FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME ZOOLOGY

MODEL QUESTIONS

ZOOLOGY CORE COURSES And ZOOLOGY COMPLEMENTARY COURSES

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA First Degree Programme in Zoology Model Question Paper Semester I Course Code-ZO1141 Core Course I-Methodology and Perspectives of Science and Zoology
Time 3hours Maximum Weightage 30 Draw diagrams where ever necessary

I. Answer all questions A. Fill in the blanks 1. A ------ consists of a group of interconnected statements or assumptions that gives a possible solution to a problem. 2. A --------------- experiment is one in which all conditions remain the same except one under study. 3. ------------- is an instrument to measure the pH of a solution. 4. The expansion of ICZN is.

B. Match the following 5. Electrophoresis 6. Microscope 7. Chi square 8. Species a. smallest unit in classification b. staining technique c. magnifies images d. statistical test e. separation technique C. Choose the correct answer 9. What is a theory ? a. is a hypothesis c. is a false assumption 10. A simulation is a. an actual experiment c. a measurement b. a model of an experiment d. an experimental procedure b. hypothesis supported by extensive experiments d. is a law

11. Which of the following is the definition of taxonomy ? a. a category in classification c. study of prokaryotes 12. Histogram is a. a map of Kerala c. a measurement of weight b. a statistical representation of data d. study of tissues b. classification of organisms based on characters d. classification of animals based on structure

D. State whether the statements are true or false 13. Data collection is a part of Experimentation in Science 14. Students t test is a test for detection of abnormal constituents in urine 15. Taxa is a component in Linnaean classification 16. Experimental design is the design and analysis of experiments 0.25 x 16 = 4 weightage

II. Answer any eight of the following. (Give four key points) 17. What is fixation ? 18. What is Linnaean hierarchy ? 19. What are the main differences between TEM and SEM ? 20. Mention the four types of chromatography. 21. Write notes on different types of stains. 22. What is virtual testing? 23. State four principles in classification. 24. Mention four different methods used for statistical analysis. 25. What is the difference between deductive and inductive models? 26. What is Rf value? 27. What is meant by standard error? 1 x 8 = 8 weightage

III. Answer any five of the following. (Give eight key points) 28. Compare light compound and electron microscope. 29. Explain the methods in experimental science. 30. Explain the procedure for the preparation of stained histological preparations. 31. Write notes on molecular taxonomy. 32. Explain the principles of different types of centrifuges. 33. Describe phase contrast microscope. 34. Explain the principles of nomenclature. 35. Marks obtained by ten students are given in the table below. Find out the mean from the data.
Roll no. Marks 1 33 2 35 3 44 4 34 5 41 6 45 7 39 8 46 9 36 10 47

2 x 5 = 10 weightage

IV. Answer any two of the following. 36. Write a brief account of the important revolutions in Science and Technology. 37. Explain the procedures in the conduct of scientific experiments 38. Write an account of Taxonomic procedures. 4 x 2 = 8 weightage

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA First Degree Programme in Zoology Model Question Paper Semester II Course Code-ZO1221 Foundation Course II- General Informatics and Bioinformatics
Time 3hours I. Answer all questions A. Fill in the blanks 1. .......... device is considered the brain of the computer. 2. .......... is the set of coded instruction that brings the machinery to life. 3. The.............. sequence database is an open access, annotated collection of all publicly available nucleotide sequences and their protein translations. 4. .......... is a widely used Artificial Intelligence language. B. Match the Following Maximum Weightage 30

5. Input device 6. Software piracy 7. Bio - computer 8. Linux

a. Counterfeiting b. DNA c. Key board & mouse d. Virus e. Open source.

C. State whether the following statements are true or false. 9. Hard disk drives are found only in desk tops, note books and tablet PCs. 10. Swiss-Prot is a manually curated biological database of protein sequences. 11. Download a file from internet before virus check. 12. Matrix-based technique is one of the techniques available for knowledge acquisition. D. Choose the correct answer 13. Which of the following is not an operating system? a. Windows 6 c. LINUX b. Windows XP d. UNIX

14. Which of the following provides the fastest broadband internet connection by transmitting data at the speed of light? a. Cable c. Optical fibre b. DSL d. Satellite

15. The Eucariotic Promoter Database contains motifs developed using a. Swiss Model c. Hidden Markov Model 16. Gen Bank is physically located in a. U.K. b. India c. U.S.A. d. Japan 0.25 x 16 = 4weightage II. Answer any eight of the following. (Give four key points) 17. What are neural networks ? 18. What is INFLIBNET ? 19. What are the five basic units of a computer? b. Phylogenetic Model d. Meuristic Model

20. What is meant by cyber crime? 21. Explain the impact of IT in drug development. 22. Explain important features of BLAST. 23. What is systems biology? Contrast its approach with reductionist approach. 24. Explain how two DNA fragments ATTT and TTT can be compared ? 25. Define Plagiarism. 26. Explain the important features of NCBI. 27. What is Phylogenetic analysis? 1 x 8 = 8 weightage III. Answer any five of the following. (Give eight key points) 28. Explain the difference between hardware and software with their definition and uses. 29. Explain the various computer threats. How does bioinformatics help comparative biology? 30. Explain the features of Rasmol. 31. What is multiple sequence alignment? Where is it useful? 32. Explain important features of NCBI or PDB. 33. Explain one standard file format for bio-sequences. 34. What are scoring matrices ? Why is it essential in sequence comparison ? 2 x 5 = 10 weightage IV. Write essay on any two of the following. 35. Explain the process of Tree construction using molecular phylogenetics software. 37. Explain the use of GENSNIP. 38. Explain the basic drug discovery pipeline. 4 x 2 = 8 weightage

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA First Degree Programme in Zoology Model Question Paper Semester III Course Code-ZO1341 Core Course II-Animal Diversity I
Time 3hours Maximum Weightage 30 Draw diagrams where ever necessary I. Answer all questions A. Fill in the blanks 1. Red tide is due to the ------------ of Noctiluca . 2. Transmission of Trypanosoma is by ---------- method. 3. Elephantiasis is transmitted by ---------- mosquito. 4. Petasma is present in ---------- appendage of the male prawn. B. Match the following. 5. Plasmodium 6. Fasciola 7. Trypanosoma 8. Aedes a. Gambia fever b. Dengue fever c. Malaria d. Liver-rot disease e. Filariasis C. Choose the correct answer 9. Coelom of Ascaris is [P1][P2] a. blastocoel c. haemocoel b. pseudocoel d. enterocoel

10. Book lungs is the respiratory organ of a. Penaeu s c. Spider b. Scorpion d. Arenecola

11. Venus flower basket is a. Spongilla c. Rhopalura b. Euplectella d. Actinophrys

12. Aristotle s lantern is present in a. Sea star c. Sea cucumber b. Sea urchin d. Sea lily

D. State whether the statements are true or false 13. The linear repetition of body parts in an animals body is metagenesis. 14. A group of animals where blastopore developed into the mouth is protostomata. 15. The process of using earthworms to decompose organic wastes is vermiculture. 16. Alternation of sexual and asexual generations is metamerism. 0.25 x 16 = 4 weightage II. Answer any eight of the following. (Give four key points) 17. Mention the parasitic adaptations of leech. 18. Give the Zoological significance of Peripatus. 19. Mention the different stages of the life cycle of Entamo eba. 20. Describe the special features of Noctiluca. 21. Describe the sexual dimorphism in Ascaris. 22. Draw a neat labelled diagram of scolex of Tape worm. 23. Describe the zoological significance of Sacculina. 24. Write the pathogenesis of Trypanosoma gambiense 25. Describe the structural peculiarities of Sepia. 26. Give the economic importance of Mollusca. 27. Write the systematic position of Bipalium and Ch iton. 1 x 8 = 8 weightage

III. Answer any five of the following. (Give eight key points) 28. Write a short essay on water vascular system of star fish. 29. What are gemmules? Describe the structure of it.

30. Describe the structure of the compound eye of Penaeus. 31. Describe the blood vascular system of Earthworm. 32. Give the general characters of Echinodermata. 33. Describe the canal system in Sponges. 34. With neat labeled diagram describe the structure of Arenicola. 35. Describe the polymorphism in Cnidaria. 2 x 5 = 10 weightage IV. Write essay on any two of the following. 36. Write an essay on the life cycle of Plasmodium vivax. Add a note on pathogenicity and prophylaxes. 37. Classify phylum Mollusca up to classes, with general characters and examples. 38. With the help of diagrams describe the appendages of Prawn. 4 x 2 = 8 weightage

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA First Degree Programme in Zoology Model Question Paper Semester IV Course Code-ZO1441 Core Course III-Animal Diversity II
Time 3hours Maximum Weightage 30 Draw diagrams where ever necessary I. Answer all questions A. Fill in the blanks 1. . is a reptile having four chambered heart. 2. . separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities. 3. In mammals cerebral hemispheres are connected to each other by a transverse bridge known as .. 4. ........................ is the State animal of Kerala. B. Match the following 5. Sphenodon a. Dipnoi

6. Ichthyophis

b. Edentata

7. Protopterus

c. Apoda

8. Dryophis

d. Rhynchocephali

e. Ophidia

C. Choose the correct answer

9. Ureter is the tube leading from the a. urinary bladder to the exterior b. c. kidney to the urinary bladder cortex to the medulla

d. kidney to the exterior

10. Neoteny is characteristic of a. Bufo b. Ichthyophis

c. Ambystoma

d. Rana

11. Arborescent organs are found in a. Gobius c. Protopterus b. Clarias d. Saccobranchus

12. Which of the following is not a living fossil a. Sphenodon b. Peripatus

c. Branchiostoma

d. Latimeria

II. State whether the statements are true or false 13. The Eustachian tube connects the middle ear and the throat. 14. Venom of viper is haemotoxic in action. 15. Sucker of Echeneis represents the modified anterior ventral fin. 16. Peacock is the state bird of Kerala. 0.25 x 16 = 4 weightage III. Answer any eight of the following. (Give four key points) 17. What are metapleural folds? Where do you find it?

18. Identifying characters of viper. 19. Distinguish between heterocercal and homocercal caudal fin in fishes. 20. What are floating ribs? 21. Mention the peculiarities of Rhacophorus. 22. What is thecodont dentition? 23. What do you know about Archeopteryx? 24. Name the components of urinary system of man. 25. What is meant by retrogressive metamorphosis? Give an example. 26. Sketch and label the eighth vertebra of frog. 27. Give the scientific names of Dog, tiger, crow and Cobra. III. Answer any five of the following. (Give eight key points) 28. Give an account of aquatic adaptations of dolphin. 1 x 8 = 8 weightage

29. Describe the pelvic girdle of man.

30. List the general characters of Cephalochordata.

31. Comment on the ecological adaptations of Chameleon.

32. Describe the brain of frog.

33. Explain the structure of human eye.

34. Describe the poisonous snakes of South India.

35. Explain the peculiarities of Ichthyophis.

2 x 5 = 10 weightage IV. Answer any two of the following 36. Describe the structure of the heart of man.

37. Explain bird migration.

38. Write an essay on accessory respiratory organs in fishes. 4 x 2 = 8 weightage

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA First Degree Programme in Zoology Model Question Paper Semester IV Course Code-ZO1442 Core Course IV-Practical I Methodology and Perspectives of Science and Zoology, Animal Diversity I and Animal Diversity II
Time 3hours Maximum Weightage 20

I. Dissect and display the nervous system of Prawn. Weightage 4 (Nerve cord and nerve ring-1, brain-1, display-1, neatness-1)

II. Mount a parapodium of Nereis. (Mounting-1, diagram: sketch-1, label-1) III. Spotters - Five items (Each item-2 weightage) IV. Record (Accuracy of diagrams-1, content of notes-1, neatness-1)

Weightage 3

Weightage 10 Weightage 3

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA First Degree Programme in Zoology Model Question Paper Semester V Course Code-ZO1541 Core Course V Cell Biology and Molecular Biology
Time 3hours Maximum Weightage 30 Draw diagrams where ever necessary I. Answer all questions A. Fill in the blanks

1. _________is the longest phase in first meiotic division. 2. Programmed cell death is called _________. 3. A cluster of genes in prokaryote that is coordinately regulated and that contributes to a single cell function is ________. 4. The initiation codon AUG of all mRNA chains codes for the amino acid _________. B. Match the following 5. Lysosomes 6. Peroxisomes 7. Ribosomes 8. Proteasomes a. synthesis of proteins b. digestion of macromolecules c. degradation of proteins d. detoxification of free radicals e. processing of secretary products C. Choose the correct answer

9. DNA duplication takes place during a) G2 phase c) G1 phase b) entire inter phase d) S phase

10.

Cell theory was propounded by a) Weismann c) Leeuwenhoek b) Schleiden & Schwann d) Sutton & Boveri

11.

Genes whose base sequences code for two or more proteins are called a) pseudogenes c) split genes b) multiple genes d) overlapping genes

12.

Functional unit of DNA specifying a single polypeptide chain a) muton c) intron b) recon d) cistron

D. Write whether the following statements are true or false 13. Cell theory is not applicable to virus. 14. Lysosomes and microbodies are double membrane-bound structures. 15. Lac operon is a repressible operon. 16. Chaperons help in proper folding of proteins. 0.25 x 16 = 4 weightage II. Answer any eight of the following questions 17. Enumerate four salient features of cancerous cells. 18. Mention four specializations of plasma membrane. 19. Write note on the significance of meiosis. 20. Explain wobble hypothesis by citing examples. 21. Comment on one gene-one polypeptide hypothesis. 22. Give a note on generalized transduction. 23. Write a short note on reverse transcription. 24. Describe the structure of Golgi apparatus. 25. Enumerate the functions of microtubules. 26. Give an account of the components of a bacterial ribosome. 27. Describe the structure of a nucleosome. 1 x 8 = 8 weightage III. Answer any five of the following questions 28. Briefly explain the structure of a mitochondrion. 29. Briefly explain the characteristics of genetic code. 30. Explain a pioneer experiment which showed that DNA might be the genetic material in bacteria 31. Describe the post transcriptional modification of mRNA. 32. DNA replication is semi-conservative and semi- discontinuous. Justify this statement.

33. Explain the structure of polytene chromosome. 34. Briefly describe polymorphism in lysosomes. 35. Explain two theories of ageing. 2 x 5 = 10 weightage V. Answer any two of the following questions 36. Give an account of Fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane. 37. Trace the major events during normal mitosis in animal cell. 38. Write an essay on gene expression in prokaryotes. 4 x 2 = 8 weightage

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA First Degree Programme in Zoology Model Question Paper Semester V Course Code-ZO1542 Core Course VI Genetics and Biotechnology
Time 3hours Draw diagrams where ever necessary I. Answer all questions A. Fill in the blanks 1. -------------------- is a collection of clones that together constitute the DNA from the entire genome of an organism. Maximum Weightage 30

2. The DNA, which is to be sequenced, is called the ---------------. 3. Congenital cleft lip and cleft palate appear as--------------traits. 4. --------------- is the addition of a chromosomal segment to any one of the already existing chromosomes. B. Match the following. 5. Barr bodies 6. Amphidiploids 7. Hybridoma cells 8. Bioreactor a. Monoclonal antibodies b. Sex chromatin c. Polyploidy d. Molecular Pharming e. Cytoplasmic inheritance C. Choose the correct answer. 9. Simultaneous expression of both the alleles in a heterozygous condition is a. Incomplete dominance c. Epistasis b. Co dominance d. Pleiotropism

10. Genes which are expressed only in one sex although they may be present in both the sexes a. Holandric genes c. Sex limited genes b. Sex influenced genes d. Lethal genes

11. In autosomal trisomy chromosome number 18 is a. Klinefelter syndrome c. Turner syndrome b. Down syndrome d. Edward syndrome

12. Blotting technique used for the analysis of DNA a. Western blotting c. Northern blotting b. Eastern blotting d. Southern blotting

D. State whether the following statements are true or false

13. The tendency of the genes present in the same chromosome to stay together in hereditary transmission is known as linkage. 14. The sex of an individual is determined by a balance maintained between the number of X chromosomes and autosomes is known as theory of sex determination. 15. Xenotransplantation is the transplantation of living cells, tissues or organs from human to human. 16. Idiogram is the diagrammatic representation of a karyotype. 0.25 x 16 = 4 weightage II. Write notes on any eight of the following (Give four key points) 17. Klinefelter syndrome 18. DNA sequencing 19. Gynandromorphs 20. Holandric genes 21. Techniques of gene transfer 22. Criss cross inheritance 23. Pedigree analysis 24. Euploidy and aneuploidy 25. H.G.P 26. Lyon Hypothesis 27. Back cross and reciprocal cross 1x 8 = 8 weightage

III. Answer any five of the following (Give eight key points) 28. Mechanism of crossing over. 29. Give an account of restriction endonucleases. 30. Explain the biochemical pathway of Phenylalanine metabolism in normal man. 31. Explain structural chromosomal aberrations. 32. What is sex linked inheritance? Explain the characteristics of sex linked inheritance.

33. Explain Southern Blotting. 34. Explain the potential hazards of biotechnology. 35. Cytoplasmic particles act as agents of transmission of genetic information. Explain. 2x 5 = 10 weightage IV. Answer any two of the following. 36. Describe multiple allelism with examples. 37. Explain how we can identify a culprit in crime scene using DNA fingerprinting. 38. Describe Recombinant DNA technology. 4 x 2 = 8 weightage

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA First Degree Programme in Zoology Model Question Paper Semester V Course Code-ZO1543 Core Course VII Immunology and Microbiology
Time 3hours Draw diagrams where ever necessary I. Answer all questions A. Fill in the blanks 1. HIV infects _________ cells. 2. SLE is a ________ disease. 3. ______ is the secondary metabolite produced by Cephalosporium. Maximum Weightage 30

4. Inflammation reaction is _______ type of immune response. B. Match the following 5. Cytokine 6. Hapten 7. Luria broth 8. Hybridoma a. Growth medium b. Complement c. IL-2 d. Antigen e. Monoclonal antibody C. Choose the correct answer 9. The correct temperature at which sperm are cryopreserved a. -196oC c. -96oC b. -170oC d. -216oC

10. The antibody which can cross placenta . a.IgG b. IgM c. IgE d. IgA

11. A substance that can evoke an immune response a. Hapten c. adjuvant b. Antigen d. Antibody

12. The bacterium responsible for converting milk to curd. a. Lactobacillus sp. c. Acetobacter sp. b. Rhizobium sp. d. Clostridium sp.

D. Write whether the following statements are true or false 13. Vaccination is an active immunization procedure. 14. Antibodies are produced by immuno-competent B cells. 15. Bioremediation is the use of micro organisms to reduce environmental pollution. 16. Antibiotics are primary metabolites of microorganisms.

0.25 x 16 = 4 weightage II. Answer any eight of the following questions 17. Differentiate between active immunity and passive immunity. 18. Give a brief account on mycoplasmas. 19. What are molecular markers? Mention any three uses of them. 20. Draw a neat and labeled diagram of a bacteriophage. 21. Comment on the nature and role of interferons. 22. Distinguish between antiseptics and antibiotics 23. Distinguish between lytic and lysogenic phases in the life cycle of viruses. 24. List the four important components of a typical nutrient media for microbial culture. 25. Comment on molecular pharming. 26. What are vaccines? Mention any three vaccines of current use. 27. Write a note on bioreactors. 1 x 8 = 8 weightage

III. Answer any five of the following questions 28. Give an account of human gastro-intestinal microbiota. 29. Give an account of various types of antigen-antibody reactions 30. Give an account of four common viral diseases in man 31. Give a brief account of immunological disorders. 32. Sketch and label a typical immunoglobulin molecule. 33. Give a detailed account on the structure of the typical bacterium. 34. What are MHC molecules? How they assist in immunology of grafting? 35. Write notes on Gram-staining technique. 2 x 5 = 10 weightage IV. Answer any two of the following questions

36. Write an essay on humoral immunity and cellular immunity. 37. Give an account of primary and secondary lymphoidal organs. 38. Give an account of application of microbiology in the field of industry and medicine. 4 x 2 = 8 weightage

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA First Degree Programme in Zoology Model Question Paper Semester V Course Code-ZO1544 Core Course VIII-Practical II Cell Biology and Molecular Biology, Genetics and Biotechnology and Immunology and Microbiology
Time 3hours Max imum Weightage 20

I. Prepare a neat stained squash preparation of onion root tip. Identify, sketch and label any two stages of mitosis. Weightage 4 (Preparation-1, identification-1, sketch and label-1 each) II. Make a stained preparation of human buccal epithelium. Sketch, label and comment on the significance of Barr body. Weightage 3 (Mounting-1, sketch and label-1, comment-1)

III. Spotters Five items Weightage 10 (Each item-two weightage) IV. Reco rd (Accuracy of diagrams-1, content of notes-1, neatness-1) Weightage 3

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA First Degree Programme in Zoology Model Question Paper Semester VI Course Code-ZO1641 Core Course IX Physiology and Biochemistry
Time 3hours I. Answer all questions A. Fill in the blanks 1. Stiffening of the body from hardening of muscle tissue is called ________ Maximum Weightage 30 Draw diagrams where ever necessary

2. The time taken for the impulse to be regenerated across the synaptic cleft is termed _________ 3. The hormone ______ causes the contraction of the uterus during parturition. 4. The process used in the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl Co A is ___________ B. Match the following 5. Juxtraglomerular apparatus 6. Purine 7. Structural polysaccharide 8. Storage polysaccharide a. renin b. adenine c. cellulose d. glycogen e. pepsin C. Choose the correct answer 9. Which of the following is devoid of blood supply a. Cornea c. Retina b. Choroid d. Sclera

10. Which of the following is a fibrous protein a. Globulin c. Haemoglobin 11. Pacemaker is a. AV node c. SA node 12. Ornithine cycle operates in a. kidney c. heart b. muscles d. liver b. Bundle of His d. Ventricle b. Collagen d. Hordein

D. State whetherthe statements are true or false 13. Metatrophs require many aminoacids either in the form of compounds or mixtures. 14. The pH of healthy human blood is below 7.

15. The Ca salts are important in the coagulation of blood. 16. Haemophilia is caused due to the deficiency of factor VI. 0.25 x 16 = 4 weightage II. Answer any eight of the following 17. Write four properties of macromolecules. 18. What are lipids? Mention the three sub groups. . 19. What are coenzymes? Give three examples. 20. What is ECG? Mention the different waves. 21. What is oxygen dissociation curve? What are the factors which influence the curve? 22. Name four abnormal constituents in urine. 23. Mention the major muscle proteins 24. What are the different types of neurons ? 25. Name the different tactile sense organs. 26. Write the importance of gastrointestinal hormones. 27. What is night blindness ? What causes this disease ? 1 x 8 = 8 weightage

III. Answer any five of the following 28. What is Hypothalamus? Mention seven releasing and inhibitory hormones produced by hypothalamus with functions. 29. What is a synapse? Explain the mechanism of transmission of nerve impulse across a synapse. 30. Explain the bio- chemical events which take place during muscle contraction. 31. Explain smoking and its physiological effects. 32. What is insulin? Mention its metabolic effects. 33. Classify proteins with suitable examples. 34. Describe the basic structure of antibodies.

35. Explain Michaelis Menten Equation as a model of enzyme catalysed reaction. 2 x 5 = 10 weightage IV. Answer any two of the following 36. Describe the mechanism of urine formation in human kidney. 37. Describe the structure of haemoglobin and explain the method of transport of Co2 between the lungs and tissue. 38. Explain the methods involved in the coagulation of blood. 4 x 2 = 8 weightage

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA First Degree Programme in Zoology Model Question Paper Semester VI Course Code-ZO1642 Core Course X Developmental Biology and Experimental Embryology
Time 3hours Maximum Weightage 30 Draw diagrams where ever necessary I. Answer all questions A. Fill in the blanks

1. Germplasm theory was postulated by------------. 2. Chemotaxis is the ------------- ------------- of the sperms to the ovum. 3. The development of haploid egg into haploid embryo is --------------. 4. The path travelled by the sperm towards the egg pronucleus during fertilization is ----------. B. Match the following 5. Emboly 6. Fertilizin 7. Teletoky 8. Stem cells a. gynogamon b. pleuripotency c. involution d. parthenogenesis e. epiboly C. Choose the correct answer 9. Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny is the statement of a. Preformation theory c. Biogenetic law b.Theory of epigenesis d. Germplasm theory

10. The process by which an embryonic tissue influences other tissue to differentiate is a. transplantation c. induction b. grafting d. activation

11. Blastula of frog is a. coeloblastula c. discoblastula 12. Amphimixis is the fusion of a. male and female gametes b. male and female pronucleus c. nucleus and ooplasm d. nucleoplasm and cytoplasm b. periblastula d. amphiblastula

D. State whether the statements are true or false 13. Egg of frog is microlecithal and isolecithal. 14. Attachment of blastocyst on endometrium is implantation.

15. The embryo in chick is developed from area opaca. 16. Transplantation to an individual of another but of same genus is homoplastic transplantation. 0.25 x 16 = 4 weightage II. Answer any eight of the following (Give four key polnts) 17. What is fertilizin-antifertilizin reaction? 18. Describe the Prenatal sex determination methods. 19. Describe Spemanns constriction experiment. 20. Describe the structure of primitive streak in chick. What is its significance? 21. Write notes on Zygotic genes. 22. Describe the structure of Graafian follicle. 23. What is cortical reaction? Describe. 24. Describe the hormonal control of frog metamorphosis. 25. What do you understand by teratogenesis? Discuss the relationship between terata and teratogens. 26. How polyspermy is prevented? 27. What is the significance of parthenogenesis? 1 x 8 = 8 weightage

III. Answer any five of the following (Give eight key points) 28. Describe the development of eye in frog. Add a note on optic induction. 29. Give an account of the chick at 24 hrs of development. 30. Write a short essay on nuclear transplantation experiments in amphibians. 31. Write on organizers and embryonic induction in amphibian development. 32. What is cell lineage? Explain with reference to Planocera. 33. What are Fate maps? Describe how they are constructed by natural and artificial marking. 34. Describe the physiological and biochemical changes during fertilization. 35. Write an account on stem cells. 2 x 5 = 10 weightage

IV. Answer any two of the following. 36. Write an essay on placentation of mammals. 37. Describe the development of extra embryonic membranes in chick. 38. Write an account on IVF technique in farm animals. 4x 2 = 8 weightage

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA First Degree Programme in Zoology Model Question Paper Semester VI Course Code-ZO1643 Core Course XI Ecology, Ethology, Evolution and Zoogeography
Time 3hours Draw diagrams where ever necessary I. Answer all questions A. Fill in the blanks Max imum Weightage 30

1. -------------------is a sex attractant produced by female silk worm moth. 2. ----------------- is an intermediate zone between the epilimnion and hypolimnion. 3. A group of potentially interbreeding individuals of a local population which share a common gene pool is called-------------. 4. The place where two major communities meet and blend together is called an -------B. Match the following. 5. Royal jelly 6. Bistonbetularia 7. Oriental region 8. Galapagos islands a. Industrial melanism b. India. c. Darwin finches. d. Honey bee. e. Australia C. State whether the statements are true or false. 9. The pH meter is an instrument used to measure the transparency of water. 10. Increased accumulation of pollutants in higher organisms are called biomagnifications. 11. Anagenesis is study of the origin and of the nature of branching pattern of the phylogenetic tree. 12. A species confined to a relatively small area and found nowhere else is called endemic species.

D. Choose the correct answer 13. The chemical that kills the living organisms a. pesticide c. biocide b. insecticide d. fungicide

14. A disease due to mercury poisoning a. Itai-Itai c. Chlorosis b. Minamata d. Necrosis

15. The response of an organism to the length of day light.

a. phototaxis c. Photoperiodism 16. The study of animal behaviour a. b. Ecology. c. Aeitiology

b. phototropotaxis d. phototropism

Ichthyology

d. Ethology 0.25 x 16 = 4 weightage

II. Answer any eight of the following (Give four key points) 17. What are the major environmental realms in the sea? 18. What is red data book? 19. Define Allens rule. 20. What are the merits of organic farming? 21. What is green house effect? 22. Define biodiversity. 23. What is carbon dating? 24. What is discontinuous distribution? 25. Define sustainable development. 26. Define neustons. 27. Draw a food chain. III. Answer any five of the following (Give eight key points) 28. Describe any four hominid fossils. 29. State the Laws of limiting factors. 30. Distinguish between allopatric and sympatric speciation. 31. What are the different types of learning? 32. Explain Gauses principle with suitable example. 33. What are non- renewable energy resources? Discuss about their exploitation and 1 x 8 = 8 weightage

management. 34. Explain Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium. 35. Briefly explain the barriers to animal distribution 2 x 5 =10 weightage IV. Answer a ny two of the following 36. Give an account on causes and effects of air pollution. Suggest suitable methods of control. 37. Explain Darwinian concepts of organic evolution .Add a note on criticisms against Natural selection theory. 38. Write an essay on ecological succession. 4 x 2 = 8 weightage

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA First Degree Programme in Zoology Model Question Paper Semester VI Course Code-ZO1644 Core Course XII-Practical III Physiology and Biochemestry
Time 3hours Maximum Weightage 20

I. Using paper chromatography identify the amino acids in the given mixture by comparing with the known amino acids. Submit the chromatogram, write the principle and calculate the Rf values. Weightage 4 (Chromatogram-1, principle-1, calculation-1 and identification-1)

II. Analyze the given sample of urine A, B and C for the detection of abnormal constituents, glucose and albumin. Record your findings under the heading s experiment, observation and inference. Weightage 3 (Analysis-1, tabulation-2) III. Spotters Five items Weightage 10 (Each item-2 weightage) IV. Record (Accuracy of diagrams-1, content of notes-1 and neatness-1) Weightage 3

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA First Degree Programme in Zoology Model Question Paper Semester VI Course Code-ZO1645 Core Course XIII-Practical IV Developmental Biology and Experimental Embryology, Ecology, Ethology, Evolution and Zoogeography
Time 3hours Maximum Weightage 20

I. Estimate the amount of CO2 dissolved in the given water sample. Write the principle and procedure. Weightage 4 (Principle -1, procedure-1, calculation-1 and performance-1)

II. Construct a food web using the specimens provided. Prepare a chart on it and comment. Weightage 3 (Construction of food web-1, chart-1 and comment-1) III. Spotters five items Weightage 10 (Each item-2weightage) IV. Record (Accuracy of diagrams-1, content of notes-1 and neatness-1) Weightage 3

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA First Degree Programme in Zoology Model Question Paper Semester V Course Code-ZO1551 Open Course I A. Public Health and Hygiene
Time 3hours Draw diagrams where ever necessary I. Answer all questions A. Fill in the blanks 1. .. is a water borne disease. Maximum Weightage 30

2. Anaemia is due to deficiency of .. 3. Green leafy vegetables are a source of . 4. is a sexually transmitted disease. B. Match the following 5. Carcinogen 6. AIDS 7. Escherichia coli 8. Aedes egyptii a. dengue b. diarrhoea c. HIV d. tobacco e. malaria C. Choose the correct answer 9. Juvenile obesity may lead to a. diabetes c. arthritis 10. Botulism is a type of a. vegetable c. flower b. food poisoning d. drug b. heart attack d. urinary infection

11. Rat fever is also known as a. typhoid c. plague b. meningitis d. leptospirosis

12. The most common mode of HIV transmission is a. blood transfusion c. droplet transmission b. sexual intercourse d. kissing

D. State whether the statements are true or false 13. Viagra is a contraceptive pill. 14. Gastroenteritis is caused by Escherichia coli.

15. Barbiturates are CNS stimulants. 16. Hands should be washed before every meal. 0.25 x 16 = 4 weightage II. Answer any eight of the following (Give four key points) 17. What are obsessive compulsive disorders? 18. What are sexually transmitted diseases? 19. What are the advantages of probiotics? 20. State the Food Adulteration Act. 21. State the factors influencing health. 22. What is a chronic disease? 23. What are the different types of jaundice? 24. Write about the different methods of health education. 25. What is a balanced diet? 26. What are the symptoms of typhoid? 27. Name four contraceptives. 1 x 8 = 8 weightage III. Answer any five of the following (Give eight key points) 28. Discuss the physiology of different blood groups in Man. 29. Elaborate the nutritional requirements during pregnancy and lactation. 30. Which are the common food adulterants? 31. How can you maintain personal hygiene? 32. Write an account on the defects of modern food habits. 33. Comment on four water born diseases. 34. Explain the importance of hygiene in health. 35. Describe the common methods of mosquito control. 2 x 5 = 10 weightage 1V. Answer any two of the following 36. What are lifestyle diseases? D iscuss its impact on the youth. 37. Elaborate the ill effects of smoking and alcoholism. 38. Write an essay on sexually transmitted diseases. Discuss the modes of transmission

and prevention. 4 x 2 = 8 weightage

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA First Degree Programme in Zoology Model Question Paper Semester V Course Code-ZO1551 Open Course I A. Human Health and Sex Education
Time 3hours Draw diagrams where ever necessary I. Answer all questions A. Fill in the blanks 1. _______teaches the integration of body, mind and sprit. Maximum Weightage 30

2. _______is the prevention of conception. 3. Primary spermatocyte is formed from_______. 4. _______cells are involved in immunity. B. Match the following 5. Division of embryo 6. Infertility 7. A disease causing organism 8. Uterus a. pathogen b. hystectomy c. IVF d. cleavage e. amphimixis C. Choose the correct answer 9. Community health service includes a. school and health education c. control of communicable diseases b. hygienic environment d. all of the above

10. Genital herpes is due to a. HIV c. HPV 11. Psychosis is a disease of a. liver c. nervous system b. kidney d. heart b. Herpes simplex d. Trichomonas vaginalis

12. Addiction to tobacco is mainly due to a. amphetamines c. nicotine b. tar d. CO

D. State whether the statements are true or false 13. Vasectomy is related to females. 14. Vaccination provides immunity. 15. Community health centres provide health care. 16. Graafian follicles release sperms. 0.25 x 16 = 4 weightage II. Answer any eight of the following . (Give four key points) 17. AIDS is a deadly disease. Why? 18. Identify the important parts of the male external genitalia 19. List the names of some human viral diseases

20. Important constituents of balanced diet. 21. Name four stages in spermatogenesis. 22. Write any four embryonic stages in human development. 23. Enumerate any four sex hormones. 24. What is MIST? 25. Explain the adverse effects of alcoholism. 26. What are the functions of testis? 27. What is meant by life style disease? 1 x 8 = 8 weightage III. Answer any five of the following. (Give eight key points) 28. What are the important causes of air pollution? 29. Mention briefly the preventive measure of mental illness. 30. Discuss the important problems of adolescence. 31. Give an account on the causes of male infertility. 32. Explain menstrual cycle. 33. Write an account on yoga and meditation. 34. What are the roles of health centre? 35. Give an account on contraceptive methods. 2 x 5 = 10 weightage IV. Answer any two of the following 36. Describe the structure of human sperm and the process of fertilization. 37. Write an essay on the major sexually transmitted diseases. 38. Give an account on sexual awareness highlighting its legal aspects. 4 x 2 = 8 weightage

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA First Degree Programme in Zoology Model Question Paper Semester V Course Code-ZO1551 Open Course I C. Human diseases and their management
Time 3hours Draw diagrams where ever necessary I. Answer all questions A. Fill in the blanks 1. Diagnostic test for AIDS is. Maximum Weightage 30

2. HIV factory in the hum an body is . 3. Allergy is due the release of chemical from the mast cell. 4. The mixture of gases like methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide form .. B. Match the following 5. Mumps 6. Yellow fever 7. Plague 8. Microfilaria a. Paramyxo virus b. Aedes aegyptii c. Pasteurella pestis d. Culex

C. Choose the correct answer 9. Deficiency of vitamin A leads to a. Scurvy c. rickets b. beri beri d. xerophthalmia

10. Which causes malignant malaria? a. Plasmodium vivax c. Plasmodium falciparum b. Plasmodium malariae d. Plasmodium ovale

11. Fear of diseases is a. myophobia c. entomophobia 12. BCG vaccine is for a. cholera c. tuberculosis

b. pathophobia d. acrophobia

b. diphtheria d. leprosy

D. State whether the statements are true or false 13. Morphine is a narcotic analgesic drug used in medicine. 14. Vitamin K is not required for the production of blood clotting factors. 15. Alzheimers disease is due to deficiency of acetylcholine.

16. LSD stands for Lysergic acid dimethylamide. 0.25 x 16 = 4 weightage II. Answer any eight of the following (Give four key points) 17. What is immunity? Name different types of immunity. Give examples. 18. Write four effects of drug and alcohol abuse. 19. Name the causative agents of four protozoan diseases you have studied. 20. What are the causes of chikun gunya? 21. What are the symptoms of Dengue fever? 22. What are the dangers of over exercise? 23. Differentiate between total count and differential count. 24. Write the causes and symptoms of AIDS. 25. What are the social and cultural factors in health and diseases? 26. What are the causes of mental illness? 27. What are the effect of computer and mobile phone to human health? 1 x 8 = 8 weightage III. Answer any five of the following (Give eight key points) 28. Mention briefly about 2 types of imaging techniques used in diagnosis. 29. Write notes on the different types of cell and tissue tests. 30. Sketch a bacteria and label different parts. 31. Give a brief account of pathogenic nematodes? 32. Explain a major cardiovascular disease. Mention the symptoms and treatment. 33. What are the basic requirements needed in a house to maintain proper environment and health? 34. What are the sources and effects of water pollution? 35. What is filariasis? How is it caused? What are its symptoms and control measures? 2 x 5 = 10 weightage

IV. Answer any two of the following (give sixteen key points) 36. Write an essay on different types of cancer, their causes and treatment. 37. Give a brief account of four pathogenic Protozoans studied. Mention the diseases caused, their causes and symptoms. 38. Explain the role of yoga in the management of various human diseases. 4 x 2 = 8 weightage

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA First Degree Programme in Zoology Model Question Paper Semester VI Course C ode-ZO1651 Open Course II A. Economic Zoology: Vermiculture and Apiculture
Time 3hours Draw diagrams where ever necessary I. Answer all questions A. Fill in the blanks 1. ... is a by-product of apiculture that can be used in cosmetics. Maximum Weightag e 30

2. is the most common species of honey bee found in India. 3. . is the sterile caste in social insects. 4. is a by-product of vermiculture.

B. Match the following : 5. Apis mellifera 6. Apiary 7. Lampito mauritii 8. Uji fly C. Choose the correct answer : 9. The liquid fertilizer obtained from vermicompost a. detergent c. NPK fuel 10. Bee wax is secreted from a. salivary gland c. endocrine gland b. abdominal gland d. digestive gland b. vermiwash d. biodiesel a. hive b. biofertilizer c. honey d. pathogen

11. Pollen basket is associated with a. queen c. worker b. drone d. larva

12. An indigenous earthworm species a. Lampito mauritii c. Eudrillu seuginiae b. Perionyx excavatus d. Eisenia foetidae

D. State whether the statements are true or false 13. Vermicomposting helps in solid waste management. 14. The herbage for bee forage is known as bee-pasturage. 15. Apis indica is the little Indian honeybee. 16. Apiculture involves the use of microbes. 0.25 x 16 = 4 weightage II. Answer any eight of the following (Give four key points)

17. Name the different species of honeybees used in apiculture. 18. What are the four important medicinal values of honey? 19. Enumerate the morphological differences between any two common earthworm species. 20. What is vermiwash? 21. What is vermin enrichment? 22. What are the uses of bee venom? 23. What are the morphological modifications found in worker bees? 24. Enumerate the different types of cells in a comb. 25. What are the uses of vermicomposting? 26. What are the precautions taken to prevent the attack of pests on vermicompost? 27. What are the primitive methods of bee keeping? 1 x 8 = 8 weightage III. Answer any five of the following (Give eight key points) 28. Describe the caste system in honey bee. 29. Explain caste hierarchy in a honeybee colony. 30. How is honey extracted and processed from the comb? 31. Explain the nutrient profile of vermicompost. 32. Write an account on the common pathogens of vermicompost. 33. Describe Newtons hive. 34. Explain the causes and control measures of any three diseases seen in honeybees. 35. What are the economic uses of vermiculture. 2 x 5 = 10 weightage 1V. Answer any two of the following 36. Discuss the importance of vermicomposting. 37. Explain the methodology involved in vermicomposting.. 38. Discuss the method of apiculture and different types of hives. Add note on the economic uses of apiculture. 4 x 2 = 8 weightage

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA First Degree Programme in Zoology Model Question Paper Semester VI Course Code-ZO1651 Open Course II B. Ornamental Fish Production and Management
Time 3hours Draw diagrams where ever necessary I. Answer all questions A. Fill in the blanks Maximum Weightage 30

1. Sedating the ornamental fishes during transportation is to . 2. ... is a Platyhelminth causing fish disease 3. .. .is a fish Louse. 4. .is caused by Ichthyophthirius miltifilis B. Match the following 5. Chilodonella 6. Diplostomum 7. Aeromonas 8. Daphnia a. Trematod b. Bacterium c. Crustacean d. Protozoan e. Mollusca C. Choose the correct answer 9. Aquarium accessories are: a. Aerator c. Drift wood b. Filters d. All of these.

10. Sexual dimorphism is not found in a. Guppy c .Sword tail a. Valisnaria c. Hydrilla b. Tilapia d. None of these b. Pistia d. none of the above

11. Example of rooted aquarium plant

12. Selection of aquarium plants is based on a. Size of the aquarium c. Size of the fish b. Nature of fish to be kept d. All of these.

D. Sate whether the statements are true of false. 13. Ozonization of water eliminates the organic components by neutralization and oxidation besides eradicating harmful pathogens circulating in water 14. Reflectors are used for getting sunlight and preventing evaporation 15. In freshwater, white spot disease is caused by Cryptocaryon species of protozoans 16. Water to be used in aquaria matures when chlorinated.

0.25 x 16 = 4 weightage II. Answer any eight of the following (Give four key points) 17. What are the advantages of ozonisation? 18. What are the symptoms of fish disease? 19. What are the advantages of natural plants? 20. What are the recovery programmes in biodiversity conservation? 21. What are the criteria in selecting fishes for aquaria?. 22. Why do we produce fish frys by artificial methods? 23. What is ovaprim? 24. In an aquarium what is the function of a biological filter? 25What is red data book? 26. What is the role of suckers in an aquarium? 27. What is new tank syndrome? 1 x 8 = 8 weightage III. Answer any five of the following (Give eight key points) 28. What are the advantages of induced breeding? 29. Explain the role of aquarium accessories 30. What are the factors leading to the decline of the native species? 31. Water quality management is of utmost important in brood stock tanks, why? 32. What is gene banking? 33. Write the conservational aspects of indigenous ornamental fishes 34. Explain the packing and transportation methods used in ornamental fishery 35. What are the common diseases of ornamental aquarium fishes? Write their causative agents and the common prophylactic measures 2 x 5 = 10 weightage

1V. Answer any two of the following

36. Explain the construction and setting up of aquaria 37. Propagation and maintenance of the different types of aquarium plants 38. Explain the different mechanisms involved in Ornamental fish production and Management. 4 x 2 = 8 weightage

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA First Degree Programme Semester I Zoology Complementary Course Model question paper Course Code-ZO1131 Animal Diversity I
Time 3hrs Draw diagrams where ever necessary I. Answer all questions A. Fill in the blanks Maximum Weightage 30

1. Sea anemone has ..symmetry. 2...are the organs of defense and offence in Star fish. 3. Disease caused by Pin worm is known as 4. Excretory organ of Arthropoda is .. B . Match the following 5. Spongocoel 6.Pseudocoel 7.Schizocoel 8.Haemocoel a. Nematoda b. Annelida c. Porifera d. Echinodermata e. Arthopoda C. Choose the correct answer 9. Typical larva of Cnidaria is a. Radula c. Blastula b. Planula d. Gastrula

10. Water vascular system is a characteristic feature of a. Silver fish c. Cuttle fish 11. Metamerism is first observed in a. Flat worms c. Ring worms b. Round worms d. Pin worms b. Jelly fish d. Star fish

12. Compound eyes is formed of simple eyes called a. Pseudopodia c. Ommatidia b. Parapodia d. Carapace

D. State whether the statements are true or false. 13. Jelly fishes belong to Phylum Cnidaria

14. Larva of Echinoderms are radially symmetrical 15. Sacculina is not an Arthropod 16. Choanocytes are found in nematodes 0.25 II. Answer any eight of the following. (Give four key points) 17. Distinguish between radial and bilateral symmetry. 18. Write four characters of Kingdom Protista. 19. Name the Phylum to which the following belong- a. Sepia, b. Bipalium, c. Cliona d. Centipede. 20. Comment on the Zoological significance of Peripatus. 21. Write four characters of Phylum Annelida. 22. Distinguish between polyps and medusa. 23. What do you mean by evisceration. 24. Distinguish between Protostomia and Deuterostomia. 25. Give the scientific names of a) Rice bug b) Rice weevil. 26. Enumerate the parasitic adaptations of Leech. 27. Name the cephalic appendages of prawn. 1 x 8 = 8 weightage III. Answer any five of the following. (Give eight key points) 28. Write the characters of Phylum Echinodermata. 29. Sketch and label the mouth parts of Cockroach 30. Write the salient features of Phylum Platyhelminthes 31. With the help of neat labelled diagram describe the structure of a biramous appendage of Prawn. 32. Write an account on vermiculture. 33. Briefly describe the morphological differences between the adult Anopheles and Culex mosquitoes. x 16 = 4 weightage

34. What are the adaptations of Taenea solium? 35. Differentiate male and female Ascaris. 2 x 5 = 10 weightage IV. Answer any two of the following. 36. Write an account of human nematode parasites and diseases caused by them. 37. Comment on the respiratory system of Prawn 38. Write an account on life cycle of Plasmodium vivax. 4 x 2 = 8 weightage

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA First Degree Programme Semester II Zoology Complementary Course Model question paper Course Code-ZO1231 Animal Diversity II
Time 3hrs Draw diagrams where ever necessary I. Answer all questions Maximum Weightage 30

A. Fill in the blanks. 1. belongs to Cephalochordate 2 is known as flying lizard. 3. Wheel organ is seen in 4. .is an aquatic mammal B. Match the following 5. Aves 6. Reptiles 7. Mammalia 8. Amphibia a. No scales , skin glandular b. Hairs , skin glandular c. Scales , skin non glandular d. Feathers

e. Scales and gills C. Choose the correct answer 9. Which of the following is an egg laying mammal a. Kangaroo c. Rat b. Echidna d. Rabbit

10. Which of the following is not an amphibian a. Salamander c. Toad b. Frog d. Tortoise

11. Non poisonous snake among the following is a. Cobra c. Rat snake 12. Avian heart is a. two chambered c. in completely four chambered. b. three Chambered d. four chambered b. Krait d. Viper

II. State whether the statements are true or false

13. Seal is an amphibious mammal. 14. Enhydrina is non-poisonous 15. Peacock is our National bird. 16. Axolotl is the larva of frog 0.25 x 16 = 4 weightage

II. Answer any eight of the following (give four key points) 17. Describe the important characters of Narcine 18. Name the different parts of pelvic girdle of frog 19. Write four differences between Cephalochordata and Vertebrata. 20. Enumerate four characte rs of Super class Agnathea. 21. Write short notes on Ostrich. 22. Name four edible fishes. 23. Explain sexual dimorphism with reference to frog. 24. Name the excretory organs of Amphioxus. 25. Write four adaptations of aquatic mammals. 26. Give an account on kangaroo. 27. Explain neotony citing example. 1 x 8 = 8 weightage III. Answer any five of the following (give eight key points) 28. Explain the volant adaptations of bat. 29. Explain the structure of quill feather with the help of a diagram. 30. Write short notes on a. Echneis b. Chameleon

31. With the help of neat and labelled diagram describe the internal structure of the heart of frog. 32. Differentiate Ratitae and Carinatae.

33. Write notes on a. Agnatha

b. Urochordata

34. Explain retrogressive metamorphosis with reference to Ascidia . 35. What are the characters of Class Amphibia? 2 x 5 = 10 weightage

IV. Write essay on any two of the following 36. Explain the digestive system and feeding mechanism in Amphioxus 37. Describe the aquatic adaptations of mammals. 38. Write an account on the identification of poisonous and non poisonous snakes 4 x 2 = 8 weightage

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

First Degree Programme Semester III Zoology Complementary Course Model question paper Course Code-ZO1331 Functional Zoology
Time 3hrs Maximum Weightage 30 Draw diagrams where ever necessary

I. Answer all questions A. Fill in the blanks. 1. Vitamin is known as sunshine vitamine. 2. Excretion of ammonia is known as 3. Accumulation of lactic acid in muscle causes . 4. Vasopressin is a hormone secreted by . B. Match the following 5. Vitamin A 6. Vitamin B 7. Vitamin C 8. Vitamin D a. Scurvey b. Goitre c. Berryberry d. Nictalopia e.Rickets C. Choose the correct answer 9. Increase in the number of leucocytes is called a. Leucocytosis b. Leucopenia c. Haemophilia d.Anaemia

10. Exchange of gases between the alveolar air and alveolar capillaries occur by a. Osmosis c. Active transport 11. Presence of Glucose in Urine is a. Uremia c. Protenuria 12. Synapse is a close proximity of a. two arteries c. two neurons b. two veins d. none of these b. Glycosuria d.Haematuria b. Diffusion d. Phagocytosis

D. State whetherthe statements are true or false

13. Blood group AB is known as Universal donor 14. Oxytocin is known as Milk ejection hormone. 15. Myosin is a muscle protein. 16. Tonsil is a primary lymphoid organ II. Answer any eight of the following (give four key points) 17. What is a myogenic heart? 18. What is Ornithine cycle? 19. What is F.S.H. List its functions. 20. Discuss CO poisoning. 21. What is oxygen debt? 22. Distinguish between holozoic and saprozoic nutrition. 23. What is Bohr effect? 24. Write an account on ECG. 25. Name the hormones which control the functions of kidney. 26. What is action potential? 27. What is a pace maker? 1 x 8 = 8 weightage 0.25 x 16 = 4 weightage

III. Answer any five of the following (give eight key points) 28. Describe various respiratory pigments and their functions 29. Distinguish between cellular and humoral immunity 30. Describe any two cardio vascular disorders 31. With neat labeled diagram explain structure of neuron 32. Explain the physiology of urine formation. 33.Describe the chemical events that occur during muscle contraction. 34. Differentiate simple goitre and exophthalmic goitre?

35. Describe the role of hormones in reproduction. 2 x 5 = 10 weightage IV. Answer any two of the following 36. Explain different feeding types with reference to Youngs classification. 37. Briefly describe the following hormonal disorders a) Acromegaly b) Diabetes mellitus c) Diabetes insipidus d) Gigantism 38. What is immunization ? Explain active and passive immunization and add a note on common immunization. 4 x 2 = 8 weightage

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

First Degree Programme Semester IV Zoology Complementary Course Model question paper Course Code-ZO1431 Applied Zoology
Time 3hrs Maximum Weightage 30

Draw diagrams where ever necessary I. Answer all questions A. Fill in the blanks. 1. The herbage for bee forage is known as. 2. Rearing of silk worm is called 3. Mixed fish farming is called 4. . is a type of morphogenetic movement B. Match the following 5.Downs syndrome 6. Edwards syndrome 7. Turners syndrome 8. Klinefilters syndrome a. 44 + XXY b. 45 + XX c. 45 + XY d.44 + XO e.44 + XY C. Choose the correct answer 9. A fresh water ornamental fish a. Shark c. Sea horse 10. A disease of Bomb yx mori a. Grasserie c. Hepatitis 11. Blastula stage of mammals is a. Periblastula c. Stereoblastula 12. A single gene disorder is b. Blastocyst d.Discoblastula b. Typhoid d. Fowl pox b. Gold fish d. Butterfly fish

a. Cleft lip c. Sickle cell anaemia

b. Cleft palate d. None of these

C. State whetherthe statements are true or false 13. Cloning is a pre- natal diagnostic technique 14. Catla catla is not a culture fish 15. A chart representing the family history of an individual is known as karyotype 16. Leghorn and Andalusian are poultry breeds. 0.25 x 16 = 4 weightage II. Answer any eight of the following (give four key points) 17. Define gene therapy. 18. Write the uses of honey. 19. Name the species of silk worm moth used for sericulture. 20. Mention the poultry products. 21. What are the different systems of aqua culture. 22. Write four different patterns of cleavage. 23. Name four common aquarium fishes. 24. What are the goals of HGP? 25.Write notes on test tube babies. 26. What is Human genome project? 27. Write an account on composite fish culture. 1 x 8 = 8 weightage III. Answer any five of the following (give eight key points) 28. Describe pearl culture. 29. Briefly explain embryonic stem cell research. 30. Write an account on fishing crafts. 31. Describe the life cycle of silk worm moth.

32. Write an account on morphogenetic movements. 33.Explain any two prenatal diagnostic techniques. 34. Describe two single gene disorders. 35. What are the common pests of silk worm? 2 x 5 = 10 weightage IV. Answer any two of the following 36. Give an account of any four genetic disorders 37. Write an essay on integrated fish farming 38. What are the advantages and limitations of dairy farming. 4 x 2 = 8 weightage

First Degree Programme Semester IV Zoology Complementary Course Model question paper Course Code-ZO1432 Practical Course -Animal Diversity I and II Functional Zoology and Applied Zoology

Time 3hrs I. Prawn Dissect and display the nervous system. (nerve ring with brain-1, display-1, neatness-1)

Maximum Weightage 20 Weightage 3

II. Shark Mount a few placoid scales. Sketch and label. (mounting-1, diagram-1)

Weightage 2

III. Qualitatively analyze the given sample for monosaccharide and protein. Tabulate your findings under the headings experiment, observation and inference. Weightage 2 (analysis-1, tabulation-1)

IV.Spotters five items

Weightage 10 (2 each)

V. Record Weightage 3 (accuracy of diagrams-1, notes-1, neatness-1)