CONFIDENTIAL*

JABATM
JABATA!I 964/1
JABATM
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PERCUBAAN BERSAMA
S!JIL TJNGGI PERSEKOLAHAN MALAYSIA
20 I I
Instructions to candidates:
DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION PAPER UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
There are fifty questions in this paper. For each question, four suggested answers are
given. Choose one correct answer and indicate it on the multi-choice answer sheet
provided
Read the instructions on the multiple-choice answer sheer ve1y carefully.
Answer all questions. will nor be deducted for wrong answers.
This question paper consists of 17 printed pages
STPM TRIAL 964/1 CONFIDENTIAL*
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1 Which part of a phospholipid molecule contributes most to the thickness of a cell surface
membrane?
A Glycerol
B Hydrocarbon chain
C Hydrophilic head
D Phosphate group
2 A cell lacking oligosaccharides on the external surface of its plasma membrane would likely to be
inefficient in
A cell recognition
B transporting ions against an electrochernical gradient
C maintaining fluidity of the phospholipids layer
D establishing a diffusion barrier to charged molecules
3 The diagram below shows a type of disaccharide.
C-H.,OH
..-t---o
HO
OH
Which of the following statements are true about the molecule shown above?
I Has a-1, 2-glycosidic bonds
II Has a-1, 4-glycosidic bonds
Ill Formed from the condensation of two aldose sugars
IV Formed from the condensation of one ketose and one aldose sugar.
A l and lil
B l and IV
C II and III
D II and IV
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*This question paper is CONFIDENTIAL until the examination is over
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3
4 Which of the following statements are true about respiration?
1 Glycolysis causes 6C glucose to be broken up into two 3C pyruvate
compound.
II Krebs cycle and electron transport system occur in the cell cytosol.
IU The Krebs cycle involved decarboxylation and dehydrogenation.
IV During glycolysis, substrate level phosphorylation occurs twice.
A I only
B ]] and lll only
C I, Ill and IV only
D I, II, Ill and IV
5 Which statement is true of translation during protein synthesis?
A The enzyme aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase activates an amino acid
B DNA carries codons complementary to bind with ribosome
C The RNA polymerase is used to synthesis mRNA
D The initiation of protein synthesis start with codon UAA on mRNA
6 Which of the following combinations correctly matches a description and a
process?
Description Process
lA The production of the amino acid sequence of a protein as Transcription
determined by the base sequence of mRNA
B The semi-conservative replication of a DNA molecule to form DNA synthesis
wo identical molecules
c The production of mRNA molecules by joining together of Translation
nucleotides
D The joining of nucleic acids in a specific sequence as
Protein synthesis
determined by the base sequence of DNA
!
I
7 Which of the following statements is a correct distinction between autotrophs and heterotrophs?
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A Only heterotrophs require chemical compounds from the environment.
B Cellular respiration is unique to heterotrophs.
C Only heterotrophs have mitochondria.
D Autotrophs can nourish themselves using C0
2
and other nutrients that are
entirely inorganic while heterotrophs cannot.
*This question paper is CONFIDENTIAL until the examination is over
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8 Rate of photosynthesis is higher in C
4
plants than C1 plants in tropical or
subtropical country which has higher temperature or light intensity. This is
because
I PEP has a high affinity towards carbon dioxide.
II the high concentration of carbon dioxide prevents the attachment of
oxygen with PSII.
Ill less photorespiration occurs.
IV high concentration of C0
2
(in bundle sheath cell).
A I and Ill
B I, II and IV
C I, Ill and IV
D I, II, lll and IV
9 What do both mitochondria and chloroplast have in common
I A TP is produced
II DNA is present
III Ribosomes are present
A I only
B I and II
C II and Ill
D l, II and Ill
10 Which of the following statements about the excess amino acid in mammal's protein metabolism
are true?
l Deamination occurs and amino acid is excreted as ammonia in urine.
II Deamination occurs and amino group is excreted as urea.
IJ[ Excreted as albumin in urine.
IV Produces other amino acid needed through transamination.
A I and II only
B I and lll only
C II and IV only
D Ill and IV only
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11 The scheme below outlines the major steps in the industrial production of the sweetener fructose
syrup from starch.
Starch
suspension
--
What type of enzymes are involved in steps I and II ?
A Oxidases
B Hydrolases
C Decarboxylase
D Dehydrogenase
12 During cyclic photophosphorylation,
I no PS II is involved.
II no oxygen is evolved.
III no NADPH is made.
IV A TP is still made.
A I, II and III
B I, II and IV
C II, III and IV
D I, II, Ill and IV
C-llucose
ancl
fi'UCtOSE'
13 Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence for the mechanism of stomatal
opening based on the starch-sugar hypothesis.
I Sugar produced reduces the water potential of the cell
I! The guard cells become turgid
III Water diffuses in from neighbouring cells into the guard cells
IV Photosynthesis takes place in the chloroplast
A I, ll, III, IV
B Ill, IV, ll, I
C IV, 1, Ill, II
D IV, Ill, U, 1
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14 The graph below shows the oxygen dissociation curves for two values of pH.
Percentage of oxygen
saturation (%)
100
50
0
50
Which statement about the curve is true?
100
A The increase in pH is due to vigorous activities.
Partial pressnre of oxygen (mmHg)
B The increase in pH causes the curve to shift to the right
C The percentage of oxygen-saturated haemoglobin decreases when pH increases.
D The shifting of the curve to the right is due to an increase in concentration of blood
carbon dioxide.
15 The diagram shows some adjacent cell from a root of a plant. Which is the symplast
pathway of water movement?
B
c
D
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16 Which hypothesis oftransiocation in phloem assumes that energy required for
translocation is obtained from a potential difference across a sieve plate?
A Cytoplasmic streaming hypothesis
B Electro-osmosis hyphothesis
C Cohesion-tension hypothesis
D Peristaltic wave hypothesis
17 Diagram below shows the ornithine cycle.
I
NH
i -
~ ,/
(
~ ~ H , O
I
...
y
H,O
z
What substances do W, X, Y and Z represent?
w X
y
z
A Urea C02 Citruline Arginine
B Urea Citruline Arginine C02
c C02 Arginine Citruline Urea
D C02 Citruline Arginine Urea
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18 The diagram below shows a part of the sequence of events which occur during muscle
contraction.
What are P, Q and R?
p
A
B
c
D
Neurotransmitters
Impulse
Neurotransmitters
Impulse
P arrives at T tubules
Q is released into sarcoplasm
Q binds to troponin
t
Myosin-binding sites exposed
Formation of R
Q
Calcium ions
Sodium ions
Sodium ions
Calcium ions
R
Cross-bridge
Cross-bridge
Myosin
Cross-bridge
19 The diagram below shows the potential difference across the membrane of a giant axon.
50
B -C
time
Which of the phases shown is depolarisation?
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20 Which of the following statements are functions of the liver?
I It detoxifies the blood
II It receives glucose from the small intestine and releases it into the blood at a
suitable rate
!II It also capable of producing glucose from non-carbohydrate sources
IV It plays a role in protein metabolism
A I and II only
B II and Ill only
C I, II and lll only
D I, IL III and IV
21 The diagram below shows a schematic control of hormones m human female reproductive
system,
Hypothalamus
I
Anterior pituitary gland
I
I
II
Ovary
Follicular cells Corpus luteum
Ill IV
Uterus and secondary growth
characteristics
Which of the followings match the hormones represented by numbers I, II, lii and IV in the above
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diagram correctly?
A
B
c
D
I
FSH
FSH
FSH
LH
II
Oestrogen
LH
LH
Progesterone
Ill
LH
Progesterone
Oestrogen
FSH
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IV
Progesterone
Oestrogen
Progesterone
Oestrogen
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22 The diagram below shows responses of a group of flowering plants towards different
photoperiods.
~
:.:::en
C C
O.E:!
I
24 hours --1>
Which of the following statements is/are true?
I The plants are short-day plants
No flowering
No llowering
Il The plants will flower when the night length is more than a critical night length
Ill The plants are long-day plants
IV The plants will flower when the night length is less than a critical night length
A I and II
B II and lii
C I and IV
D III and IV
23 The following statements describe the immune system.
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I Humoral response involves mainly B-lymphocytes
II Immune system recognizes foreign tissues as self.
Ill Cytoxic T -cells are deactivated when they interact with infected cells
IV Cell-mediated immune response is initiated by the formation of antigen-presenting
cells (APC)
Which of the above are true?
A I and II
B ll and Ill
C I and IV
D lil and IV
*This question paper is CONFIDENTIAL until the examination is over
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24 HIV attacks macrophage cells because
A macrophage cells have receptor sites recognised by HJV
B macrophage has a weaker defence system compared to other cells
C macrophages are more easily detected by HIV compared to other cells
D B-lymphocytes hydrolyse RNA ofHIV that enters its cell
25 What is the advantage of sexual reproduction compared to asexual reproduction?
A The process of sexual reproduction is faster and the necessity for two parents does not
anse.
B In sexual reproduction progeny is genetically identical to its parent.
C Sexual reproduction permits the recombination of genetic material from different parents.
D Sexual reproduction usually happens in plants, prokaryotes and mosses.
26 Which type of reproductive system is observed in viruses, bacteria, mould and lower order
plants?
A Budding
B Binary fission
C Sporulation
D Regeneration
27 The function of HCG during pregnancy is to maintain the
A corpus I uteum
B development of embryo
C thickness of uterine wall
D secretion of oestrogen from the placenta
28 Which portion of the blastula becomes embryonic placenta?
A Amnion
B Chorion
C Inner cell mass
D Embryonic disc
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29 The diagram below shows three different types curve
\
\
,---r :
Which of the following are the correct combinations?
Growth curve Growth rate curve Relative growth rate curve
A X z
B X
y
c
y
X
D z
y
30 The graph below shows the growth pattern of a fish.
What type of growth pattern is shown here?
A Isometric growth
B Allometric growth
C Unlimited growth
D Intermittent growth
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y
z
z
X
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31 In a fruit fly, the gene for grey body (B) is dominant over the gene for black body (b).
Two grey fruit flies were mated and they produced 75 grey bodied flies and 25 black bodied flies.
What is the most likely genotype of the parents?
A bb x bb
B Bb x bb
C Bb x BB
D Bb x Bb
32 Multiple alleles are
A both alleles in a heterozygote are dominant and fully expressed in phenotype
B both alleles that give partial influence in heterozygous form
C more than two alternative forms a particular gene that occupy the same locus
D genes that results in the death of an organism.
33 Polyploidy describes
A phenomena that may occur as a result of chromosomes failed to separate
B a defect that is fatal in humans
C a condition in which may be the result of more than one sperm fertilizing an egg
D all of the above
34 A geneticist found that a particular mutation had no effect on the polypeptide coded by a gene.
This mutation probably involved
A deletion of one nucleotide
B a substitution of one nucleotide
C alteration of the start codon
D Insertion of one nucleotide
35 In a population of 1000 people, test of blood type genes show that 160 have genotype AA, 480
have the genotype AB and the rest have the genotype BB. Calculate the frequency of the B allele.
A 0.001
B 0.060
c 0.400
D 0.600
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36 Which of the following statements is true of the Jacob-Monod theory of gene regulation?
A The regulator gene codes the enzyme
B The operator region is the binding site for RNA polymerase
C The structural gene is not transcribed when the repressor protein binds
with lactose
D The structural gene is ,1ctive due to the repressor protein produced by the
regulator gene.
37 Which of the following statements is the definition of gene pooP
A Total number of genes on all chromosomes in an organism
B Total number of alleles on all chromosomes in an organism
C Total alleles in all genes in all chromosomes in an organism
D Total alleles in all genes in all chromosomes in all organisms in a population
38 An operon consists of
A The regulator, operator and promoter genes only
B The structural, promoter and operator genes only
C The structural, regulator, operator and promoter genes only
D The structural, promoter and regulator genes only
39 Which of the following statements about the use of plasmid as a vector in recombinant DNA
technology are true?
I Has the ability to self replicate outside the cell
II Has one or more restriction sites recof'.nized bv restriction enzvmes
"
Ill Enters bacteria through the transformation process
IV Usually carries the code for antibiotic resistance.
A I, II and Ill
B I, II and IV
C IL Ill and IV
D I, II, Ill and IV
40 Which statement best describes restriction enzymes?
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A They are named according to their actions.
B They cut double-stranded DNA to produce blunt ends
C They cut double-stranded DNA at specific nucleotide sequences
D They are used in recombinant DNA technology to join two DNA
fragments,
*This question paper is CONFIDENTIAL until the examination is over
CONFIDENTIAL*
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41 Which of the following criteria could not be used to determine hmv closely
related two different organisms are0
A DNA hybridisation
B Developmental stages
C The presence of homologous structures
D Habitat preferences
42 The evolution of individual species after divergence from ancestor shared with
other species is represented by the branching diagram below
)



The branching diagram is called a
A cladogram
B dendrogram
C phylogeny chart
D taxonomic hierarchy


Prirnate: B Crocodile: Birds
43 Which of the following is an example of in situ conservation?
A Botanical gardens
B Zoos
C Gene banks
D Parks
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44 Which of the following are true of kingdom Prokaryotae?
I It includes bacteria and cyanobacteria.
II The DNA is enclosed by a nuclear membrane.
III Membranous organelles are present.
IV They are unicellular organisms.
A I and lJl
B I and IV
C II and III
D lJ and IV
45 Which of the following shows the impmiance of variation?
I It restrict a species to a narrow range of habitats and niches.
II It provides the raw material for evolution.
Ill It leads to extinction of a population.
IV It increases the ability of a species to survive in a changing environment.
A I and lJ
B I and III
C II and IV
D Ill and IV
46 Which of the following is not an example of discontinuous variation?
A Skin colour.
B Tongue rolling.
C Human ABO blood group.
D Ability to taste bitter chemical phenylthiocarbamide.
47 Which of the following statements is not true about carrying capacity?
A Total number of organisms that can be supporied by environmental resources
B Carrying capacity of an ecosystem is constant
C Carrying capacity is limited by limited resources
D Affected by environmental conditions
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48 Which of the following is correct about the transfer of energy in an ecosystem0
I There are commonly 4 or S trophic levels.
II Energy is transferred f>om the primary producers to the herbivores.
III Each trophic level receives less energy than the trophic level below it.
IV Primary producers trap approximately 90% of the light energy that reaches the earth.
A I, II and III
B I,liand!V
C I, Ill and IV
D I, 11, III and IV
49 Which of the following is the correct ecological hierarchy in an ascending order?
A Organism, population, community, ecosystem, biome, biosphere.
B Organism, population, community, ecosystem, biosphere, biome.
C Organism, community, population, ecosystem, biome, biosphere.
D Organism, community, population, ecosystem, biosphere, biome.
50 Which population grmvth curve will be produced if environmental resistance is absent?
A sigmoid curve
B J-shaped curve
C Linear curve
D Exponential curve
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*This question paper is CONFIDENTIAL until the examination is over
CONFIDENTIAL*