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SAMPLE PAPER
(SUBJECTS: - Surgery, Obs. & Gynae. Medicine & Pediatrics.)

Question= 100
30-Medicine
30-Surgery
25-Obs. & Gyane.
15-Pediatrics

Distribution of Questions=
50% Newly Framed Learning MCQs.
50% as it is repeat from various PGMEE.

NOTE-
1. Newly Framed MCQ are informative so kindly read and try to memories all 4 points.
2. Kindly read the questions you have answered wrong (as it is repeated) from the
relevant paper as even a single as it is repeat question is vital.
3. Try to mug-up answers of various PGMEE questions as they are mostly repeated as
it is.

Hi friends,
Remember you are the best candidate to crack any PGMEE…
Try to give your best in every exam,even a small test.because only practice will make
you perfect.& most important..........
Have faith in you. always say to you…yes I can…yes I can... & surely you
will…………..!!!
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With best
wishes…………
Dr.Deepak Srivastava
(Director
Director--Guidance
Series).
Series ).

SURGERY-
SURGERY-
Q1. Most common type of urethral carcinoma in men is_____?
A. Adenocarcinoma.
B. Clear cell carcinoma.
C. Squamus cell carcinoma.
D. Transitional carcinoma.

Q2. Regarding insulinoma all are true except_____?

A. 90% are small (< 2 cm), benign and solitary.

B. 10% occur in association with MEN-I.

C. Most common symptoms are neurological due to hyperglycemia.

D. Most reliable test for diagnosis is 72 hour fast test.

Q3. Indications of urgent laparotomy in blunt injury abdomen_____?

A. Severe pain
B. Peritonitis
C. Unexplained Hypovolumia
D. Presence of other injuries frequently associated with intra abdominal injuries.

Q4. Regarding mediastinal masses what is true____?

A. Most common mediastinal mass in adults is neurogenic tumour.
B. Most common mediastinal mass in children is thymomas.
C. Most common location of mediastinal mass is posterior.
D. Most common primary cyst in mediastinum is pleuropericardial cysts.
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Q5. Regarding congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis all is true except___?

A. It is the most common surgical cause of vomiting in infancy.
B. Males are more commonly affected than females.
C. Administration of Erythromycin is early infancy is associated with subsequent development
of HPS.
D. It is a surgical emergency.

Q6. Sister Mary Joseph Nodule represents

represents metastatic involvement of para
para umbilical
Nodes, associated with all of the following malignancies except____?
A. Stomach
B. Lung.
C. Large Bowel
D. Pancreas

Q7. Regarding Pseudo gout what is true____?

A. MCP joint is most commonly involved.
B. Commonly involve age <40 years.
C. Radiologic hallmark is chondrocalcinosis.
D. Synovial fluid polarized light examination shows-strongly negative, birefringent, needle
shaped crystals.

Q8. Regarding Necrotizing Fasciitis all are true except_____?

A. Can be managed conservatively.
B. Most common site of infection is lower extremities.
C. Pain is most important presenting symptom.
D. Most common single etiological agents are group A-beta hemolytic streptococci.

Q9. Regarding subclavian artery stenosis what is true____?

A. Most common cause is obstruction due to mass.
B. Right subclavian artery is most commonly involved.
C. Stenosis of 2nd past of subclavian artery give rise to subclavian steal syndrome.
D. Stenosis typically occurs just distal to origin of subclavian artery, proximal to the origin of
vertebral artery.

Q10. Which of the following is false___?

A. Glomus Tumour is seen in adrenals.
B. Hunterian Ligature Operation is for Aneurysm.
C. Total thyroidectomy is the treatment of choice for medullary ca-thyroid.
D. Choledochocele is type III choledochal cyst.
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Q11. In carcinoma Prostate criteria for recommending biopsy after scr

screening are all
except____?
A. Biopsy is indicated if PSA levels are > 4 ng/ml.
B. Biopsy is indicated if PSA velocity > 75 ng/ml/year.
C. Biopsy is indicated in all cases of abnormal DRE.
D. PSA velocity of <.75 ng/ml suggest ca-prostate.

Q12. Which of the following is true_______?

A. Cushing’s triad of Raised ICT include, Irregular respiration, bradycardia & hypotension.
B. Charcot’s triad include gall stone, hiates hernia & direrticulosis of colon
C. Charcot’s triad includes Pain, jaundice, and fever.
D. Reynold’s pentad is charcot’s triad , shock & renal failure.

Q13. Structure removed in classical radical neck dissection are all except____?
A. Internal jugular vein.
B. Accessory nerve.
C. Vagus nerve.
D. Sternocleidomastoid muscle.

Q14. Meckler’s triad of Esophageal rupture

rupture includes all except _____?
A. Vomiting
B. Haematemesis.
C. Chest pain
D. Cervical subcutaneous emphysema

Q15. Parenteral
Parenteral nutrition
nutrition is not used in____?
A. Enterocutaneous fistula.
B. Burns
C. Crohn’s disease
D. Pancreatitis

Q16. Which of the following is non-

non-absorbable
absorbable suture_____?
A. Polypropylene.
B. Vicryl
C. Catgut
D. Polydioxanone.

Q17. All of the following is true about aortic transaction except_____?

A. Most commonly associated with acceleration injury.
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B. High mortality
C. Surgery definite treatment
D. Aortography gold standard

Q18. Cocket and Dodd’s operation is performed for which one of the
following____?
A. Saphenofemoral flush ligation.
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Subfascial Ligation.
D. Diabetic foot.

Q19. Complications of Hemithyroi

Hemithyroidectomy include all of the following except____?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Wound hematoma
C. Reccurent laryngeal nerve palsy
D. External branch of superior laryngeal nerve palsy.

Q20. Investigation
Investigation of choice for discrete thyroid swelling is____?
A. Isotope scan
B. Ultrasonography
C. Autoantibody titers
D. FNAC

Q21. Bariatric surgical procedures include_A/E

include_A/E_____?
A/E_____?
A. Gastric banding
B. Gastric bypass
C. Biliopancreatic diversion
D. Ileal Transposition

Q22. Pierre-
Pierre-Robin sequence includes all except___?
A. Glossoptosis
B. Cleft lip
C. Airway Obstruction
D. Micrognathia.

Q23. Not a predisposin

predisposing
redisposing factor for carcinoma Esophagus_____?
Esophagus_____?
A. Diverticula
B. Human Papilloma virus
C. Mediastinal fibrosis
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D. Caustic injection

Q24. Most common cause of death in chron’s disease is______?

A. Sepsis
B. Malignancy
C. Thromboembolic Complications.
D. Electrolyte imbalance.

Q25. Which of the following would be best treatment for a 2 cm thyroid nodule in a
carcinoma____?
50 year old man with FNAC revealing it to be a papillary carcinoma_ ___?
A. Hemithyroidectomy
B. Subtotal thyroidectomy with modified neck dissection.
C. Near total thyroidectomy with modified neck dissection.
D. Hemithyroidectomy with modified neck dissection.

Q26. Which of the following statements about Pancreatic carcinoma is not

true_____?
A. Mutation in PS3 gene is associated in 75% of cases.
B. Heriditary pancreatitis significantly increases the risk
C. Median survival in locally advance disease (Stage III) is 3-6 months
D. Five year survival after curative pancreaticoduodenectomy is 15-20%.

Q27. True about Gastric stump

stump carcinoma is______?
A. Prognosis good after surgery.
B. Enterogastric reflex is the cause.
C. It is always adenocarcinoma in nature.
D. Diffuse type is only variety.

Q28. Rigler’s triad

triad includes all except_____?
A. Pneumobilia.
B. Ectopic stone
C. Cholangitis
D. Intestinal obstruction.
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Q29. A 50 year old female is admitted with

with abdominal pain and anuria.
radiological studies revealed bilateral impacted, ureteric stones with
hydronephrosis.
hydronephro sis. urine analysis showed RBCs with pus cells in urine, serum
serum creatinine
creatinine
level was 16 mg/dl and urea level was 200 m-
m-mol/liter. which
which of the following
should be the immediate treatment____?
A. Hemodialysis.
B. J-stent drainage
C. Lithotripsy
D. Ureteroscopic removal of stones

Q30. Trauma and injury severity score (TRISS) includes____?

includes____?
A. GCS+BP+RR
B. RTS+ISS+AGE
C. RTS+ISS+GCS
D. RTS+GCS+BP

Obs. & Gyane.

Gyane.-

Q31. Absolute indications for termination of pregnancy are all except_______?

A. Eisenmenger Syndrome
B. Parous woman with grade III and IV cardiac lesion.
C. Primary pulmonary hypertension.
D. Pulmonary veno-occlusive disease.

Q32. Risk factors

factors associated with shoulder
shoulder dystocia are all except______?
A. Diabetes
B. Obesity
C. Excessive weight loss during pregnancy
D. Post-term

Q33. Which is not done in management of shoulder dystocia_____?

A. MC Roberts maneuver
B. Woods maneuver
C. Zavanelli Restitution
D. None.
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Q34. Regarding cervical

cervical cancer what is true_______?
A. HPV-16 is most prevalent type in adenocarcinoma of cervix.
B. HPV-18 is most prevalent type is squamous cell carcinoma of cervix
C. HPV-16 is most prevalent type in squamous cell carcinoma cervix
D. Only Bivalent vaccines are available till date.

Q35. What is true_______?

A. Levonova is 2nd generation IUD.
B. Levonova effective Life is 5 years.
C. Progestasert releases 20 micro gm. of levonorgestrel daily.
D. Pregnancy rate of multiload is 3.0.

Q36. All of the following are true except______?

A. Androgen insensitivity is x-linked recessive disease.
B. Karyotype in MRKS is 46 XX.
C. Karyotype in androgen insensitivity is 46 XY
D. Public & auxiliary hairs are well developed in androgen insensitivity syndrome.

Q37. Indications of conization in woman with HSIL (CIN II/III) on PAP Smear are all
Except____?
A. Unsatisfactory colposcopy
B. Positive endocervical curettage.
C. Negative endocervical curettage
D. Discrepancy between cytology & colposcopy.

Q38. Which
Which o the following is true___________?
A. Pain of ovarian carcinoma is reffered to gluteal region
B. Cis-clomiphere (Zuclomiphene) is weak estrogen agonist
C. Pregnancy with cholestasis should be terminated at 36 weeks.
D. Test for ovarian reserve is LH/FSH ratio.

Q39. All of the following are true except_____?

A. Patient with occipitoposterior position management is wait and watch.
B. Pregnant patient with prosthetic valve should be switched to heparin at 36 weeks.
C. Hobnail cell seen in Brenner Tumour.
D. Uterine blood flow near term is 750 ml/min.
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Q40. A young
young lady present with frothy vaginal
vaginal discharge of greenish colour, foul
smelling
smelling with PH>5.0 and
and leucocyte count on microscopy.on examination
strawberry vagina/cervix is seen most likely cause is____?
A. Bacterial Vaginosis C. Candida Vaginosis
B. Tichomonal Vaginosis D. A normal phenomena

Q41. Regarding obstructive Azoospermia

Azoospermia what is correct___________?
A. Normal FSH, normal LH, normal Testosterone.normal testicular volume
B. Low FSH, Low LH, low Testosterone, low testicular volume.
C. Persistently elevated FSH, reduced testicular volume.
D. Normal FSH, normal LH,low testosterone.

Q42. Amniocentesis done at______?

A. 10-12 Weeks
B. 10 Weeks
C. 14-16 Weeks
D. 18-20 Weeks

Q43. Characteri
Characteristic of the fertile phase of menstrual cycle includes all of the
the
following except_____?
A. Peak levels of estrogen
B. Clear abundant cervical mucus
C. Ovulation
D. Production of Progesterone

Q44.
Q44. Recommended non surgical treatment of stress incontinence is___?
A. Bladder Training
B. Pelvic Floor muscle excercise
C. Electrical stimulation
D. Vaginal cone/weights

Q45.
Q45. The failure rate of combined oral contraceptive (Estrogen +
Progesterone)______?
A. 1-2%.
B. 5-6%.
C. 10-12%.
D. 16-18%.
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Q46. What is the most common cause of vault prolapse following

hysterectomy_____?
A. Chronic cough
B. Obesity
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Failure to identify and repair enterocele

Q47. True about dysgerminoma is _____?

A. B/L in 80% cases
B. Radio sensitive
C. AFP is tumour marker for it
D. Common in post menopausal woman.

Q48.
Q48. Tubal pregnancy is increased by all except___?
A. OCPs use
B. IUCD use
C. Previous Ectopic
D. Previous tubal Surgery

Q49.
Q49. Which of the following condition
condition is associated with Polyhyramnios____?
Polyhyramnios____?
A. Posterior Urethral valve
B. Cleft palate
C. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
D. Bladder exstrophy

Q50.
Q50. Primary Amenorrhea with normal ovaries, normal external genitalia & normal
breast is seen in____?
A. Mayer,Rokitanski-Kuster,Hauser Stndrome
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
D. Noonan Syndrome

Q51.
Q51. Pre labour
labour Pains are mediated through_____?
A. T11-T12
B. T2-L3
C. S1-S3
D. L3-L4
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Q52.
Q52. A Lady undergoes total
total radical hysterectomy for stage Ib ca-
ca-cervix. It was
found that carcinoma extends to lower part of body of uterus and upper part of
cervix. Next step of management will be_____?
A. Chemotherapy
B. Follow-up
C. Radiotherapy
D. Chemoradiation

Q53.
Q53. Hypothyrodism in pregnancy
pregnancy is least likely associated with____?
A. Reccurent abortion
B. Poly Hydramnios
C. Pregnancy induced hypertension
D. Prematurity

Q54.
Q54. Variable decelerations on electronic fetal monitoring
monitoring in a woman who is in
labourr indicates____?
labou
A. Congenital Heart disease
B. Head compression
C. Umbilical cord compression
D. Administration of Sympathomimetic drugs to the mother.

Q55.
Q55. A pregnant mother presents with history of delivery of a previous child with
congenital adrenal hyperplasia. The best management protocol for the current
pregnancy is___?
A. To start prednisolone after establishing whether fetus is affected by chorionic villous
sampling.
B. To start dexamethasone as soon as the pregnancy is confirmed.
C. To start dexamethasone after determining sex of the fetus by Karyotyping
D. To start prednisolone after determining sex of the fetus with USG.

MEDICINE-
MEDICINE-
Q56.
56. All of the following is true regarding Dubin-
Dubin-Johnson Syndrome except-
except-
A. It is an autosomal recessive, conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
B. Total bilirubin is typically between 20-30mg/dl.
C. Serum Transaminases and alkaline Phosphatases are essentially normal.
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D. On histology liner appears black due pigment derived from epinephrine.

Q57. True about WISKOTT-

WISKOTT- ALDRICH
ALDRICH syndrome is all except______?
A. It is due to mutation is WASP gene.
B. Low serum level of IgM, & Raised IgA & IgE.
C. X-linked Recessive disease.
D. Thrombocytosis.

Q58.
Q58. Which of the following is true_____?
A. Serum fructosamine can be used in screening of diabetes.
B. Tumourlysis syndrome is associated with hypercalcemia
C. In prions disease myoclonus found only in 10% cases.
D. Arthralgia is included in major Jone’s criteria.

Q59.
Q59. What is the earliest Phenotypic
Phenotypic Marker of hereditary hematochromatosis?
hematochromatosis?
A. Arthropathy
B. Elevation in percent transferring saturation
C. Elevation in serum iron
D. Involvement of kidney

Q60.
Q60. Isolated prolongation of APTT without bleeding manifestation is seen in all
except_____?
A. Factor XII deflect
B. Factor VIII deficiency
C. Prekallekrein defect
D. HMW kininogen defect.

Q61. Which of the following is true______?

A. Hypersensitivity vasculitis affects pre-capillary venules.

B. Durie-salmon staging system is for multiple myeloma.

C. Ann-Arbor staging is for melanoma.

D. Plucked chicken skin appearance seen in cutis laxa.

Q62.
Q62. All of the following are true except_________?
A. HLA-B27 associated with Proriatic Spondylitis.
B. HLA-B8 associated with Myaesthenia gravis
C. HLA-B5 associated with Behchet’s Syndrome.
D. HLA-DR4 associated with Narcolepsy.
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Q63.
Q63. Triads of Normal pressure Hydrocephalus includes all except.
A. Abnormal Gait (Ataxia)
B. Convulsion
C. Uninary incontinence
D. Dementia

Q64.
Q64. According to Revised WHO criteria (Proposed) for the diagnosis of
Polycythemia vera all are included in major criteria except
A. Hemoglobin >18.5 g/dl in men
B. Hemoglobin >16.5 g/dl in women
C. Low-Serum erythropoitin level
D. Presence of JAK-2 mutation.

Q65.
Q65. JAK-
JAK-2 mutation may be seen in all of the following disorder except_____?
A. Polycythemia vera.
B. Essential thrombocytosis
C. Chronic Idiopathic myelofibrosis
D. Hematochromatosis

Q66.
Q66. All of the following statements about fanconi’s Anemia are true, except?
except?
A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Hypocellular bone narrow
C. Congenital anomalies
D. Usually normocytic/macrocytic cell morphology.

Q67.
Q67. Accelerated Idioventricular Rhythm (AIVR) is most common arrhythmia
associated with?
A. Dilated Cardionyopathy
B. Myocadial Reperfusion
C. Digitalis Intoxication
D. Myocarditis

Q68.
Q68. Strawberry
Strawberry ging
gingivitis
ngivitis seen in___?
A. Myelocytic infiltration
B. Phenytoin Toxicity
C. Wegener’s granulomatosis
D. Klipel Trenaunay Syndrome
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Q69.
Q69. Hyper extensibil
extensibili
xtensibility with Normal elastic Recoil is feature of_____?
A. Ehlers Danlos Syndrome
B. Pseudoxanthoma Elasticum
C. Cutis Laxa
D. Scleroderma

Q70.
Q70. Digitalis toxicity enhanced by A/E___?
A. Renal failure
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypomagnesemia

Q71. A 56 year old chronic smoker, mass in bronchus resected. Most useful
immunohistochemical
immunohistochemical marker to make proper diagnosis would be?
A. Cytokeratin
B. Viametin
C. Epithelial Membrane Catherin
D. Leukocyte common antigen

Q72.
Q72. Which of the following is true___?
A. BCL-6: Burkit’s Lymphoma
B. BCL-2: Follicular & mantle cell lymphoma
C. CD-10: Mantle cell Lymphoma
D. CD-34: Diffuse large B-cell Lymphoma

Q73.
Q73. All are channelopathies
channelopathies except___?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Periodic Paralysis
C. Liddle Syndrome
D. Tay-sach’s disease

Q74.
Q74. In which of the following hepatitis is not matched correctly___?
A. LKM.1- Chronic hepatitis C
B. LKM.2- Drug Induced Hepatitis
C. LKM.2- Chronic Hepatitis D
D. LKM.1- Autoimmune Hepatitis
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Q75.
Q75. A 23 years old asymptomatic female patient has MCV-
MCV-70, Ferritin-
Ferritin-100
gm/L, HB-
HB-10gm %. What is the most likely cause__?
A. Thalassemia trait
B. B12 difficiency
C. Folate difficiency
D. Iron difficiency

Q76.
Q76. Cushing’s disease is associated with____?
A. Increased ACTH and Increased cortisol
B. Increased Urinary catecholamines
C. Increased ADH
D. Decreased ACTH and Increased cortisol levels

Q77.
Q77. All of the following is true of Wilson’s desease except___?
except___?
A. Autosomal Recessive
B. Serum ceruloplasmin level <20 mg/dl
C. Urinary copper excretion <100 microgram/dl
D. Zinc acetate is used as maintenance therapy.

Q78.
78. The following are true about benign paroxysmal positional

Vertigo except___?
A. Fatigability
B. Good reproducibility
C. Habituation
D. Latency

Q79.
Q79. All are true regarding progressive supranuclear palsy except____?
A. Tremors
B. Unsteadiness
C. Dysarthria
D. Gaze palsy

Q80.
Q80. A patient presents with quadripare
quadriparesis
riparesis CSF shows protein 1 gm% sugar 10
mg%, and no cells. He should be
be treated with____?
A. Antisnake venum
B. 5% dextrose
C. Intravenous Immunoglobin
D. I.V. potassium chloride
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Q81.
Q81. Which of the following pair is incorrect____?
A. Cystic fibrosis – CFTR gene
B. Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis- Na channel
C. Myotonia Congenita- Cl channel
D. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis- K channel

Q82.
Q82. Duret hemorrhage seen in___?
A. Brain
B. Kidney
C. Lung
D. Heart

Q83.
Q83. A 36 years male presented with feature of meningitis, psychiatric illness, and
neuropathy most likely deficiency of_____?
A. Thiamine
B. Niacine
C. B6-difficiency
D. B12-difficiency

Q84.
84. Deferential diagnosis of Scurvy____?
A. Rickets
B. Hypervitaminosis-A
C. Hpervitaminosis-D
D. Pellagra.

Q85.
Q85. The following are components of polysomno
polysomnography except____?
A. Electrocardiography
B. Electro-oculography
C. Arterial Carbon dioxide monitoring
D. Pulse-oximetry

PEDIATRICS-
PEDIATRICS-
Q86.
86. Causes of Nephrocalcinosis are all except_____?
A. Hyperoxaluria.
B. Distal Renal tabular Acidosis
C. Bartter syndrome
D. Diabetes mellitus
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Q87.
Q87. What is true regarding congenital adrenal hyperplasia____?
A. 21 α hydroxylase difficiency is salt retaining type.
B. Hypertension is present in 11 B-hydroxylase difficiency
C. 17 α hydroxylase difficiency presents with hypotension.
D. Inherited as an autosomal dominant condition.

Q88.
88. All of the following is true regarding Wolman
Wolman’s
lman’s disease Except_____?
A. Inherited as autosomal recessive disease
B. Affects both male and female
C. X-ray shows calcified and distorted adrenal glands
D. Definitive diagnosis can be made by demonstration of difficient lysosomal acid lipase
activity in leucocytes

Q89.
89. All of the following are true except______?
A. Most common fetal response to acute hypoxia is bradycardia.
B. Most sensitive indicator of valume depletion in infants in heart rate.
C. Anemia in pregnancy is defined as Hb % <10 gm/dl.
D. In childhood polycystic kidney disease defective gene is PKHD2 coding for a protein
fibrocystin.

Q90.
90. The most reliable investigation (Investigation
(Investigation of choice) for volvulus
volvulus
Neonatorum is____?
A. X-ray.
B. Upper GI contrast study.
C. USG.
D. NCCT.

Q91.
Q91. Regarding
Regarding Glycogen storage dissorders all of the following is true except___?
A. Von-Gierke (type I) is due to Glucose-6 Phosphatase difficiency
B. Andersons (type IV) is associated with liver cirrhosis
C. Mc. Ardle disease (type V) is due to Phosphofructokinase difficiency
D. Pompe disease (type II) is due to defective lysosomal acid α glucosidase

Q92.
92. Low birth baby is defined as_____?
A. Weight <2.0 Kg.
B. Weight <1.5 Kg.
C. Weight <10 percentile for their gestational age.
D. Weight <2.5 standard deviation for their gestational age.
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Q93.
93. Systemic Juvenile Rheumatoid
Rheumatoid arthritis
arthritis is characterized by all except____?
A. Hepato-splenomegaly
B. Positive Rheumatoid factor
C. Maculopapular Rash
D. Increased ESR.

Q94
Q94. Which of the following drug is used for treatment
treatment of Refractory Histocytosis
Histocytosis
____?
A. High dose methotrexate.
B. High dose cytarabine
C. Cladrabine
D. Fludrabine

Q95.
Q95. A five year old boy presents with precocious puberty and a blood pressure of
130/80 mm Hg. Estimation of which of the following will help in diagnosis______?
A. ↑17 Hydoxyprogesterone
B. ↑Cortisol
C. ↑11- Deoxycortisol
D. ↑Aldosterone.

Q96.
Q96. Which one of the following is not a feature of Turner’s Syndrome____?
A. Short stature
B. Mental retardation
C. Coarctation of aorta
D. Lymphedema

Q97.
Q97. All are signs of Impending Eisenmenger except____?
except____?
A. Increased flow murmur across tricuspid & pulmonary valve.
B. Single S2
C. Loud P2
D. Graham steel murmur

Q98.
Q98. Primary metabolic bone disorder in scurvy is_____?
A. Decreased mineralization
B. Decreased osteoid matrix formation
C. Increased bone resorption
D. Decreased bone mass with normal mineralization and osteoid formation
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Q99.
Q99. Sexual ambiguity may be seen in which of the following conditions_____?
A. Androgen insensitivity
B. Pure gonadal dysgenesis
C. Sawyer syndrome
D. Mixed gonadal dysgenesis

Q100
Q100.
00. A two year old boy is brought to emergency with severe anemia (Hb=2
gm%) and features
features of congestive heart failure. The most appropriate immediate
therapy for this boy would be____?
A. Packed cell transfusion
B. Partial exchange transfusion
C. Whole blood transfusion
D. Parenteral iron injection.

ANSWERS

(SURGERY)
SURGERY)
Ans1. (C). Sq. cell carcinoma.

*Clue = Squamous cell=70-80%, Transitional cell=15%

Adenocarcinoma=5%

From- All India 2010

Ans2. (C). Most common symptoms are neurological due to hyperglycemia.

*Clue= Most common symptoms are neurological due to hypoglycemia not hyperglycemia.

From- All India 2010

Ans3. (A). Severe pain

*NOTE=Imaging
*NOTE of abdomen with ultrasound (FAST) is the first investigation to asses blunt trauma
abdomen.

From- All India 2008

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Ans4. (A). Most common mediastinal mass in adults is Neurogenic tumour.

*Clue = Most common in children= Neurogenic tumour (Thymomas-Rare)

Most common location=Antero-superior then posterior

Most common primary cyst= Brochogenic cyst then pleuropericardial cyst

Most malignant masses of mediastinum= lymphoma

Most common mediastinal germ cell tumour= teratoma

From- All India 2008

Ans5. (D). It is a surgical emergency

*Clue = It is never a surgical emergency although dehydration and electrolyte abnormalities may
present as a medical emergency.

Fluid Resuscitation and correction of electrolyte imbalance is essential before surgery.

Surgery= Fredet- Ramstedt pyloromyotomy is done.

From- AIIMS May- 2010

Ans6. (B)- Lung

*Clue= Stomach is most commonly associated with it. (=20%) others are large bowel= (14%),

ovary (=14%) and pancreatic tumors (=11%).

From- AIIMS May-2010

Ans7. (C). Radiological hallmark is chondrocalcinosis.

*Clue= Knee joint is most commonly involved

Age group >60 years

Synovial fluid polarised light examination shows:---

Weakly positive, birefringent, rhomboid crystal of CPPD in……….Pseudo-Gout

Strongly Negative, birefringent, needle shaped crystal of Mono sodium urate in…………Gout

From- AIIMS NOV-2009

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Ans8. (A). Can be managed conservatively

*Clue= this is a surgical emergency and surgical debridement is mandatory.mortality rate is nearly
100% without surgical debridement.

From- All India-2009

Ans9. (D). Stenosis typically occurs just distal to origin of subclavian artery, proximal to the origin of
vertebral artery.

*Clue=Most common cause is atherosclerotic disease

Left subclavian artery is more commonly involved than right

Most commonly involve first portion of artery

Stenosis of first part lead to subclavian steal syndrome

SUBCLAVIAN
UBCLAVIAN STEAL S YNDROME = is characterized by reversed flow in the vertebral artery to
compensate for the proximal stenosis in the ipsilateral subclavian artery there by stealing blood
from the brain to feed the arm.

From all india-2009

Ans10. (A) Glomus Tumour is seen in adrenals.

*Clue=Glomus Tumour is seen in fingers. most commonly subungual.

Clinically characterized by a triad of- sensitivity to cold.,localized tenderness and severe

intermittent pain.

Treatment=surgical excision
From- AIIMS Nov-2008

Ans11. (D) PSA velocity of <.75 ng/ml suggest ca-prostate.

*Clue= PSA velocity of >.75 ng/ml suggests ca-prostate not <.75 ng/ml.

From All India -2007

Ans12. (C). Charcot’s triad includes Pain, jaundice, and fever.

*Clue=Cushing triad of Raised ICT= Irregular respiration, Bradycardia & Hypertension.

Saint’s triad includes= Gall stone, Hiatus Hernia & Diversticulosis of colon.
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Reynold’s pentad includes= Charcot’s triad+ shock + Neurological abnormalities

From- AIIMS Nov-2010

Ans13. (C ). Vagus nerve

Note= in modified radical neck dissection these structures are preserved- Accessory nerve,

Sternocleidomastoid muscle, Carotid artery & Internal jugular vein.

Internal Jugular Vein

From- PGI June- 2007

Ans14. (B). Haematemesis

From: PGI- NOV-2009

Ans15. (B) Burns.

From- PGI June- 2008

Ans16. (A) Polypropylene.

From- All India 2008

Ans17. (A) Most commonly associated with acceleration injury.

*Clue= Most commonly associated with deceleration injury not acceleration injury.

From- PGI June-2008

Ans18. (C). Subfascial Legation.

From= UPSC -2008

Ans19. (A) Hypocalcemia

From= All India 2008

Ans20. (D). FNAC.

From= DPGEE-2008

Ans21. (D). Ilial Transposition

From -AIIMS Nov-2008

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Ans22. (B) Cleft lip

From- PGI- Dec 2008

Ans23. (C). Mediastinal fibrosis

From- AIIMS May-2009

Ans24. (B) Malignancy

From- AIIMS May-2009

Ans25. (C). Near total thyroidectomy with modified neck dissection.

From- All India 2009

Ans26. (C). Median survival in locally advance disease (Stage-III) is 3-6 months.

From- All india 2009

Ans27. (B). Enterogastric Reflex is the cause.

From- PGI Nov-2009

Ans28. (C). Cholangitis

From- PGI Nov-2009

Ans29. (B). J-stent drainage

From- All India 2010

Ans30. (B) RTS+ISS+AGE

From- All India- 2010

ANSWERS

(OBS & GYNAE)

Ans31. (B). Parous woman with grade III and IV cardiac lesion.
Contact us: +91-9871346248

*Clue= Relative indication are-

1. Parous woman with grade III and IV cardiac lesion.

2. Grade I or II with previous history of cardiac failure in early month or in between pregnancy.

From- AIIMS May-2009

Ans32. (C). Excessive Weight loss during pregnancy.

*Clue= It is excessive weight gain during pregnancy not loss.

[Funda to remember – ‘DOPE’]

From- AIIMS Nov 2008

Ans33. (D). None.

From- AIIMS Nov-2008

Ans 34. (C). HPV-16 is most prevalent type in squamous cell carcinoma of cervix.

*Clue= HPV-18 is most prevalent type in adenocarcinoma of cervix.

Both Bivalent and Quadrivalent vaccines are available.

From- All India-2007.

Ans35. (B). Levonova effective life is 5 years.

*Clue= Levonova is 3rd generation IUD along with Progestasert.

Levonova releases 20 micro gm. Levonorgestrel daily.

Progestasert releases 65 micro gm. Levonorgestrel daily with a effective life of I year.

Pregnancy rate of multiload is minimum that is .1 & that of lippe’s loop is highest=3.0

From- All India- 2007

Ans36. (D). Public and Axillary hairs are well developed in Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome.

*Clue=Axillary and public hairs are scanty or almost absent in androgen insensitivity syndrome.

While breast are well developed.

From- All India-2010

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Ans37. (C). Negative Endocervical curettage.

Note- LEEP is the treatment of choice for treating CIN II and CIN III lesions.

From- All India 2010

Ans38. (B). CIS- clomiphene (Zuclomiphene) is weak estrogen agonist

*Clue= Pain of ovarian carcinoma is reffered to medial side of thigh

Pregnancy with cholestasis should be terminated at or beyond 37 weeks of gestation.

Test for ovarian reserve is FSH only.not LH/FSH ratio.

From- AIIMS May-2010

Ans39. (C). Hobnail cell seen in Brenner tumour.

*Clue= Hobnail cells seen in-------clear cell carcinoma.

Waltherd cell and Puffed wheat cell seen in-------Brenner tumour.

From- AIIMS Nov-2009

Ans40. (B). Trichomonal Vaginosis.

From- All India-2009

Ans41. (A). Normal FSH, normal LH, normal testosterone, Normal testicular Volume.

*Clue= Low FSH, LH, testosterone & testicular volume in= Hypogonadotrophic Azoospermia.

Persistently elevated FSH & reduced testicular volume in= Hpergonadotrophic Azoospermia.

From- All India-2009

Ans42. (C). 14-16 weeks.

*Clue= 10-12 weeks- Trans-cervical charionic villous sampling done.

10 weeks- Trans-abdominal chorionic villous sampling done.

18-20 weeks- Cordo-centesis done.

From- PGI Nov -2009

Ans43. (D). Production of Progesterone.

Contact us: +91-9871346248

From- COMED- 2009.

Ans44. (B). Pelvic floor muscle exercise

From – All India-2009

Ans45. (A). 1-2%

From- DPGEE- 2009

Ans46. (D) Failure to identify and repair enterocele.

From- UPSC- 2009.

Ans47. (B) Radiosensetive

From- PGI June- 2009

Ans48. (A) OCPc use.

From- PGI Nov-2009

Ans49. (B) Cleft palate

From- All India- 2010

Ans50. (A) Mayer- Rokitanski- Kuster- Hauser Syndrome.

From- All India-2010

Ans51. (A) T11-T12

From- AIIMS Nov- 2009

Ans52. (B) Follow-up

From- AIIMS May-2010

Ans53. (B) Polyhydramnios

From-All India-2007

Ans54. (c) Umbilical cord compression

From-COMED-2006

Ans55. (B) To Start dexamethasone as soon as pregnancy is confirmed.

Contact us: +91-9871346248

From-All India-2008

(ANSWERS
(ANSWERS)

MEDICINE
MEDICINE
Ans-56 (B) Total bilirubin is typically between 20-30 mg/dl.

*Clu
Clue - it is typically between 2-5 mg/dl.

From- All India -2007

Ans57. (D) Thrombocytosis

*Clue- There is thrombocytopenic purpura , atopic dermatitis , small platelets and increased
succeptibility to infections.

From- AIIMS- Nov 2008

Ans58. Serum fructosamine can be used in screening of diabetes.

*Clue= Tumour lysis syndrome is assocated with Hypocalcemia.

In prions disease mycolonus found in most of the cases = nearly 90%

Arthralgia, fever, prolonged PR-interval & elevated acute phase reactants are included in minor
jone’s criteria.

From- AIIMS May-2009

Ans59. (B). Elevation in percent transferrin saturation.

*Clue= In Haematochromatosis----

Fist organ to be affected =Liver

Contact us: +91-9871346248

Cause of death due to= liver involvement

Bronzing of skin due to= Increased melanin and Iron is dermis.

in heart involvement MC Presentation =CHF.

Joints of hands especially the 2nd and 3rd MCP joints are the first to be involved.

Phlebotomy is the treatment of choice.

From- All India- 2008

Ans60. (B). Factor VIII defect.

*Clue= Isolated prolongation of APTT with bleeding manifestations seen in _________?

Factor VIII defect

Factor IX defect

Factor XI defect.

From- All India- 2009.

Ans61. (B). Durie-salmon staging system is for multiple myeloma.

*Clue= Hypersensitivity vasculitis affects post-capillary venules.

Ann-arbor staging is for lymphoma.

Clark & breslow staging is for melanoma.

Plucked chicken skin appearance is seen in pseudoxanthoma elasticum.

From- AIIMS May- 2010.

Ans62. (D). HLA-DR4 associated with Narcolepsy

*Clue= HLA-DR4 associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis

Narcolepsy is associated with HLA-DR-2

From- AIIMS Nov-2009

Ans63. (B) Convulsion

From- AIIMS Nov-2009

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Ans64. (C) Low serum erythropoietin level

From- All India- 2010

Ans65. (D). Hematochromatosis

From- All India- 2010

Ans66. (A). Autosomal dominant inheritance.

From- All India 2010

Ans67. (B) Myocardial Reperfusion

From- All India 2010

Ans68. (C). Wegener’s granulomatosis

From- AIIMS May-2010

Ans69. Ehler’s danlos Syndrome.

From- AIIMS May-2010

Ans70. (B) Hyperkalemia

From- AIIMS May-2010

Ans71. (A) Cytokeratin

From- AIIMS Nov-2009

Ans72. (A) BCL-6: Burkitt’s lymphoma.

From- AIIMS Nov-2009

Ans73. (D). Tay-sach’s disease

From- AIIMS Nov-2010

Ans74. (C). LKM-2- Chronic hepatitis D

From – AIIMS Nov-2010

Ans75. (A). Thalassemia Trait

From- All India- 2009

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Ans76. (A). Increased ACTH and Increased Cortisol

From- All India-2008

Ans77. (C). Urinary copper excretion <100 microgram /dl

From- AIIMS May-2009

Ans78. (B). Good reproducibility

From- UPSC- 2009

Ans79. (A). Tremors

From- COMED-2009

Ans80. (C). Intravenous Immunoglobin

From- Delhi PG- 2009

Ans81. (D). Hypokalemic periodic paralysis – k channel

From- PGI June 2009

Ans82. (A). Brain

From- PGI June 2008

Ans83. (A). Thiamine

From- UPPG-2008

Ans84. (D). Pellagra

From- Manipal-2008

Ans85. Electrocardiography

From- UPSC- 2008

ANSWERS
Contact us: +91-9871346248

PEDIATRICS
Ans86. (D). Diabetis Mellitus

*Clue= Causes of Nephrocalcinosis= Idiopathic Hypercalciuria.

Hyperoxaluria.

Renal Tabular acidosis Type-I

Diuretics given to Preterm baby

Bartter Syndrome

Dent’s disease

Primary hyperparathyroidism.

From – AIIMS May- 2009

Ans87. (B). Hypertension is present in 11-B hyroxylase difficiency.

*Clue= 21 α hyroxylase difficiency is most common type with salt loosing tendency leading to
hypotension.

Hypertension is present in both 11-β hyderoxylase and 17-α hydroxylase difficiency.

Inherited as autosomal reccesive condition.

Ans88. (C). X-Ray shows calcified and distorted adrenal glands.

*Clue= X Ray shows calcification .both the glands are inlarged but shape is normal not distorted.

From- AIIMS May-2010

Ans89. (D). in childhood PKD defective gene is PKHD2 coding for a protein fibrocystine.

*Clue= in childhood polycystic kidney disease (Autosomal Reccessive Type) diffective gene

Is PKHD1 that code for a protein fibrocystin.

From- All India-2009

Ans90. (B). Upper GI contrast study.

*Clue= X Ray- done only if associated with perforation

Contact us: +91-9871346248

From- All India 2010

Ans91. (C). MC Ardle disease (Type V) is due to phosphor fructokinase difficiency.

*Clue=
*Clue MC. Ardle disease is due to difficiency of muscle phosphorylase.

Phosphofructokinase difficiency seen in Tarui disease (Type VII).

Ans92. (C). Weight less than 10 Percentile for their gestational age.

From- PGI- Dec-2008

Ans93. (B). Positive Rheumatoid Factor.

From- UP-2008

Ans94. (C). Cladrabine

From- AIIMS Nov-2008

Ans95. (C). 11 Deoxycortisol

From- All India-2009

Ans96. (B) Mental Retardation

From- UPSC-2009

Ans97. (A) Increased flow murmur across tricuspid & pulmonary valve.

From - AIIMS May-2010

Ans98. (B).Decreased osteoid matrix formation

From – All India- 2010

Ans99. (D). Mixed Gonadal Dysgenesis

From- COMED-2009

Ans100. (A). Packed cell transfusion

From- UPSC- 2009