of the above d. Interference immunity 19. Which of the following is not an advantage of optical fiber? a. Light weight c. Wider bandwidth b. All of the above d. Interference immunity 20. Which of the following has the longest wavelength? a. Red c. Blue b. Fuchsia d. Green

C. Satellite, Broadcasting and Cable TV Systems Satellite System 1. The access technique employed in most modern digital telecommunication satellite system is _____. a. FDMA c. DAMA b. CDMA d. TDMA 2. Satellite systems may be _____ in character. a. domestic c. global b. all the above d. regional 3. What was the name of the first space satellite? a. Apollo 13 c. Agila 1 b. Sputnik d. Telstar 4. Known to be the first satellite capable to receive and transmit simultaneously a. Echo I c. Score b. Telstar I d. Syncom I 5. A band where most military satellite often operate. a. Ku c. X b. C d. L 6. What is the frequency range of C-band? a. 3.4 to 6.424 GHz c. 1.53 to 2.7 GHz b. 10.95 to 14.5 GHz d. 27.5 to 31 GHz 7. The complete GPS system consists of what segment? a. Space segment c. All of the above b. Control segment d. user segment 8. In satellite communications, the operating frequency should be _____ the critical frequency of the ionosphere. a. Greater than c. infinite b. Less than d. equal to 9. 100% of the earths surface can be covered with a single satellite in a (n) _____ orbit. a. polar c. inclined b. geostationary d. equatorial 10. The most common application of satellites. a. Reconaissance c. Defense systems b. Surveillance d. Communication 11. The first passive satellite transponder. a. Score c. Sputnik b. Moon d. Early Bird 12. Satellite _____ refers to the satellite orientation with respect to the earth. a. footprint c. plane b. orbit d. attitude 13. What is the delay time for satellite transmissions from earth transmitter to earth receiver? a. 500 ms c. 1500 sec b. 1 Hr d. 50 sec 14. The simplest type of satellite is a (n) ______. a. moon c. sun b. active reflector d. passive reflector 15. The control routine necessary to keep the satellite in position is referred to as _____. a. Satellite Tracking c. Satellite Altitude b. Satellite Keeping d. Satellite Orbit 16. Known as the satellite transmitted signal from a satellite transponder to earths station. a. RHCP c. Uplink b. Vertically polarized d. Downlink 17. Geo-stationary satellite is located above the surface of the earth at a distance of about _____ mi. a. 28,000 c. 22,300 b. 50,000 d. 15,000

18. Which of the following refers to the first active satellite? a. Telstar I c. Sputnik I b. Echo I d. Intelsat I 19. The minimum number of geostationary satellites required for a global coverage is _____. a. 4 c. 10 b. 1 d. 3 20. What do you call the single booster installed on the antenna dish of satellite receiver? a. Noise amplifier c. Rectifier b. Single amplifier d. Low noise amplifier

Broadcasting and Cable TV Systems 1. Which band does channel 14 of the television channel belongs? a. EHF Band c. High VHF Band b. UHF Band d. Low VHF Band 2. Is the information used to represent a TV picture transmitted at the same time? a. No c. Yes b. None of the Above d. Sometimes 3. Which subcarrier leads by 90 in TV system? a. R c. Y b. I d. Q 4. Short-wave broadcasting uses ____ wave. a. sky c. ground b. strong d. space 5. In television broadband vivid strong color are often referred as ____. a. saturation c. hue b. luminance d. chrominance 6. In a TV picture tube, what is the purpose of the large tube voltage? a. repels electrons away from tube b. produce good quality of picture c. create huge magnetic field d. attracts electrons towards face of tube 7. Does the video transmitter at a TV BC station employ FM or AM? a. PM c. FM b. Both AM and FM d. AM 8. Where does the AM broadcast band located in the spectrum band? a. VHF Band c. LF Band b. HF Band d. MF Band 9. What is the deviation ratio for commercial FM? a. 5 c. 10 b. 2 d. 1 10. The device that prevents aural RF from entering the video transmitter and vice versa is called____. a. tuner c. coupler b. diplexer d. duplexer 11. To increase the coverage area of a TV station, the height of the transmitting antenna must be ____. a. increased c. retained b. decreased d. clamped 12. What AF range is required of the aural transmitter of a TV BC station? a. 50 Hz 15,000 Hz c. 5 50 kHz b. 20 Hz 2 kHz d. 20 Hz 20 kHz 13. What major principle prevents the TV viewer from observing flicker? a. persistence of the picture tube and human eye b. light reflections c. scanning d. drowsiness 14. What is the picture carrier frequency for channel 7? a. 178.83 MHz c. 174 MHz b. 175.25 MHz d. 179.75 MHz 15. Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie. a. dBx c. dBm b. Dolby d. dBa 16. The maximum power suggested by the KBP on 919 1312 kHz AM broadcast station I Metro Manila is a. 10 kW c. 20 kW b. 15 kW d. 5 kW

17. What determines the rate of frequency swing for an FM broadcast transmitter? a. Modulation Amplitude c. Modulation Frequency b. Carrier Amplitude d. Carrier Frequency 18. Type of modulation used in TV broadcast visual transmitter. a. Pulse Modulation c. DSBFC b. Vestigial Sideband d. SSBFC 19. In TV system, black and white are complementary colors. a. neither a nor b c. false b. true d. either a or b 20. How many cathodes are there in a shadow-mask tube? a. 4 c. 2 b. 1 d. 3

III. GENERAL ENGINEERING & APPLIED SCIENCES A. Engineering Mechanics 1. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
2. a. force c. energy b. weight d. Velocity A mass is revolving in a circle which is in the plane of paper. The direction of centripetal acceleration is along the radius: a. Toward the center c. at the right angle to angular velocity b. None of the above d. away from the center radius What keeps an earth satellite moving on its orbit? a. burning of fuel b. Ejection gases from the exhaust of the satelite c. Gravitational attraction between satellite and earth d. Gravitational attraction of sun The moment of inertia of a triangle with respect to to its base "b" is a. bh12 c. bh6 b. bh3 d. bh12 A measure of the resistance of the body it offers to any change in its angular velocity determined by its mass and distribution of its mass about the axis rotation is known a _____. a. Angular acceleration c. torsion b. friction d. Moment of inertia It shows the forces acting on an isolated object. a. Force polygon c. Free body diagram b. Schematic diagram d. Force diagram Whenever a net force act on a body, it is produces a acceleration in the direction of the resultant force,an acceleration that is directly propotional to the mass of the body. This theory is popularly known as a. Newtons First Law of Motion c. Hooke's Law of Equilibrium b. Faraday's Law of Force d. Newtons Second Law of Motion Moment is the product of mass and_____. a. velocity c. time b. force d. acceleration Which of the following is not a scalar quantity? a. temperature c. work b. time d. Displacement One newton is equivalent to a. m/s per kilogram c. kg-m/s b. kg-m/m/s d. kg-m/s/s The value of universal gravitational constant G depends upon: a. Heat content of two bodies c. Nature of material of two bodies b. None of these d. Acceleration of two bodies The radial distance from the axis to the point of application of the force is called a. Lever arm c. displacement b. radius d. Normal Centrifugal force is______. a. directly proportional to the radius of the curvature b. inversely proportional to the square of the weight of the object c. inversely proportional to the mass of the object d. directly proportional to the square of the tangential velocity When the total kinetic energy of a system is the same as before and after collision of two bodies, it is called a. Inellastic collision c. Elastic collision b. Static collision d. Plastic collision

3.

4.

5.

6. 7.

8. 9. 10. 11.
12.

13.

14.

15. A wagon is uniformly accelerating from rest. The net force acting on the wagon is a. decreasing c. constant b. increasing d. zero 16. When to objects collide, which of the following is always true? a. there is no change in the displacement of each object b. there is no net change in the kinetic energy of each object c. there is no net change in the total momentum of the objects d. the velocity of each object does not change 17. If the mass of an object coud be doubled, then its inertia would be a. doubled c. unchanged b. quadrupled d. halved 18. What is the charge in the gravitational attraction between the orbiting object and the earth if the distance between them is doubled? a. double c. One fourth b. one half d. no change 19. The moment of inertia of a triangle with respect to the base how many time its moment of inertia with respect to its centroidal axis a. c. 5 b. 3 d. 20. The study of motion without reference to the force that causes the motion is known as ______. a. kinetics c. kinematics b. dynamics d. static

B. Strength of Materials 1. which of the following is a method of determining the bar force of a truss member a. method of joints c. All of the above
b. method of virtual work d. Method of section

2. stress caused by forces perpendicular to the areas on which they act is called a. simple stress c. Normal stress
b. tangential stress d. Shearing stress

3. at the highest or lowest on the moment diagram

a. maximum moment is twice the shear b. maximum shear occur c. shear is negative d. shear is zero the highest ordinate on the stress-strain curve is called a. rupture stress c. Elastic limit b. proportional limit d. ultimate stress or ultimate strength the ratio of the unit lateral deformation to the unit longitude deformation is called a. shear modulus c. Bulk modulus b. poison ratio d. Compressitivity modulus of elasticity is also known as a. youngs modulus c. Bulk modulus b. rigidity d. Shear modulus the point on the stress-strain diagram at which there is an appreciable elongation or yielding of the material without any corresponding increase of load is called a. ultimate stress or ultimate strength c. Yield point b. proportional limit d. Elastic limit shearing stress is also known as a. shearing stress c. Normal stress b. simple stress d. tangential stress it describes the length elasticity of the material a. Bulk modulus c. Modulus of compressibility b. youngs modulus or tensil modulus d. Shear modulus who introduced the modulus of elasticity "also known as young's modulus in 1807? a. Lord Young c. Thomas Young b. William Young d. James Young the ratio of the ultimate stress to the allowable of the material is called a. factor of safety c. strength b. elastic limit d. modulus of elasticity it describes the shape elasticity of the material a. young\'s modulus or tensil modulus c. compressibility b. shear modulus d. Bulk modulus the moment produced by the two equal and opposite and collinear forces is known as a a. torque c. resultant b. equilibrant d. Couple the condition under which under the stress is constant or uniform is known as a. shearing stress c. tangential stress b. compressitivity it describes the volume elasticity of the material a. bulk modulus c. shear modulus b. young\'s modulus or tensil modulus d. Modulus of compressibility the straight-line portion of the stress-strain diagram has slope equal to the ____________ of the material a. modulus of rigidity c. shear modulus b. modulus of elasticity d. Compressitivity

4. 5.
6.

7.

8. 9. 10.
11.

12. 13. 14.

15.

16.

17. what type of stress is produced whenever the applied load caused one section of a body to tend to slide past is adjacent section? a. normal stress c. shearing stress b. bearing stress d. sliding stress 18. the reciprocal of bulk modulus is a. compressibility c. young's modulus or tensil modulus b. bulk modulus d. shear modulus 19. the maximum safe stress a material may carry is called a. true stress c. Normal stress b. allowable stress d. Working stress 20. modulus of elasticity in shear is also known as a. modulus of rigidity c. strain b. young's modulus d. Hookes modulus

C. College Physics 1. At the boiling point of a liquid, the vapor pressure

a. is less than the atmospheric pressure b. can have any value c. is equal to external pressure on the surface of the liquid d. is greater than the atmospheric pressure 500 gm of water at 4C occupies a certain volume V. Which of the following statements is correct? a. Its volume will decrease when its temperature is lowered b. its volume will increase when its temperature is lowered or raised c. It will weigh less than one pound of water at 0C d. It will weigh more than 500 gm of water at 0C In Physics, if LF and LV are latent heat of fusion and vaporization, respectively, which of the following equations apply in determing the amount of energy needed to freeze a liquid. a. Q=mlv c. Q=-mlv b. Q=-mlf d. Q=mlf Normal range of the frequency of sound, which the human beings can hear, is a. more than 25,000 Hz c. 20Hz to 20,000 Hz b. all of these d. Less than 20 Hz The work done by all forces except the gravitational force is always equal to the _____of the system. a. total potential energy c. total mechanical energy b. total momentum d. total kinetic energy The amount of heat needed to change solid to liquid is a. Solid fusion c. condensation b. cold fusion d. latent heat of fusion When the two waves of the same frequency speed and amplitude traveling in opposite directions are superimposed. a. Distractive waves are eliminated b. constructive interference always results c. distractive waves are produced d. the phase difference is always zero The scientist who systematically demonstrated the equivalence of mechanical energy and heat was a. Kelvin c. Boltzmann b. Faraday d. Joule The energy stored in a stretched elastic material such as spring is a. Kinetic energy c. Internal energy b. Mechanical energy d. elastic potential energy Sound waves in air are a. Transverse c. Longitudinal b. Neither longitudinal or transverse d. Stationary the density of water is a. maximum at 4C c. minimum at 4C b. maximum at 0C d. same at all temperature It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same distance on the sides because of: a. convection of heat c. conduction, convection and radiation of heat b. conduction of heat d. radiation of heat The minimm temperature which can be measured with a mercury thermometer is a. negative 39C c. 0C b. negative 143C d. negative 273C When common salt is sprinkled on ice the temperature of ice a. increase c. Remains unaffected b. decreases d. none of these

2.

3.

4.
5.

6.
7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15. The boiling point of water on plains is 100C. At hills it will be a. may be any of the above c. more than 100C b. 100C d. less than 100C 16. Heat will flow from one body to another in thermal contact with it, when they differ in a. mass c. Specific heat b. temperature d. density 17. Which of the following is not true about sound waves? a. they transmit the energy b. they produce interference c. they travel faster in air than in solids d. they are propagated as a series of compression and rare fractions 18. When waves go from one place to another they transport a. Frequency only c. Energy and matter b. Energy only d. wavelength and matter 19. When a substance is heated, its a. there is no change in the speed of its molecules b. molecules move more slowly c. its temperature always increases d. molecules move more rapidly 20. The amount of heat which is absorbed during the change of state of a substance without rise in its temperature is called its a. Latent heat c. Specific heat b. Water equivalent d. Thermal conductivity

D. General Chemistry
1. the mass of an alpla particle is how many times more than that of electron? a. 1837 times c. 7300 times b. 1567 times d. 1829 times 2. refers to the degree of arangement among several measurement of the same quality a. margin c. error b. accuracy d. precision 3. the horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic number in a periodic table is called. a. Row c. family b. group d. period 4. atoms or ions which have the same electronic configuration. a. isotope c. isometric b. isoionic d. isoelectronic 5. a reaction in which heat is produced is called a. exothermic c. pyrothermic b. isothermic d. endothermic 6. the atoms which have the same number of neurtrons but different mass numbers are called a. homologues c. isobars b. isotopes d. isotones 7. what kind of chemical bond will from in binary compounds where the electronegativity difference between atoms is greater than 2.0 a. super bond c. electrovalent bond b. ionic bond d. covalent bond 8. the word electron comes from the greek word "elktron" which means a. cannot be cut c. negative b. unique d. amber 9. a solid which has no crystalline is called a. immiscible c. fused b. amorphous d. non-crystalline 10. which group of periodic table is known as the halogens? a. Group VII c. Group IV b. Group IV d. Group VI 11. the isotope of hydrogen is a. all of the above c. deuterium b. tritium d. protium 12. neutron was discovered by a. j.j thompson c. rutherford b. einstein d. Chadwick 13. the number of orbiting electrons is normally__________the number of protons in the nucleus of an

atom
a. half b. less than c. More than d. equal 14. the atoms having different atomic numbers but the same mass number are called a. homologues c. isotones b. isobars d. isotopes 15. under normal state, an atom is said to be a. positively or negative charged c. negatively charged b. electrically neutral d. positively charged 16. the principle of a constant composition of compounds, originally called "proust law" is known as. a. the law of conservation of mass c. the law of definite proportion b. the law of compounds d. the law of multiple proportion 17. The statement "mass neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction" is known as. a. The law of chemical reaction c. the law of multiple composition b. the law of constant composition d. the law of conservation in mass

18. how many electrons are their in a covalent bond? a. 4 c. 8 b. 2 d. 3 19. the mass nearest atomic-mass unit of an atom which contains of 9 atoms and 10 neutrons a. 15amu c. 10amu b. 21amu d. 19amu 20. what kind of chemical bond will form in a binary compounds where the electronegativity difference between atoms is greater than 1.5 a. ionic bond c. Chemical bond b. metallic bond d. covalent bond

E. Thermodynamics
1. With the reference to the thermodynamic diagram of temperature-entropy (TS) what is represented by the area under the diagram? a. enthalpy c. Temperature difference b. work done d. heat transferred 2. The transfer of energy due to the emission of electromagnetic waves (or photons) is called a. emission c. radiation b. conduction d. Convection 3. During actual expansion and compression process of gases, pressure and volume ate often n related by PV =C, where n and C are constant. A process of this kind is called a. adiabatic process c. isentropic process b. isochoric process d. polytropic process 4. The h-s diagram is also called a a. Euler diagram c. Mollier diagram b. Argand diagram d. Grolier diagram 5. A process during which, the pressure P remains constant is called a. isometric process c. isobaric process b. isothermal process d. isovolumic process 6. At a given pressure, the temperature at which pure substance changes phase is called a. critical temperature c. saturation temperature b. triple point d. kindling temperature 7. A liquid that is about to vaporize is called a. saturated vapor c. plasma b. superheated vapor d. saturated liquid 8. An "open system" is also known as a. Control mass c. control boundary b. isolated system d. control volume 9. A process during which, the specific volume V remains constant is called a. Isochoric c. All of the above b. isometric d. Isovolumic 10. An isentropic process on a T-S diagram is easily recognized as a a. oblique line segment c. parabola b. horizontal line segment d. vertical line segment 11. The condition in which the mass of each phase reaches an equilibrium level and stays there. a. Phase equilibrium c. Chemical equilibrium b. Thermal equilibrium d. Mechanical equilibrium 12. Mass per unit volume is a. Specific gravity c. density b. weight d. pressure 13. The energy that a system possesses as a result of its elevation in a gravitational field is called a. gravitational energy c. mechanical energy b. kinetic energy d. Potential energy 14. In what form can energy cross the boundaries of a closed system? a. Magnetic waves c. light b. heat d. sound 15. A series of states through which a system passes during a process is called the of the process a. course c. path b. state d. Condition 16. The difference between the absolute pressure and the local atmospheric pressure is called the a. gauge pressure c. vacuum pressure b. relative pressure d. standard pressure 17. The amount of energy absorbed during melting and is equivalent to the amount of energy released during freezing is called a. latent heat of fusion c. latent heat of vaporization b. melting energy d. Specific heat

18. At a given temperature, the pressure at which pure substance changes phase is called a. critical pressure c. saturation pressure b. vacuum pressure d. Absolute pressure 19. a "closed system" wherein even energy is not allowed to cross the boundary is called an a. control boundary c. Control mass b. control volume d. isolated system 20. The condition in which the temperature is the same throughout the entire system is called: a. Chemical equilibrium c. Phase equilibrium b. Thermal equilibrium d. Mechanical equilibrium

F. Engineering Materials 1. the property of some crystals of absorbing light to different extents,thereby giving to the crystals different colors according to the direction of the incident light is known as a. brittle c. diastrophism b. dichromatism d. chromaticity 2. interaction between the surfaces of two closely adjacent bodies which causes them to cling together is known as a. friction c. viscosity b. cohesion d. Adhesion 3. emission of radiations from a substance during ilumination by radiations of higher frequency is called a. flourescence c. Illuminance b. radioluminuscence 4. the tendency of a body to return to its original size or shape after having been deformed is called a. elastance c. anelastivty b. elastivity d. Elasticity 5. property of some pure metals and their alloys at extremely low temperatures of having negligible

resistance to the flow of an electric current is called

a. supercharging b. superfluidity a. malleable b. brittle a. fatigue b. debility c. superconductivity d. Supercalling c. ductile d. Plastic c. Elastic deformation d. Rigidity

6. solids which break above the elastic limit are called 7. the progressive decrease of a property as a result of repeated stress is called 8. the property of an object that determines the direction of heat flow when in contact with another object is called
a. caloric b. calidity a. isodynamic b. isotropic a. paramagnetic b. ferromagnetic c. temperatue d. Pyrexia c. isogonic d. Isotopic c. ferromagnetic d. Diamagnetic

9. if the properties of a body are the same in all directions ,it is called 10. if a material is feebly repelled by a magnet it is 11. the rate of flow of thermal energy through a material in the presence of a temperature gradient is called a. thermal conductivity c. thermal radiation b. thermal convention d. thermal capacity 12. the property of metals that allows them to be drawn into thin wires beyond their elastic limit without being rupture is called
a. hardness b. ductility c. malleability d. elasticity

13. the property by virtue of which a body resist any attempt to change its state of rest or motion is called
a. inactivity b. accumulation c. passivity d. torpidity 14. which of the following statements is correct concerning the passage of white light into a glass a. greater the wavelenght,slower the speed of color b. the violet color travels slower than the red color c. the violet color travels faster than red color d. all the colors of white light travel with the same speed

15. the emission of light by a material cause of its high temperature is known as a. phosphorescence c. incandescence b. scintellation d. luminescence 16. the property which permits the flow of current under the action of a potential difference is called a. permeance c. resistance b. conductance d. impedance 17. the property of some elementary particles that causes themto exert force on one another is known as a. nuclear reaction c. Potential difference b. charge d. specific change 18. the property of an isolated conductor to store electric charge is a. accumulation b. capacitance c. conductivity d. permeability

19. when a body resistant to heat, is called a. thermoduric c. thermotropic b. thermosphic d. thermoplastic 20. the property of fluids by virtue of which they offer resistance to flow is known as a. viscosity c. gummosity b. viscidity d. glutinosity

G. Engineering Economics 1. a series of equal payments made at equal interval of time. a. depreciation c. amortization b. annuity d. bonds 2. a market situation where there is only one seller and one buyer. a. bilateral monopoly c. oligopoly b. bilateral monopoly d. monopoly 3. the condition in which the total income equals the total operating expenses. a. Break even c. check and balance b. tally d. par value 4. estimated value of the property at the end of the useful life. a. Fair value c. Salvage value b. Market value d. book value 5. it is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want a. luxuries c. utility b. discounts d. necessity 6. the length of time which the property may be operated at a profit. a. Operating life c. Life span b. Economic life d. profitable life 7. it has the stock to prior rightto dividends. It usually does not bring voting right to the owners and the dividend is fixed and cannot be higher than the specified amount a. Non par value stock c. preferred stock b. common stock d. voting stock 8. an association of two or more idividuals for the purpose of engaging business for profit. a. partnership c. party b. corporation d. single proprietorship 9. the sum of all the costs necessary to prepare a construction project for operation. a. depletion cost c. operation cost b. production cost d. construction cost 10. a wrongful act that causes injury to a person or property and for which the law allows a claim ny the injured party to recover damages. a. Libel c. tort b. fraud d. scam 11. the difference between the present value and the worth of money at some time in the future is called a. interest c. discount b. net value d. market value 12. the type of annuity where the first payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment. a. annuity due c. Deferred annuity b. perpetuity d. ordinary annuity 13. these are products or services that are required to support human life and activities that will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity event though the price varies considerably. a. Demands c. necessities b. commodities d. luxury 14. the right and privilege granted to an individual or corporation to do business in a certain region. a. permit c. royalty b. license d. franchise 15. a written contract by a debtor to pay final redemption value on an indicated date or maturity date and to pay a certain sum periodically. a. annuity c. amortization b. collateral d. bond

16. the quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given place and time. a. Stocks c. utility b. goods d. supply 17. a series of uniform payment over an infinite period of time a. inflation c. Capitalized cost b. depletion d. perpetuity 18. the amount that the property would give if sold for junk. a. Junk value c. Scrap value b. Salvage value d. book value 19. the amount which has been spend or capital invested which for some reasons cannot be retrieved. a. Fixed cost c. Construction cost b. Sunk cost d. depletion cost 20. decreases in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time. a. declination c. deflation b. depletion d. depreciation

H. Engineering Management 1. When a person compels with orders through treats or punishment. a. Legitimate Power c. Referent power b. Reward power d. Coercive power 2. This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in several related industries. a. Matrix Organization c. Functional Organization b. Divisible Organization d. Product or market Organization 3. Refers to the measurement of product of services against standards set by the company. a. Quality control c. Purchasing and material management b. Inventory control d. Work-Flow Layout 4. A function of an engineer where the Engineer is engaged in the process of learning about nature and codifying this knowledge into usable theories. a. Manufacturing c. Design and Development b. Research d. Testing 5. This is the written document or blueprint for implementing and controlling an organization's marketing activities related to particular marketing strategy. a. Production Plan c. Short-range plans b. Marketing Plan d. Financial Plan 6. A specialist's right to oversee lower level personnel involved in that specialty; regardless of where the personnel are in the organization. a. Line authority c. Staff authority b. Functional authority d. Head authority 7. Refers to the activity combining "technical knowledge with the ability to organize and coordinate worker power, materials, machinery, and money." a. Engineering Materials c. Engineering Management b. Engineering Club d. Engineering organization 8. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using intuition and subjective judgment. a. Manufacturing c. Design and Development b. Research d. Testing 9. Refers to the process of ascertaining whether organization objectives have been achieved and determining what activities should then be taken to achieve better in the future a. Planning c. Inspection b. Evaluating d. Controlling 10. The following are considered as factors contributing to motivation expert: a. Inferiority complex c. Self-confidence in carrying out a task b. Needs satisfaction d. Willingness to do a job 11. Plans that are used again and again and they focus on managerial situations that recur repeatedly. a. Long-range plans c. Single-Use Plans b. Standing Plans d. Short-range plans 12. A function of an engineer where the engineer gets employment in a school and is assigned as a teacher of engineering courses. a. Government c. Management b. Teaching d. Consulting 13. A plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities a. Program c. Financial Statement b. Project d. Budget 14. A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity and explains where the required funds will come from. a. Financial Statement c. Project b. Program d. Budget 15. When the person has to give rewards to anybody who follows orders or requests, it termed as: a. Referent Power c. Legitimate Power b. Reward Power d. Coercive Power

16. A function of an engineer where the engineer is directly in charge of production personnel or assumes responsibility for the product. a. Testing c. Research b. Design and Development d. Manufacturing 17. A function of an engineer where the engineer may find employment in the government performing any of various tasks in regulating, monitoring, and controlling the activities of various institutions, public or private. a. Construction c. Consulting b. Government d. Sales 18. It is responsible for the procurement and administration of funds with the view of achieving the objectives of business. a. Funds c. Capital b. Budget d. Finance 19. Defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the demands of the situation. a. Initiative c. Problem solving b. Decision Making d. Engineering Management 20. It is a management function which involves influencing others to engage in the work behaviors necessary to reach organization goals. a. Sales talk c. Leading b. Commanding d. Motivation

I. Contracts and Specifications 1. A kind of period with a resolutory effect and the validity of obligation is up to a certain date. a. Ex die c. In diem b. Voluntary period d. Legal period 2. A stage of a contract that refers to the time when the minds of the parties meet in agreement upon the object or subject matter as well as tot the price or consideration. a. Consummation or termination c. Deliberation b. Preparation or conception d. Perfection or birth 3. "A" borrowed money from "B" in the amount of P50.00 promising to pay the amount "as son as possible". If later on , they cannot agree on the specific date of payment, the remedy of "B" is to go to court and ask the court to fix the date when the debt is to be paid. This illustrates: a. Obligation with a period c. Reciprocal Obligation b. Pure Obligation d. Alternative Obligation 4. Marc obliged himself to deliver to Edwin either a piano or a refrigerator. The delivery of the piano or the refrigerator is sufficient compliance with the obligation. Marc could not compel Edwin to accept only a part of the piano or a part of the refrigerator because this illustrates: a. Alternative Obligation c. Condition b. Reciprocal Obligation d. Pure Obligation 5. A stage of a contract that includes all the initial stages up to the time the parties agree upon the terms of the contract a. Preparation or conception c. Perfection or birth b. Consummation or termination d. Deliberation 6. Refers to an element of contracts that consist of the unusual stipulation of the parties such as conditions, terms, etc. a. Natural elements c. Essential elements b. Accidental elements d. Unnatural elements 7. An element of contracts which refers to those the existence of which is presumed by law unless there is an agreement to the contrary a. Unnatural elements c. Accidental elements b. Essential elements d. Natural elements 8. "A" entered into a contract with "B" whereby for and in consideration of P100,000.00 the latter agrees to live with "A" without the benefit of marriage. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to a. Contrary to law c. Against moral b. Contrary to good customs d. Contrary to public order 9. The following are requisites of contracts except a. Cause of contract c. Effect of contract b. Consent d. Object of contract 10. Requisites of obligation consist in giving, doing or not doing something. a. Prestation c. Juridical or legal tie b. Active subject d. Passive subject 11. Damages which are given in enhancement merely of the ordinary damages on account of wanton, reckless, malicious, or oppressive character of the acts complained of. a. Nominal Damages c. Actual or Compensatory Damages b. Moral Damages d. Exemplary or Corrective Damages 12. A damage or injury suffered by the party seeking rescission by reason of the fact that the price is unjust or inadequate. a. Payment c. Lesion b. Effect d. Damage 13. Damages that are reasonable compensation for the injury. a. Nominal Damages c. Temperate or Moderate Damages b. Actual or Compensatory Damages d. Moral Damages 14. when a contract cannot be sued upon or enforced in court unless it is ratified is said to be a. Negotiorum Gestio c. Unenforceable contracts b. Voidable contracts d. Void or Inexistent contract

15. A classification of contracts as to its "cause" where the cause is the mutual undertaking or promise of either of the contracting parties. a. Remunetory Contract c. Gratuitous Contract b. Liberation Contract d. Onerous Contract 16. A type of compensation that takes place when the court permits the counter claim of the defendant as against the claim of the plaintiff. a. Total Compensation c. Judicial Compensation b. Legal Compensation d. Partial Compensation 17. A novation where there is a change in the person of the parties and the objects or modification of principal condition a. Mixed novation c. Personal novation b. Substitute novation d. Real novation 18. Requisites of obligation that refers to person who can demand the performance of the obligation or known as the creditor or oblige a. Passive subject c. Prestation b. Active subject d. Juridical or legal tie 19. An obligation which is not subject to conditions or burdens nor does it mention a specific date for its fulfillment and as such it is immediately demandable. a. Pure Obligation c. Conditional Obligation b. Alternative Obligation d. Reciprocal Obligation 20. A nature of obligation under civil code which is legally demandable and the courts of justice may compel their performance. a. Condition c.Natural Obligation b. Pure Obligation d.Civil Obligation

J. Laws and Ethics 1. Type of distribution system comprises of two distinct components, distribution cells and feeder(header) ducts. Depending on the floor structure, the distribution cells may be constructed of steel or concrete. a. Ceiling System c. Conduit System b. Under floor duct system d. Cellular floor system 2. A main terminal required for terminating entrance cable using one or more terminal blocks. a. Main Terminal Telephone Cabinet (MTTC) b. Service Box c. Riser System d. Main Distributing Frame (MDF) 3. Type of distribution system that serves as the same floor where the cables(wires) are placed within the ceiling and brought down to desk locations. a. Cellular floor system c. Under floor duct system b. Conduit System d. Ceiling System 4. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of R.A. No. 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal containing the appearance of ______ in the upper part of the inner circle a. computer c. Electron b. atom d. radar transceiver 5. These are announcement requested by private individuals or groups either through the KPB or directly with the broadcast station. a. Private Service Announcements c. Private Announcements b. Public Announcements d. Public Service Announcements 6. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of _______ commercial minutes within Metro Manila. a. 1 min and 15 sec c. 7 min and 30 sec b. 15 d. 3 min and 30 sec 7. In Metro Manila, FM radio prime time is the time a. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM b. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM c. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM d. 6:00 AM to 8:00PM 8. Shall include but not be limited to office buildings, hotels, motels, hospitals, condominiums, stores, apartments, supermarkets, schools, studios, stadia, parking areas, memorial chapels/parks, watercrafts and aircraft used for business purposes, where electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or are being used, sold, maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated. a. Commercial Establishment c. Industrial Plant b. Production Area d. Power Plant 9. The minimum size for non-vehicular handholes is a. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m c. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m b. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m d. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m 10. A KBP member whose station, block timer, independent producer or employee convered by the Radio and Television Codes, has been found, within a period of two years or less, by final and executory judgment, to have committd a combined aggregate total of five violations of the Radio and/or Television Codes. a. Habitual Violator c. Consistent Violator b. All of the above d. Gambler 11. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of _______ commercial minutes within Metro Manila. a. 15 c. 1 min and 15 sec b. 3 min and 30 sec d. 7 min and 30 sec 12. RA 9292 is a consolidation of House Bill No. _______ and Senate Bill No. _______. a. 5734; 109 c. 5533; 4552 b. 5447; 548 d. 5224; 2683

13. A main terminal generally recommended when entrance cable requirements will exceed 300 pairs. a. Main Distributing Frame (MDF) c. Main Terminal Telephone Cabinet (MTTC) b. Riser System d. Service Box 14. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner circle space has the symbol of a/an a. radar transceiver c. computer b. Electron d. Atom 15. All stations shall actively promote the growth and development of Filipino music. Radio stations are encouraged to schedule ________ OPM's every clockhour. a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 4 16. Any person firm, partnership or corporation government or private engaged in the provision of the telecom service to the public for compensation. a. Spam c. Short Messaging Service b. Multimedia Messaging Service d. Broadcast Messaging Service 17. Under the rules and regulation on the allocation and assignment of 3G radio frequency bands, assignees shall begin the installation and construction of the 3G network and facilities not later than______ from date award; a. 9 months c. 3 months b. 12 months d. 6 months 18. Entities intending to register as a VoIP service provider are required to pay a registration fee of: a. P5 000/year c. P5 000 000/year b. P500 000/year d. P50 000/year 19. A closet which is 1200mm more in depth. a. raised closet c. Deep closet b. Shallow closet d. walk in closet 20. Refers to the guidelines for the registration of VoIP service providers and resellers. a. MC No. 3-11-2005 c. MC No.06-08-2005 b. MC No. 03-03-2005 d. MC No. 07-08-2005

IV. MATHEMATICS A. Algebra & General Mathematics 1. Ten less than four times a certain number is 14. Determine the number. a. 6 c. 7 b. 5 d. 4 2. The probability of getting a credit in an examination is 1/3. If three students are selected at random, what is the probability that at least one of the students got credit? a. 1/3 c. 8/27 b. 2/3 d. 19/27 3. When the corresponding elements of two rows of a determinant are proportional, then the value of the determinant is a. Multiplied by the ratio c. zero b. unknown d. One 4. For a particular experiment you need 5 liters of a 10% solution. You find 7% and 12% solution on the shelves. How much of the 7% solution should you mix with the appropriate amount of the 12% solution to get 5 liters of a 10% solution? a. 2 c. 3 b. 2.5 d. 1.5 5. The equation whose roots are the reciprocals of the roots of the equation, 2x^2 3x -5 = 0. a. 5x^2 + 3x 2 = 0 c. 5x^2 2x 3 = 0 b. 3x^2 5x - 2 = 0 d. 2x^2 5x -3 = 0 6. The sum of two numbers is 21, and one number is twice the other. Find the numbers. a. 2 and 12 c. 7 and 14 b. 5 and 12 d. 8 and 13 7. A merchant has three items on sale namely: a radio for $50.00, a clock for $30.00 and a flashlight $1.00. At the end of the day, she has sold a total of 100 of the three sale items and has taken exactly $1,000.00 on the total sales. How many radios did she sell? a. 20 c. 4 b. 16 d. 80 8. A person draws 3 balls in succession from a box containing 5 red balls, 6 yellow balls and 7 green balls. Find the probability of drawing the balls in the order red, yellow and green. a. 0.03489 c. 0.0894 b. 0.04289 d. 0.3894 9. MCMXCIV is a Roman numeral equivalent to a. 1994 c.1984 b. 1964 d. 1974 10. A horizontal line has a slope of a. zero c.infinity b. positive d. Negative 11. Two triangles have equal bases. The altitude of one triangle is 3 units more than its base while the altitude of the other is 3 units less than its base. Find the altitudes if the areas of the triangle differ by 21 square units. a. 6 and 12 c. 5 and 11 b. 3 and 9 d. 4 and 10 12. The hypotenuse of the right triangle is 34 cm. Find the length of the two legs, if one leg is 14 cm longer then the other. a. 18 and 32 c. 16 and 30 b. 17 and 31 d. 15 and 29 13. It is the characteristic of a population which is measurable. a. Frequency c. Sample b. Parameter d. Distribution 14. A plane headed due east with airspeed of 240 mph. If a wind at 40 mph is blowing from the north, find the ground speed of the plane. a. 200 mph c. 243 mph b. 281 mph d. 274 mph

15. If ( x + 3) : 10 = ( 3x 2) : 8, find ( 2x 1). a. 2 c. 4 b. 1 d. 3 16. How long will it take the money to triple itself if invested at 10% compounded semi-annually? a. 11.9 yrs c. 11.3 yrs b. 12.5 yrs d. 13.3 yrs 17. Find the 100th term of the sequence 1.01, 1.00, 0.99. a. 0.05 c. 0.02 b. 0.03 d. 0.04 18. A piece of wire is shaped to enclose a square whose area is 169 sq. cm. It is then reshaped to enclose a rectangle whose length is 15 cm. The area of the rectangle is __________. a. 175 sq. cm c. 165 sq. cm b. 156 sq. cm d. 170 sq. cm 19. Which of the following cannot be an operation of matrices? a. Subtraction c. Multiplication b. Division d. Addition 20. A line, which is perpendicular to the x-axis, has a slope equal to ________. a. infinity c. 2 b. e d. 1

B. Geometry 1. The sum of the interior angles of a polygon is 540 degrees. Find the number of sides. a. 6 c. 11 b. 5 d. 8 2. Find the equation of the directrix of the parabola y^2=16. a. x=-8 c. X=-4 b. x=4 d. X=8 3. A circle with a radius of 6 has half of its area removed by cutting a border of uniform width. Find the width of the border. a. 2.2 c. 3.75 b. 1.35 d. 1.76 4. What is the allowable error in measuring the edge of the cube that is intended to hold 8 cu. m., if the error of the computed volume is not to exceed 0.02 cu. m? a. 0.1700 m c. 0.0170 m b. 0.0017 m d. 0.0710 m 5. The line passing through the focus and is perpendicular to the directrix of a parabola. a. directrix c. axis of the parabola b. latus rectum d. Tangent line 6. The chords of an ellipse, which pass through the center, are known as _________. a. diameters c. asymptote b. radical axes d. Major axes 7. When two planes intersect with each other, the amount of divergence between the two planes is expressed by measuring the __________. a. Polyhedral angle c. Reflex angle b. Plane angle d. Dihedral angle 8. In an ellipse, a chord which contains a focus and is in a line perpendicular to the major axis is a _________. a. Minor axis c. Conjugate axis b. Latus rectum d. Focal width 9. If a regular polygon has 27 diagonals, then it is a ________. a. pentagon c. heptagon b. nonagon d. Hexagon 10. The midpoint of the line segment between P1(x1, y1) and P2(2, 4) is P(2, 1). Find the coordinates of P1. a. (6, 5) c. (6, 6) b. (5, 6) d. (6, 6) 11. The altitude of the sides of a triangle intersect at the point known as a. circumcenter c. orthocenter b. incenter d. Centroid 12. Find the coordinates of the point P(2, 4) with respect to the translated axis with origin at (1,3). a. (1, 1) c. (1, 1) b. (1, 1) d. (1, 1) 13. Find the approximate change in the volume of a cube of side x inches caused by increasing its side by 1%. a. 0.3 x^3 cu. in c. 0.1 x^3 cu. in b. 0.02 x^3 cu. in d. 0.03 x^3 cu. in 14. The volume of a sphere is 36 cu. m. The surface area of this sphere in sq. m is _______. a. 18 c. 12 b. 24 d. 36 15. Given an ellipse ( x^2/36 ) + ( y^2/32 ) = 1. Determine the distance between foci. a. 2 c. 4 b. 18 d. 3

16. The major axis of the elliptical path in which the earth moves around the sun is approximately 186,000,000 miles and the eccentricity of the ellipse is 1/60. Determine the apogee of the earth. a. 94,550,000 miles c. 93,000,000 miles b. 94,335,100 miles d. 91,450,000 miles 17. It can be defined as the set of all points in the plane whose distances from two fixed points is a constant a. Circle c. Hyperbola b. Parabola d. Ellipse 18. Determine B such that 3x + 2y = 0 is perpendicular to 2x By + 2=0 a. 2 c. 5 b. 3 d. 4 19. Point P(x,y) moves with a distance from point (0,1) one-half of its distance from line y = 4. The equation of its locus is a. 4x^2 + 3y^2 = 12 c. x^2 + 2y^2 = 4 b. 2x^2 + 5y^2 = 3 d. 2x^2 4y^2 = 5 20. If the equation is unchanged by the substitution of y for x, its curve is symmetric with respect to the a. X-axis c. Line 45 with the x-axis b. origin d. Y-axis

C. Trigonometry 1. If 84 0.4x = Arc tan (cot 0.25x), find x. a. 40 c. 10 b. 20 d. 30 2. Simplify 4 cos y sin y (1 2 sin^2 y) a. Sec 4y c. Tan 4y b. Cos 4y d. Sin 4y 3. If sin A = 3/5 and A is in quadrant II while cons B = 7/25 and B is in quadrant I, find sin(A+B). a. -3/5 c. 3/4 b. 3/5 d. 4/5 4. Solve for x in the equation: Arc tan x = (/2) 45. a. 0.218 c. 0.821 b. 0.281 d. 0.182 5. Evaluate cos [arctan(15/8) arctan(7/24)] a. 792/525 c. 976/435 b. 297/425 d. 297/452 6. Which of the following is true? a. cos(-T) = cos (T) c. sin(-T) = sin(T) b. csc(-T) = csc(T) d. tan(-T) = tan (T) 7. The measure of 2.25 revolutions counterclockwise is _________. a. 810 degrees c. 805 degrees b. 835 degrees d. 810 degrees 8. If sec^2 A is 5/ 2, the quantity 1 sin^2 A is equivalent to _________. a. 0.4 c. 1.5 b. 2.5 d. 0.6 9. Find the length of the vector (2, 4, 4). a. 7.00 c. 2.18 b. 8.50 d. 6.00 10. Convert the = /3 to Cartesian equation. a. y=x c. x = 3^(1/2) b. 3y = 3^(1/2)x d. y = 3^(1/2)x 11. One side of a regular octagon is 2. Find the area of the region inside the octagon. a. 13.9 c. 21.4 b. 31 d. 19.3 12. Of what quadrant is A, if sec A is positive and csc A is negative? a. I c. II b. IV d. III 13. A regular octagon is inscribed in a circle of radius 10. Find the area of the octagon. a. 228.2 c. 282.8 b. 288.2 d. 238.2 14. Find the value of x in the equation csc x + cot x = 3. a. /2 c. /3 b. /5 d. /4 15. The sides of a right triangle are 8, 15 and 17 units. If each side is doubled, how many square units will the area of the new triangle? a. 300 c. 420 b. 320 d. 240 16. Points A and B 1000 m apart are plotted on a straight highway running east and west. From A, the bearing of tower C is 32 W of N and from B the bearing of C 26 N of E. Approximate the shortest distance of the tower from the highway. a. 364 m c. 384 m b. 394 m d. 374 m 17. The angle of a sector is 30 and the radius is 15 cm. What is the area of the sector in cm? a. 89.8 c. 59.8 b. 58.9 d. 85.9

18. A man finds the angle of elevation of the top of a tower to be 30. He walks 85 m nearer the tower and finds its angle of elevation to be 60. What is the height of the tower? a. 73.61 m c. 73.16 m b. 76.31 m d. 73.31 m 19. Find the angle in mils subtended by line 10 yards long a distance of 5000 yards a. 2.5 mils c. 1 mil b. 4 mils d. 2.04 mils 20. The angle or inclination of ascend of a road having a 8.25% grade is _ degrees a. 1.86 c. 5.12 b. 4.27 d. 4.72

D. Differential Calculus 1. The structural steel work of a new office building is finished. Across the street, 20 m. from the ground floor of the freight elevator shaft in the building, a spectator is standing and watching the freight elevator ascend at a constant rate of 5 meters per second. How fast is the angle of elevation of the spectators line of sight to the elevator increasing 6 seconds after his line of sight passes the horizontal? a. c. b. d. 2. At the inflection point where x = a a. f(a) is not equal to zero c. f(a)<0 b. f(a)>0 d. f(a)=0 3. If the first derivative of a function is a constant, then the function is a. sinusoidal c. logarithmic b. linear d. Quadratic 4. At maximum point the value of y is a. positive c. zero b. negative d. Infinite 5. The altitude of a cylinder of maximum volume which can be inscribed in a right circular cone of radius r and height h is ________. a. h/3 c. 2h/3 b. h/4 d. 3h/2 6. The derivative of ln cos x is a. Sec x c. tan x b. Tan x d. - sec x 7. Evaluate the limit ln x/x as x approaches infinity. a. e c. 1 b. zero d. infinity 8. Three sides of a trapezoid are each 8-cm long. How long is the fourth side when the area of the trapezoid has the greatest value? a. 12 c. 10 b. 16 d. 15 9. If the second derivative of the equation of a curve is equal to the negative of the equation of that same curve, the curve is _________. a. A sinusoid c. A cissoid b. A paraboloid d. An exponential 10. If y = x ln x, find d^y/dx^2. a. 1/x^2 c. 1/x^2 b. 1/x d. 1/x 11. The velocity of an automobile starting from rest is given by ds/dt = (90t) (t+10) feet/sec. Determine the acceleration after the time interval of 10 sec. a. 2.10 ft/s^2 c. 2.75 ft/s^2 b. 2.25 ft/s^2 d. 1.71 ft/s^2 12. A balloon is rising vertically over a point A on the ground at the rate of 15 ft/s. A point B on the ground level with and 30 ft from A. When the balloon is 40 ft from A, at what rate is its distance from B changing? a. 15 ft/s c. 12 ft/s b. 10 ft/s d. 13 ft/s 13. Find the point in the parabola y^2 = 4x at which the rate of change of the ordinate and abscissa are equal a. (-1,4) c. (1,2) b. (2,1) d. (4,4) 14. Point of derivatives which do not exists (and so equals zero) are called a. Maximum points c. Minimum points b. Maximum and minimum points d. Stationary points

15. A statue 3 m high is standing on base of 4 m high. If an observers eye is 1.5 m above the ground, how far should he stand from the base in order that the angle subtended by the statue is a maximum a. 4.41 m c. 3.71 m b. 3.41 m d. 3.51 m 16. Suppose y is the number of workers in the labor force needed to produce x units of a certain 2 commodity and x = 4y . If the production of the commodity this year is 25000 units and the production is increasing at the rate of 18000 units per year, what is the current rate at which the labor force should be increased? a. 9 c. 10 b. 7 d. 15 17. Find the slope of x^2y = 8 at the point (2, 2) a. 2 c. -1/2 b. -2 d. 1 18. Find the coordinates of the vertex of the parabola y = x^2 - 4x + 1 by making use of the fact that at the vertex, the slope of the tangent is zero. a. (2, -3) c. (3, -2) b. (-1, -3) d. (-2, -3) 19. Find the minimum distance from the point (4, 2) to the parabola y^2 = 8x a. 4(sqrt(3)) c. sqrt(3) b. 2sqrt(3) d. 2(sqrt(2)) 20. Gas is escaping from a spherical balloon at a constant rate of 2 cu.ft/min. How fast, in sq. ft/min, is the outer surface area of the balloon shrinking when the radius is 12 ft.? a. 0.333 c. 3 b. 2 d. 0.5

E. Integral Calculus 1. Find the area bounded by the curve defined by the equation x^2 = 8y and its latus rectum. a. 16/3 c. 11/3 b. 22/3 d. 32/3 2. Evaluate the integral of (cos8A)^8dA whose limit is from 0 to /6. a. 27 /363 c. 35 /768 b. 23 /765 d. 12 /81 3. Find the area (in sq. units) bounded by the parabolas x^2 2y = 0 and x^2 + 2 8=0 a. 9.7 c. 4.7 b. 11.7 d. 10.7 4. The parabolic reflector of an automobile headlight is 12 cm. in diameter and 4 cm. in depth. What is the surface area in sq. cm.? a. 153.94 c. 142.64 b. 146.84 d. 152.64 5. Integrate the a. c. b. d. 6. Evaluate the integral of dx/(x+2) whose limit is from -6 to -10. a. ln 2 c. 1/2 b. sqrt(2) d. ln 3 7. What is the integral of (3t 1)^3 dt? a. (1/12)(3t 4)^4+ C c. (1/4) (3t 1)^3+ C b. (1/12)(3t 1)^4+ C d. (1/4)(3t 1)^4+ C 2 8. Find the area of the region bounded by the r = 16 cos . a. 32 sq. units c. 27 sq. units b. 35 sq. units d. 30 sq. units 2 9. (ECE Board April 2000) Given the area in the first quadrant bounded by y = x, the line x = 4 and the x-axis. What is the volume generated when this area is revolved about the y-axis? a. 98.436 cu. units c. 67.950 cu. units b. 74.870 cu. units d. 80.425 cu. units 10. Locate the centroid of the solid formed by revolving, about the line y = 4, the region bounded by 2 the curve y = 4x, and the lines x = 0 and y = 4. a. 0.8 units c. 2.2 units b. 1.5 units d. 1.0 units 3 11. (CE Board Nov. 1998) The area bounded bu the curve x =y, the line y=8 and the y-axis. Determine the centroid of the volume generated. a. 5 c. 4 b. 6 d. 7 2 12. Find the moment of inertia of the area bounded by the curve y = 4x, the line y = 2, the y-axis, on the first quadrant with respect to y-axis. a. 0.095 c. 0.088 b. 0.064 d. 0.076 2 2 13. Locate the centroid of the area bounded by the curve 5y = 16x and y = 8x 24 on the first quadrant. a. x = 2.20 ; y = 1.51 c. x = 2.78 ; y = 1.39 b. x = 1.50 ; y = 0.25 d. x = 1.64 ; y = 0.26 2 14. Find the centroid of the area bounded by the parabola y =4x, the line y=4 and the y-axis. a. c. b. d. 15. The integral of any quotient whose numerator is the differential of the denominator is the _____. a. derivative c. product b. cologarithm d. Logarithm

16. Find the area bounded by the curve y = 9 x^2 and the x axis. a. 36 units^2 c. 30 units^2 b. 25 units^2 d. 18 units^2 17. (ECE Board Nov. 1995) The velocity of a body is given by V(t) = sin (t), where the velocity is given in meters per second and t is given in seconds. The distance covered in meters between , is close to. a. -0.5221 m. c. -0.2251 m. b. 0.5221 m. d. 0.2251 m. 2 18. (EE Board Oct. 1999) Perform the required integration on the following integrand: 3zr Sin a dz dr da. The limits of integration are: z from 0 to 2, r for 0 to 1, and a from 0 to 90. a. 4.0 c. 3.0 b. 2.0 d. 1.0 19. A full tank consists of a hemisphere of radius 4 m. Surmounted by a circular cylinder of the same radius and of altitude 8 m. Find the work done in pumping the water to an outlet at the top of the tank. a. b. c. d.

20. A hemispherical tank of a diamter 20 ft. is full of oil wighing 20 pcf. The oil is pumped to a height of 10 ft. above the top of the tank by and engine of horsepower. How long will it take the engine to empty the tank? a. 1 hr. 44.72 min c. 1 hr. 24.27 min. b. 1 hr. 15.47 min. d. 2 hrs.

F. Differential Equations 1. The equation y^2 = cx is the general equation of a. y = x/2y c. y = 2y/x b. y = y/2x d. y = 2x/y 2. Find the equation of the family of orthogonal trajectories of the system of parabolas y^2 = 2x + c. a. y = ce^x c. ce^(2x) b. y = ce^(-2x) d. ce^(-x) 3. (CE Nov 1998) Determine the differential equation of a family of lines passing thru (h,k). a. (y-k) dx (x-h) dy = 0 c. (x-h) dx (y-k) dy = 0 b. (x-h) + (y-k)= dy/dx d. (x+h) dx (y-k) dy = 0 4. (CE Board May 1996) The radius of the moon is 1080 miles. The gravitation acceleration of the noons surface is 0.165 time the gravitational acceleration at the earths surface. Whatis the velocity of escape from the moon in miles per second? a. 2.38 c. 3.52 b. 1.47 d. 4.26 5. The Bureau of Census record in 1980 shows that the population in the country doubles compared to that of 1960. In what year will the population treble assuming that the rate of increase in population is proportional to the population? a. 34.60 c. 45.65 b. 31.70 d. 38.45 6. (CE Board August 1972) A tank contains 200 Liters of fresh water. Brine containing 2 kg/Liter of salt enters the tank at the rate of 4 Liters per min. and the mixture kept uniform by stirring runs out at 3 Liters per min. Find the amount of salt in the tank after 30 min. a. 196.99 kg. c. 312.69 kg. b. 186.50 kg. d. 234.28 kg. 7. Determine the general solution of xdy + ydx = 0. a. xy = c c. ln x + ln y = c b. ln xy = c d. x + y = c 8. (ME Board April 1981) In a tank are 100 Liters of Brine containing 50 kg. total of dissolved salt. Pure water is allowed to run into the tank at the rate of 3 Liters per minute. Brine runs out of the tank at the rate of 2 Liters a minute. The instantaneous concentration in the tank is kept uniform by stirring. How much salt is in the tank at the end of one hour ? 9. (EE Board Feb. 1976) The rate of population growth of a country is proportional to the number of inhabitants. If a population of a country now is 40 million and expected to double in 25 years, in how many years will the population be 3 times the present ? a. 39.62 yrs. c. 18.64 yrs. b. 28.62 yrs. d. 41.2 yrs. 5 10. From the given differential equation x dx + 6y dy =0, solve for the constant of integration when x = 0, y = 2. 2 a. 27 x dx + 4y dy = 0 c. 48 b. 58 d. 64 11. (CE Board May 1996) What is the differential equation of the family of parabolas having their vertices at the origin and their foci on the x-axis. a. 2x dy y dx = 0 c. 2y dx x dy = 0 b. xdy + ydx = 0 d. dy/dx x = 0 12. Find the equation of the curve which passes through points (1,4) and (0,2) if 2 2 a. 2y = x + 3x +4 c. 5y = x + 2x +2 2 2 b. 4y = 2x + x + 4 d. 3y = x + x + 4 13. (ECE Board Nov. 1998) Find the equation of the curve at every point of which the tangent line has a slope of 2x a. x = y^2 + c c. y = x^2 + c b. y = -x^2+ c d. x = -y^2 + c

G. Mathematical Laws, Terms and Theories 1. If the roots of an equation are zero, then they are classified as a. Trivial solutions c. conditional solutions b. Hypergolic solutions d. extraneous solutions 2. A sequence of numbers where the succeeding term is greater than the preceding term. a. Dissonant series c. Convergent series b. Divergent series d. Isometric series 3. In Algebra, the operation of root extraction is called as _________. a. resolution c. revolution b. evolution d. Involution 4. The number 0.123123123 is a/an _________ number. a. surd c. rational b. transcendental d. Irrational 5. Convergent series is a sequence of decreasing numbers or when the succeeding term is _______ then the preceding term. a. Equal c. Ten times more b. lesser d. greater 6. If a = b, then b = a. This illustrates which axiom in Algebra? a. Reflexive axiom c. Transitive axiom b. Replacement axiom d. Symmetric axiom