Career Avenues

Classic MoCAT - 6

INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE TEST

About the test 1. The total time for the test is 120 minutes. 2. This test is divided into various parts totally comprising 134 questions. The marks for the questions are highlighted separately for each question/section. 3. You may work on any part of the test at any time during the test. 4. For each question, four suggested answers are given of which only one is correct. There are four circles against each question number in the answer sheet. Each circle is designated as 1, 2, 3, 4 corresponding to your answer choices. Mark your response to each question by darkening the circle completely. 5. The last part of this test booklet comprises a sample bubble sheet. It is suggested that you answer all questions by shading the relevant oval in the bubble sheet. 6. Confine all rough work to whatever blank space is available in this test booklet. No additional paper may be used. 7. Using a HB pencil only. Use of calculators, scales and other measuring instruments is not permitted. 8. You will be required to demonstrate adequate competence on each of the three parts. 9. Wrong answers carry negative marks. The negative marking scheme is 1/3 of the marks allotted to the question. Hence desist from guessing wildly.

Test Administration 10. Now log on to www.cavindia.com. Use your username and password to upload your responses. If you are not registered on cavindia.com, then do so by visiting www.cavindia.com/usersignup.aspx. 11. The deadline for submitting your responses is Friday, Sep 30, 2005 by 2.00 p.m. IST. 12. Career Avenues faculty will be available online on pagalguy.com on Sunday (25th) and Monday (26th) at 2.00 p.m. to answer early-bird queries on the test. Explanatory Answers and Answer Key will be provided on Friday at 2.00 p.m. and percentile calculator by 9.00 p.m. on Sep 30.

84 / 2, S.T. House, Richmond Road, Bangalore 56 00 25. Ph: 080 511 44 957 www.cavindia.com

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Section I Questions : 19
All questions are of 1 mark, unless otherwise stated Directions for questions 1 and 2 : Follow these directions for these questions. In a shop-floor, there are 4 storage points and 16 delivery points along 2 perpendicular tracks. A robot sits at O, the meeting point of the tracks, and only moves on the tracks. The four storage points (x, x, y, y) are at 4 ends, each of which is 50 m away from O. Between O and each storage point, there are 4 delivery points 10 m away from each other, as shown in the figure. The robot makes its trips according to the instructions given. Suppose it is to deliver to 3 different delivery points. It first chooses one delivery point, and travels to the storage point nearest to that delivery point. The robot travels at 1 m/sec, takes 2 seconds to collect from storage, and returns to deliver. It takes 2 seconds to deliver, and then if there are more deliveries it proceeds to the storage point nearest to the next delivery point. The robot comes back to the origin after completing the trip. It always takes the route that minimises the total time for the trip.

Marks : 25

y y y y y x x x x x O x x x x
4 3 2 1

x y y
1

y y
2

y y
3

y y
4

y
1.

What is the total trip time if delivery has to be made to x3, x '3 , y3, and y '3 ? 1] 312 seconds 2] 400 seconds 3] 412 seconds 4] 416 seconds What is the total trip time if delivery has to be made to x1, x2, x3, and x4? (2 marks) 1] 216 seconds 2] 236 seconds 3] 306 seconds 4] 316 seconds

2.

For questions 3 to 7, follow these directions. In badminton, which team serves first is decided by a toss of coin. In a game of badminton, there are two teams I and II with 2 players named A, B and C, D respectively in each team. In the game, one of the players serves, and a rally begins. If the serving team wins the rally, they get a point. (A rally is always won by one team and lost by another.) The same player keeps serving again and again as long as his team keeps winning rallies and earning points. If the team loses a rally, then the other player of the same team gets the chance to serve. He again continues to serve as long as his team wins rallies, otherwise the serving option moves to the other team and starts with one player of the other team gettig a chance to serve. The game continues in this way until one team gets 15 points and wins the match. Now answer these questions. 3. If A is serving while leading 7/0, (i.e. I has 7 points and II has 0), which of the following is definitely true? 1] A has served more number of times than B. 2] B has served more number of times than A. 3] A has served more number of times than C. 4] C has served equal number of times as D.

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4.

If C is serving while leading 4/3, what is the minimum possible number of times that C has served before ? 1] 0 2] 1 3] 2 4] 3 C is serving leading 4/3 and C has served twice before, what is the minimum number of serves done by team I ? 1] 4 2] 5 3] 6 4] 7 In the question above, what is the maximum number of serves done by team I ? 1] 9 2] 10 3] 11 4] Infinity Suppose team I serves first and wins 15/10, what is the number of serves it did if II has served 30 times ? 1] 35 2] 36 3] 37 4] 35 or 36

5.

6.

7.

For questions 8 and 9: There are 3 containers A, B, and C with capacities 5, 4, and 3 litres respectively. They contain 3, 3, and 2 litres of liquids respectively. Each container is connected to the two other containers as shown.
A

Note the following instructions. Drain X : All liquid in X goes to the next (clockwise) container, any overflow from this second container goes to the third, any further overflow comes back to X. Fill X : All liquid from the next (anti-clockwise) container comes to X, if there is any overflow, it goes to the one clockwise next to X, and any further overflow goes back to the original lending container. 8. Which two commands achieve exactly the same result ? 1] Fill (A), Drain (B) 2] Fill (B), Drain (A) 3] Fill (C), Drain (C) 4] None of these What will be the final result of the following set of instructions ? (2 marks) Fill (A) Fill (B) Fill (C) Drain (C) 1] 5 litres in A, 3 litres in B, and 0 litres in C. 2] 5 litres in A, 0 litres in B, and 3 litres in C. 3] 1 litre in A, 4 litres in B, and 3 litres in C. 4] 4 litres in A, 4 litres in B, and 0 litres in C.

9.

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DIRECTIONS for questions 10 to 12: These questions are based on the situation given below. In an examination P, Q, R, and S together solve 15 questions such that one of them attempts 2 questions, another 3 questions, the third 4 questions, and the fourth 6 questions. It is known that P attempts more questions than R and S attempts fewer questions than Q. 10. If P attempts twice the number of questions than R, then which of the following would be necessarily true ? 1] Q attempts even number of questions. 2] R attempts even number of questions. 3] R attempts odd number of questions. 4] S attempts odd number of questions. If Q attempts at least two more questions than S, then which of the following would be necessarily true ? 1] Difference between the no. of questions attempted by R and S is at most 2. 2] Difference between the no. of questions attempted by R and S is at most 1. 3] Difference between the no. of questions attempted by P and Q is always 2. 4] Difference between the no. of questions attempted by Q and R is at most 3. If R attempts fewer questions than Q, then which of the following would be necessarily true ? (2 marks) 1] Q and S together attempt at most 8 questions. 2] Q and S together attempt at least 6 questions. 3] P and S together attempt at least 9 questions. 4] P and R together attempt at least 9 questions.

11.

12.

DIRECTIONS for questions 13 and 14: These questions are based on the information below. ESPN cricket commentators Boycott, Sidhu, Sunny, Shastri, and Harsha along with two guest speakers Kapil and Srikanth have to sit in a row to get a photograph taken. Harsha and Shastri being the youngest among the group sit on either side. Since Kapil and Srikanth are guest speakers they sit together. But Kapil and Sunny do not get along with each other and should be seated with atleast 2 commentators between them. Sidhu being the victim of all their leg pulling is upset and sits with one of the young commentators. 13. Among the following, who could be seated at the centre ? 1] Sunny 2] Sidhu 3] Kapil Which of the following people may not be seated together ? 1] Sidhu-Sunny 2] Sunny-Srikanth 3] Srikanth-Boycott 4] Kapil-Shastri

4] Boycott

14.

DIRECTIONS for questions 15 to 17: These questions are based on the information below. Let n > 1 be an integer. There are n lamps L0, L1, .... Ln1 arranged in a circle. Each lamp is either ON or OFF. A sequence of steps S0, S1, .... Si is carried out. Step Sj affects the state of Lj only (leaving the state of all other lamps unaltered) as follows: 1] If Sj changes Lj from OFF to ON, it also changes Lj 1, (i.e. the lamp to the left of Lj) from ON to OFF or OFF to ON. 2] If Sj changes Lj from ON to OFF, then it leaves the state of Lj 1 unchanged. Initially all the lamps are ON. 15. If there are four bulbs, and a sequence of steps n is carried out, when will all the lamps be ON again ? 1] 15th step 2] 16th step 3] 17th step 4] 18th step If a sequences of steps n of the term 2k + 1 is carried out and all the lamps are ON again after the 1025th step, how many bulbs are arranged in a circle ? (2 marks) 1] 8 2] 9 3] 10 4] 11

16.

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17.

In the above question, all the bulbs are ON after 1025 steps. How many more steps have to be carried out so that all the bulbs are OFF ? (2 marks) 1] 10 2] 11 3] 7 4] 9

DIRECTIONS for questions 18 and 19: These questions are based on the information below. A programme is being used to calculate the difference between two variables a and b. The following programme is repeatedly executed. If bn > 0 and bn > an, then an+1 = bn and bn+1 = an else an+1 = an bn and bn+1 = bn. an and bn are value of variables a and b respectively at the nth stage. Recurrence occurs when the values of both a and b at that stage have occurred before in the series in that order. 18. If the variables a and b at stage 1 are given to be 128 and 52 respectively, at what stage will the programme start recurring ? (2 marks) 1] State 16 2] Stage 15 3] State 14 4] Stage 12 What is the value of a and b when the programme starts recurring ? 1] 4, 0 2] 4, 4 3] 0, 4

19.

4] 1, 0

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Section 2
Questions : 30
All questions are of 1 mark, unless otherwise stated 20. Let D be a recurring decimal of the form D = 0.abcbcbcbc where digits a, b, and c lie between 0 and 9 and are odd numbers. Then which of the following numbers necessarily produces an integer, when multiplied by D ? 1] 450 2] 495 3] 5000 4] 99 In the table below, which one of the following best describes the relationship between x, y, and z ? X Y Z 1] | x | + | y | = | z | -2 4 6 2] y x = z -1 -3 -2 3] | x | + y = z 1 1 2 4] | x | + y = | z |

Marks : 40

21.

22.

What is the sum of the following expression 1]

1 4

2]

11 45

1 1 1 1 + + + ... + ? 1.2.3 2.3.4 3.4.5 8.9.10 22 11 3] 4] 45 180

23.

A car can use two types of fuels A and B. Using A, it can travel 200 km on 10 litres in 5 hours. B gives an average of 2 km more per litre than A, but the speed becomes 25% less. A mix of the two fuels can be used, and the speed and mileage are proportional to the amounts of fuels used in the mix. If 1 litre of A costs Rs.20 and 1 litre of B costs Rs.25, what will be the minimum cost if the car has to cover 212 km with 10 litres of fuels in less than 6 hours 25 minutes ? 1] Rs.200 2] Rs.220 3] Rs.230 4] Rs.250 There are eleven integers in an A.P. whose average is A and the common difference is d. What is the average of the next eleven terms in the A.P. ? 1] A + 11d 2] A + 6d 3] A + 5d 4] A If x + y < 0 and x y > 0, what can you say about x and y ? 1] x < 0, y < 0 2] x > 0, y < 0 3] | y | > | x |

24.

25.

4] | x | > | y |

26.

There are 9 blank spaces (vertices and centre of a square) on which you have to place beads. If two beads of the same colour cannot be placed adjacent to each other along a straight line (i.e. along the same row and column), how many different colours do you require at least ? 1] 2 2] 3 3] 4 4]5 Let us define an integer x such that i) x is the sum of two or more different odd numbers; and ii) x < 100 How many different values does x take ? (2 marks) 1] 50 2] 95 3] 98

o o o

o o o o o o

27.

4] 100

28.

How many 4-digit numbers using 2, 3, 4, and 5 without repetition are divisible by 44 ? 1] 0 2] 1 3] 2 4] 4

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29.

Three dice are tossed on the table. What is the probability that the three turned up can form a scalene triangle ? (2 marks) 7 39 49 11 1] 2] 3] 4] 36 216 216 36 If f(x) = f(x 1) f(x 2) for x = 0, 1, 2, 3, ...; f(0) = 0 and f(1) = 1; then find f(37) ? (2 marks) 1] 1 2] 0 3] -1 4] 37 ABCD is a rectangle with AD = 1. DPF and CQF are two equal arcs drawn with A and B as centres respectively. E is the midpoint of BC. Another arc with E as centre touches the two arcs DPF and CQF at P and Q respectively. What is the shaded area ? (2 marks)
A F B

30.

31.

1 P Q

1] 2 (3 - 2 2 ) 3] 2 32.

2] 2 ( 3 - 2 ) 4] 2 (2 - 2 )

( 3 - 1)2

If {f(1), f(2), ...}, {g(1), g(2), ...}, and {h(1), h(2), ...} are 3 disjoint sets whose union is the set of all natural numbers. Also, f(1) < f(2) < ..., g(1) < g(2) < ... and h(1) < h(2) < ... Now, h(x) = f(x) + 1 and g(x) = f(x) 1. Find f(1). (2 marks) 1] 1 2] 2 3] 3 4] Indeterminate

33.

In ADE, AB = BC = CD, and BD = DE = BE. What is DAE ?

A

B C

1] 200

2] 300

3] 400

4] 600

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For questions 34 and 35, follow the directions. In the system of 12, the digits after 9 are and . Unless otherwise stated, a number is in the system of 12. 34. What is 19 + 2 1 ? 1] 48

2] 490

3] 37

4] 2

35.

0 is divisible by _____ . 1] 5 2]

3] 19

4]

36.

How many solutions does the following set of equations have ? |x| |y| = 1 and =1 | x + y | = x + y; | x y | = x y; x y 1] None 2] 1 3] 2

4] Infinite

37.

There are 4 cities A, B, C, and D at four corners of a square. Every city is connected to every other city by straight roads. The roads along the diagonals (AC and BD) meet at a fifth city E, located at the centre of the square, such that one has to pass through E when passing from A to C or B to D. In how many ways can one go from A to D without passing through more than two other cities ? 1] 2 2] 5 3] 4 4] 8 Perpendiculars are dropped from two opposite vertices of the rhombus to the opposite sides respectively. The feet of the perpendiculars, when joined, give a straight line 3 cm long and parallel to a side of the rhombus. What is the area of the rhombus ? 1] 3 cm2 2] 3 3 cm2 3]

38.

3 3 cm2 4

4]

3 3 cm2 2

39.

There are 5 boxes which are weighed taking 3 at a time. The weights are 96, 97, 99, 101, 101, 103, 104, 105, 106, and 108. What is the weight of the heaviest box ? (No 2 boxes have the same weight.) (2 marks) 1] 37 2] 39 3] 41 4] 35 or 36 There is an equilateral triangle of side 2 cm. Inscribed in it are 3 circles, equal in size, as large as possible. What is the area of one such circle ? (2 marks) 1] cm2 2] ( 3 + 1)2 cm2 9 3]
(1 -

40.

3 ) cm2 2

4]

3 cm2 2

41.

If a, b, and c are the sides of a triangle, and we have a3 + b3 + 8c3 = 6abc, then the triangle is _____ . (2 marks) 1] equilateral 2] isosceles, obtuse angled 3] acute angled 4] right angled There are 6 cities, of which each is connected to every other city. How many different routes can one trace from city A to city B, such that no city is touched more than once in any one route ? 1] 48 2] 60 3] 65 4] 72

42.

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43.

The figure shows a square ABCD and an octagon formed by lines joining the vertices of the square to the middle point of opposite sides. What is the area of the octagon to the area of the square ? (2 marks)
A B

1] 1/6 44.

2] 1/8

3] 1/4

4] 1/9

There are 4 letters addressed to 4 different persons with envelopes bearing the addresses of these persons. In how many ways can the letters be put in the envelopes such that no person gets the right letter ? (2 marks) 1] 9 2] 16 3] 8 4] 4 Let triangle ABC be inscribed in a circle with centre O and a circle with centre O be inscribed in triangle ABC. AO is drawn and extended to meet the larger circle at D. Then which of the following statements is true ? 1] CD = BD = OD 2] AO = CO = OD 3] CD = CO = BD 4] CD = OD = BD DIRECTIONS for questions 46 and 47: These questions are based on the information given below. Six quadrilaterals A, B, C, D, E, and F play a game of Who am I? Each of them have to make a statement about themselves or about their friends. This is how the game went. C says : My diagonals bisect at right angles. B says : The opposite angles of F are supplementary, just like As and Ds. A says : My diagonals are equal just like Ds but unlike Bs. F says : E has its opposite angles equal just like Cs but unlike Bs. The game ends.

45.

46.

About which quadrilateral/s no conclusion can be drawn ? 1] Cs and Fs 2] Only Bs 3] Bs and Fs What type of quadrilateral is F ? 1] Parallelogram 2] Rhombus

4] Only Fs

47.

3] Trapezium

4] None of these

DIRECTIONS for questions 48 and 49: These questions are based on the information below. A1, A2, A3, ..... A20 are the vertices of a 20-sided regular polygon 48. How many isosceles triangles may be formed with Ais as vertices ? 1] 180 2] 320 3] 500 How many non-isosceles, i.e. scalene triangles may be formed ? 1] 640 2] 960 3] 820

4] 450

49.

4] 690

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Section III
Questions 30 Marks: 30
All questions are of 1 mark, unless otherwise stated DIRECTIONS for questions 50 to 53: Each statement is followed by four assertions. Identify the one that follows logically from the given statements. 50. If Sachin scores a century, Saurav also scores a century. If Saurav scores a century, Rahul scores less than fifty. If Rahul scores more than fifty, Anil takes less than five wickets. (2 marks) 1] If Sachin scores a century, Anil takes five wickets or more. 2] If Rahul scores a century, Sachin does not score a century. 3] If Saurav scores a century, Sachin scores a century. 4] If Rahul scores a century, Anil takes more than five wickets. Azhar fixes a match only if Saurav does not play. If Saurav does not play, Azhar talks to Mukesh. Mukesh takes the briefcase from Manoj only if Saurav is not playing. 1] If Saurav is playing, a match cannot be fixed. 2] Azhar does not talk to Mukesh if Saurav plays. 3] If Mukesh does not take the briefcase from Manoj, Saurav is playing. 4] None of the above. Sita wishes to determine the largest, second largest and third largest of a given set of hundred different numbers by means of pair-wise comparison between the number. Which of the following statements is false? (2 marks) 1] She can determine the largest number without determining either the second or the third largest. 2] She can determine the largest number using at most 99 comparisons. 3] She can determine the second largest number without determining the largest. 4] She can determine the third largest number without determining the largest. Each member of a certain club either always tells the truth or always lies. The number of members is greater than three but less than fifty. All members are seated around a round table. Each member claims that the person on his right is a liar. The president of the club (who is also a member) claims that the number of members is prime. The member to the presidents left claims that the number of members is a multiple of three, while the member to the presidents right claims that the number of members is a multiple of seven. The number of members must be (2 marks) 1] 41 2] 42 3] Indeterminate. 4] 21 Direction for questions 54 to 61: Each item has a question followed by two statements. (Each questions is for 0.5 marks each). Mark 1 if the question can be answered with the help of statement A alone; Mark 2 if the question can be answered with the help of statement B alone; Mark 3 if the question can be answered with the help of both the statements, but not with the help of either statement itself; Mark 4 if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the given statements. 54. How long did the 5000 mile journey with 10 stopovers take Mr. X? A] The i th stopover lasted i2 minutes. B] The average speed between any two stopovers was 66 kmph. A man distributed 43 chocolates to his children. How many of his children are older than five years? A] a child older than five gets 5 chocolates. B] a child five years or younger gets 6 chocolates.

51.

52.

53.

55.

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56.

If R is an integer between 1 and 9, and P - R = 2370, what is the value of R? A] P is divisible by 4 B] P is divisible by 9 Is [(x-1 y-1) / (x-2 y-2)] > 1 ? A] x + y > 0. B] x and y are positive integers and each is greater than 2. x, y and z are three positive odd integers. Is x + z divisible by 4? A] y x = 2 B] z y = 2 Ramu went non-stop by car from Calcutta to Trivandrum via Madras. The average speed for the entire journey was 40 kmph. What was the average speed from Madras to Trivandrum? A] The distance from Madras to Trivandrum is 0.30 times the distance from Calcutta to Madras. B] The average speed from Madras to Trivandrum was twice that of the average speed from Calcutta to Madras. X is older than Y,Z is younger than W and V is as old as Y, Is Z younger than X? A] W may not be older than V. B] W is not older than V. The unit price of product P1 is non-increasing and that of product P2 is decreasing. Five years hence, which product will be costlier? A] Current unit price of P1 is twice that of P2. B] Five years ago, unit price of P2 was twice that of P1.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

DIRECTIONS : For Qs. 62-66, refer to the table below. Region-wise energy generation in 2003-04 as percentage of 2002-03
Region Northern Western Southern Eastern North-Eastern Thermal 106.7 113.3 120.0 95.7 90.6 Nuclear 109.3 101.6 --104.6 Hydro 96.3 100.0 104.7 131.4 109.2

% contribution of types of energy in 2002-03

Region Thermal 42 51 38 83 63 Nuclear 5 11 0 0 12 Hydro 53 38 62 17 25

Northern Western Southern Eastern North-Eastern

62.

Total energy generation in India in 2003-04 showed an increase over 2002-03 at the approximate rate of 1] 6% 2] 12% 3] 15% 4] Can't be determined In the year 2003-04, as compared to 2002-03 which region showed the least increase in the generation of nuclear energy ? 1] north 2] west 3] south 4] east If installed capacity of nuclear energy in North-Eastern (N-E) in 2002-03 was 32 MW and that of thermal energy 220 MW and the capacity utilisation of nuclear energy was 80% there in 2002-03, by how many percentage points did the capacity utilisation of thermal sector change in N-E assuming no additional thermal capacity was installed in N-E sector in that year ? 1] increase of 5% 2] decrease of 10% 3] decrease of 4% 4] decrease of 6%

63.

64.

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65.

If the total energy generation in 2002-03 in northern region was 348 million units (MU), and if the western region produced 30% more energy than northern region in 2003-04, the energy generated by western region in 2003-04 was approximately 1] 460 MU 2] 380 MU 3] 450 MU 4] 400 MU Which of the following statements are necessarily false ? 1] Nuclear energy generation showed an increasing trend in 2003-04 over 2002-03 in India. 2] Western region showed an improved performance in the energy generation in 2003-04 as compared to 2002-03. 3] No hydro generating units were commissioned in India in 2003-04. 4] none of these

66.

DIRECTIONS : Qs.67-71 are based on the following data. Abracadabra is a mysterious island and has only one giant clock which is different from the standard 12 hour clock. The circular clock is divided into 8 equal parts, numbered clockwise from 1 to 8. You are a prisoner of the island, and are playing a game. You are made to stand on the clock and scores are calculated based on your movement. Assume you are at 1 with a score of 1. You can only move 1 slot clockwise, 1 slot anticlockwise, or diagonally across. If you move a step clockwise, you add the number in the next slot to your current score to give you your new score. If you move a step anticlockwise, you add the number in that slot but subtract 2 from the total to get your new score. If you move to the number diagonally across, you add that number to your score but subtract 3 from the total to get your new score. You cannot move into a slot that has already been used. 67. Your maximum score after the second move can be 1] 12 2] 11 Your maximum score after the third move can be 1] 12 2] 16 Your minimum score after the third move can be 1] 4 2] 9

3] 10

4] 8

68.

3] 18

4] 15

69.

3] 6

4] 10

70.

Assuming you move a step clockwise in your first move, then the digit that you could not have reached in the first three moves is 1] 7 2] 4 3] 8 4] 5 If you have made three moves, you cannot get a score of 1] 12 2] 9 3] 7

71.

4] 10

DIRECTIONS : Qs72-75 are based on the table given below. Company 1999 Crude Production Crude Reserves A 815 2,746 B 949 3,179 C 1,804 7,467 D 761 3,155 E 833 2,687 F 1,412 7,035 G 520 1,735 H 1,851 9,496 Important Note: 1. All figures except crude reserves are given in 000 barrel/day. 2. Crude reserve are in million barrels. 3. Crude production takes place throughout the year. 72.

Oil Sales 1,222 2,436 4,625 2,595 2,187 2,663 500 4,940

Refining Capacity 1,072 2,231 3,989 2,111 1,479 1,848 515 4,220

What was the total crude production for the eight companies, in million barrels, in 1999 ? 1] 8,945 2] 6,945 3] 3,265 4] 4,200

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73.

What was the crude production as a percentage of the crude reserves in 1999 for C ? 1] 8.7% 2] 97% 3] 0.65% 4] 101% At current levels of production, how long will As crude reserves last ? 1] 0.8 years 2] 9 years 3] 99 years

74.

4] 112 years

75. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true ? I. Only three companies have a capacity utilisation of over 40% II. A has the highest ratio of crude production to refining capacity. III. No company has a capacity utilisation of over 100%. 1] I 2] II 3] III

4] none of these

DIRECTIONS : Qs76-79 are based on the table given below. Following table shows percentage increase in marks across 4 sections (VA, RC, PS and DI) across 4 tests (I, II, III and IV) of a student. Each section of all tests comprised 8 questions of 5 marks each. While a correct answer gave the student 5 marks, incorrect answers or not attempted questions carried no penalty. The table also gives the highest mark that the student has got across the four sections in the respective sections. Section VA RC PS DI 76. Change in III over I 20% 100% - 20% 25% Change in IV over II 50% 75% - 25% - 25% Highest score across 4 tests 30 35 25 25

Highest score possible in all 4 tests put together for VA section is 1] 105 2] 120 3] 115

4] Indeterminate

77.

If the score in RC is highest in test IV and scores across tests for RC are different, then what is the maximum possible average score in RC across the 4 tests ? 1] 25 2] 22.5 3] 20 4] None of these If scores in VA, RC, PS and DI in test I are 25, 15, 25 and 20 respectively and in test IV are 30, 35, 15 and 15 respectively, then in which test is the total score highest ? 1] I 2] II 3] IV 4] III If in a particular test its is known that the students has scored 80 marks, spread equally across all sections. Also we know that - across the four tests, the students has got different marks in RC - only in one test was the highest mark shared by 2 subjects Then the total marks for the 4 tests put together is ______. (2 marks) 1] 365 2] 265 3] 345 4] Indeterminate

78.

79.

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Section IV
Questions 55
Al questions in this section are for 1 mark each Directions : Answer the questions based on the content of the passage. PASSAGE What the world is dealing with, then, is not a problem of machines, but of the mind. And the mind has had a very odd relationship with the bomb from the moment it conceived it. Seeing what man had wrought, the people involved in the Manhattan Project almost immediately began to use language in order to deny what they saw, calling the Hiroshima bomb Little Boy, and sending a coded message to report the first successful test at Alamogordo that read, Babies satisfactorily born as if to urge innocence on evil. After Hiroshima, the historical fact could not be expunged; still one could avoid looking at the weapon directly. Only its inventors never seemed to shrink from their creation. The day of the Alamogordo explosion, J. Robert Oppenheimer stared out at the New Mexico flats and recalled a Hindu text: If the radiance of a Thousand suns were to burst At once in the sky That would be the splendour of The Mighty One I am become Death The shatterer of Worlds This refusal to face the bomb squarely might help explain why the attempts to control nuclear proliferation have been so ineffectual. On the one hand, the world has seen more than 30 major good faith efforts at containing proliferation a dogged series of pacts, treaties and conferences, extending from three months after Hiroshima through the establishment of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) in 1937, the Treaty on the Nonproliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT) in 1968, and the International Fuel Cycle Evaluation, the barely pronounceable INFCE, in 1977, that undertook the apparently futile task of dispersing the power without the danger. There now exist theoretically, treaties keeping the peace on every continent, including Antarctica, and on the moon and the ocean floor. Yet these measures have failed either because the pacts have not been signed by all the nuclear nations, or because their terms were weak or limited, or because scattered throughout the nonproliferation efforts are test explosions of atomic and hydrogen bombs that give the chronology the sound of an evil chorus. At present, ten nations definitely have the bomb, four probably have it and by the end of the 2010 the prize will be within reach of some 40 other countries, not including raving mad dog nations like the Red Brigades, which are panting to steal one readymade. For these gifts and expectations they may thank the current nuclear nations, some of which have been dispensing nuclear equipment as if there were no tomorrow. Essentially, the efforts at nonproliferation have failed simply because the desire to see them succeed has not been as strong as national self interest, or a sense of national sovereignty. But there seems to be a less prosaic impulse at work here as well. France, to its shame, has simply played Lady Bountiful with a profit motive. But Canada, which has refrained from building a bomb of its own, nevertheless gave India the wherewithal to do so. West Germany, the site of roaring antinuclear demonstrations, has been busy sending the power to Brazil. The U.S. finds customers for its technology practically everywhere. It is as if the world, for whatever reasons, has felt subconsciously obliged to give equal opportunity to life and death, to make room for the best and worst of chain reactions. At last Blakes fearful symmetry brought up to date. This is carelessness, but not literally. Rather it seems the action of people who while formally taking the bomb with deadly seriousness have, in fact, averted their gaze from it, convincing themselves that as a mere diplomatic instrument the thing is not quite real.

Marks: 55

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As a result the world seems to have created not only a series of political diversions but an entire culture of diversion as well, one based on the chimerical principle that if you refuse to look squarely at a monster, it will likewise refuse to look at you. From one viewpoint it may be argued that the world has done nothing but look squarely at monsters since 1945: the literature of violence and madness; the blaring assertions of Pop art and rock music; the brutal candour, and the explicitness of it all (explicit murder, explicit sex); the facing of the monster of oneself and even of science, as the world embraces the source of its discomfiture. Yet it also may be argued that these confrontations are insincere, that in their false decisiveness they represent an avoidance of the real terrors of the world. If so, it is hard to tell whether what is being avoided is the bomb specifically or some analogous destructive mass like modern bureaucracies or city life. Either way, the air is full of a fear too large to grasp. 80. One of the psychological reasons why people associated with the Manhattan Project used expressions like Little Boy to describe the atom bomb was because 1] their minds reacted in an odd manner 2] they wanted to guard the secret 3] the invention had terrific repurcussions 4] they wanted to deny the reality 81. From the passage we can infer that 1] Oppenheimer was in favour of the creation and use of the bomb. 2] Oppenheimer was hand-in-glove with the political bosses who took the decision to bomb Hiroshima. 3] scientists who created the bomb were not aware of its destructive power. 4] Even people behind the Manhattan project were aghast at the destruction caused by the bomb. The efforts at non proliferation have failed because i. the nations want to give one another, equal opportunity to life and death ii. the desire to see the efforts succeed is not as strong as the sense of national sovereignty iii. the nuclear nations are averse to making profits by selling the know how iv. nuclear nations have been careless with the technology 1] ii and iii 2] ii only 3] i, ii and iv 4] iii and iv According to the author, the culture of diversion is the result of the greed for profit diplomatic manipulations political diversions refusing to look squarely at the problem of the bomb

82.

83. 1] 2] 3] 4]

84. According to the author, the literature of violence and madness, the blaring assertion of pop music and the brash explicitness, in a sense, are insincere because, they represent 1] growing disbelief in science 2] attempts to avoid reality 3] culture based on chimerical principles 4] 1 and 2 85. What, according to the passage, are the real terrors of the world ? 1] nuclear weapons 2] nuclear proliferation 3] monsters and demons 4] violence, madness and explicit sex

Directions for questions 86 to 90: Each main sentence given below is followed by four others. Select from among the four choices the one which most logically complements the idea contained in the main sentence. 86. Understanding the way the brain works, the way it encodes, assimilates, stores and retrieves information will have enormous implication since 1] it will greatly enhance our ability to acquire and retain knowledge 2] it will be as historic an achievement as the discovery of language 3] scientists are discovering new ways to pick out and decipher individual brain waves. 4] the brain is by far the most efficient and compact information storage system ever known.

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87.

As industry emerges and the environmentally profligate ways of the developed nations persist, earths ambience will continue to decline because 1] the future of planet earth is doomed through mans abuse of valuable natural resources. 2] over the next few decades, we will have to confront the damage we have wrought over several centuries. 3] we must finally begin to restrain ourselves regarding the use of natural resources of else face the consequence of an uninhabited planet. 4] they have abetted in change of weather patterns, and left their marks across the entire planet. The urge to reach out and settle in new regions has persisted in every age of human history, and today we stand on the threshold of human habitation of space. It implies that 1] now the unexplored reaches of space lies open for pioneering settlements. 2] where people have been able to conceive of viable habitations, they have moved and often prospered. 3] Skylab and Salyut are precursors of true space stations to come. 4] some scientists have proposed the moon as a practical alternative to an orbiting space station. Black holes are among the most mysterious and most fascinating objects investigated by modern astrophysicists and. 1] illustrate the effects of Relativity Theory in the a simple way. 2] exemplify our ignorance of the universe. 3] defy access to scientists. 4] provide definite proof for the origin of the universe. Since agriculture cannot absorb any more people 1] rural population must be held constant. 2] over-flow from rural areas must go to the cities. 3] labour cost per unit of agricultural produce will go up. 4] new jobs in industry must be created for them. Directions : Answer the questions based on the content of the passage.

88.

89.

90.

PASSAGE The market is like a social tribunal which enforces a surplus, or the making of profit. The quantitative process, no longer guided by qualitative limits, is remarkably expansive; it soars beyond the scope of individual need and may even constitute a threat to communal life. The compulsion to produce a surplus, with its inbuilt dynamic of growth, is not consistent with the stagnation of traditional societies. Only late in history were profits first accumulated as the result of a general principle governing the social order. It happened when labour power was really subsumed under capital, so that commodities were not only traded on the market but also produced by capitalist methods. The market was an effective stimulus to economic growth. For the first time in history the mobilization of technical progress became the governing principle of society. This was evidently the result of competitively driven networks of research, development and implementation. The concentration of human ingenuity upon valorizable feats was doubtless mainly due to market-enforced competition. Furthermore, growth over time and expansion in space greatly enlarge the operational sphere of formal market rationality. European rationality strives towards world domination and supremacy over all expressions of human existence. It is not only white patches on the map of distant continents but also human lifeworlds that are gradually colonized. A market economy is thus a fantastic set of forms and methods of efficient socialization. The market is a social site where exchange partners meet to trade commodities, usually in return for money. Yet this simple relation assumes both that the partners are initially independent of one another, and that they have an interest in entering into an exchange relationship. They can be mutually independent only as individuals freed from traditional social ties; and they can develop economic interests only insofar as they have private property at their disposal. As to the products, they can be traded as commodities only if they are actually owned by the exchange partners. In order to complete the transaction, the individuals concerned must be not only independent but also free and endowed with equal rights. The exchange of equivalents, which

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involves more than relations of reciprocity, is possible only when the partners are both negatively and positively equal. In the world of exchange, they must abstract from other ties and qualifications and recognize each other as equals, even if in other respects they are extremely unequal. As free and equal individuals they must conclude a sales or purchase contract before ownership is transferred. And in so doing they become contractual partners. The right of private property is an excluding right one must be able to exclude others effectively from use and disposal of the asset. Thus private property necessarily implies non-ownership. Individual interests clearly also stand in the way of the exchange of equivalents, and so contractual relations must be regulated and compliance with them guaranteed. This can happen only by means of a political authority which attends to law and order by defending private property. But private property is a juridical illusion without economic meaning if private appropriation does not follow from it. In the simple exchange of commodities, appropriation consists in the gain of a use-value by the surrender of something that is not a use-value for its owner. However, the money which remains hidden as the universal equivalent in simple commodity exchange already takes care of the purely quantitative side of the private property, and that is synonymous with the valorization of capital. This principal is responsible for the growth, accumulation and expansion dynamics of market economies, and also of course for the occurrence of accumulation discontinuities or economic crises. 91. According to the author 1] Spread of formal rationality is enhanced through integration over time and space and not necessarily through the expansion of the market. 2] although market as a social site had proved to be an effective stimulus to economic growth it is not an efficient form of socialization. 3] the market requires to be always guided by individual needs. 4] trading of commodities and exchange of goods in the market usually take the form of monetary transaction. It follows from the paragraph that, 1] the right of private property necessarily implies exclusion. 2] private property remains a juridical reality even without private appropriation. 3] private property originates out of the logic of market transactions. 4] political authority by protecting private property only legitimizes an economic fact. From the passage if follows that, 1] production of surplus and accumulation of profit are the general features of all societies. 2] wherever commodities are traded, accumulation of profit becomes a general feature of that society. 3] it is not so much the mode of trade as the method of production which determines whether accumulation of profit will be the guiding principle of the social order. 4] it is both trade and method of production which determine what role accumulation of profit will play in a social order. It does not follow from the above paragraph, that any exchange relationship between partners necessarily implies, 1] ownership by the exchange partners of the commodities to be exchanged. 2] recognition of the mutuality of interests. 3] equal valency of the exchangeable commodities. 4] positive equality of the partners. Which of the following conclusions cannot be legitimately derived from the passage? 1] In a market commodities are exchanged to be appropriated. 2] Relentless mobilization of human ingenuity for productive purposes is market driven. 3] Exchange in a market implies surrender of commodities which have a use value for the owner. 4] In a market economy partners in an exchange need to be freed from traditional social ties.

92.

93.

94.

95.

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Directions for question 96 to 99: Each question is a logical sequence of statement with a missing link, the location of which is shown parenthetically. From the four choices available you are required to choose the one which best fits the sequence logically. 96. People arguing for a position have been known to cast the opposite position in an unnecessarily feeble light (......) People who indulge in this fallacy may be fearful or ignorant of a strong counter argument. Detecting this fallacy often depends on having already heard a better refutation, or having information with which to construct one. 1] Casting the opposite as weaker than it really is, is a very effective strategy. 2] This portrayal of a refutation as weaker than it really is, is a sure way of proving your point. 3] Casting the opposite as weaker than it really is, is not a very effective strategy. 4] This portrayal of refutation as weaker than it really is, is unwarranted. A deliberation is a form of discussion in which two people begin on different sides of an issue. (..... ) Then each decides, in the light of the other argument, whether to adopt the other position, to change his or her position somewhat, or to maintain the same position. Both sides realise that to modify ones position is not to lose the point but it is to get closer to the truth of the matter. 1] Each person argues his or her position most sincerely. 2] The pre-requisite for deliberation to be productive is that persons involved must keep on open mind. 3] The purpose is to resolve the issue to the satisfaction of both parties. 4] The trick is to state your view point from a position of strength. The question of what rights animals should enjoy is a vexatious one. Hundreds of millions of animals are put to death for human use each year Contrariwise, it can be argued that slowing down scientific research would retard discovery of antidotes to diseases such as cancer which kill humans and animals alike. (........ ) What if super intelligent beings from Alpha Centauri landed on earth and decided to use us for their experiments, arguing that they could save far more of their and our lives by so doing? 1] It will benefit both in the long run. 2] Is the argument truly fair to animals? 3] But the progress of human civilisation cannot be made contingent on some hypothetical rights of animals. 4] There is no question of equating human rights with those of animals. Many of us live one-eyed lives. We rely largely on the eyes of the mind to form our images of reality. It is a mechanical world based on fact and reason. (.........) So today more and more of us are opening the other eye, the eye of the heart, looking for realities to which the minds eye is blind. This is a world warmed and transformed by the power of love, a vision of community beyond the minds capacity to see. Either eye alone is not enough. We need Wholesight a vision of the world in which mind and heart unite. 1] It has lead to unprecedented scientific growth and material well-being. 2] In the nuclear age, our mind-made world has been found flawed and dangerous : even lethal. 3] The questions is irrelevant whether or not there is more to the world beyond what can be seen and reasoned. 4] We have built our lives based on it because it seemed predictable and safe. Directions : Answer the questions based on the content of the passage. PASSAGE The impact of the migration of Europeans to the Neo-Europes was not limited to those lands. Europes population, already soaring indeed, its growth was the push behind the European exodus-continued to grow as it was relieved of the weight of the departing millions; and these, once overseas, provided Europes industries with new markets, new sources of raw materials and new prosperity, helping to maintain its population increases.

97.

98.

99.

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Between 1840 and 1930, the population of Europe grew from 194 million to 463 million, double the rate of increase in the rest of the world. In the Neo-Europes, the numbers of people bounded upward at rates previously unknown, or at least unrecorded. Between 1750 and 1930, the total population for the NeoEuropes increased by almost fourteen times over, whereas that of the rest of the world increased by only two and one-half times. Because of the explosion in population in Europe and the Neo-Europes, the number of Caucasians increased over five times between 1750 and 1930, as compared with a 2.3 increase for Asians. Africans and Afro-Americans increased by less than two times, in spite of an enormous increase in blacks in the United States from 1 million in 1800 to 12 million in 1930. In the last seventy five years, the prior surge in the Caucasian division of humanity ahead of the others has been largely canceled by their tardy but immense increases, but that surge, remains one of the very greatest aberrations in the demographic history of the species. The 30 million square kilometers of land gained by the whites as both a cause and effect of their population surge remain in their control, a situation this minority considers permanent. In the nineteenth century, the Neo-European populations soared not only because of immigration but also because their resident populations were enjoying the highest rates of natural increase these countries would ever achieve. Death rates were hearteningly low, and food plentiful and good by Old World standard, and the Neo-Europeans were gratefully fruitful and they multiplied. In North America in the eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries, the fertility of the Neo-Europeans was among the highest ever recorded anywhere, as high as fifty to fifty-seven births per thousand inhabitants per year. In Australia in the 1860s, the birth rate was around forty per thousand, and in Argentina, where immigrants were beginning to pour onto the pampa for the time in large numbers, about forty-six per thousand. In Australia, 1860-2 the number of deaths per thousand was 18.6, births 42.6, for a natural increase of twenty-four humans per thousand per year, as compared with 13.8 in England and Wales, where the population was considered to be growing rapidly. The pakeha birth rate and natural-increase rate in New-Zealand were similarly high until well into the 1870s. These Neo-European populations had in these years what we would consider abnormally large numbers of young adults, which helps explain the high birth and low death rates, but not completely. They also had populations, with the exception of North America, in which men sharply outnumbered women, an imbalance that often increases the death rate and certainly lowers the birth rate. The superiority of human existence in the Neo-Europes- for the newcomers is the most important factor in their natural increase. If those rates had been maintained, the Neo-Europes could not have remained underpopulated for many generations. Darwin, a man with a better sense of humour than those who admire but do not read his works realize, calculated that if the population of the United States continued to expand at the velocity that had brought it to 30 million in 1860, then it wouldin 657 years cover the whole terraqueous globe so thickly, that four men would have to stand on each square yard of surface. The joke strikes us, a century later, as hollow, If the Neo-Europeans fill up their lands and eat all their own food, who shall feed the world? Fortunately, the nineteenth century rates of natural increase soon fell off as the immigrant population pyramid evolved toward a normal distribution of ages and the young adults grew old and started dying, and birth rates declined as rising standards of living and urbanization convinced Neo-Europeans that few children would die before growing up, and that large families were enemy and not the ally of prosperity. The death rates of the Neo-Europes are among the lowest in the world, but so are their birth rates. The NeoEuropean rates of natural increase are low, and a great deal of the food that the Neo-Europes produce in available for export. The Neo-Europes collectively and singly are important, more important than their sizes and populations and even wealth indicate. They are enormously productive agriculturally, and with the worlds population thrusting toward 5 billion and beyond, they are vital to the survival of many hundreds of millions. The reasons for this productivity include the undeniable virtuosity of their farmers and agricultural scientists and, in addition, several fortuitous circumstances that require explanation. The Neo-Europes all include large areas of very high photosynthetic potential, areas in which the amount of solar energy, the sunlight, available for the transformation of water and inorganic matter into food is very high. The quantity of light in the tropics is, of course, enormous, but less than one might think, because of the cloudiness and haziness of the wet tropics and the unvarying length of the day year-round. There are no long, long summer days in the tropics. These factors, added to such mattes as tropical pests, diseases, and the scarcity of fertile soil,

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render the torrid zone of lower agricultural potential than the temperate zones. Also, most of the plants best able to utilize the intense light of the tropics, plants like sugar cane and pineapple, contain very little protein, without which malnutrition is inevitable. As for the agricultural potential of the rest of the world, the polar areas are, for obvious reasons, useless, and the zone between 50 S latitude and the Antarctic Circle is almost entirely water. On the other hand, the zone between 50 N and the Arctic Circle includes more land than water, land with a high photosynthetic potential because of its very long and often bright summer days. Alaska and Finland can produce vegetables of huge size: strawberries as large as plums, for example. However, the growing season there is so short that many of the worlds important food plants do not have sufficient time to grow leaves large enough to utilize the abundant light efficiently. 100. According to the passage, the impact of the European exodus was to 1] arrest Europes population growth. 2] open up new markets for European industry. 3] ensure Caucasian supremacy. 4] create scarcity of land in Neo-Europe. According to the passage, 1] between 1840 and 1930, the population of Europe increased two and a half times. 2] between 1840 and 1930, the total population of the Neo-Europes increased two and a half times. 3] between 1840 and 1930, the population of Africans and Afro-Americans doubled. 4] none of the above is implied. According to the passage. 1] expansion in the Neo-European population in the nineteenth century was almost entirely the result of immigration. 2] by the middle of the nineteenth century, immigration to the new world had dropped significantly. 3] the fertility of the Neo-Europeans in America was exceptionally high during the eighteenth and the nineteenth centuries. 4] though the birth rate in Argentina was high in the 1860s, that in Australia was not much higher than in England and Wales. According to the passage. 1] Neo-European population explosion was curtailed in order to provide food to the rest of the world. 2] Neo-European population explosion was checked by urbanization and improvements in the standard of living. 3] high death rates eventually put a check on Caucasian rates of growth. 4] scarcity of food and natural resources put an end to explosive population growth in Neo-Europe. According to the passage, 1] the quantity of light is enormous in the tropic making the region most fertile. 2] tropical plants are rich in protein. 3] the Arctic zone does not have high photosynthetic potential. 4] the tropics have less agricultural potential than the temperate zones.

101.

102.

103.

104.

DIRECTIONS for questions 105 to 109: Each question given below has on opening statement and a closing statement. In between, there are four other sentences labelled A to D. You are required to choose the most coherent and logical sequencing of the four sentences. 105. 1. A. B. C. D. 6. The prospects for democracy in the Third World are again a subject of practical concern. They have generally failed to produce material prosperity or political stability. At worst their oppressiveness involved incarceration and brutality. Various forms of dictatorship have been tried. Their repressiveness has at best curtailed freedom of expression. But is awareness of the consequences of dictatorship enough to ensure the triumph of democracy? 1] ABCD 2] CADB 3] DBAC 4] CBDA

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106.

1. The basic economic resource is knowledge. A. The wealth creating activities will be the allocation to productive uses of neither capital nor labour. B. The representative social groups of the knowledge society will neither be the capitalist nor the worker. C. They will centre around productivity and innovation, both applications of knowledge to work. D. The ruling group will be the knowledge workers, knowledge executives, knowledge professionals and knowledge entrepreneurs. 6. Practically all of them will be employed, either originally, or eventually in knowledge organizations. 1] BACD 2] BDCA 3] ACBD 4] ACDB Science has sought to escape from the doctrine of perpetual flux by finding some permanent substratum amid changing phenomena. A. Accordingly it was supposed that atoms are indestructible, and that all change in the physical world consists merely in re-arrangement of persistent elements. B. It was found that fire, which appears to destroy, only transmutes. C. Elements are recombined, but each atom that existed before combustion still exists when the process is completed. D. Chemistry seemed to satisfy this desire. 6. The view prevailed until the discovery of radioactivity, when it was found that atom could disintegrate. 1] ACBD 2] CADB 3] DABC 4] DBCA A major change in the western worlds view of the time came with Einsteins theory of relativity. A. Time was linked to the nature of accelerated bodies. B. Einstein showed how time in one reference system, moving away from an observer at a constant velocity, appears to slow down from the point of view of that observer. C. Every reference body thus has its own time. D. Every body in the Universe generates a gravitational force and gravity is equivalent to acceleration. 6. Einstein replaced the simple Newtonian clock with as many clocks as we like; these clocks tell different times but they are all correct. 1] BADC 2] ACDB 3] DCBA 4] CBAD 1. To the good man, the veil of Maya has become transparent. A. He reaches this insight by love, which is always sympathy, and has to do with the pain of others. B. He sees that all things are one, and that the distinction between himself and another is only apparent. C. In the good man, knowledge of the whole quiets all volition. D. When the veil of Maya is lifted, a man takes on the suffering of the whole world. 6. His will turns away from life and denies his whole nature. 1] CABD 2] DBAC 3] BADC 4] ADBC Directions : Answer the questions based on the content of the passage. 1. 1.

107.

108.

109.

PASSAGE Two aspects of personhood have dominated the thinking of social philosophers over the centuries, each true in itself, but each quite incomplete without the other. One sees us capable of deliberation, having the potential capacity to do things. It details agency, choice, independence, and self-determination, and thereby that aspect of our selves which fashions projects and pursues goals. The other sees us as a seat of utility or satisfaction; as loci of possible states of mind, described by the extent to which desires are fulfilled, by the activities that are undertaken and the relationships that are enjoyed. If one vision sees us doing things, the other sees us residing in states of being. Where the former leads us to the language of freedom and rights, the latter directs one to a concern with welfare and happiness.

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There are related aspects, of course, in fact so closely related that they have often been conflated into one without it having any obvious damage. But they are not the same, and there is no guarantee that fusing them does not lead to errors in the choice of policy, especially public economic policy. For this reason much has been written in recent years on the dangers of regarding the two as essentially the same. In a great many instances, this conflation has been made possible by the practice of allowing each aspect in turn to usurp the other. Consider, for example, that ethical justifications of the Welfare State, at least those often provided by social philosophers, are undertaken in a language quite different from the one most common among economists debating public policy. The idea of socio-economic rights (that is, rights to certain scarce resources), liberally used by social philosophers, is rarely to be found in discourses on welfare economics, where instead the rationale for public choice is most often grounded on some aggregate measure of utility or, more generally, on some measure of aggregate welfare. Now, the languages may be different, but their recommendations are usually the same. Each type of justification is allied to a substantive theory of public policy, and it involves the establishment of resource allocation mechanisms in which citizens are assured of an access to primary health care, legal aid, potable water, sanitation facilities, shelter, primary and secondary education, and, more generally, income sufficient for essential food and clothing. Putting it in a more aggregative manner, and somewhat loosely and crudely, both sets of justifications inform the State to provide guarantees of a basic minimum living standard or, if this proves to be infeasible in the immediate future, to pursue policies that will make it feasible in a reasonably short time. 110. According to the passage, the two aspects of personhood are: 1] essentially the same. 2] distinct, with different implications for public policy. 3] distinct, with identical implications for public policy. 4] distinct, but policy implications are usually the same. According to the passage, the focus of Welfare Economics is on: 1] agency. 2] satisfaction. 3] rights to scarce resources. 4] doing things. According to the passage, health care should be: 1] provided by the State always. 2] ensured by the State whatever be its view on personhood. 3] ensured by the State if it believes in rights only. 4] provided by the State if it is solely concerned with welfare. According to the passage, the language of freedom and rights is associated with: 1] states of being 2] ability to make choices. 3] doing things that lead to greater satisfaction. 4] unrestricted-individual decisions. According to the passage, Public Policy is informed by: 1] contending theories with exactly similar recommendations. 2] one theory with alternative recommendations. 3] one theory with one set of recommendations. 4] contending theories with possibility of dissimilar recommendations.

111.

112.

113.

114.

Directions for questions 115 to 117: Given below are CAPITALIZED words and their meanings, followed by four possible illustrations of the meaning. Select the one which is not a suitable illustration. 115. VULNERABILITY A point where the system can be attacked and destroyed. 1] An army with exposed flanks. 2] A tortoise withdrawn from its shell. 3] A businessman in heavy debt. 4] A boxer with defences lowered.

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116.

TRADE OFF Balancing of opposing requirements in a given situation. 1] Exchanging prisoners for hostages. 2] A woman deciding to sacrifice professional life in favour of family. 3] The government determining the usage of funds for technology upgradation or increase in size of police force in city. 4] Allocating time for studies between two subjects. TRACER something put into a system to show up how the system is behaving 1] Migratory birds with identification tag. 2] Radioactive iodine given to a patient. 3] Police vehicle on patrol. 4] Gunner shooting glowing bullets in night warfare. Directions : Answer the questions based on the content of the passage.

117.

PASSAGE Life is strange. But from our standpoint it is not really so strange as those things which have no life and yet nevertheless move in their predestined orbits and act though they do not behave. At the very least one ought to say that if life is strange there is nothing about it more strange than the fact that it has its being in an universe so astonishingly shared one the one hand by things and on the other by creatures. That man himself is both a thing which obeys the laws of chemistry or physics and a creature who to some extent defies them. No other contrast, certainly not the contrast between the human being and the animal, or the animal and the plant, or even the spirit and the body, is so tremendous as the contrast between what lives and what does not. To think of the lifeless as merely inert to make the contrast merely in terms of a negative, is to miss the real strangeness. Not the shapeless stone which seems to be merely waiting to be acted upon but the snowflake is the true representative of the lifeless universe as opposed to ours. They represent plainly, as the stone does not, the fixed and perfect system of organization which includes the sun and its planets, includes therefore this earth itself, but against which life has set up its puny opposition. Order and obedience are the primary characteristics of that which is not alive. The snowflake obeys eternally its one and only law: Be thou six pointed; the planets their one and only: Travel thou in an ellipse. The astronomer can tell where the North Star will be ten thousand years hence; the botanist cannot tell where the dandelion will bloom tomorrow. Life is rebellious and anarchical, always testing the supposed immutability of the rules which the nonliving changelessly accepts. Because the snowflake goes on doing exactly as it was told, its story up to the end of time was finished when it first assumed the form which it has kept over since. But the story of every living being is still in the telling. It may hope and it may try. Moreover, thought it may succeed or fail, it will certainly change. No form of snowflake ever became extinct. Such, if you like, is its glory. But such also is the fact that makes it alien. It may melt but it cannot die. If I wanted to contemplate what to me is the deepest of all mysteries, I should take as my object lesson a snowflake under a lens and an amoeba under the microscope. To a detached observer the snowflake would certainly seem the higher of the two. Against its intricate glistening perfection one would have to place a shapeless, slightly turbid glob, perpetually oozing out in this direction or that but not suggesting so strongly as the snowflake does - intelligence and plan. Crystal and colloid, the chemist would call them. But what an inconceivable contrast those neutral terms imply! Like the star, the snowflake seems to declare the glory of God, while the promise of the amoeba, given only perhaps to itself, seems only contemptible. But its jelly holds, nevertheless, not only its promise but ours also, while the snowflake represents some achievement which we cannot possibly share. After the passage of billions of years, one can see and be aware of the other, but the relationship can never be reciprocal. Even after these billion of years no aggregate of colloids can be as beautiful as the crystal always was, but it can know, as the crystal cannot, what beauty is.

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118.

According to the passage, the lifeless universe: 1] is always changing. 2] is higher than life. 3] obeys immutable laws. 4] is created by life. According to the passage, life: 1] is full of promise 3] is ever-changing

119.

2] contests immutable laws. 4] is all of the above.

120.

According to the passage, the essential distinction between a colloid and a crystal lies in. 1] structure and shape. 2] glory of God. 3] order and chaos. 4] change and constancy. According to the passage, 1] beauty exists only in nonliving things. 2] living beings can appreciate beauty while things cannot. 3] beauty changes over time. 4] beauty is order and obedience. Which of the following cannot be concluded from the passage: 1] There is strange mystery in the perfection of nonliving things. 2] Life is disordered and ugly. 3] The structure of a crystal reflects the glory of God. 4] Nonliving things have no history in the sense living beings do.

121.

122.

DIRECTIONS for questions 123 to 128: Sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph, Each sentence is labelled with a letter: Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choice to construct a coherent paragraph. 123. A. B. C. D. 1] 124. Widely published tables of income levels of all countries, indicate that when incomes are higher, the greater is the contribution made by the manufacturing industry. Countries which have little or no industry are almost invariably poor. The lesson is clear : to overcome poverty and backwardness, a country must industrialise. Industrialisation is seen as the key to growth and a pre-requisite for development. CBAD 2] DCBA 3] DABC 4] CABD

A. A wife may not be sure that what her husband is saying means the end. B. She has found that peoples voices often get higher or shakier when they lie, and they are more likely to stumble over words. C. According to DePaulo, changes in voice can be significant. D. She should listen closely, not only to what he says, but also to how he says it 1] ADCB 2] ACDB 3] ADBC 4] ABCD A. He pulled popcorn dipped in ketchup out of her mouth with a pair of pliers. B. Soon Steven was making horror pictures, using his sisters as victims. C. A few years later Steven borrowed his dads eight-millimetre movie camera to film The Last Train Wreck, using his own electric train set. D. In one he played a dentist, with his sister Ann as the patient. 1] CBAD 2] DACB 3] DABC 4] CBDA A. In bulk processing, a set of standard prices typically emerges. B. Competing therefore means keeping products flowing, trying to improve quality, getting costs down. C. Let us look at the two cultures of competition. D. Production tends to be repetitive much the same from day to day or even from year to year. 1] CDBA 2] ABDC 3] CADB 4] DCBA

125.

126.

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127.

A. B. C. D. 1]

A moment later my prospective fiancee reappeared and showed a ticket to Jiuquan through the hatch. The queue gazed at me dumbstruck, then broke into a little ripple of applause. The station master and clerk retreated into the back room. I lifted it like a trophy. CABD 2] ACDB 3] ACBD 4] CADB

Directions : Answer the questions based on the content of the passage. PASSAGE Some arguments rely more on definition of terms than on evidence. When two people argue whether a person is handsome, they are not disagreeing about his hair, teeth, or clothes, but about the definition of handsomeness. If they agree on a definition, they will probably agree about the said person as well. Similarly, the question of whether capital punishment is wrong hinges not so much on the character of the act (the pain, the possibility of error, the protection afforded society) as on the definition of wrongness. Aesthetic and moral questions are often not susceptible to evidence because disputants cannot agree on the terms of argument. The meaning of any word is what people agree that is (e.g. a telephone is called a telephone because people regularly use that word to denote it), but in more abstract areas people do not agree. What is handsomeness? What is beauty? Theoreticians have sought objective standards, but the quest seems fruitless. Is a Greek temple more beautiful than a Gothic cathedral? Is Whistlers Mother handsomer than da Vincis Mona Lisa, than Andy Warhols Marilyn Monroe? Who can say? The decision rests on a subjective judgement, which does not lend itself to argument. Like beauty, the idea of goodness is not subject to easy definition. Seeking an objective basis for moral judgements, authorities have cited scriptural precedents; they have based systems on the inalienable rights of each human being; they have insisted that nature provides a moral example. But such definitions have won no universal acceptance. If two disputants agree that morality resides, say, in a natural law, they might then begin to argue about capital punishment. But in general usage, moral terms remain so ill defined that such issue sometimes cannot be argued meaningfully at all. Moral and aesthetic questions are removed further from argument by the fact that they often elicit emotional responses. For example, two individuals who agree in defining handsomeness may still disagree about a particular persons handsomeness because one objects to the persons history or his political opinions. It is, of course, unreasonable to let emotions color such a judgement, but the attitude is not uncommon. Regarding capital punishment, one might be completely persuaded that the practice is cruel and barbaric yet, at a given moment, argue that hanging is too good for a child murderer or a political assassin. Vagueness of definition preludes argument in other areas as well. Pontiac has been advertised as Americas No.1 Road Car, Kent as Americas largest-selling premium cigarette, and Shenley Reserve as the whiskey of elegance. Are these claims true? Until the key words are defined the statements are no more subject to evidence than is Icksnak brack a brack disnold fleb. It is only when terms are defined and mutually accepted that one can begin marshaling evidence to prove the truth of an assertion. One can, for example, argue whether player A or player B was the better football player, because their records, the merits of their supporting and opposing terms, and the qualities on a good running back are generally enough agreed on. Is it true that cigarette smoking causes lung cancer, that Spiro Agnew took bribes, that Volkswagen is an economical car to own? The questions can at least be argued. One must be careful, however, about using the word truth in any argument. In theory, a statement is true if it conforms to reality; in practice, it is called true if available evidence gives it a high degree of probability. With minor exceptions, one can never be sure that any conclusion is absolutely true. Except in statements that repeat themselves (Business is business or Either it is raining or it is not raining), or in

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statements which express ones own immediate feelings (I like pizza), there always exists an element of doubt. 128. According to the passage, an argument between two people over a persons handsomeness would be ineffective because 1] one of the two might be politically biased 2] they cant come to a consensus on each and every part of the persons anatomy. 3] the term handsomeness is subjective and therefore lacks a clear definition 4] one of the two might not like the persons origins The author cites the quotation Icksnak brack disnold fleb mainly 1] to indicate the fact that commercial advertisement is a hoax 2] to illustrate the point that the truth of a statement cannot be ascertained till its key terms are clearly defined. 3] to show how truth can be defined. 4] to prove that truth of a statement can be deliberately confused According to the passage, a statement is arguable when I. it does not repeat itself II. all key terms are defined III. opposing groups agree to these definitions before beginning a debate 1] I and II 2] II only 3] II and III 4] I, II and III Which of the following statements is not true? 1] No moral statement can ever be argued rationally because there is no evidence about them. 2] A discussion of an aesthetic question can evoke emotional responses 3] Nature does seem to provide moral examples 4] There seems to be no objective standards of beauty. The words such as telephone are clear because 1] the word reflects the concrete qualities of the instrument 2] the word does not evoke moral or aesthetic questions 3] people have named the instrument so and recognise it as telephone 4] the concept of what constitutes a telephone is arguable. The statement such as cigarette smoking cause cancer are arguable because 1] there is some concrete evidence about the relationship between cigarette smoking and cancer 2] the statement does not belong to the realm of morality or aesthetics 3] it does not elicit emotional responses 4] it is a scientific truth According to the passage, which of the following statements is not true? 1] It is difficult to argue about moral values mainly because most people tend to let their emotions influence their judgments. 2] An element of doubt is bound to exist in any logical statement. 3] As the quest for an objective basis for beauty, goodness etc. seemed fruitless, authorities decided to cite spiritual precedents as a last resort. 4] A person can gather evidence for a certain statement only when all its terms are defined.

129.

130.

131.

132.

133.

134.

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SAMPLE OMR SHEET

NAME DIRECTIONS : 1 2 3

DATE Mark your answer by darkening the appropriate circle with an HB Pencil. Erase clearly any answer you want to change. Make no stray mark anywhere on the score sheet.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25

1 2 3 4 OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

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1 2 3 4 OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

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1 2 3 4 OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

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1 2 3 4 OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

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1 2 3 4 OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO

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1 2 3 4 OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO OOOO