Exam Title

: Juniper JN0-130 : Juniper Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist.e(JNCIS-E)

Version : R6.1

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 1. Why would you make a non-backbone area a stub or not-so-stubby area? A. to aggregate routes learned from the ABR B. to lower the cost of routes advertised by the ABR

C. to connect a non-contiguous area to the backbone D. to decrease the size of the link-state database in that area Answer: D 2. What two BGP attributes are incorporated for loop prevention within an AS using a route reflection configuration? (Choose two.) A. AS Path B. Next Hop C. Cluster List D. Originator ID E. Reflector List Answer: CD 3. In a Bridged 1483 network, which CLI commands are used to baseline an IP interface on ATM 6/1.1 and display recent IP transmit and receive statistics? A. clear ip interface atm 6/1.1 show ip interface atm 6/1.1 B. baseline atm interface atm 6/1.1 show ip interface atm 6/1.1 C. clear ip interface atm 6/1.1 show ip interface atm 6/1.1 delta D. baseline atm interface atm 6/1.1 show ip interface atm 6/1.1 delta Answer: C 4. Your ERX Edge Router is constantly going to a boot## prompt. What is the most likely cause for this condition? A. bad SRP B. low voltage C. bad mid-plane

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 D. corrupted flash E. bad line module Answer: D 5. Which configuration command is used to make the ERX Edge Router an NTP server? A. set ntp-server B. set ntp server C. ntp-server enable D. ntp server enable Answer: D 6. Log messages are appearing very quickly on the console of your ERX Edge Router. Which Privileged Exec command disables real-time console logging? A. no log here B. no log console C. destination console severity 7 D. destination console logging off Answer: A 7. Which configuration command removes all log filters currently configured on the ERX Edge Router? A. no log here B. no log fields C. no log filters D. no log severity Answer: C 8. Which command is used to execute a macro called setup.mac A. macro setup B. macro setup.mac C. run macro setup D. run macro setup.mac Answer: B 9. Which CLI command is used to set a Privileged Exec password of mypassword? A. enable password 0 mypassword

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 B. enable password 3 mypassword C. enable password 5 mypassword D. enable password 10 mypassword Answer: A 10. Which command displays the results of a loopback test you executed on a CT3 line module in slot 5, port 0, t1 number 4? A. show interface 5/0:4 B. show interface 5/0:4/1 C. show controllers t3 5/0:4 D. show controllers t3 5/0:4/1 Answer: C 11. Which command generates a BERT test pattern of alternating ones and zeros on T1 number 1 for one minute? A. t1 1 bert pattern alt01 interval 1 B. t1 1 bert pattern alt01 interval 60 C. t1 1 bert pattern alt-0-1 interval 1 D. t1 1 bert pattern alt-0-1 interval 60 Answer: C 12. A customer's application requires 30 virtual paths on a four port OC3 card. Which command allows this functionality? A. atm vp 30 B. atm vc-per-vp 30 C. atm vc-per-vp 32768 D. atm vp-per-vc 32768 Answer: C 13. Which CLI command displays FECN and BECN information on a Frame Relay interface configured on serial interface 4/0:3/1 A. show frame-relay pvc B. show frame-relay summary C. show frame-relay subinterface

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 D. show frame-relay interface serial 4/0:3/1 Answer: A 14. You would like to configure an Ethernet interface with the following characteristics: Fast Ethernet port 3/1 10.10.10.1/24 VLAN 100 Which set of configuration commands accurately completes this task? A. interface fastEthernet 3/1 vlan id 100 encap vlan ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 B. interface fastEthernet 3/1 ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 encap vlan vlan id 100 C. interface fastEthernet 3/1 encap vlan interface fast 3/1.1 vlan id 100 ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 D. interface fastEthernet 3/1 interface fast 3/1.1 encap vlan vlan id 100 ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 Answer: C 15. You would like to configure a channelized OC3 interface with the following properties: Slot 4 Port 0 Path Channel 3

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 Virtual Tributary Group 4 Virtual Tributary 1 Timeslots 1-12 Which set of configuration commands accomplishes this goal? A. controller sonet 4/0 path 1 oc1 3 path 1 ds1 1/4/1 vt15 path 1 ds1 1/4/1 channel-group 1 timeslot 1-12 B. controller sonet 4/0 path 3 oc1 1 path 3 ds1 1/4/1 vt15 path 3 ds1 1/4/1 channel-group 1 timeslot 1-12 C. controller sonet 4/0 path 1 oc3 3 path 1 ds1 1/4/1 vt15 path 1 ds1 1/4/1 channel-group 1 timeslot 1-12 D. controller sonet 4/0 path 3 oc3 1 path 3 ds1 1/4/1 vt15 path 3 ds1 1/4/1 channel-group 1 timeslot 1-12 Answer: A 16. What are three characteristics of RIPv2? (Choose three.) A. supports VLSM B. supports Kerberos authentication C. is backward compatible with RIPv1 D. multicasts messages to RIP neighbors E. uses Hello Protocol for neighbor discovery Answer: ACD 17. A RIPv1 Response message includes which of the following fields? A. gateway address

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 B. next hop address C. neighbor address D. destination address Answer: D 18. Which two authentication protocols can be configured for RIP on an ERX Edge Router? (Choose two.) A. PAP B. MD5 C. CHAP D. clear text Answer: BD 19. What is the purpose of the OSPF hello packet? A. advertises reachable networks B. acknowledges the receipt of update packets C. establishes and maintains neighbor relationships D. describes the contents of the link-state database Answer: C 20. What type of router cannot exist within a stub area? A. ABR B. ASBR C. internal router D. non-backbone router Answer: B 21. Which statement is true about the frequency of OSPF LSA transmissions? A. They are configured per OSPF area. B. They are configured per virtual router. C. They are configured per OSPF process. D. They are configured per OSPF interface. Answer: D 22. During OSPF adjacency formation, what state is a router in when it is sending LSA header information to its neighbor?

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 A. Init B. 2Way C. ExStart D. Exchange Answer: D 23. What are the three OSPF authentication methods supported on the ERX Edge Router? (Choose three.) A. null password B. simple password C. message digest 5 D. Password Authentication Protocol E. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol Answer: ABC 24. If all OSPF routers on a broadcast network have the same OSPF priority, what parameter is used to determine the new BDR at the time of a DR failure? A. area ID B. router ID C. loopback address D. IP address of interface on broadcast network Answer: B 25. When configuring OSPF on the ERX, what is the default auto-cost reference-bandwidth value? A. 1 Mbps B. 10 Mbps C. 100 Mbps D. 1000 Mbps Answer: C 26. What are three purposes of a PSNP? (Choose three.) A. to tear down an adjacency B. to ensure a neighbor is still in the Up state C. to maintain the link-state database synchronization D. to request a copy of a missing LSP on a broadcast network

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 E. to acknowledge LSPs from a neighbor on a point-to-point network Answer: CDE 27. Where is the IS-IS Network Entity Title configured? A. per IP interface B. per virtual router C. only on LAN interfaces D. only on WAN interfaces Answer: B 28. Routers A and B are connected with a point-to-point OC-3 interface. Each router's OC-3 interface is configured for both Level 1 and Level 2. The routers are configured in the same area. How many IS-IS adjacencies exist between the two routers? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 Answer: C 29. An Intermediate System experiencing memory problems indicates that it may have incomplete data by setting which bit in its LSP? A. more bit B. partition bit C. attached bit D. overload bit Answer: D 30. There are three routers on a Gigabit Ethernet LAN: Router A, Router B, and RouterC. Router A is the Designated Intermediate System (DIS) at Level 1 for that LAN. Router A's DIS priority is 64. The LAN is a Level 1-only link. Router D has just been powered up on that same LAN and its DIS priority is 80. Which statement is true? A. Router A remains the DIS and generates a new pseudonode LSP for that LAN. B. Router A remains the DIS and NO new pseudonode LSP is generated for that LAN. C. Router D becomes the new DIS, generates a new pseudonode LSP for that LAN, and purges the old

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