African exploration in the late nineteenth century is almost entirely a story of white males: scientists, traders and missionaries.

Mary Henrietta Kingsley stands out as an exception. Ostensibly, Kingsley planned her first trip to Africa so she could conduct research on fetishes and complete the academic treatise her father, an explorer, had begun. Privately, Kingsley told a friend she was traveling to Africa "to die," though she had dreamt of such an adventure since childhood. Nevertheless, she prepared for the trip carefully, interviewing friends, doctors, missionaries, and former explorers, all of whom advised her not to make the trek. Kingsley was undaunted and set off for West Africa carrying only £300, and chemicals and specimen cases designed to collect samples of unknown fish and insects for the British Museum. Kingsley sailed the coast, finally putting in at the mouth of the Congo. Recognizing that the natives were naturally suspicious of Europeans traveling without an obvious purpose, Kingsley purchased cloth and other goods in the port and traveled inland for six months as a trader, exchanging goods for food and shelter along the way. During this and her second trip in 1895, Kingsley demonstrated resourcefulness in dealing with such challenges as rescuing a native from cannibals, defeating a leopard with a bucket of water, learning to pilot a native canoe up the Ogooue River, and becoming the first white woman and third "Englishman" to climb the 14,435 foot Mount Cameroon. Upon her return to London, Kingsley campaigned for an enlightened African policy, published her bookTravels in West Africa and advocated a forum for the serious ethnological study of Africa. Kingsley's third trip was to Cape Town during the 1900 Boer War. There she encountered an epidemic of dysentery, volunteered to nurse prisoners of war, contracted typhoid, and died.

1. What is the main purpose of this passage? A. To demonstrate that even the most seasoned African explorers are at risk due to disease. B. To outline the early history of African exploration. C. To establish the need for a more tolerant colonial policy in 19
th

century England.

D. To discuss the achievements of one female explorer. E. To argue that the contributions made by women explorers in Africa were as important as those made by men.

2. The author suggests that Mary Kingsley may have gone to Africa for each of the following reasons EXCEPT: A. to serve as an Anglican missionary B. to complete her father's fetish research C. to fulfill a childhood dream D. to collect specimens of fish and insects for the British Museum E. to die

3. Mary Kingsley's reason for purchasing cloth and other supplies at the mouth of the Congo was: A. to be able to trade for food and shelter along the way B. to earn extra money to finance her trip C. to assuage the natives' concerns over her motives D. to acquire examples of fetish sculptures for her father's research E. to acquaint the natives with European goods

4. Why does the author insert the anecdotes about Kingsley's travels in paragraph three? A. To show that she was not afraid of wild beasts. B. To compare the obstacles faced by female travelers with those faced by male explorers of the day. C. To entice you into reading Kinsley's best-selling book Travels in West Africa. D. To emphasize the dangers Mary faced in her travels. E. To illustrate Kingsley's ability to conquer a variety of challenges.

5. Hubert Humphrey's attempt in his campaign to dissociate himself from the Johnson foreign policies was built around emphasis on Humphrey's Senate career. A. himself from the Johnson foreign policies was built around emphasis on Humphrey's Senate career B. him from the Johnson foreign policies were built around emphasis on Humphrey's Senate career C. him from the Johnson foreign policies was built around emphasis on Humphrey's Senate career D. himself from the Johnson foreign policies were built around emphasis on Humphrey's Senate career E. him from the Johnson foreign policies was built around emphasizing the Senate career of the candidate

6. Since conscious patients often died of shock on the operating table, the invention of anesthesia was essential to the development of surgery as the invention of the propeller was to powered flight. A. the invention of anesthesia was essential to the development of surgery as the invention of the propeller was to powered flight B. inventing anesthesia was as essential for the development of surgery as the invention of the propeller was for powered flight C. the invention of anesthesia was as essential in the development of surgery much as the invention of the propeller had been for powered flight D. the invention of anesthesia was as essential to the development of surgery as the invention of the propeller was to powered flight E. the invention of anesthesia was essential to the development of surgery, so was the invention of the propeller essential to powered flight

Practice vs. Talent Most people assume that those who are truly great at some pursuit - for example, David Beckham at football or Midori at playing the violin - are naturally, or perhaps supernaturally, talented. Those who hold this belief generally would acknowledge that some practice is necessary for these extraordinary individuals to hone their talents, but that at the root, they were born with innate talents that no amount of practice could replace. Recent research, however, reveals that talent contributes far less toward success than does practice. In fact, in none of the fields studied - which included sport, music, chess and medicine - have experts found any evidence that experts have any more natural talent than amateurs. In short, the successes of worldclass performers are almost entirely attributable to practice. The implications of this are obvious: a lack of success in any area of interest can no longer be blamed on a lack of talent - each of us can achieve elite status in virtually any pursuit through copious amounts of practice. The structure of effective practice that emerged from the studies is different from what might be expected, however. Researchers have defined a term known as 'deliberate practice' - repeated efforts to improve the weakest aspect of performance, done with forethought and with evaluated results. Practice in the way that most people define it -- randomised activity, or repetition of the most enjoyable aspects of the performance -- is insufficient. The concept of directed practice is best explained through an example. Suppose that one wishes to improve one's golf game to the elite level. Most people would approach their practice by either playing more rounds of golf, or by practicing their favourite part of the game - say, their long game. Directed practice, though, would dictate that the person analyse the current state of his or her game, determine which aspect of the

game is his or her greatest weakness, and then repetitively and intensively practice that particular aspect. Suppose that your weakness is putting the ball- to embrace the concept of directed practice, you should spend hours on the practice green hitting the same putts over and over again, planning and visualising them beforehand, and analysing and making improvements afterward. Once your putting improves to the point that it is no longer your greatest weakness, move on to that part of the game that now is, and repeat the process. 7. For most golfers, a trip to the driving range will improve their game more than would equal time playing a full round of golf. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

8. Directed practice aimed at improving the weakest element of your performance is likely to yield better results than directed practice aimed at improving any other element. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

9. Natural talent and practice are equally important in gaining mastery of an activity. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

10. An individual who finds himself unable to do well at golf simply has not spent enough time practising. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

Elizabethan English society was fragmented, defined by class distinctions that went far beyond those of income or position in social hierarchy. Religion, occupation, political affiliations, and even neighborhood would all contribute to a complicated and keenly felt social identity. Nevertheless, one prevalent social tradition of that time and place offered an experience of unity. In 16 century London, people from all social positions flocked to Shakespeare's Globe, The Rose, and The Swan, outdoor playhouses that were fashioned after ancient Roman amphitheaters and engendered a community consciousness. Their entrance fees suited craftsmen and noblemen alike, and their physical layout facilitated interaction among the members of the audience as they responded to the actors on stage. The cross-class popularity of theater as social event may be difficult for us to imagine today, as the Elizabethan theater experience was much different from that of attending a modern play. Theatrical performance as we know it is usually an individual experience, each of us a solitary spectator. When Elizabethan theatergoers gathered as an audience, they functioned as a collective. Whether enchanted by a performance and suspending disbelief, or bored with a play and heckling the actors, the class distinctions among audience members seemed to vanish. Regrettably, most contemporary theatergoers have not had opportunity to see the way that theater, as an institution, has the power not only to illuminate life truths on stage but also to help us to experience and recognize the unifying power of community and the commonality of the human condition. 11. Which of the following most closely resembles the contrast between modern and Elizabethan theater attendance experiences as described in the passage? A. A fan of a baseball team may feel a greater sense of fellowship with a fan of that same team who has a different
th

profession than to a professional colleague who is a fan of a different team. B. Art movements that were highly popular in past centuries would likely have little impact on the average art enthusiast if those movements originated today. C. Historians often misinterpret the significance of past events because they are only able to experience those events vicariously. D. Sports enthusiasts today often prefer to watch several athletic events at home, on television or online, participating in "fantasy leagues," rather than cheer on one team as part of a crowd. E. Today's explorers and adventurers can increase their chances of success by gaining insight from travel journals documenting historical expeditions.

12. The passage provides support for which of the following assertions about Elizabethan theater? A. It was the most popular entertainment of its day. B. It allowed people of disparate backgrounds to identify with the actors on stage. C. It led to the proliferation of cultural events in general. D. Its cross-class appeal was a societal rarity. E. It was widely considered a social obligation.

13. The author most probably refers to Roman amphitheaters in order to A. allude to the diversity of the theatergoing audience B. help explain the popularity of Elizabethan theater C. emphasize how the design of Elizabethan theaters facilitated a specific audience mentality D. allude to the size of the Elizabethan audience E. convey the antiquity of the Elizabethan theater tradition

14. One reason some particle physicists are switching to astronomy late in their careers is that they tire of spending years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments; astronomers have an infinite and ready-made supply of environments at their disposal. A. One reason some particle physicists are switching to astronomy late in their careers is that they tire of spending years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments; astronomers have an infinite and ready-made supply of environments at their disposal B. Late in their careers, one reason that some particle physicists are switching to astronomy is suggested by the fact that particle physicists must spend years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments, while astronomers have an infinite and ready-made supply of environments at their disposal C. Late in their careers, one reason that some particle physicists are switching to astronomy is suggested by the fact that particle physicists must spend years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments, while an infinite and ready-made supply of environments is at the disposal of astronomers D. The fact that particle physicists must spend years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments while astronomers have an infinite and readymade supply of environments at their disposal is one reason, late in their careers, some particle physicists are switching to astronomy E. The existence of an infinite and ready-made supply of environments at the disposal of astronomers compared with the fact that particle physicists must spend years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments suggests one reason some particle physicists are switching to astronomy late in their careers

Australia's Stolen Generation Between the late-1860s and the early 1970s, over 100,000 Aboriginal Australian children - mostly infants or toddlers - were taken from their families and placed either in orphanages or charitable institutions or with Caucasian foster families. The modern Australian government has concluded that as much as 10% of Aboriginal children were displaced in this way, and that no Aboriginal family in the country avoided the loss of at least one child. These children are now known as members of Australia's 'Stolen Generation.' The tactics of the Australian government were often cruel, and sometimes treacherous. Local governments employed Aboriginal Protection Officers, who had the authority to remove children with or without cause. Naturally, the parents protested the actions of these officials, often violently so, and many times Aboriginals were severely beaten for trying to protect their young. In other cases, government dishonesty was used -- some parents were told that their children needed hospitalisation, either for routine immunisations or checks, or for more serious maladies, and then told that the children had perished when in fact they had been placed into the childwelfare system. Why would the Australian government engage in this programmatic destruction of Aboriginal families? Ostensibly, it was for the children's own good. Aboriginal populations had declined precipitously since the in-migration of Europeans, and officials concluded that Aboriginal civilisation was doomed to collapse. Given that assumption, they reasoned, future generations of Aboriginals had to assimilate quickly into white society, against Aboriginal will if necessary. There is a large and growing body of evidence, though, that indicates that these programs were initiated to hasten the collapse of Aboriginal civilisation, not only through cultural

assimilation but ultimately by hastening the intermarriage of Aboriginals with members of other races. Regardless of historical motives, the effects of the programs are largely negative. All of the taken children are now grown and continue to be victims of their experience. They are likely to have poorer health; higher rates of alcoholism, drug use & addiction, and incarceration; and shorter life spans than the average Australian - and even the average Aboriginal. 15. Australian Aboriginals have, on average, shorter life expectancy than most people throughout the world. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

16. Intermarriage between Australian Aboriginals and members of other races was taking place even before the taking of Aboriginal children began. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

17. The Australian government of the late 1860s through the early 1970s employed various tactics aimed at eliminating the Aboriginal populace. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

18. The abduction of young Aboriginals in Australia was largely intended to provide a captive labour force for wealth white landowners. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

19. One student at the school was not yet fifteen, yet he was already a master in both chess and in bridge. A. master in both chess and in bridge B. master of both chess and in bridge C. master of both chess and of bridge D. master both chess and bridge E. master of both chess and bridge

The United States is the only industrialized nation that has not converted to the metric system, despite a major movement in the 1970s that pushed hard for such a conversion. The debate over whether to convert has vociferous advocates on both sides, and both cite cost as evidence for their positions. The cost of converting to the metric system would undoubtedly be hundreds of millions of dollars, but the cost of not converting will be far greater. Continued American adherence to a system that the rest of the industrialized world has abandoned results in a significant loss of trade revenue as well as a significant increase in production costs. To compete in today's growing global market, for example, many U.S. businesses must create one version of a product to distribute domestically and another to distribute abroad. Furthermore, U.S. reluctance to convert puts Americans at an international educational disadvantage when it comes to mathematics and science. To prepare American students for success and to compete in the burgeoning global market, the United States must once again push for conversion to the metric system. This could best be accomplished in graduated steps, beginning with the dual labeling of products and signage as well as teaching the metric system exclusively in schools. 20. The passage implies which of the following about the failure of the 1970s U.S. movement to convert to the metric system? A. It resulted in more support and advocacy for conversion in the long term. B. It has been attributed to deficiencies in the U.S. educational system. C. It was ill-timed because it accompanied economic recession. D. It made the cost-based argument for conversion even more compelling in the present.

E. It was largely due to the fact that gradual implementation was not proposed.

21. The author most likely refers to cost as a reason to oppose conversion in order to A. explain why the debate is likely to continue B. convey the similarity of some of the arguments on both sides C. claim that the issue of cost should be studied in more detail D. imply that some of the opponents' arguments are valid E. undermine the logic of the opponents' claim

22. The author would most likely support which of the following assertions? A. After converting, the United States economy would be more likely to recover from periods of economic decline. B. American students' mathematics and science skills will continue to drop unless metric conversion is undertaken. C. United States companies' distribution costs will keep varying with respect to national and international product lines. D. Only the United States still clings to an antiquated measurement system. E. The United States' reticence to adopt the metric system hampers its scientific and economic competitiveness.

Stock Options The use of company stock - that is, shares of ownership in the equity of the company - as a component of employee compensation has grown dramatically over the past 30 years. While equity compensation used to be the exclusive province of top executives, more and more levels of employees have received it as time has gone on. Because of the way these compensation vehicles work, though, most employees never realise much value from them. The most common equity vehicle used as a compensation tool is the employee stock option. A stock option grants the right to purchase a specific number of shares of the company's stock, at a given price, on or before some specific date in the future. The most common form of employee stock option gives the employee the right to purchase shares at the price in effect on the date of grant of the option, after the option vests, but before the expiration date, provided that the employee continues to be employed by the company until the exercise happens. Another common type of employee equity compensation is the restricted share. This is simply a grant of a share of stock, but with some sort of restriction on the ownership of that stock most often, continued employment until some future vesting date. A company's choice of which type of equity vehicle to grant depends on many factors. The option to purchase a single share of stock is inherently less valuable than the share itself, since the option requires the employee to put up the purchase price. So in order for a company to give its employee a certain amount of compensation, it must grant more options than restricted shares, and companies may be less willing to encumber these scarce resources. However, the option arguably has more motivational power, since it only has value if

the company's stock price rises and employees therefore only profit if the company does well. 23. Restricted stock is more commonly used as an employee compensation vehicle than are stock options. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

24. Shares of restricted stock carry more inherent value than an equivalent number of shares covered by a stock option. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

25. Employees at lower organisational levels have received significant increases in overall compensation due to the use of equity compensation in the last 30 years as compared to the time before that. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

26. If a company's interest is in motivating its employees to perform well, it is better off granting them equity compensation than an equivalent amount of cash compensation. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

Congress has had numerous opportunities in recent years to reconsider the arrangements under which federal forest lands are owned and managed. New institutional structures merit development because federal forest lands cannot be efficiently managed under the hierarchical structure which now exists. The system is too complex to be understood by any single authority. The establishment of each forest as an independent public corporation would simplify the management structure and promote greater efficiency, control, and accountability. To illustrate how a system for independent public corporations might work, consider the National Forest System. Each National Forest would become an independent public corporation, operating under federal charter, which gives it legal authority to manage federal land in the same manner that other federal corporations manage communications, transportation, or electrical generation facilities. The charter would give the corporation the right to establish its own production goals, land uses, management practices, and financial arrangements, within the policy constraints set by the Public Corporations Board. To assure economic efficiency in making decisions, the Public Corporations Board would establish a minimum average rate of return to be earned on assets held by each corporation. Each corporation would be required to organize a system for reporting revenues, costs, capital investments and recovery, profits, and the usual measures of financial health normally required of any private corporation. While the financial objective would not necessarily be to maximize profit, there would be a requirement to earn at least a public utility rate-of-return on the resources under the corporation's control. The primary advantage of this approach to federal land management lies in the potential for achieving greater efficiency in the utilization of land, capital, and labor. A second advantage stems from the potential stabilization of the personnel involved in managing federal lands. A positive program of advancement,

more flexible job classifications, professional training, and above all, countering outside bids with higher salary, would enable a corporation to develop a more stable professional workforce. A third advantage is that federal land management would become less vulnerable to the politics of special interest groups. 27. The primary purpose of this passage is to A. suggest that the National Forest System is plagued by many problems B. argue that it is necessary to restructure the management of federal forest lands C. insist that private corporations be allowed to manage the country's natural resources D. discuss the role of private corporations in the management of the National Forest System E. highlight the competing needs of public agencies managing communications, transportation, and national forests

28. According to the passage, all of the following are potential benefits of forming public corporations to manage federal forest lands EXCEPT A. a more stable labor force B. more effective management of natural resources C. the ability to offer competitive salaries D. less vulnerability to special interest groups E. expansion of federal forest land boundaries

29. According to the passage, the responsibilities of a corporation authorized to manage a National Forest should include which of the following? I. Establishing formal procedures for making official reports of the corporation's financial well-being II. Earning at least a minimum return on the corporation's resources and assets III. Achieving a maximum level of profits on the corporation's capital investments A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and II E. I, II, and III

30. The author suggests that administrators of federal forest lands have been handicapped by which of the following? A. The public expectation that federal forest lands will remain undeveloped B. The failure of environmental experts to investigate the problems of federal forest lands C. The inability of the federal government to compete with private corporations for the services of skilled professionals D. The unwillingness of Congress to pass laws to protect federal forest lands from private developers E. The difficulty of persuading citizens to invest their capital in a government-run endeavor

31. According the passage, the present problems of federal forest lands derive mainly from A. overuse by the population B. inefficient organization C. hostility from special interest groups D. the corporate mentality of Congress E. opposition to reform by government employees

32. The author's attitude toward the "hierarchical structure" mentioned in line 6 can best be characterized as A. resigned B. admiring C. skeptical D. bitter E. ambivalent

33. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage? A. A proposal is made and then supporting arguments are set forth. B. One claim is evaluated and then rejected in favor of another claim. C. A point of view is stated and then evidence for and against it is evaluated. D. A problem is outlined and then various solutions are discussed. E. Opposing opinions are introduced and then debated.

34. Of all the possible threats that affect American national security, the possibility of electromagnetic attack is maybe the more difficult for analysis. A. is maybe the more difficult for analysis B. is probably the most difficult to analyze C. is maybe the most difficult for analysis D. is probably the more difficult to analyze E. is, it may be, the analysis that is most difficult

Adverse Selection The foundation of much of modern business - and in particular, of the insurance industry - is the management of risk. At its best, risk management allows a company to minimise financial threats, to accurately predict losses that are likely to result from those threats, and to bear losses even when they are greater than predicted. While no one can accurately predict the future, good risk managers can determine the probabilities of various outcomes and use those probabilities to prepare for likely outcomes. A noteworthy threat to successful risk management is adverse selection, a peril inherent particularly in insurance products. Adverse selection is the process by which less-desirable (in terms of risk) customers, having a greater-than-average incentive to purchase a particular policy, do so in larger-thanexpected proportion to more-desirable customers, making the pool of policyholders riskier than the insurer predicted. Adverse selection may be illustrated by the example of a particular life insurance policy. Clearly, individuals with the greatest incentive to purchase life insurance are those who engage in risky behaviours, since they are likely to profit most from their policies. This means that, for example, smokers, sky divers, and private pilots have more incentive to purchase life insurance than the general public does. If the insurer that designed the policy fails to account for these behaviours (for example, by charging higher premiums of those who engage in them), then the risk-takers will find that the cost of the policy is lower than those of policies that do properly reflect them. Risk-takers will thus purchase this policy in greater numbers than will non-risk-takers, causing the overall pool of policyholders to be ever riskier, which in turn will lead to higherthan-predicted losses for the insurer. Once high losses on the policy begin to be realised, the insurer is likely to raise renewal

prices on the policies, creating a greater incentive for non-risktakers to abandon the policies, and making the risk pool riskier still. 35. Risk management is the process by which accurate predictions of future events are made. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

36. Adverse selection is the aspect of insurance that most makes risk management difficult. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

37. Individuals who smoke or sky-dive are likely to die sooner than individuals who do neither of these things. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

38. The profitability an insurer realises from the sale of an insurance policy is linked to the expected versus actual risk of its collective group of policyholders. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

The California ground squirrel must constantly balance the conflicting demands of self-preservation and predator assessment. Because predator assessment requires a fairly high degree of proximity and sensory contact, the ground squirrel can only safely assess predators from whom there is little to no immediate threat. For example, when avian predators, including the red-tailed hawk and golden eagle, launch sudden, unexpected aerial attacks, self-preservation must take precedence over the acquisition of knowledge. Rattlesnakes, on the other hand, pose relatively little immediate danger, and give the squirrel the greatest opportunity for predator assessment. Predator assessment might normally be hampered by the inherent danger of the rattlesnake's lethal bite. But while squirrels constitute almost 70 percent of the rattlesnake's diet, adult ground squirrels are all but immune to rattlesnakes. Rattlesnakes hunt slowly and stalk their prey, in marked contrast to sudden avian attacks. And even though a rattlesnake's strike is fast, the ground squirrel can move much faster. More important, any danger posed by a snakebite is mitigated by proteins in the squirrel's blood that confer resistance to rattlesnake venom. Adult ground squirrels will generally survive a rattlesnake bite that could prove lethal to a grown human. Indeed, it is the squirrel pups that are most susceptible to rattlesnake bites, because their smaller bodies cannot neutralize a full bite's worth of venom. This innate resistance allows the ground squirrel to change the dynamic of the traditional predator-prey relationship and approach the rattlesnake in an effort to acquire useful information regarding size and body temperature. Larger snakes, which deliver more venom per strike, are naturally more dangerous, as are warmer snakes, which can strike faster, from a greater distance, and with greater accuracy. Visual cues can be helpful, but the squirrel is often hampered by the

surrounding vegetation and darkness of burrows. Auditory cues are generally more reliable. For this reason, the ground squirrel will engage in tail-flagging, sand-kicking, and substrate-throwing in an attempt to put the snake on the defensive, and coax the snake into rattling its tail. The sound of a particular snake's rattle "leaks" information about the snake's size and body temperature. Not only does this information allow the squirrel to accurately assess the surrounding danger to itself and its pups, but it also allows the squirrel to communicate this danger (or lack thereof) to other squirrels by additional tail-flagging. 39. Which of the following can most reasonably be concluded about adult ground squirrels on the basis of the passage? A. They are found exclusively in California. B. They have always been immune to rattlesnake venom. C. They are sometimes vulnerable to a rattlesnake's venom. D. They generally stay away from rattlesnakes in order to protect their young. E. They have only avian and reptilian predators.

40. According to the passage, the adult ground squirrel generally does NOT engage in which of the following? A. The self-application of snake scent B. Acquisition of knowledge regarding a rattlesnake's size C. Biting rattlesnakes D. Large-scale assessment of avian predators E. Communication with other adult ground squirrels

41. The author mentions the hunting method of rattlesnakes in order to A. show how the rattlesnake can sneak up on a ground squirrel engaged in predator assessment. B. give an example of an attack against which the adult ground squirrel must defend itself in order to survive. C. explain why 70 percent of squirrels are eaten by rattlesnakes. D. show how the rattlesnake is different from the red-tailed hawk and golden eagle. E. provide a secondary explanation for the adult California ground squirrel's ability to safely approach the rattlesnake.

42. The passage suggests which of the following about predator-prey relationships? A. They only allow for predator assessment when there is no danger from the predator. B. They often do not allow for a high degree of predator assessment. C. They are fairly traditional in their resistance to evolution. D. They tend to minimize the predator-prey proximity. E. They are the same regardless of the species in question.

A newly unearthed Aztec tomb must have been created after 1428 but before 1430. It couldn't have been constructed before 1428 because it contains a type of headdress that was not created until later that year. It also could not have been built after 1430 because it contains a type of wood that the Aztecs were known to have stopped using in that same year. 43. Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends? A. The style in which the Aztecs built tombs did not change between 1428 and 1430. B. There is no other evidence in the tomb that can be tested accurately for age. C. No stocks of the old wood existed after 1430. D. The Aztecs did not construct the tomb over the course of many years. E. The headdress was familiar to most Aztecs in 1428.

44. Although modern roller coasters have loops in which they turn upside-down, old-fashioned roller coasters have more and longer straight drops. A. old-fashioned roller coasters have more and longer straight drops B. the old-fashioned roller coaster has more and longer straight drops C. whereas old-fashioned roller coasters have more and longer straight drops D. old-fashioned roller coasters having more and longer straight drops E. old-fashioned roller coasters drop longer and straighter

One of the controversies plaguing policy makers is whether deficit spending is a responsible remedy for unemployment and economic decline. The concept that a government can fuel its economy by running deficits was advanced by John Maynard Keynes, a British economist whose ideas were adopted by industrial nations whose economies floundered in the wake of World War II. In times of monetary crisis since then, those who believe that government spending encourages recovery and those who see government intervention as an assault on the free market have argued the merits of Keynesian economics. International monetary struggles after World War II pushed Keynes's ideas to the forefront and engendered a policy division between major political parties in the United States. Keynes asserted that during downturns, government funding of public works could strengthen the economy by creating jobs and stimulating business and industry. Since then, a reliance on deficit spending has fueled the fiscal policies of U.S. leadership, despite the outcry of politicians who condemn government activity in the marketplace and defend the necessity of a balanced budget. In practice, Keynesian philosophy has been misunderstood, and the economist's message has been misinterpreted by its detractors. In fact, Keynes advocated a free market economy and acknowledged its power. He believed, however, that government spending serves as a political stabilizer, a tool that restores the power of the free market after economic shocks, ensuring that the budget balances itself. 45. The primary purpose of the passage is to A. clarify the philosophy behind an economic strategy that is widely applied today B. downplay the value of an economic policy that was founded on erroneous beliefs

C. highlight the contrast between government tactics aimed at stimulating economic prosperity D. suggest a reason fiscal policies fail to protect nations from economic decline E. undermine the wisdom of a fiscal policy that has been linked to economic success

46. The author would most likely agree with which of the following statements about Keynesian economics? A. It can be successful in the face of hardship but devastating during prosperous times. B. It explains how insistence on partisan dogma can ambush a stable economy. C. It has been rendered ineffective due to corruption of the economist's goals. D. It makes sense only when a nation has exhausted more preferable roads to recovery. E. It has been unjustly characterized as fiscally irresponsible.

47. The author most probably refers to the industrial nations in order to A. limit the appeal of Keynesian theory to economically prosperous nations B. link the rise of Keynesian economics to a specific historical era C. provide a historical time reference for the rise of the free market D. stress the value of fiscal stability to a nation's commercial success E. trace the corruption of Keynesian theory to a specific historical era

Benefits Consultant: Company-sponsored retirement plans that feature multiple investment options are misleadingly attractive. The investment managers of a given fund frequently have the power to shift its strategy; such changes are often dramatic and alter the behavior of the fund in ways an employee could not have foreseen upon initially selecting it. As a result, it is difficult for employees to accurately predict the effects of an investment plan on their financial future. 48. In the argument above, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles? A. The first is the consultant's main conclusion; the second is a subsidiary assertion in support of that conclusion. B. The first raises a subsidiary assertion that supports the consultant's ultimate conclusion; the second is that conclusion. C. The first is an observation the consultant holds to be regrettably true; the second is evidence in support of a different observation. D. The first is an observation the consultant disagrees with; the second is an observation the consultant ultimately supports. E. The first is an observation the consultant considers problematic; the second is a claim the consultant uses as evidence in support of a possible solution.

Toys4Them, an online toy merchant, generated $220 million in revenue last year, an 8.6 percent increase over the previous year. However, the number of toys sold did not increase significantly last year over the previous year. 49. Each of the following, if true, could explain the apparent discrepancy EXCEPT: A. Last year, Toys4Them changed its accounting policy to no longer count toys given away to charities as sold toys. B. Toys4Them sold a higher proportion of more expensive toys last year than the previous year. C. Last year, the number of consumers shopping for toys increased over the previous year. D. Last year, Toys4Them experienced an unprecedented boom in its divisions that do not sell toys. E. Because of an economic downturn, Toys4Them heavily discounted its toys during the holiday season two years ago.

Numerous studies of chemotherapy patients over the last ten years have shown that patients who had regularly attended support groups or received counseling experienced significantly fewer side effects and shorter recovery times from chemotherapy than did patients who had not. Clearly, although the mainstream scientific community has been slow to acknowledge it, psychological support has an effect on the body's ability to heal. 50. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument above? A. The survival rates for chemotherapy patients in the study were virtually identical regardless of whether or not they received support. B. The patients who did not attend support groups chose not to do so, even though they were healthy enough to attend. C. Many medical doctors believe that the mind plays a role in the causation and prevention of illness. D. The majority of chemotherapy patients must undergo more than one round of treatment. E. Some hospitals do not conduct support groups on their premises for chemotherapy patients and their families.

51. The customer will not be responsible for transactions made with lost or stolen credit cards after issuing replacement cards. A. The customer will not be responsible for transactions made with lost or stolen credit cards after issuing replacement cards B. No customer will be responsible for transactions made with lost or stolen credit cards after they are issued replacement cards C. The customer will not be responsible for transactions made with lost or stolen credit cards after replacement cards have been issued D. Responsibility for transactions made with lost or stolen credit cards will not be the customer's after he is issued replacement cards E. The customer will not be responsible for transactions made with lost or stolen credit cards after such time as they will have been issued replacement cards

Origins of Dada The anti-art movement known as Dada began as a looselyorganised protest of World War I. Several artists and writers who had earlier fled to neutral Switzerland began to meet in the Cabaret Voltaire in 1916, informally presenting performances, art pieces, and writings that protested the War. These presentations took on increasingly and shockingly nonsensical forms, with the intent of jolting observers' awareness of the ridiculousness of the war itself. By late 1916, a number of seminal manifestoes and other works had begun to define Dada, and the name itself had been applied to the movement. While the exact origins of the name have been lost to time, it is commonly believed that the word was chosen to represent the movement because it is itself nonsensical. As Dada developed and spread, first to other European countries and later to the United States, it emerged as a sharp dressing-down of all things previously thought of as 'art'. While most great artistic movements prior to Dada had been representational, logical, and beautiful, Dada itself became abstract, illogical, and, often, ugly to the point of obscene. Perhaps best illustrating this development is the single most famous piece of Dada art, Fountain by Marcel Duchamp. This piece, a urinal pseudo-signed by the artist, was quite shocking when unveiled in 1917. By the mid-1920s, the Dada movement unravelled as its practitioners moved on to other modern art forms such as surrealism. However, the history of the movement survives; the Cabaret Voltaire itself was turned into a Dada museum in 2002. 52. Dada had its origins in the night clubs of New York City. A. True

B. False C. Can't tell

53. The most widely-known example of Dada art is a bathroom fixture. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

54. The Dada movement was an active force for about ten years. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

55. Neutral Switzerland embraced the anti-war Dada movement. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

56. Formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance do not apply to small, emergent economies in the same way they apply to established economies, because they are developing and are not in equilibrium. A. Formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance do not apply to small, emergent economies in the same way they apply to established economies, because they are developing and are not in equilibrium B. Because they are developing and are not in equilibrium, formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance do not apply to small, emergent economies in the same way they apply to established economies C. Because they are developing and are not in equilibrium, small, emergent economies are not subject to the same applicability of formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance as established economies D. Because small, emergent economies are developing and are not in equilibrium, formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance do not apply to them in the same way they apply to established economies E. Small, emergent economies are not subject to the applicability of formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance in the same way as established economies, because they are developing and are not in equilibrium

Truancy is a serious issue for school administrators, but they are facing an impossible challenge: they do not have the staff necessary to identify and discipline all of the students whose absences are unauthorized. Because the number of students who will be caught and punished is so minimal, the actions taken by school administrators will have only a limited effect on the number of students who continue to miss school without authorized permission. 57. The answer to which of the following questions would best help evaluate the accuracy of the conclusion above? A. Will new school attendance technology allow school administrators to more quickly and easily identify individuals whose absence is unauthorized? B. Will the threat of disciplinary action alter the behavior of truant students? C. Will school administrators dedicate the bulk of their resources to disciplining truant students? D. Is a small minority of students responsible for the majority of unauthorized absences? E. Do many truant students decide to be absent in groups?

The rise of industrial production of consumer goods in the mid-19th century led to a marketing phenomenon that changed the nature of not only product advertising in the United States but also the market itself. Advertising tactics became much more aggressive. The small advertisements that had been buried in newspapers gave way to bright, bold ads that were plastered on billboards. They contained slogans that people would remember and were intended to persuade rather than simply to inform, which was the aim of most previous advertising. This new mode of advertising even stimulated competition among companies that produced similar types of products, as it encouraged companies to create and promote products that were not merely useful but appealing and distinctive as well. The public was bombarded with a new array of product choices that promised to facilitate their work and simplify their lives. The new products of the Industrial Age, such as the automobile, the refrigerator, and the sewing machine, certainly did improve Americans' quality of life, but ironically their promotion may have contributed to one of the most severe periods of economic suffering in American history. The new culture of consumerism led many manufacturers to overestimate actual demand, and thus to overproduce. The resultant overabundance of supply and saturation of the market is often cited as one of the causes of the Great Depression. 58. It can be inferred from the passage that Industrial Age advertisers contributed to an economic decline by A. improving Americans' quality of life B. creating competition for brand recognition C. creating an inaccurate picture of market conditions D. deliberately misleading manufacturers about the longterm implications of advertising strategy

E. overestimating the usefulness of the products they promoted

59. The author most likely discusses how advertising led to competition among companies that produced similar products in order to A. allude to a danger in contemporary advertising campaigns B. give an example of the significant societal and market changes effected by advertising C. argue that increased economic competition led to the Great Depression D. reveal a consequence of overly-aggressive business practices E. suggest a valid reason to oppose aggressive advertising

60. According to the passage, the advertising industry contributed to the Great Depression by A. encouraging irresponsible consumer spending B. manifesting indifference toward actual consumer need C. misdirecting its resources D. creating an erroneous impression of consumer demand E. undermining the credibility of industry