EMBRYOLOGY

1. Which of the following synthesize progesterone?

a) Cytotrophoblast
b) Syncytiotrophoblast
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A or B

2. All occur during the morula stage except:

a) Attachment to the uterine epithelium takes
place
b) The location of the cells dictates their fate
c) The outer cells pump fluid creating a fluid-
filled blastocele
d) Tight junctions appear between cells at the
periphery, isolating the inner
cells from the uterine fluid

3. During the first week of human development:

a) The zona pellicoda is formed
b) The cells of the embryo increase in number
but become smaller
c) The cells of the embryo increase in size
d) Implantation is completed
e) None of the above

4. During the second week of human development:

 a) The trophoblast differentiates into
cytotrophoblast & syncytiotrophoblast
b) The utero-placental circulation begins
c) The inner cell mass differentiation into
hypoblast and epiblast
d) Primary stem villi appear
e) All of the above

5. As a result of transverse and longitudinal

folding of the embryo:
a) The prochordal membrane is moved
ventrally and caudally
b) Position of yolk sac becomes incorporated
into embryonic body
c) The primitive groove is moved cranially &
dorsally
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above

6. Which of the following is/are normally always

interposed between fetal and maternal blood:
a) Extraembronic mesoderm
b) Maternal endothelial cells
c) Syncytiotrophoblast
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above
7. Maternal blood normally comes into contact
with:
a) Syncytiotrophoblast
b) Cytotrophoblast
c) Fetal blood cells
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above

8. Which of the following is not a function of the

yolk sac in humans?
a) Site of origin of primodial germ cells
b) Site of origin of fetal blood cells
c) Provides nourishment/metabolic reserves
for the embryo
d) Site of origin of epithelium of the primitive
gut
e) Facilitates transfer of nutrients into the
early embryo

9. At the time of ovulation the endometrium is in

the:
a) Menstral phase
b) Early proliferative phase
c) Late proliferative phase
d) Early secretory phase
 e) Late secretory phase

10. Lines in the chorionic after the third

developmental week is:
a) Cytotrophoblast
b) Syncytiotrophopblast
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

11. Always normally situated between maternal

and fetal blood:
a) Cytotrophoblast
b) Syncytiotrophoblast
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

12. Bleeding may occur near the 13th day of

development:
a) May be confused with normal menstral
bleeding
b) Is caused by increased blood flow into
lacunar spaces
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

13. The extraembryonic membrane which

contributes the most tissue to the formation of the
placenta is the:
 a) Amnion
b) Chorion
c) Yolk sac
d) Connecting (body) stalk
e) Decidua

14. The extraembryonic epiblast gives rise to or

contributes cells to which of the following germ
layers?
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above

15. The primitive streak:

a) Is derived from the outer cells of the
morula
b) Is formed during the second week in
development
c) Persists as the cloacal membrane
d) Is the site of involution of epiblast cells to
form mesoderm

16. The bilaminar germ disc:

a) Consists of hypoblast and epiblast
 b) Is derived from trophoblast cells
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

17. Meiosis is completed within the gonads during

gametogenesis in which sex?
a) Gametogenesis in human female
b) Gametogenesis in human male
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

18. Female pronucleus are fully formed:

a) Before fertilization
b) After fertilization
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

19. The conceptus is the:

a) Embryo/fetus
b) Amnion and Chorion
c) Deciduas
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above

20. Functions of the placenta include all the

following except:
a) Exchange of maternal and fetal blood
b) Exchange of nutrients and electrolytes
 c) Hormone production
d) Gas exchange
e) Transmission of maternal antibodies

21. The secondary oocyte undergoes completion of

the second maturation division:
a) Before ovulation
b) At fertilization
c) After ovulation
d) Prenatally
e) At puberty

22. The ovarian follicular cells release:

a) Follicle stimulating hormone
b) Chorionic Gonadotrophin
c) Estrogen
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above

23. The most common site for implantation in

ectopic pregnancy is the::
a) Internal os of the uterus
b) Mesentary
c) Ovary
 d) Oviduct
e) None of the above

24. At the time of initiation of implantation:

a) The endometrium is in the proliferative
phase
b) The predominant ovarian hormone is
progesterone
c) The conceptus is approximately one day
"old" (postfertilization)
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above

25. All is true about primary oocytes except:

a) Are arrested in prophase of the first meiotic
divisi€on
b) Continue to form after birth
c) Together, with surrounding epithelial cells,
for a primordial follicle
d) Suffer from atretion until only
approximately 40, 000 are left at puberty

26. Trophoblast and inner cell mass portions are

evident in the:
a) Conceptus before implantation has started
b) Conceptus after implantation has started
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
27. At fertilization:
a) The ovum completes the 2nd meiotic
division
b) Cleavage is initiated
c) The sex of the individual is determined
d) The diploid number of chromosomes is
restored
e) All of the above

28. All the following are derivatives of mesoderm

except:
a) Dermatomes
b) Myotomes
c) Sclerotomes
d) Endothelium
e) Yolk sac

29. The prechordal plate:

a) Is a patent inducer region for future head
structures
b) Becomes a portion of the oropharyngeal
membrane
c) Is formed within the embryonic epiblast
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above
30. At the time of fertilization, the endometrium is
in the:
a) Proliferative phase
b) Secretory phase
c) Menstral phase
d) Both B and C

31. Which of the following contains abundant

nutrient reserves?
a) Female gametes
b) Male gametes
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

32. Which of the following determines the genetic

sex of the zygote?
a) Female gametes
b) Male gametes
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

33. Which of the following is found in the early

placenta?
a) Cytotrophoblast
b) Syncytiotrophoblast
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
34. The space between the somatopleuric and
splanchnopleuric extraembryonic mesoderm is
known as:
a) The primitive yolk sac
b) The secondary yolk sac
c) The blastocele
d) The amniotic cavity
e) The extraembryonic coelom

35. As a result of fertilization:

a) Sex of the offspring is determined
b) The diploic number of chromosomes is
restored
c) Cleavage divisions are initiated
d) Genetic heterogeneity is maintained
e) All of the above

36. At the time of the first missing menstral

period, the conceptus is:
a) 3 days old
b) 5 days old
c) 3 weeks old
d) 5 weeks old
37. Primary oocytes have developed by the time of
birt. From puberty to menopause, these germ cells
remain suspended in the meiotic prophase. The
oocyte of a mature follicle is induced to undergo
the first meiotic division just prior to ovulation as
a result of which of the following hormonal
stimuli:
a) The cessation of progesterone secretion
b) The gradual elevation of FSH titers
c) The low estrogen titers associated with the
maturing follicle
d) The slow elevation of progesterone
produced by luteal cells
e) The surge of luteinizing hormone initiated
by high estrogen titers

38. By the 4th day of development, fluid

accumulation by the morula results is separation
of the cells into trophoblasts and embryoblasts, or
inner cell mass. From the 8th-12th day of
development, the role of trophoblasts includes all
of the following except:
a) Enclosure of inner cell mass and blastocyst
cavity
b) Formation of embryo proper
c) Invasion of endometrial epithelium
d) Production of hormones
 e) Production of 2 distinct cell populations by
differentiation

39. A 26 year old man had viral influenza with

fever 39.5o for 3 days. Since spermatogenesis
cannot occur above a scrotal temperature of 35.5 o,
he was left with no viable sperm on his recovery.
The time required for spermatogenesis,
spermiogenesis, passage of a viable sperm to the
epididymis is approximately:
a) 3 days
b) 1 week
c) 5 weeks
d) 2 months
e) 4 months

40. A 25 year old female states that she has a very

regular menstrual cycle that is 24 days in length.
The projected time of ovulation for this woman
would be about the:
a) 14th day following start of her last
menstrual period
 b) 12th day following end of her last menstrual
period
c) 12th day following end of her last menstrual
period
d) 10th day following end of her last menstrual
period
e) 10th day following beginning of her last
menstrual period

41. The chorionic villi of the placenta are most

numerous in the region of the:
a) Decidua capsularis
b) Chorionic plate
c) Basal plate
d) Maternal septae
e) Decidua basalis

42. The following list contains components of the

"placental barrier" during the first trimester of
pregnancy. Which one component is disappearing
during late pregnancy?
a) The endothelial lining of fetal capillaries
b) The cytotrophoblast
c) The syncytiotrophoblast
d) The basement membrane of fetal
capillaries
e) None of the above
43. All of the following placental transport
mechanism require the expenditure of cellular
energy except:
a) Active transport
b) Pinocytosis
c) Simple diffusion
d) Facilitated diffusion

44. A full-term male infant has vomited 1 hour

after suckling. There has been failure to gait
during the first 2 weeks postnatal. The vomitus is
not bile-stained and no respiratory dilation is
evident. Wxamination reveals an abdomen neither
tense nor bloated. The most probable explaination
is:
a) Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
b) Duodenal atresia
c) Patient ileal diverticulum
d) Imperforate anus
e) Tracheo-esophageal fistula
45. A fistula is found that runs between the
palatine tonsil fossa and the skin of the neck
immediately anterior to the sternocleidomastoid
muscle. Developmetal failure occured:
a) With a rupture of the tissue between the
third branchial cleft and third
pharyngeal pouch
b) With a failure to close the first branchial
cleft
c) With a failure to obliterate the cervical
sinus
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above

46. Which statement about fetal blood vessels is

false:
a) The ductus arteriosus carries blood from
the aorta to the pulmonary trunk
b) The foramen ovale carries blood from the
right atrium to the left atrium
c) The umbilical vein carries blood from the
umbilical cord via the ductus
venosus to the inferior vena cave
d) Implantation is completed
e) None of the above

47. Regarding the blastocyst all the following are

true except:
 a) Has more cells than a morula
b) Has inner cell mass
c) Has syncytotrophoblast
d) Has trophoblast cells
e) May have zona pellucida

48. Derivatives of the mesodermal cell layer of the

embryo include all the following except:
a) Adrenal cortex
b) Gonads
c) Peritoneal serosa
d) Spleen
e) Liver parenchyma

49. In the developing embryo, the first bone to

begin ossification is the:
a) First rib
b) Humerus
c) Tibia
d) Scapula
e) Clavicle

50. Fallot's tetralogy includes all the following

except:
a) Pulmonary stenosis
b) Aortic overrinding
c) Ventricular septal defect
d) Patency of ductus arteriosus
 e) Hypertrophy of the right ventricle

51. The trachea

develops from the:
a) Septum transversum
b) Fifth branchial arch
c) Thyroglossal canal
d) Pulmonary mesenchyme
e) Foregut

52. In the developing pancreas, the dorsal bud

contributes all the following except:
a) Body of the pancreas
b) Distal portion of the main pancreatic duct
c) Secondary pancreatic duct
d) Uncinate process
e) Upper half of the head of the pancreas

53. All of the following structures contribute in

development of diaphragm except:
a) Body wall
b) Primitive mesoesophagus
c) Septum transversum
d) Pleuro-pericardial membrane
e) Pleuro-peritoneal membrane
54. Spina bifida is a failure of fusion between the:
a) Left and right halves of the vertebral
column
b) Pedicle and centrum of the vertebra
c) Left and right laminae of the vertebra
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above

55. A urachal fistula represents a remnant of the:

a) Cloaca
b) Allantois
c) Urogenital sinus
d) Hindgut
e) Mesonephric duct

56. What is the origin of the mucosa of the middle

ear:
a) Neural ectoderm
b) Surface ectoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) Endoderm
e) None of the above

57. The left sixth aortic arch gives rise to the:

a) Hemiazygos vein
b) Coronary sinus
c) Ligamentum arteriosum
 d) Ligamentum venosum
e) No remnants are found in this structure in
the adult

58. The posterior pituitary is of which origin:

a) Endoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Ectoderm
d) Endoderm and mesoderm
e) Endoderm and ectoderm

59. The parathyroid glands:

a) They are 3 in number
b) They secrete Calcitonia
c) They develop from the 2nd pharyngeal arch
d) They normally lie anterior to the thyroid
gland
e) They develop from the 3rd and 4th
pharyngeal arches (pouches)

60. Unilateral upper lip cleft is due to failure of

fusion of:
a) Medial nasal processes
b) Maxillary and lateral nasal processes
c) Maxillary and medial nasal processes on
one side
d) Maxillary and mandibular processes
e) Medial and lateral nasal processes
unilateralla

61. In which of the following is precursor cell

mitosis evident after puberty:
a) Female gametes
b) Male gametes
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

62. What is the origin of the mucosa of the oral

pharynx:
a) Branchial arch I
b) Branchial arch II
c) Branchial arch III
d) Branchial arch IV
e) Not of branchial arch origin

63. Which of the following is formed from

portions of one sclerotome:
a) Vertebral centrum
b) Intervertebral disc (annulus fibrosus)
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

64. The clavicle is:

a) The first bone to begin ossification
b) The first bone to complete ossification
c) Intramembranous in origin
 d) Both A and C
e) All of the above

65. Limb musculature:

a) Relies on spinal nerve to aid the
differentiation process
b) Begins as mesenchymal condensation
c) Is derived from somatic mesoderm
d) Splits into flexor and extensor
compartments
e) All of the above

66. Cervical sinus develop from:

a) Pharyngeal pouch 1
b) Pharyngeal pouch 2
c) Pharyngeal pouch 3
d) Pharyngeal pouch 4
e) This structure is not derived from
pharyngeal pouch

67. Parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland

develop from:
a) Pharyngeal pouch 1
b) Pharyngeal pouch 2
c) Pharyngeal pouch 3
d) Pharyngeal pouch 4
 e) This structure is not derived from
pharyngeal pouch

68. During the third to sixth months of pregnancy,

the structure primarily responsible for
erythropoiesis is the:
a) Bone marrow
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Thymus
e) Yolk sac

69. Structures derived from the hind gut in the

male include all the following except the:
a) Allantois
b) Descending colon
c) Inferior portion of the anal canal
d) Prostatic urethtra
e) Urinary bladder

70. With regard to the formation of the placenta

all of the following are false except:
a) Tertiary chorionic villi differ from primary
chorionic villi by the presence
of blood vessels
b) Primary chorionic villi contain only
syncytiotrophoblast
c) The intervillous space contains fetal blood
 d) The deciduas basalis and the chorion leave
constitute the placenta
e) The umbilical cord contains a loose
connective tissue called Wharton's jelly

71. The endocardial cushions are involved in the

formation of all of the following except:
a) Right and left atrioventricular canals
b) Pectinate muscles
c) Atrioventricular valves
d) Membranous part of the interventricular
septum

72. Which of the following is the most common

type of congenital heart malformation?
a) Dextrocardia
b) Atrial septal defect
c) Ectopic cordis
d) Ventricular septal defect
e) Transposition of the great vessels

73. The adult left atrium is derived

embryologically primarily from the:
a) Right horn of the sinus venosus
 b) Primitive pulmonary vein
c) Sinus venarum
d) Bulbus cordis
e) Ledt horn of the sinus venosus

74. The primitive aortic arch pattern is

transformed into an adult arterial arrangement.
Which pair of arteries (embryonic/adult) is
incorrect:
a) 6th arch/ pulmonary artery
b) Right 4th arch/ right subclavian
c) Left 4th arch/ left subclavian
d) 2nd arch/ stapedial artery
e) 3rd arch/ common and internal carotid

75. Azygos vein is derived from the:

a) Right vitelline vein
b) Right subcardinal vein
c) Right anterior cardinal
d) Right supracardinal vein
e) All of the above

76. All of the following are true concerning

development of the bronchi except:
a) Lung buds first form at the caudal end of
the laryngotracheal tube
b) During the 5th week of development, the
lung bud grows laterally into the
 primitive pleural cavities
(pericardioperitoneal canals)
c) Third generation bronchi supply
bronchopulmonary segments
d) The pulmonary cartilage, smooth muscle,
and connective tissue are derived from the
lung bud endoderm
e) By 24 weeks of development, respiratory
bronchioles are present

77. Tracheoesophageal fistula with blind ending

esophagus results in:
a) Polyhydraminos (more than usual amount
of amniontic fluid)
b) Oligohydraminos (less than usual amount
of amniotic fluid)
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

78. The definitive diaphragm is formed by fusions

of all except one of the following:
a) Mesoesophagus
b) Septum transversum
c) Pleuroperitoneal membranes
 d) Mesentery of duct of Cavier
e) Mesoderm of the body wall

79. Paraxial (somite) mesoderm gives rise to:

a) Muscles of mastication
b) Muscles in the stomach
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

80. The embryonic epiblast gives rise to or

contributes cells to which of the following germ
layers?
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above

81. Gonia cells produced during gametogenesis

are usually present in 65-year old individuals of
which sex:
a) Gametogenesis in human female
b) Gametogenesis in human male
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

82. All of the following are true of amniotic fluid

except:
 a) It is derived from maternal blood
b) It is swallowed by the fetus from the
beginning of the 5th month
c) It restricts fetal movement within the
amniotic cavity
d) It absorbs jolts to the fetus

83. Epithelium of the tongue posterior to the

sulcus terminals is derived from the:
a) First branchial arch
b) Second branchial arch
c) Third branchial arch
d) Fourth branchial arch
e) Not of branchial arch origin

84. What is the origin of the superior parathyroid

glands?
a) Pharyngeal pouch I
b) Pharyngeal pouch II
c) Pharyngeal pouch III
d) Pharyngeal pouch IV
e) Not of pharyngeal pouch origin

85. What is the origin of the mandible?

a) Branchial arch I
b) Branchial arch II
c) Branchial arch III
 d) Branchial arch IV
e) Not of the branchial arch origin

86. The thyroid gland:

a) Originates from an endodermal outgrowth
at the base of the primordial
tongue
b) Is usually detached from the Thyroglossal
duct in the adult
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B