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PAPER NAME : MINOR 6

1) Methotrexate acts by:

A) Directly Interefere with RNA

B) Directly Interefere with DNA

C) Directly Inhibit the synthesis of Folic acid

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D) Directly Interfere with Purine synthesis

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Correct Answer is C

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EXP : Methotrexate is a antimetabolite that cause inhibition of Dihydrofolate reductase and synthesis of

folic acid that required in the synthesis of thymidylic acid and purine nucleotides and finally DNA

stu
synthesis.

2) Which of the following is not alkylating agent:

A) Chlorambucil

B) Cyclophosphamide
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C) Mustine

D) Methotrexate
ph

Correct Answer is D

EXP : Except methotrexate all are alkylating agents cause alkylation of guanine base of DNA and
.b

interfere in replication process. Methotrexate is an antimetabolite agent

3) Doxorubicin acts by inhibiting

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A) Asparaginase
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B) Topoisomerase

C) Adenosine deaminase
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D) Inhibit ATPase

Correct Answer is B

EXP : Doxorubicin acts by inhibiting topoisomerase-II enzyme and interfere with DNA synthesis.

4) Which of the following is an antimetabolite

A) Cyclophosphamide

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B) Chlorambucil

C) Fluorouracil

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D) Doxorubicin

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Correct Answer is C

5) Anticancer agents acts by following mechanism. Identify that

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A) Limiting Cancer cell permeability

B) Improving the body defense mechanism m

C) Inhibiting the growth of cells

D) Inhibit the cell wall synthesis

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Correct Answer is C
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6) One of the following drug interfere with cellular metabolism, especially the synthesis of mycolic acid.

IdentifyA) Chloremphenicol

B) Pyrazinamide
.b

C) Isonicotinic acid hydrazide

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D) Nicotinamide

Correct Answer is C
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7) Sulphasalazine is a prodrug that is cleaved in intestine by

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A) Choline esterase

B) Lipase

C) Amylase
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D) Azoreductase

Correct Answer is D

8) Erythromycin is

A) a cephalosporin

B) a penicillin

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C) a macrolide

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D) a sulphonamide

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Correct Answer is C

9) Fourth generation fluoroquinolone is

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A) Ciprofloxacin

B) Sparfloxacin

C) Moxifloxacin

D) Ofloxacin
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Correct Answer is C

10) Primaquine is used to treat

ph

A) Relapsing plasmodium falciparum

B) Resistant P. falciparum
.b

C) Resistant P. vivax

D) Relapsing P. vivax
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Correct Answer is B
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11) A drug X is having percentage compressibility of 27 . A pharmaceutical Excepient Y is added to

drug in its usual concentration. Now the flow property of X comes in the range of 5-15. The excepient Y
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is& .

A) A lubricant

B) A glidant

C) A Binder

D) both a and b

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Correct Answer is B

EXP : Glidant is used to enhance flow property. The percentage compressibility in 5-15 is excellent.

o
(Table 8.4 Lachman). Glidants are talc-5%,corn starch 5-10 %, colloidal silica such as Cab-o-Sil or

f.c
aerosol 0.25-3 5 concentration. This part is important and to be studied with proper attention.

12) Select the true statement for partition coefficient

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A) Ratio of unionized lipophilic and hydrophilic drug concentration

B) Ratio of ionized lipophilic and hydrophilic drug concentration

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C) Ratio of unionized hydrophilic and lipophilic drug concentration

D) Ratio of ionized hydrophilic and lipohilic drug concentration

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Correct Answer is A
ph

13) A weakly acidic drug A with acid dissociation constant (pKa) 1.2 was administered orally. Calculate

the theoretical percentage drug ionized present in stomach?

A) 1%
.b

B) 0%
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C) 1%

D) 1.00%
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Correct Answer is B
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EXP : Stomach pH is 1.2. According to Handerson Hasselbach Equation at pH equal to Dissociation

constant, the percentage ionized fraction is equal to unionized means both are equal i.e. 50%.

14) In disperse systems flocculation occurs when Zeta potential:

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A) Increases

B) Decreases

C) Remains as such

D) none of the above

Correct Answer is B

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EXP : When Zeta potential decreases flocculation occurs because of cohelesence of the particles due to

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reduced free energy.

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15) Suspending agents commonly used in suspensions act through following most appropriate

mechanism:

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A) Reducing interfacial tension

B) Increase zeta potential

C) Increases viscosity

D) Decrease viscosity
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Correct Answer is C

EXP : Thickning agets are used as suspending agents to make particles suspended in the continuous
ph

phase.

16) Which of the following is transparent sytem:

.b

A) W/O emulsion

B) Microemulsion
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C) O/W emulsion
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D) Emulsions never are transparent

Correct Answer is B
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EXP : Explanation: in microemulsion the globule size is in microrange that is not visible with naked

eyes hence looks transparent.

17) An o/w emulsion is stabilized with sodium stearate; upon addition of calcium chloride lead to

formation of w/o emulsion; the phenomenon is known as

A) Breaking of emulsion

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B) Creaming of emulsion

C) Phase inversion

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D) Coalescence

f.c
Correct Answer is C

18) Which of the following type of surfactant category A is commonly used to produce stable emulsions:

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A) Anionic surfactant

B) Cationic surfactant m
C) Nonionic surfactant

D) Surfactants are only used to prepare suspensions

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Correct Answer is C
ph

19) HLB system is used to classify

A) Surfactants

B) Preservatives
.b

C) Antioxidants
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D) Sequestering Agents

Correct Answer is A
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20) Which of the following is not correct pair:

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A) Crystal Growth-Ostwald ripening

B) pH scale-Sorenson

C) HLB scale-Fick s Theory

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D) Interparticular force-DLVO theory

Correct Answer is C

EXP : HLB scale is concerned with Griffin

21) Recent amendments in Patent Act 1970 were done in

A) 2002

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B) 1999

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C) 2005

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D) 2009

Correct Answer is C

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22) Rohit made and invention in India. He wish to file a patnt in India, USA,EUROPE, Australia, China

and few more countries. The economic mode of filing is

A) File patent in each country

B) Apply for international Patent

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C) Should follow Patent Cooperation Treaty Route that is filing PCT application

D) Rohit can,t get patent in other countries other than INDIA

ph

Correct Answer is C

EXP : Economic mode of patent filing in many country to save money and time is PCT filing. In this
.b

process One application filed to the selected patent office would serve the purpose of filing in
designated
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countries. He need not to file in individual country. there is no such term like International Patent.

23) One drug X is having angle of repose 27 while other Y is having 40.Which is having good flow
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property.
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A) X

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B) Y

C) Both would have same flow property

D) none of the above

Correct Answer is A

24) Coulter counter method directly measures )

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A) Particle radius

B) Particle volume

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C) Particle surface area

f.c
D) none of the above

Correct Answer is B

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EXP : By coulter counter method the volume diaplaced of electrolyte by the particle that pass through

the pore. From this data various data like particle size radius can be calculated
m
25) is a lactam antibiotic having an oxepenam ring

A) SALBACTUM
ar
B) PENICILLIN
ph

C) CLAVULANIC ACID

D) CEPHALOSPORIN

Correct Answer is C
.b

26) Streptomycin is a
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A) di-acidic base possesing an aldehydic group

B) tri-acidic base possesing an aldehydic group

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C) neutral compound possessing a ketonic group

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D) acidic compound possessing a carboxylic group

Correct Answer is B

27) TRIPLE SULFA IS

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A) sulfabenzamide, sulfathiazole,sulfamethoxazole

B) sulfabenzamide,sulfacetamide, sulfathiazole

C) sulfabenzamide,sulfapyrazine,sulfamethoxazole

D) sulfapyrazine,sulfamethoxazole, sulfisoxazole

Correct Answer is B

m
28) The rings present in penicillinG are

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A) oxazolidine and lactam ring

f.c
B) isoxazole and lactam ring

C) thiazolidine and lactam ring

stu
D) piperazine and lactam ring

Correct Answer is C

29) tetracyclines should not be given with

A) milk
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B) antacids

C) sucralfates
ph

D) All of these

Correct Answer is D
.b

30) is a pyrimidine antimetabolite which also is an antiviral drug

A) vidarbine
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B) acyclovir
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C) ganciclovir

D) foscarnet
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Correct Answer is A

31) A tricyclic amine used as antiviral is

A) amantadine

B) ribavirin

C) foscarnet

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D) didanosine

Correct Answer is A

o
32) A patient hypersensitive to metronidazole is suffering from pseudomembranous colitis; what would

f.c
be you suggest for P colitis?

A) Doxycycline

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B) Vancomycinb

C) Clindamycin m
D) Chloramphenicol

Correct Answer is B
ar
33) IUPAC name of Amodiaquine
ph

A) 4-[(7-chloro-4-quinolynyl)amino]-2-[(diethylamino)methyl]phenol

B) N-(6-methoxy-8-quinolynyl)pentanediamine phosphate

C) 7-[(4-chloro-3-quinolynyl)amino]-2-[(diethylamino)methyl]-phenol
.b

D) N-(6-methyl-7-quinolynyl)pentanediamine phosphate
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Correct Answer is A

34) Dihydrothiazine is an active metabolite of

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A) Artemether
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B) Quinacrine

C) Biguanide

D) Primaquine
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Correct Answer is C

35) Which of these drugs have pyrimidinediamine nucleus?

A) Pyrimethamine

B) Trimethoprim

C) Both

m
D) none of the above

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Correct Answer is A

f.c
36) Which of the following is not a O- lactamase inhibitor

A) Thienomycin

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B) Tazobactam

C) Clavulanic acid

D) Piperacilline

Correct Answer is D
m
ar
37) IUPAC name of cloxacilline

A) 5-methyl-3-(2chlorophenyl)-4-isoxazolylpenicilline
ph

B) 5-methyl-3-(2,6-chlorophenyl)-4-isoxazolylpenicilline

C) 5-methoxy-3-(2,6-chlorophenyl)-4-isoxazolylpenicilline
.b

D) 3-methyl-5-(2chlorophenyl)-4-isoxazolylpenicilline

Correct Answer is A
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38) Which of the following drug is an inhibitor of DHP-I enzyme

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A) Sulbactam

B) Cilastin
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C) Meropenem

D) Biapenem

Correct Answer is B

39) Cloxacillin is

A) Acid resistant penicillin

m
B) Beta lactamase inhibitor

C) Penicillinase resistant penicillin

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D) none of the above

f.c
Correct Answer is C

40) A weakly acidic drug A with acid dissociation constant (pKa) 1.2 was administered orally. Calculate

stu
the theoretical percentage drug ionized present in stomach?

A) 0% m
B) 1%

C) 1%
ar
D) 1%
ph

Correct Answer is A

41) Hydrophobic drugs decreases their rate of dissolution with increase in effective surface area WHY?

A) Charge development at surface of the drug

.b

B) Increased surface free energy

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C) The above statement is wrong

D) Both a & b
w

Correct Answer is D
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42) Sink conditions follows& .

A) Zero order kinetics

B) Michaelis-menton kinetics
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C) First order kinetics

D) Mixed order kinetics

Correct Answer is A

43) Select the formula to calculate steady state concentration follow I/V infusion model....

A) Css= Infusion rate/Clearance

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B) Css= Clearance/ Infusion rate

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C) Css= Infusion rate x Clearance

f.c
D) Css= Infusion rate + Clearance

Correct Answer is A

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44) Drug elimination involves....(ADME are steps of pharmacokinetics)

A) ADME

B) DME

C) ME
m
ar
D) E Only

Correct Answer is C
ph

45) Which one is irrational statement for first order kinetics?

A) Half life is a function of concentration of reactants

.b

B) Reaction rate is not a function of concentration of reactants

C) Both a & b
w

D) All of these
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Correct Answer is D

46) Enzyme to form key intermediate under biosynthesis of indole alkaloids& ..

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A) Mevalonic acid synthetase

B) Strictosidine synthetase

C) Strychine synthetase

D) Eserine synthetase

Correct Answer is B

m
47) The biosynthetic precursor of quinine & cinchonidine is&

A) Tryptophen only

o
B) Tryptophen & lysine respectively

f.c
C) Lysine & tryptophen respectively

D) Lysine only

stu
Correct Answer is A

48) Assay limits for Barbados aloe & cape aloe are& . m
A) Equal or more than 28% & 18% respectively

B) Equal or more than 18% & 28% respectively

ar
C) Equal or less than 18% & 28% respectively
ph

D) Equal or less than 28% & 18% respectively

Correct Answer is A

49) Two point spectophotometric assay BP is specified for& .

.b

A) Quinine only
w

B) Cinchonine only

C) Quinine & Cinchonine

w

D) Not specified for Quinine & Cinchonine

w

Correct Answer is C

50) According to BP quantitatively Glycyrrhizic acid is best dentified by& .

A) TLC (210nm)
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B) TLC (250nm)

C) TLC (220nm)

D) TLC (290nm)

Correct Answer is B

Page 10/10

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