Assessment Questions 1. Where would a router boot from if a configuration register was set to 0x0101? A. Flash B. ROM C.

Boot ROM D. NVRAM 2. Which of the following is a valid SAP filter 1010 placed on Ethernet 0? A. ip access-group 1010 in B. ip access-group 1010 out C. ipx access-group 1010 in D. ipx input-sap-filter 1010 E. ipx input-sap-filter 1010 in 3. What is a TE2 device used for in an ISDN connection? A. Connecting an NT2 device to a U reference point B. Connecting an S/T interface to a U reference point C. Connecting a non-ISDN terminal to ISDN through a TA D. Connecting to ISDN through a four-wire, twisted-pair digital link 4. What is the correct command to set the router identification to the name Atlanta, which an administrator would see when connecting with Telnet or through the console? A. Description Atlanta Router B. Banner Motd $ C. Hostname Atlanta D. Host name Atlanta E. Set prompt Atlanta 5. PDUs at the Data Link layer are named what? A. Frames B. Packets C. Datagrams D. Transports E. Segments F. Bits 6.Which of the following is the valid host range for the IP address 192.168.168.188 255.255.255.192? A. 192.168.168.129190 B. 192.168.168.129191 C. 192.168.168.128190 D. 192.168.168.128192 7. What are the access list numbers used for IP standard access lists? A. 110 B. 199 C. 100199 D. 10001999 8.If you type show interface serial 0and receive the following response, what could the problem be? RouterA# shint s0 Serial0 is up, line protocol is down A. The keepalives could be set wrong between the point-to-point links. B. No cable is attached to the interface. C. The administrator needs to issue a no shutdown request to the interface. D. The interface is defective. 9. Which of the following commands will show you the IPX address of an interface? (Choose all that apply.) A. show ipx address int e0 B. show protocol C. show ipx protocol D. show ipx interface 10. How do you create a default route? A. By using all 1s in place of the network and mask B. By defining a static route and using all 0s in place of the network and mask C. By using 255 in place of the network and mask D. Login <name, password> 11.What is a trunked link?

A. A link that is only part of one VLAN and is referred to as the native VLAN of the port B. A link that can carry multiple VLANs C. A switch port connected to the Internet D. Data and voice capability on the same interface 12. Which protocol is used to look up an IP address from a known Ethernet address? A. IP B. ARP C. RARP D. TCP 13. What is the broadcast address of the subnet address 192.168.99.20 255.255.255.252? A. 192.168.99.127 B. 192.168.99.63 C. 192.168.99.23 D. 192.168.99.31 14. What is the valid host range that the host ID 192.168.10.33 255.255.255.224 is a part of? A. 192.168.10.3263 B. 192.168.10.3363 C. 192.168.10.3362 D. 192.168.10.3361 15. What does a switch do with a multicast frame received on an interface? A. Forwards the switch to the first available link B. Drops the frame C. Floods the network with the frame looking for the device D. Sends back a message to the originating station asking for a name resolution 16. Which command would you use to see the IPX RIP packets being sent and received on an interface? A. show ip rip B. shipxint C. debugipx routing activity D. debug ipx interface 17. What is the subnet address of the IP address 192.168.100.30 255.255.255.248? A. 192.168.100.32 B. 192.168.100.24 C. 192.168.100.0 D. 192.168.100.16 18. What is an access link? A. A link that is only part of one VLAN and is referred to as the native VLAN of the port B. A link that can carry multiple VLANs C. A switch port connected to the Internet D. Data and voice capability on the same interface 19. Which of the following is true? (Choose all that apply.) A. PPP can be used with Token Ring. B. PPP can be used with synchronous serial links. C. PPP can be used with asynchronous serial links. D. PPP is proprietary to each vendors equipment. 20. What command can you use to back up the Cisco router configuration to a TFTP host? A. copy run tftp B. copy flash tftp C. copy nvramstartup D. copy tftp flash 21. Which of the following are provided by the show cdp entry * command? (Choose all that apply.) A. IP address of the neighbour router B. Protocol information C. Platform D. Capability E. Time F. Port ID G. Holdtime H. The same information as show version I. Neighbor device ID J. Local interface

K. Speed of the link 22. Which of the following would you not implement at the distribution layer? A. Access lists B. Packet filtering C. Queuing D. Breakup of collisions domains E. Address translation F. Firewalls G. Creating of broadcast domains 23. Which LAN switch methods have a fixed latency time? (Choose all that apply.) A. Cut-through B. Store and forward C. FragmentCheck D. FragmentFree 24. If you were designing a network and needed to break up collision domains, at which Cisco layer would you provide this function? A. Physical B. Access C. Core D. Network E. Distribution F. Data Link 25. If you wanted to find out all the commands that start with cl from a certain prompt, what would you type at that particular prompt? A. Show commands cl B. Cl ? C. Cl? D. Cl ?more 26. What does a VLAN do? A. Breaks up collision domains B. Breaks up routing domains C. Breaks up broadcast domains D. Provides fragmentation segmentation 27. Which of the following will you find in a routing table? (Choose all that apply.) A. Network address B. Routing metric C. Exit interface for packets D. Entering interface 28. Which command can you use to see which devices have telnetted into your router? A. show vty line B. show vers C. show users D. show connections 29. What does an administrative distance of 0 mean? A. 0 is the default administrative distance for dynamic routing. B. 0 is the default administrative distance for directly connected routes. C. There is no routing allowed on this router. D. There are 0 hops to the next destination. 30. Which of the following is a valid IP extended access list? A. access-list 110 permit ip any host 1.1.1.1 eq ftp B. access-list 10 permittcpip any anyeq 21 C. access-list 99 permitudp any host 2.2.2.2 eqip D. access-list 199 permittcp any 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 eq 21 31. What is true regarding the blocking state of an STP switch port? (Choose all that apply.) A. Blocking ports do not forward any frames. B. Blocking ports listen for BPDUs. C. Blocking ports forward all frames. D. Blocking ports do not listen for BPDUs. 32. What is the default LAN switch type for the 1900 switch? A. FastForward

B. Cut-through C. LAN switch type 1 D. FragmentFree E. Store and forward 33. Which of the following is true about the enable passwords? (Choose all that apply.) A. The enable password is encrypted by default. B. The enable secret is encrypted by default. C. The enable-encrypted password should be set first. D. The enable password supersedes the enable secret. E. The enable secret password supersedes the enable password. F. The enable-encrypted password supersedes all other passwords. 34. What is the default administrative distance of RIP? A. 1 B. 100 C. 120 D. 150 35. If you are typing commands and receive the following message, what is wrong and how do you fix it? (Choose all that apply.) Router#clock set 10:30:10 % Incomplete command. A. The IOS doesnt support a clock on this router. B. The command string is not done. C. Press the up arrow key and type a question mark. D. Press the down arrow key and the Tab key. E. Erase what you typed and reboot the router. 36. In the following command, what does the 175 mean? Ip route 150.150.0.0 255.255.0.0 150.150.150.150 175 A. It defines the next hop. B. It defines the administrative distance. C. It means that the update is broadcast. D. Nothing, it is an invalid command. 37. What does a router do with a received packet that is destined for an unknown network? A. Forwards the packet B. Drops the packet C. Holds the packet till the next route update D. Sends a broadcast for the unknown network 38. Which part is the network and which part is the node of the address7c8.0001.00c8.1234? A. network: 7c8.0001, node: 00c8.1234 B. network: 7c8, node: 0001.00c8.1234 C. network: 0001.00c8.1234, node: 7c8 D. network: 7c8.0001.00c8, node: 1234 39. What are the two types of PDUs used at the Network layer? A. Data B. Route C. Static D. Dynamic E. Core F. Segments 40. What type of Cisco encapsulation is used for frame tagging across trunked links? A. Virtual Trunk Protocol (VTP) B. 802.1q C. ISL D. VLANs 41. What does IPX RIP use to find the best path to a remote network? (Choose all that apply.) A. Bandwidth of a link B. Hop count C. Reliability of a link D. Amount of delay, counted in 1/18 of a second 42. What are the access list numbers for extended access lists? A. 110 B. 199

C. 100199 D. 10001999 43. What does the following command mean? Access-list 110 permitip any 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 A. It is a standard IP access list that permits network 0.0.0.0 only. B. It is an extended IP access list that permits network 0.0.0.0 only. C. It is an extended list that permits any host or network. D. It is invalid. 44. What is a static VLAN? A. A VLAN that cannot be renamed or removed B. A VLAN created by the administrator C. Ports on the switch assigned to a VLAN by an administrator D. Ports on the switch assigned to a VLAN by a VTP server 45. Which of the following is true regarding the isdn switch-type command? A. It can be configured only in global configuration mode. B. It can be configured only from interface configuration. C. It can be configured from either global or interface configuration mode. D. It can be used only when you have a TA. 46. If your Frame Relay network is congested, what mechanism is used to tell the source device to slow down? A. HDLC B. DLCI C. FECN D. BECN 47. Which of the following is a method used by Frame Relay for addressing PVCs to IP addresses? A. ARP B. LMI C. SLARP D. DLCI 48. What are the two ways to add multiple encapsulations on an Ethernet IPX LAN? A. Multiple frame types B. Secondaries C. Subinterfaces D. Virtual secondaries 49. What is the typical time a switch port will go from blocking to forwarding state? A. 5 seconds B. 50 seconds C. 10 seconds D. 100 seconds 50. How do you telnet from a 1900 switch CLI? A. telnet Atlanta. B. telnet 172.16.10.1. C. ping 172.16.10.1. D. You cannot do this on a 1900 CLI. 51. What command will delete the automatically entered MAC addresses in the MAC filter table? A. (config)#delete nvram B. #deletenvram C. (config)#clear mac-address-table dynamic D. #clear mac-address-table dynamic 52. If you want to completely clear all configurations on a 1900 switch, what commands must you type in? (Choose all that apply.) A. Clear config B. Delete nvram C. Delete vtp D. Delete start E. Erase startup-config F. Just reboot the switch. 53. If you wanted to view the trunk status on port 27 of a 1900 switch, which command would you use? A. Show port 27 B. Show trunk C. Show trunk B D. Show trunk f0/27

E. Show trunk e0/27 54. What would you type at a 1900 console prompt to see the transmitand receive statistics of VTP? A. Show vtp stat B. Show stat C. Shvtp domain D. Shint e0/9 Answers to the Assessment Questions 1. B. The configuration register is used to tell the router how to load the IOS and configuration. The value 0x0101 tells the router to boot from ROM. 2. D. To place a SAP filter on an interface, use the command ipxinputsap- filter 1010 or ipx output-sap-filter 1010. 3. D. This is a hard question. The TE2 is a device that does not understand ISDN standards and uses a four-wire connection. The TE2 must connect into a terminal adapter (TA) and then into an NT1 device to be converted to a two-wire network. 4. C. The command hostname (one word) is used to set the name of the router. 5. A. Protocol Data Units are used to describe the function of the headers used at each layer of the OSI model. At the Data Link layer, framing is used to encapsulate the data packet with control information for transmission on a local network. 6. A. Start by using 256, the subnet mask, which is 256192=64. The first subnet is 64. The next subnet would be 128. This host is in the 128 subnet, the broadcast address is 191, and the valid host range is 129 through 190. 7. B. Standard IP access lists use the numbers 199. 8. A. If you see the line is up, but the protocol is down, you are having a clocking (keepalive) or framing issue. Check the keepalives on both ends to make sure they match; the clock rate is set, if needed; and the encapsulation type is the same on both ends 9. B, D. The commands show protocol and show ipx interface will show you the IPX addresses of an interface. 10. B. Default routes are created by using all 0s in place of the network and mask IDs. 11. B. Trunked links carry multiple VLANs across the same link. 12. C. The protocol at the Network layer that finds an IP address from a known Ethernet address is Reverse ARP (RARP). 13. C. Start by using 256, the subnet mask, which is 25625=4. The first subnet is 4. The next subnet would be 8, then 12, 16, 20, and 24. The broadcast address is 23, and the valid host range is 21 and 22. 14. C. Start by using 256, the subnet mask, which is 256224=32. The first subnet is 10.32. The next subnet would be 10.64. This host is in the 10.32 subnet, the broadcast address is 10.63, and the valid host range is 10.33 through 10.62. 15. C. The switch will flood the network with the frame looking for the device 16. B. The command show ipx interface will show you the IPX RIP and SAP information being sent and received on an individual interface. 17. B. Start by using 256, the subnet mask, which is 256248=8. The first subnet is 8. The next subnet would be 16, then 24, and then 32. This host is in the 24 subnet, the broadcast address is 31, and the valid host range is 25 through 31. 18. A. Access links connect hosts to a switch and are part of only one VLAN. 19. B, C. PPP is used to connect point-to-point links together and uses the ISOs non-proprietary version of HDLC. It can be used on either synchronous or asynchronous links. 20. A. The command copy running-configtftp (copy run tftpfor short) will copy the routers configuration to a TFTP host for backup purposes. 21. A, B, C, D, F, G, H, I, J. The show cdp entry * command is used to gather detailed information about neighbour devices 22. D. Cisco recommends that you break up collision domains with layer- 2 switches at the access layer, not the distribution layer. 23. A, D. Cut-through and FragmentFree always read only a fixed amount of a frame. 24. B. Cisco recommends that you use layer-2 switches, which break up collision domains, at the access layer. 25. C. You can use a letter, or combination of letters, followed by a question mark without a space to get all the commands starting with those letters from that prompt. 26. C. VLANs break up broadcast domains in switched networks. 27. A, B, C. Routing tables in a router keep track of where networks in a network are located, not hosts. They also keep track of the distance or cost to that remote network and which interface to exit to get to that remote network. 28. C. The show users command will show you the virtual connections into your router. 29. B. Directly connected networks have the highest administrative distance, or trustworthiness rating, of zero.

30. D. Extended access lists use the numbers 100199. This eliminates answers B and C. To filter on an upper layer protocol, you must use UDP or TCP in the protocol field. This eliminates answer A. 31. A, B. When a port is in blocking state, no frames are forwarded. This is used to stop network loops. However, the blocked port will listen for BPDUs received on the port. 32. D. The 1900 defaults to FragmentFreebut can be changed to store and forward. 33. B, E. There is no enable-encrypted password. The enable secret is encrypted by default and supersedes the enable password. 34. C. RIP has an administrative distance of 120 by default. 35. B, C. If you receive an incomplete command, then you know that the command string is not done. Just press the up arrow key to receive the last command entered, and continue with the command by using your question mark. 36. B. By default, static routes have an ad ministrative distance of 1. The 175 represents an optional command that changes the default administrative distance. 37. B. If a packet is received that is looking for a destination network that is not in the routing table, the router will drop the packet. 38. B. The IPX address is 10 bytes (80 bits). The first four bytes are thenetwork number, and the last six bytes are the node address. 39. A, B. The Network layer uses two different types of packets (called PDUs). The data packets route user data with routed protocols, and the route packets keep and maintain routing tables on routers within the internetwork with routing protocols. Examples of routed protocols are IP and IPX; examples of routing protocols are RIP, IGRP, and OSPF. 40. C. Cisco has a proprietary frame tagging method called Inter-Switch Link (ISL), which keeps track of frames across a trunked link. 41. B, D. IPX RIP uses ticks (1/18 of a second) and then hop counts to determine the best way to an internetwork. 42. C. Extended IP access lists use the numbers 100199. 43. C. The command access-list 110 permit ip any any (0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 is the same as the any command) is a wildcardallowing any host or network. 44. C. Static VLANs are VLANs assigned to switch ports by an administrator. 45. C. You can configure the switch type globally and set the switch type for all BRI interfaces, or you can set it at interface level if each BRI is connected to a different type of switch. 46. D. Backward-Explicit Congestion Notification (BECN) is used to send information back to an originating router telling it to slow down its transfer rate because the switch is congested 47. D. Data Link Connection Identifiers (DLCIs) are used to identify a PVC through a Frame Relay switch. 48. B, C. You can add multiple encapsulations on an interface either byusing the secondary command or by creating a subinterface. 49. B. 50 seconds is the default time for changing from blocking to forwarding state. This is to allow enough time for all switches to update their STP database. 50. D. You can telnet to a 1900, but not from a 1900 switch CLI. 51. D. To delete the dynamic entries in a MAC address table, use the command clear mac-address-table dynamic from privileged mode. 52. B, C. By typing delete nvram, you delete the startup-config. However, this does not delete the VTP configuration on the switch. You must also type delete vtp. 53. C. The ports 26 and 27 are considered A and B when viewing trunk information. See Appendix B for more on the 1900 switch commands. 54. A. The command show vtp statistics will give you the receive and transmit statistics of VTP on a switch.