1.

In demographic cycle, late-expanding stage indicates: (a) High birth rate (BR) and high death rate (DR) (b) Decreasing BR and decreasing DR (c) Decreasing DR and stationary BR (d) Low BR and low DR Answer (b) Conventionally demographic cycle is described as having five stages. First stage (high stationary) is characterized by high BR+ high DR. In second stage (early expanding), BR remains stationary while DR begins to decline. Third stage is the late expanding stage. In fourth stage (low stationary), both DR and BR are low leading to zero population growth. The fifth stage (declining) is negative growth of population because BR is lower than DR. 2. India belongs to which stage of the demographic cycle? (a) High stationary (b) Early expanding (c) Late expanding (d) Low stationary (e) Declining Answer (c) 3. The growth pattern of a population with an annual growth rate of 1.0 1.5% is: (a) Slow growth (b) Moderate growth (c) Rapid growth (d) Very rapid growth (e) Explosive growth Answer (c) Population growth rate (GR) is the difference between crude death rate (CDR) and crude birth rate (CBR) excluding migration. The higher the annual growth rate, the lesser is the time taken by the population to double itself, e.g. GR of 1.0 1.5% per year will lead to doubling of population in 47 35 years as compared to GR of 3.5 4.0% (explosive growth) in which case the population will double itself in 20 18 years. 4. In calculating the dependency ratio, the numerator is expressed as: (a) Population under 10 years, and 60 years and above (b) Population under 10 years, and 65 years and above (c) Population under 15 years, and 60 years and above (d) Population under 15 years, and 65 years and above Answer (d) Dependency ratio, also known as societal dependency ratio, relates to proportion of persons above 65 years of age and children below 15 years of age who are considered dependent on the economically productive age group (15 64 years). 5. The term family size refers to: (a) Total number of female children born to a woman (b) Total number of persons in a family

(c) Total number of children a woman has born at a point in time (d) None of the above Answer (c) While in common parlance, family size refers to the total number of persons in the family, in demographic terms, family size means total number of children a woman has born at a point in time . 6. Total fertility rate (TFR) is indicative of: (a) Completed family size (b) Total number of married females in 15 45 years age group (c) Total number of female children in the family (d) Total number of females in 15 45 years age group Answer (a) Completed family size indicates total number of children borne by a woman during her child-bearing age. Total fertility rate gives the approximate magnitude of the completed family size. TFR is represented by the following equation: TFR = Sum of age-specific fertility rates 1000 7. Life expectancy at birth for males in India in the year 2004 is: (a) 62.5 years (b) 63.9 years (c) 64.5 years (d) 66.9 years Answer (b) As per World Health Report 2006, life expectancy at birth in India for males is 63.9 years and for females is 66.9 years. 8. As per census of India 2001, the sex ratio is: (a) 876 (b) 927 (c) 933 (d) 962 Answer (c) Sex ratio is defined as number of females per thousand males. It is one of the basic demographic measurements. Sex ratio in Indian states is generally below 1000 except for Kerala and Pondicherry where it is 1058 and 1001, respectively. Lowest sex ratio of 821 is found in state of Delhi and 710 in union territory of Daman & Diu. 9. Mortality experiences are taken into consideration when defining: (a) General fertility rate (b) Total fertility rate (c) Gross reproduction rate (d) Net reproduction rate (NRR) Answer (d) NRR is defined as, the number of daughters a newborn girl will bear during her life time assuming fixed age specific fertility and mortality rates . It is the most significant indicator of fertility. NRR = 1

is also known as replacement rate and coincides approximately to the two child norm. In a declared policy, India aims to achieve NRR = 1 by 2006. In order to achieve NRR = 1, 60% of the eligible couples should be effectively practicing family planning (couple protection rate) 10. The literacy rate of Indian population as per census 2001 is: (a) 54.5% (b) 65.4% (c) 75.5% (d) 85.8% Answer (b) 11. Number of live births per 1000 women in the reproductive age group in a given year is: (a) Birth rate (b) General marital fertility rate (GMFR) (c) General fertility rate (GFR) (d) Gross reproduction rate (GRR) Answer (c) Birth rate is the number of live births during the year per thousand mid-year population. GMFR is number of live births per thousand mid-year married female population in the fertile age group. GRR is the average number of girls that would be born to a woman if she experiences the current fertility patterns throughout her reproductive span assuming nil mortality. 12. Which of the following is a correct statement in relation to child-woman ratio? (a) 0 4 year children per thousand married women of child bearing age (b) 0 4 year children per thousand unmarried women of child bearing age (c) 0 5 year children per thousand unmarried women of child bearing age (d) 0 4 years children per thousand total women of child bearing age Answer (d) This ratio is used where birth registration statistics either do not exist or are inadequate. It is deduced from data derived from censuses. 13. Which of the following statements is not true in relation to National Population Policy (NPP) 2000? (a) Make school education free up to the age of 10 years (b) Reduce IMR to below 30/1000 live births by 2010 (c) Achieve 80% institutional deliveries by 2010 (d) Integrate Indian systems of Medicine in the provision of RCH services Answer (a) NPP 2000 has 14 socio-demographic goals to be achieved by 2010 including the above. The school education is sought to be made free and compulsory up to the age of 14 years and to reduce dropout rates for both boys and girls to below 20% at primary as well as secondary school levels. If NPP 2000 is fully implemented, it is expected that the population in the year 2010 will be 1107 million instead of 1162 million as projected by the technical group of population projections.

14. All are true about an ideal contraceptive except: (a) Safe and inexpensive (b) Irreversible (c) Independent of coitus (d) Does not require frequent administration Answer (b) In addition to above, an ideal contraceptive should be reversible, effective, acceptable, simple to administer and requiring little or no medical supervision. 15. The term cafeteria choice in relation to family planning indicates: (a) Provision of contraceptives at public places including toilets (b) Availability of contraceptives at cafeterias and canteens (c) Offering all methods of contraception to an individual to make own choice (d) Installation of condom vending machines at strategic locations Answer (c) As there is no single contraceptive method likely to satisfy the social, aesthetic, cultural and service needs of different individuals and communities, the search for an ideal contraceptive has been given up. The present approach for family planning programmes is to give a cafeteria choice , i.e. to offer all methods of contraception from which an individual can make his own choice. Ideally the selection should be supported by accurate information regarding advantages/disadvantages of all methods on offer. 16. The following statements about intrauterine devices (IUD) are true except: (a) The pregnancy rate of Lippes loop and Cu-T 200 are similar (b) Multiload Cu-375 is a third generation IUD (c) IUD can be used for emergency contraception (d) Levonorgestrel releasing IUD has an effective life of 5 years Answer (b) Multiload Cu-375 is a second generation IUD. Third generation IUDs include hormonal devices such as progesterone containing device (Progestasert) and levonorgestrel (LNG-20/Mirena). 17. The most common side effect of IUD insertion is: (a) Pain (b) Pelvic infection (c) Bleeding (d) Ectopic pregnancy Answer (c) 18. Scope of family planning services includes all of the following except: (a) Screening for cervical cancer (b) Providing services for unmarried mothers (c) Providing adoption services (d) Screening for HIV infection

Answer (d) Family planning is not synonymous with birth control. In addition to above, the services should include education for parenthood, genetic counselling, carrying out pregnancy test, marriage counselling, preparing the couple for arrival of first child and helping the couple for proper spacing and limitation of births. 19. Characteristics of an ideal candidate for Copper-T insertion include all of the following except: (a) Is willing to check IUD tail (b) Is nullipara (c) Has no history of pelvic disease (d) Has normal menstrual periods Answer (b) An ideal candidate should have borne at least one child as nulliparous women are known to have more problems with IUD such as expulsion, lower abdominal pain and pelvic infection. In addition, she should be in a monogamous relationship and have access to follow up for treatment of potential problems. 20. Failure rate of contraceptive methods is determined by: (a) Sullivan s index (b) Number of accidental pregnancies (c) Pearl index (d) Half-life Answer (c) Pearl index is defined as the number of failures per hundred women years of exposure (HWY) , calculated as follows: Pearl index = Total accidental pregnancies Total months of exposure 1200 e.g. Pearl index for condoms is 2 14 per HWY and for various IUDs is 0.2 3 per HWY. The other method for evaluating contraceptive methods is life table analysis. 21. Contraindication of IUDs includes which of the following? (a) Suspected pregnancy (b) Pelvic inflammatory disease (c) Previous ectopic pregnancy (d) Cancer cervix/uterus (e) All of the above Answer (e) 22. Which of the following statements is not true in relation to oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)? (a) Mini pill contains only progestogen

(b) Contraindicated in the presence of cardiovascular disorders (c) Pre-existing migraine may be aggravated (d) Mala-D package contains 30 pills including 7 ferrous fumarate tablets Answer (d) Mala-D package contains 28 pills including 21 OCPs and 7 brown film coated ferrous fumarate tablets. Mala-N is similar and supplied free through all PHCs/urban family welfare centres. 23. Standard combined oral contraceptive pill supplied by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, India contains: (a) Norgestrel 0.3 mg and ethinyl oestradiol 0.03 mg (b) Norgestrel 0.5 mg and ethinyl oestradiol 0.03 mg (c) Norgestrel 0.3 mg and ethinyl oestradiol 0.05 mg (d) Norgestrel 0.5 mg and ethinyl oestradiol 0.05 mg Answer (a) 24. Yuzpe and Lance method is used for: (a) Menstrual regulation (b) Non-surgical abortion in the first 12 weeks of pregnancy (c) Emergency contraception using OCPs (d) None of the above Answer (c) This method for post-coital contraception entails administration of two pills of the standard combined pill containing 50 g of oestrogen each followed by two pills 12 hours later. Currently widely available pills containing 30 g of oestrogen should be given in a single dose of four tablets. 25. Best method of spacing is: (a) OCPs (b) IUDs (c) Condom (d) Tubectomy Answer (b) IUDs are not suitable for nulliparous females due to increased chances of undesirable side effects/complications. According to Planned Parenthood Federation of America (PPFA), ideal candidate for IUD insertion is a female who has borne at least one child. 26. The qualification of a doctor to do Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) under the MTP rules 1975 include all of the following except:

(a) 6 months housemanship in obstetrics and gynaecology (OBG) (b) PG qualification in OBG (c) 2 years practice in OBG for doctors registered before 1971 (d) 1 year practice in OBG for doctors registered after 1971 Answer (c) Three years practice in OBG is required for those doctors registered before the 1971 MTP Act was passed. 27. The MTP Act defines the following: (a) Who should do termination of pregnancy (b) Where it should be done (c) When it should be done (d) All of the above Answer (d) 28. A female health worker while prescribing OCPs should evaluate all except: (a) Calf tenderness (b) Convulsions (c) History of chronic headache (d) Having two live issues Answer (d) Enquiry about live issues is not required. 29. Condom provides protection against HIV because of: (a) Spermicidal action (b) Inhibition of sperm action (c) Agglutination of spermatozoa (d) None of the above Answer (d) The protection provided by condoms is because of mechanical/ barrier action. 30. All are true regarding vasectomy except: (a) Early complication include scrotal haematoma (b) Most common cause of failure is spontaneous recanalization Demography and Family Planning 191 (c) The person is not sterile until 30 ejaculations have taken place (d) Can be performed under local anaesthesia Answer (b) The most common cause of failure of vasectomy is mistaken identification of the vas deferens for ligation.

31. All of the following are true for laparoscopic tubectomy except: (a) Not advisable for post-partum patients up to 6 weeks (b) Haemoglobin percent should not be less than 8 (c) Cannot be done as a concurrent procedure to MTP (d) Two follow up visits are required to be carried by lady health visitor (LHV) after 7 10 days and 12 months. Answer (c) It can be done as a concurrent procedure to MTP. 32. Highest unmet need for family planning in women below 25 years of age is for: (a) Spacing the births (b) Limiting the births (c) Treatment of complications of contraceptive methods (d) Delaying the first pregnancy. Answer (a) Highest unmet need for family planning (27%) for women below 20 years and 24% for women 20 24 years age group is for spacing the births rather than limiting the births. The unmet need for women above 30 years is mostly for limiting the births.

33. Gastrin is mainly produced in A. B. C. D. Fundus of the stomach C cells of pancreas G cells in the antrum of the stomach Body of the stomach

34. The principal action of cholecystokinin is A. To inhibit gastric secretion and motility B. To contract the sphincter of oddi C. To make the gallbladder contract D. To activate the bile salts 35. The majority of ingested iron is absorbed from A. Proximal ileum B. Proximal jejunum C. Distal jejunum D. Duodenum 36. _____________ joints are the most frequently used joints in your body. A. Ball-and-socket B. Gliding

C. Immovable D. Pivot 37. What is the term used for the unusual infectious agents that cause mad cow disease? ANSWER: PRIONS

38. Which of the following dimensions is not included in the WHO definition of health? A. B. C. D. Physical wellbeing Occupational wellbeing Mental wellbeing Social wellbeing

39.