1.

A person comes to you with an elevated serum free calcium but the parathyroid hormone level (PTH) is in the normal range (52, with a normal in this assay of 15-55). What is the best conclusion? A. The PTH is normal, therefore the problem does not lie in the parathyroid gland. B. The person must have excessive sensitivity to PTH, since normal levels are stimulating excessive calcium mobilization from bone. C. The PTH should be low if the parathyroid were functioning normally, thus the problem does lie in the parathyroid gland. D. You cannot be sure what is going on; you need to perform a parathyroid scan. Correct Answer: c 2. A mother comes to see you because two of her seven children are morbidly obese. She and her husband think they may have some relatives in common, and both parents are dark-haired. She brings one of her children with her. The boy is 13 years old, and weighs 230 lb; his BMI is 52. At birth, he was found to have adrenal insufficiency and has been treated with appropriate doses of glucocorticoids. On exam he is an obese, but otherwise normal red-haired kid. What would be the best treatment, assuming that the phenotype is due to a single genetic lesion, and that the treatment options listed were available? A. Leptin injections. B. A melanocortin 4 receptor (one of the MSH receptors) agonist. C. An NPY antagonist. D. Four weeks in a summer camp for obese kids. E. Thyroid hormone replacement
Correct Answer: B 3. You have a brother who has type 1 diabetes. He has had severe hypoglycemia in the past, without warning. Therefore, you have 1 mg of glucagon available for injection in this situation. When you give the glucagon, which of the following will happen? A. Glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis will promptly increase. B. The glucose transporter GLUT4 will translocate to the plasma membrane, causing brain glucose uptake to increase. C. The tyrosine kinase activity of the glucagon receptor will be turned on. D. Lipolysis will be suppressed. E. Nothing, because you have to give some form of glucose along with the glucagon in order for it to work. Correct Answer: A 4. Which of the following statements is true regarding thyroid hormone receptors (TRs): A. The three beta isoforms of the thyroid hormone receptor (TR-b1, b2, b3) are the products of three distinct genes B. The predominant TR isoform in the liver is TR-a1 C. TR-b2 is the major mediator of the negative regulation of the TSH and TRH genes in the pituitary and paraventricular hypothalamus respectively. Test 47 (the nervous system) 1. The following are true about the dural venous sinuses: a. they have no valve b. the cavernous sinus is closely related to the pituitary gland c. the cavernous sinus has the first two divisions of the trigeminal nerve on its lateral wall d. the transverse sinus continues as the sigmoid sinus e. through the pterygoid plexus, facial infection can spread to the cavernous sinus 2. True statements about the cerebral blood flow include: a. it is constant for the blood pressure in the range between 50-150mmHg b. the blood pressure is affected more by the PaO2 than PaCO2 c. hypocapnia causes vasoconstriction d. cerebral arterioles constricts when the blood pressure raises e. sympathetic nervous system does not play as important a part in cerebral blood flow as autoregulationt 3. The following reflexes are used to test for brainstem death: a. knee jerk reflex b. Babinski's reflex c. gag reflex d. pupil reflex e. vestibulo-ocular reflex 4. In injury of the peripheral nerve: a. pure sensory or pure motor nerve tends to regenerate better than mixed nerve b. in neuropraxia, there is anatomical disruption of the nerve c. Wallerian degeneration occurs 3 days after the injury d. Wallerian degeneration occurs proximal to the site of the injury e. during recover, the rate of regeneration is about 1 mm per day 5. The blood - brain barrier:

a. is permeable to bilirubin at birth b. is formed by the tight junctions between endothlial cells and the end feet processes of astrocytes c. is permeable to glucose d. is absent in the posterior pituitary e. it is permeable to fat-soluble drugs A. A nuclear receptor in the supergene family that includes steroid hormone receptors, the thyroid hormone receptor, and a number of "orphan" receptors. B. A transmembrane protein receptor that activates a G-protein-mediated signal cascade. C. The golgi bodies where PTH is stored, and stimulating their fusion with exocytotic vesicles. D. A calcium-binding domain in the extracellular matrix, inducing a structural change in the matrix. E. A glycoprotein in the gap junction between parathyroid cells, mediating transcytotic calcium flux. Correct Answer: B 8. A 52-year-old male presents for treatment of his hyperlipidemia. Diet efforts have had little effect on his lipid profile. RISKS: no known coronary artery disease, non-smoker and no family history of early coronary artery disease. Blood pressure 150/94, Lab data shows: total cholesterol 250 mg/dl, TG 250 mg/dl, HDL 34 mg/dl, LDL 166 mg/dl, fasting glucose 135 and 128 mg/dl on two occasions. According to ATP III guidelines: A. By ATP III guidelines this patient has two risk factors for coronary artery disease. B. By ATP III guidelines this patient should be treated with medication to achieve an LDL level of less than 160 mg/dL. C. By ATP III guidelines this patient should be treated with medication to achieve an LDL level of less than 130 mg/dL. D. By ATP III guidelines this patient should be treated with medication to achieve an LDL level of less than 100 mg/dL. E. The high TG levels pose the greatest cardiac risk for this patient Correct Answer: D 9. On physical examination a patient is noted to have tendon xanthomata. Which statement regarding this patient is true: A. Lipemia retinalis is often seen in association with this physical exam finding. B. This patients triglyceride levels are usually elevated. C. Usually a genetically determined defect in the LDL receptor causes lipid abnormalities associated with this physical finding. D. The condition is not associated with risk of early coronary artery disease. Correct Answer: C 10. A deficiency of ACTH secretion would greatly diminish A. The synthesis of aldosterone B. The synthesis of testosterone in a man C. The secretion of cortisol D. The secretion of estradiol E. All of the above Correct Answer: C 11. Cortisol synthesis would be diminished by A. A defect in 11-hydoxysteroid dehydrogenase B. A defect in 21-hydoxylase C. A defect in 18-hydoxylation D. A defect in 5-alpha-reductaseE. A defect in aromatase Correct Answer: B 1. Concerning renal ontogeny: A. the pronephros is a transitory kidney present during the embryonic life of all vertebrates B. the mesonephros is a functional yet transitory kidney during intrauterine life of mammals C. a main morphological difference between the metanephros (permanent kidney) and the mesonephros, is the development of the loop of Henle D. A and C are correct E. all are correct Correct Answer: E 2. The main barrier precluding the free passage of albumin across the glomerular capillary walls is formed by: A. the fenestrated glomerular endothelium B. anionic proteoglycan clusters within the glomerular basement membrane C. the filtration slits in between visceral epithelial cells (podocytes) D. none are correct E. all are correct Correct Answer: 3. Concerning the measurement of renal plasma flow (RPF) and glomerular filtration rate(GFR): A. inulin is a good GFR marker because it is freely filtered in the glomeruli and it is not reabsorbed, or secreted, by the renal tubules B. inulin concentration in the proximal tubule's lumen increases progressively as water is reabsorbed in the segment of the nephron C. PAH (para-amino-hippuric acid)is a good marker of renal plasma flow because it is freely filtered and is rapidly secreted by the proximal tubule; as a result very little PAH reaches the renal vein D. A and C are correct E. all are correct

Correct Answer: E 4. Concerning the functional histology of the kidney: A. the superficial nephrons have short loops of Henle; thus, they have a low capacity to reabsorb salt (salt losing nephrons) B. the deep nephrons have long loops of Henle; thus they have a high capacity to reabsorb salt and water C. in dehydration, the blood flow to deep nephrons tends to increase D. A and C are correct E. all are correct Correct Answer: E 5. The following factor(s) tend(s) to INCREASE the rate of glomerular filtration (GFR): A. decreased albumin concentration in plasma B. vasodilation of the afferent (pre-glomerular) arteriole C. vasoconstriction of the efferent (post-glomerular) arteriole D. A and C are correct E. all are correct Correct Answer: E 6. The following factor(s) tend(s) to INCREASE the rate of glomerular filtration (GFR): A. sympathetic stimulation (norepinephrine) of the afferent arteriole B. obstruction of the renal tubules, ureter or urethra C. vasodilation of the efferent arteriole D. none are correct E. all are correct 7. Concerning the function of the glomerular mesangial cells: A. mesangial cells can contract and cause some decrease in total glomerular filtration area B. mesangial cells play a major role in systemic angiotensin II production C. mesangial cells are phagocytic and play a role in the clearing of proteins and immune-deposits entrapped in the mesangium D. A and C are correct E. all are correct Answer: D 8. Concerning the function of the proximal tubule: A. most of the glomerular ultrafiltrate is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule in an iso-osmotic fashion. B. the concentration of PAH doesn't change much along the length of the proximal tubule C. under normal conditions, most of the filtered glucose and bicarbonate are reabsorbed in the proximal tubule D. A and C are correct E. all are correct Answer: D 9. Concerning metabolic energy (at production) for renal transport: A. the main substrate for proximal tubule is glucose B. the cortical PO2 is about 10 mmHg C. the papillary tissues normally generate ATP via oxidative metabolism D. A and C are correctE. all are correct Correct Answer: B 10. Concerning water reabsorption by the proximal tubule: A. main driving forces for water reabsorption in the proximal tubule are solute uptake and oncotic pressure in peritubular capillaries B. a significant amount of water uptake in the proximal tubule is dependent on sodium uptake by the Na/H antiports present in their luminal membrane C. aquaporine-I (water channels) are abundantly present in the cellular membranes of proximal tubule cells D. A and C are correct E. all are correct Correct Answer: E 11. Concerning the THICK loop of Henle: A. the thick segment of the loop has a very powerful Na/K/2Cl pump that moves salt from the tubular lumen into the peritubular space B. water and urea move freely across the epithelium of the thick ascending segment of the loop C. following the administration of furosemide (lasix) large volumes of diluted urine are produced D. A and C are correct E. all are correct Correct Answer:d 12. Concerning urinary concentration: A. the thick loop of Henle generates most of the osmotic gradient needed for reabsorption of water in the collecting duct B. the tubular urine that reaches the collecting duct is generally hypotonic with respect to plasma C. in the absence of ADH, urine is not concentrated along the length of the collecting duct D. A and C are correct E. all are correct Correct Answer: E 13. Concerning the transport of urea in the different segments of the nephron: A. main tubular urea sound is the plasma via the glomerular ultrafiltrate B. the urea concentration in the lumen of the cortical collecting ducts increases as water is reabsorbed C. the thin loop of Henle and the medullary collecting duct are permeable to urea D. A and C are correct E. all are correct Correct Answer: E

14. Concerning the macula densa: A. the macula densa senses the total amount of sodium chloride (sodium chloride concentration times volume) of tubular urine being delivered by the loop of Henle into the distal convoluted tubule B. if the delivery of sodium chloride is lower than normal the macula densa signals the afferent arteriole (pre-glomerular) to release renin C. renin release causes intravascular angiotensin formation and indirectly aldosterone release D. A and C are correct E. all are correct Correct Answer: E 15. Concerning angiotensin II: A. the exocrine renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system includes angiotensinogen production by the liver, renin secretion by the juxtaglomerular apparatus and angiotensin-converting enzyme present at the luminal surface of endothelial cells B. aldosterone, but not AII, stimulate thirst and salt appetite C. angiotensin II induces marked increases in sodium reabsorption by the loop of Henle and the collecting duct D. A and C are correct E. all are correct Correct Answer: A 16. Within an hour following intravenous angiotensin II infusion, the following is(are) clinically evident: A. increased sodium uptake in the proximal tubular epithelium B. systemic vasoconstriction C. increased plasma aldosterone D. A and C are correctE. all are correct Correct Answer: E 17. Within eight hours following large intravenous aldosterone infusion the following is(are)clinically evident: A. unchanged sodium reabsorption by the collecting duct B. decreased potassium and hydrogen excretion in urine C. hypernatremia (high sodium in plasma), hypokalemia (low potassium in plasma) and alkalosis (low hydrogen ion activity in plasma) D. A and C are correct E. all are correct Correct Answer: C 18. Concerning arterial blood pressure regulation: A. prostaglandins and dopamine and bradykinin are vasodilators B. ADH, angiotensin II and epinephrine are vasoconstrictors C. the vasodilator/vasoconstrictor ratio that regulates total peripheral resistance plus cardiac stroke volume and heart rate are determinants of blood pressure D. all are correctE. none are correct Correct Answer: E 19. Concerning cell volume regulation: A. the Na/H and Cl/HCO3 antiports are involved in hypertonic cell volume regulation B. rapid efflux of cytoplasmic water is followed by volume regulatory KCL efflux C. KCL efflux is involved in hypotonic cell volume regulation D. A and C are correct E. all are correct Correct Answer: D 20. Intravenous administration of 1.5 liters of isotonic Ringer's solution to a healthy adult could cause: A. increased cardiac output and renal blood flow B. increased GFR C. increased atrial natriuretic peptide and decreased renin in plasma D. A and C are correct E. all are correct Correct Answer: E 21. Renin A. Increased H2O reabsorptionB. Decreased sodium reabsorption C. AII formation D. Increased sodium reabsorptionE. Decreased phosphate reabsorption Correct Answer: C 22. Atrial natriuretic peptide A. Increased H2O reabsorption B. Decreased sodium reabsorptionC. AII formation D. Increased sodium reabsorptionE. Decreased phosphate reabsorption Correct Answer: B 23. ADH A. Increased H2O reabsorption B. Decreased sodium reabsorption C. AII formation D. Increased sodium reabsorption E. Decreased phosphate reabsorption Correct Answer: A 24. AII

A. Increased H2O reabsorptionB. Decreased sodium reabsorption C. AII formation D. Increased sodium reabsorptionE. Decreased phosphate reabsorption Correct Answer: D 25. PTH A. Increased H2O reabsorption B. Decreased sodium reabsorption C. AII formationD. Increased sodium reabsorption E. Decreased phosphate reabsorption Correct Answer: E 26. Which one of the following is correct about nonvolatile acids. A. they are not essential to eliminate from the body B. we generate much greater amounts of nonvolatile than volatile acids C. they are fully buffered by bone D. they are products of intermediary metabolism and protein degradation E. they are eliminated by the lungs Correct Answer: D 27. All of the following occur within one hour of eating a large acid load EXCEPT: A. the acid load is immediately buffered by intracellular proteins and phosphates as well as extracellular bicarbonate B. the lungs will begin eliminating CO2 generated as a result of the acid load C. the kidney will eliminate all the nonvolatile acids and regenerate bicarbonate to replace all the bicarbonate used in buffering D. hemoglobin will buffer some of the protons Correct Answer: C 28. If the pH is 7.60 (H+ concentration = 25 nEq/L) and the pCO2 is 40 mmHg, what is the HCO3- concentration (in mEq/liter). A. 10B. 20C. 30D. 40Correct Answer: D 29. A patient takes a drug overdose and becomes comatose. His blood pCO2 was 40 mmHg ten minutes ago, but you discover it is now 80 mmHg. Which one of the following statements about this patient is correct. A. the pH of his CSF is likely to fall more slowly than the pH of his blood B. the pH of his blood is likely to fall more slowly than the pH of his CSF C. the pH of the blood and CSF will not change because he will rapidly eliminate bicarbonate in the urine in response to the rise in pCO2 D. the pH of the blood and CSF will change to a similar degree in this time period Correct Answer: B 30. Which one of the following statements is true about the proximal tubule. A. the Na+/K+ ATPase drives sodium into the cell from the urine side of the tubule B. Na+/H+ exchange is largely the mechanism by which hydrogen ion secretion occurs C. bicarbonate reabsorption is independent of carbonic anhydrase activity D. the pH in the lumen of the proximal tubule can reach as low as about 5.0 Correct Answer: B 31. A patient ingests antifreeze and needs to eliminate the ingested acid. Renal elimination of the protons in this excess acid is primarily accomplished by which of the following mechanisms. A. increased urinary ammonium excretion B. increased urinary excretion of phosphates C. hyperventilation D. increased urinary free hydrogen ion concentration E. increased urinary sulfate excretion Correct Answer: A 32. Renal ammonium ion excretion is increased by aldosterone, elevated blood pCO2 and acidemia A. trueB. false Correct Answer: A 33. Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to net collecting duct hydrogen ion secretion. A. it is decreased by increased renal production of ammonia B. it is increased by increased reabsorption of sodium through the apical sodium channel C. it is not affected by the presence or absence of titratable acids D. aldosterone does not modify collecting duct hydrogen ion secretionCorrect Answer: B Test 6 (anatomy of head and neck) 1. The following are true about the parasympathetic fibres: a. they originate from Edinger-Westphal nuclei in the midbrain b. follow the inferior division of oculomotor after the later bifurcate in the cavernous sinus c. in the orbit, are found in the branch that supply the inferior oblique muscle d. they synapse in the ciliary ganglion e. they are transmitted via the short ciliary nerve to the iris sphincter 2. Structures derived from the second pharyngeal arch include: a. the incus b. maxillary artery c. stylohyoid ligament d. stylohyoid muscle e. posterior third of the tongue 3. The sphenoid bone transmits the following structures:

a. middle meningeal artery b. mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve c. optic nerve d. internal carotid artery e. nasociliary artery 4. The embryonic origin of the following are true: a. lacrimal gland from the surface ectoderm b. lens from the mesoderm c. nonpigmented ciliary epithelium from neuroectoderm d. the anterior pituitary gland from the ectoderm e. the posterior pituitary gland from the mesoderm 5. The following are true: a. foramen ovale transmits the mandibular nerve b. pterygotympanic fissure transmits the chorda tympani c. foramen spinosum transmits the middle meningeal artery. d. jugular foramen transmit the vagus nerve e. stylomastoid foramen transmit the facial nerve 6. The basilar artery: a. enters the cranium through the foramen magnum b. is formed by the union of two vertebral artery c. supplies the lateral and third ventricles d. supplies the vermis through its superior cerebellar branch e. supplies the motor cortex 7. The following are true about the pituitary gland: a. the posterior lobe receives efferent fibres from the supra-opticohypophyseal tract. b. it is situated below the optic chiasma c. a portal system exists between the posterior pituitary gland and the hypothalamus d. the posterior lobe secretion affects thyroid hormone secretion e. it is drained by the cavernous sinus 8. The oculomotor nerve: a. divides into the superior and inferior division near the superior orbital fissure b. before entering the orbit, lies above and then medial to the trochlear nerve within the cavernous sinus c. lies between the posterior cerebral artery and the superior cerebellar artery in the the posterior fossa d. has its nucleus in the pons e. causes Adie's pupil if the parasympathetic pathway is damage 9. The maxillary artery: a. terminates in the pterygopalatine fossa b. supplies the lateral wall of the nose c. gives off meningeal arteries d. supplies the muscle of mastication e. lies between the sphenomandibular ligament and the mandible 10. The thyroid gland: a. develops from the second and third pharyngeal arches b. contains cells derived from the fourth pharyngeal pouches c. is supplied mainly by the middle thyroid artery d. is covered by the pretracheal fascia e. has the recurrent laryngeal nerve ascending anteriorly Test 7 (genetics) 1. The following are caused by defect in the the mitochondrial DNA: a. Leigh disease b. Kearn-Sayer's syndrome c. myotonic dystrophy d. Leber congenital amaurosis e. Leber hereditary optic neuropathy 2. The following are true about mitochondrial DNA: a. the sperm does not contain mitochondrial DNA b. it accounts for 10% of total human DNA c. it encodes protein needed for oxidate phosphorylation d. defect results in the formation of red ragged muscle e. the inheritance of mitochondrial disorder is similar to X-linked disorder 3. Down's syndrome: a. has an incidence of 1:700 b. is associated with the age of the mothers c. mosaicism accounts for 2% of all Down's syndrome d. is more accurately diagnosed in pregnant woman with amiocentesis than hormonal tests e. is associated with congenital glaucoma 4. The following are true about the offsprings of a female carrier of an X-linked recessive disorder and a normal male: a. half of their children will symptomatic

b. half of their daughters will be symptomatic c. half of their sons will be asymptomatic carriers d. half of their daughters will be carriers e. half of their sons will be symptomatic 5. With regard to p53 tumour suppressor gene: a. it is located on chromosome 17 b. it encodes 53 kDa protein c. it holds the cell cycle in the G1 phase d. it is stimulated by ionizing radiation e. abnormal gene is associated with childhood tumours 6. The following are true about restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs): a. they show individual variation b. they can be used to determine the position of specific genes c. they are produced by enzymes which cleave DNA at specific sites d. they can be used for prenatal diagnosis e. they have not known useful function 7. Retinoblastoma: a. is associated with loss of the short arm of chromosome 13 b. is caused by mutation in the growth suppressor gene c. is an autosomal dominant condition d. is sporadic in the majority of unilateral cases e. is inherited in the majority of bilateral cases 8. In the human cell cycle: a. cell division occurs in the S phase b. G1 precedes mitosis c. DNA synthesis occurs in G0 d. vincristine acts on the M phase e. methotrexate acts on the S phase 9. True statements include: a. before RNA can be studied by PCR (polymerase chain reaction), it has to be translated into complementary DNA b.Western blotting is used to detect specific protein in a mixture of protein c. Northern blotting is used to detect DNA sequence d. Southern blotting is primarily used to detect DNA sequence e. gel electrophoresis is used in both Southern and Northern blottings 10. The following are true: a. proto-ongenes regulate the normal cell division b. mutated proto-oncogenes are associated with cancer c. gene translocation can transform proto-oncogenes d. viral insertion can disrupt normal proto-oncogenes e. ras oncogenes are the most commonly observed oncogenes in human tumours.

Anatomy and Physiology Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) PAIN 1. Which structures comprise the central nervous system? A. BrainB. Spinal corC. Peripheral nerves 2. Where do sensory receptors transmit messages? A. NociceptorsB. Along efferent nervesC. To the central nervous systemD. Motor neurones 3. Which of the following statements are true? A. Nociceptors are evenly distributed throughout the bodyB. There are many nociceptors in visceral organs and deep tissueC. abundant in the superficial portions of the skin 4. Which of the following is released from a damaged cell membrane into the interstitial fluid? A. Prostaglandins.B. Arachidonic acid.C. Cyclo-oxygenase. 5. What is the action of prostaglandins on nociceptors? A. Depolarisation A.DEPOLARIZATION B. RepolarisationC. StimulationD. Desensitisation THE URINARY SYSTEM 1. Urine is conducted to the exterior of the body via the A. UrethraB. UreterC. Urogenital diaphragm 2. With regards to the bladder A. The walls contains layers of longitudinal and circular smooth muscle forming the detrusor muscle.

Nociceptors are

B. Stretch receptors in the wall of the bladder, become stimulated as the bladder distends (this normally occurs when the bladder contains approximately 500mls of urine). C. Once stretch receptors have become stimulated, the smooth muscle of the bladder relaxes. 3. With regards to the urethral sphincters A. If both external and internal urethral sphincters are relaxed, urine is ejected. B. The external sphincter is relaxed under involuntary control. C. If the external sphincter does not relax, the internal sphincter does open and the bladder empties. 4. Which of the following statements are true? A. The kidney filters approximately 150 litres of fluid from the blood plasma each day. B. The kidney filters 50 litres of fluid from the blood plasma each minute. C. The bladder can hold 0.5 litres of fluid without discomfort. C. The control of bacterial population.

Past MCQs on Ocular Anatomy 1. The medial wall of the orbit includes: a. body of sphenoid b. vertical plate of palatine bone c. trochlear fossa d. lacrimal fossa e. optic canal 2. The foramina that communicate directly with the orbitinclude: a. foramen rotundum b. zygomaticotemporal foramen c. posterior ethmoidal foramen d. infraorbital foramen supraorbital foramen 3. The structures that pass through the common tendinous ring include: a. trochlear nerve b. nasociliary nerve c. sympathetic fibres from the plexus around the internal carotid artery d. parasympathetic fibres from the pterygopalatine ganglion e. central artery of the retina 4. The inferior orbital fissure transmits the: a. maxillary nerve b. posterior superior alveolar nerve c. sphenopalatine artery d. inferior ophthalmic vein e. zygomatic nerve 5. Concerning the orbit: a. the superior orbital fissure connects with the anterior cranial fossa b. the optic canal connects with pituitary fossa c. the inferior orbital fissure connects with the infratemporal fossa d. the lateral wall is the thickest wall e. the supra-orbital notch is at the middle of the upper margin 6. The orbit: a. the apex of the orbital cavity is at the optic canal b. the anterior and posterior lacirmal crests are features of the lacrimal bone c. the margin is formed by the frontal, zygomatic, lacrimal and maxillary bones d. the inferior orbital fissure is closed by orbital fascia and striated muscle e. the medial palpebral ligament is attached to the lacirmal bone 7. The grey line of the eyelid: a. owes its colour to increased vascularity b. represents the mucocutaneous junction c. is behind the eyelashes (cilia) d. is at the level of the ciliary bundle of the orbicularis oculi muscle e. when entered surgically gives access to a plane between orbicularis oculi and the tarsal plate 8. The upper eyelid: a. has eyelashes (cilia) along its entire margin b. covers the whole cornea in blinking c. has about 150 eyelashes (cilia) d. has the modified sweat glands of Zeis opening behind the hair follicles e. has fibres of insertion fo the frontalis muscle 9. The tarsal glands: a. a re modified sebaceous glands b. are embedded in the tarsal plates c. are longer and more numerous in the upper eyelid d. have ducts which open at the mucocutaneous junction e. have stratified squamous epithelium lining the mouths

of their ducts. 10. In the eyelids: a. the lacrimal nerve supplies the skin of the upper eyelid b. the infratrochlear nerve supplies the skin of the upper eyelid c. the lacirmal nerve supplies the conjunctiva of the lower eyelid d. the infratrochlear nerve supplies the conjunctiva of the lower eyelid e. the infratrochlear nerve supplies the skin of the lower eyelid 11. The conjunctiva: a. is closely adherent to the underlying sclera b. is highly vascular in its bulbar portion c. has mucus secreting goblet cells which are more numerous on the eyelid d. is supplied by the infra-orbital nerve at its lower bulbar part e. is modified skin lacking sebaceous andsweat glands at the lacrimal caruncle 12. The eyelids: a. have hairs only at the lid margins b. have eyelashes which are thinner than hair on other parts of the body c. have tarsal plates which re twice as tall in the upper lid d. have tarsal plates attached to the orbit walls along their convex margins e. receive blood supply from medial and lateral palpebral branches of the ophthalmic artery 13. Regarding the lacrimal gland: a. the palpebral part of the lacrimal gland is half the size of the orbital part b. ducts from the orbital part drain into the palpebral part through the levator muscle c. the palpebral part drains into the superior conjunctival fornix through about 12 ducts d. the lymphatic drainage of the lacrimal gland is to the submandibular nodes e. excision of the palpebral part abolishes tear secretion on the operated side. 14. In the lacrimal drainage pathway: a. the upper lacirmal punctum is lateral to the lower punctum b. the lacrimal canaliculi may open into the lacrimal sac through a common canaliculus c. the lacrimal canaliculi are lined by stratified squamous epithelium d. the nasolacrimal duct runs downwards, laterally and to the anterior part of the inferior meatus. e. the nasolacrimal duct is narrowest at its lower end where a mucosal flap prevent s reflux 15. Tendinous fibres from the aponeurosis of levator palpebrae superioris: a. pierce the orbital septum b. pierce the orbicularis oculi muscle c. are attached to the posterior aspect of the superior tarsal plate d. are attached to the medial palpebral ligament e. are attached to the marginal tubercle of the zygomatic bone 16. The parasympathetic secretomotor pathway to the lacrimal gland includes: a. nerve cells in the pons b. the nervus intermedius (sensory root of facial nerve) c. lesser petrosal nerve d. nerve of the pterygoid canal e. zygomatic nerve 17. The superior oblique muscle: a. is attached to the frontal bone b. lies above the medial rectus muscle c. has a tendon that passes through a fibrocartilaginous

trochlea d. has a tendon that passes below the superior rectus muscle e. is supplied by trochlear nerve on its inferior aspect 18. Concerning extraocular muscles: a. the medial rectus is inserted to the sclera most anteriorly b. the inferior oblique is attached to the orbital wall most anteriorly c. the nerve to medial rectus passes below the optic nerve d. the inferior oblique passes below the inferior rectus e. the superior oblique is tested by asking the patient to look at the tip of his or her nose 19. The fascial sheath of the eyeball: a. blends with the sclera at the corneoscleral junction b. blends with the dura mater around the optic nerve c. is reflected around the tendon of the superior oblique as far as the trochlear d. has an expansion from the sheath of the medial rectus attached to the lacrimal bone e. is connected to the sclera by dense collagen bands which traverse the episcleral space 20. The eyeball: a. is close to the floor of the orbital cavity than to the roof b. is closer to the lateral wall of the orbital cavity than to the medial wall c. has a vertical diameter less than the transverse and anteroposterior diameters d. has an anterior segment which is more curved and forms a quarter fo the whole circumference e. is least protected laterally 21. The cornea: a. has five layers b. has an epithelium which consists of five layers of cells c. has columnar cells at the deepest layer of the epithelium d. is thinnest at the centre e. receives blood supply from the anterior ciliary arteries at its periphery 22. The sclera: a. is thickest posteriorly b. is thinnest just behind the insertions of the recti muscles c. transmits the central retinal artery and vein through the largest opening in the cribosa lamina d. is grooved on its inner surface by ciliary vessels and nerve e. has 75% of its dry weight accounted for by collagen 23. At the limbus: a. there is a shallow groove on the outer surface of the sclera b. the sinus venosus sclerae (canal of Schlemm) is in the sclera c. the sinus venosus sclerae may be double in part of its course d. there is direct connection between the venous sinus and the trabecular meshwork e. there is no blood in the canal of Schlemm because the communicating channels with anterior ciliary veins have valves 24. The corneoscleral junction: a. Descemet's membrane ends at Schwalbe's line which marks the anatomical limbus b. Bowman's membrane becomes continuous with the facial sheath of the eyeball c. the limbus is 1.5 to 2 mm wide d. the surgical limbus where the blue area commences is posterior to the anatomical limbus e. the scleral spur is triangular with its apex directed posteriorly 25. The iris: a. has a diameter of about 12 mm

b. has a double layer of cells covering both surfaces c. has radial contraction folds on the posterior surface d. is thickest at the ciliary margin e. is pigmented maximally on the anterior surface

Test 18 (Biochemistry) 1. With regard to histones: a. they are basic proteins b. they are essential for the formation of stable DNA c. mitochondria do not contain histones d. in the chromosomes, the weight of the histones equal to that of the DNA e. the amino acid composition of histones show great variability amongst different human races 2. In the regulation of genes: a. more than 90% of the base sequences in human DNA have not known function b. extrons are the part of the gene that code for amino acids found in the final proteins. c. introns usually begins with the nucleotide sequence GT d. splicing cut out the mRNA coded by introns. e. promoters are responsible for initiating gene transcription 3. Thromboxane A2(TXA2): a. is derived from the membrane phospholipid b. requires lipoxygenase for its production c. its production is decreased by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs d. causes platelet aggregation e. causes vasodilatation 4. In the lens: a. the capsule is made up of type IV collagen b. most metabolism is carried out in the anterior pole c. hexokinase is a rate-limiting enzyme in carbohydrate metabolism d. anaerobic glycolysis is the main source of energy e. pentose phosphate pathway metabolizes 30% of the available glucose 5. The following are true about the oxidation of glucose: a. glycolysis produces 3% of the energy ultimately obtained from glucose b. the first stage of glycolysis involves phosphorylation of glucose to 1,6-fructose biphosphate. c. glycolysis occurs within the mitochondria d. glucose enters the Kreb's cycle as pyruvate e. the Kreb's cycle generates 36 ATP molecules. Test 50 (Genetics) 1. Chromosomal abnormalities are found in the following conditions: a. achondroplasia b. myeloid leukaemia c. sickle cell disease d. cri-du-chat disease e. Patau syndrome 2. Diseases associated with HLA-B8 include: a. Sjogren's syndrome b. multiple sclerosis c. myasthenia gravis d. insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus e. Grave's disease 3. In Turner's syndrome: a. premature cataract is common b. the cells contains 45 chromosomes c. the offsprings have 50% of inheriting the disease d. there is an increased risk of hypertension e. the patient is below the average height 4. In Klinefelter's syndrome: a. the karyotype is always 47XXY b. the extra chromosome comes from the mother germ cells c. there is an increased incidence of lens subluxation d. the patient is infertile e. there is an increased incidence of breast cancer 5. With regard to the DNA structures: a. adenine (A) and guanine (G) are purine bases b. guanine (G) always pairs with thymidine (T) and adenine (A) with cytosine (C) c. each DNA strands have a pentose-phosphate backbone with projecting bases d. there are 64 possible codons

e. each amino acids may be coded by more than one codon.

Test 142 (Genetics) 1. DNA: a. is found in herpes virus b. is found in the nucleosomes c. is found outside the cell nucleus d. is replicated in the S phase of the cell cycle e. duplicates simultaneously in all chromosomes 2. The following are true about mitochondria: a. they are the main site of protein synthesis b. they have DNA arranged in circles c. the inner membrane contains the enzymes needed for Kreb's cycle d. they contain a bilayer membrane e. they contain DNA which are inherited exclusively from the mother 3. Heterochromatin: a. contains a highly repetitive sequence of DNA b. is the inert segment of the chromosome adjacent to the centromere c. may be lost without harmful effect in Robertsonian translocation d. is tightly coiled during the interphase e. makes up the p arm of the acrocentric chromosomes 4. Increase number of chromosomes occur in: a. Turner's syndrome b. fragile-X syndrome c. Down's syndrome d. Klinefelter's syndrome e. Retinoblastoma 5. The following are true: a. mRNA can be detected with Southern blotting b. DNA can be detected with Northern blotting c. restriction endonucleases cut the DNA into lengths of about 20 nucleotide base sequences d. restriction fragment length polymorphism occurs mainly in the coding region of the DNA e. polymerase chain reaction requires the use of DNA polymerase