CCNP SWITCHING FINAL – STUDY GUIDE

In its network design, a company lists this equipment :

Two Catalyst 4503 Layer 3 switches

One 5500 security appliance firewall

Two Catalyst 6509 switches

Two lightweight access points

Two Catalyst 2960 switches

Which two types of devices from the list would be appropriate to use at the access layer to provide end-user connectivity? (Choose two.)

Catalyst 4503 switches

Cisco 5500 security appliance firewall

Catalyst 6509 switches

lightweight access points

Catalyst 2960 switches

What two traffic types must be included when calculating the bandwidth requirements to support a voice stream in an IP telephony network? (Choose two.)

voice queues

voice carrier stream

voice services traffic

call control signaling

routing updates

What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)

require dedicated bandwidth allocation

can be used in video conference applications

may require real-time interaction between peer devices

can be used to fulfill the requirements for IP phone calls

may require a direct physical connection between devices

require centralized authentication

What are the responsibilities of devices that are located at the core layer of the hierarchical design model? (Choose two.)

access list filtering

packet manipulation

high-speed backbone switching

interconnection of distribution layer devices

redundancy between the core devices only

A network designer must provide a rationale to a customer for a design that will move an enterprise from a flat network topology to a hierarchical network topology. Which two
features of the hierarchical design make it the better choice? (Choose two.)

reduced cost

scalability

less equipment required

 higher availability

lower bandwidth requirements

During an evaluation of the currently installed network, the IT staff performs a gap analysis to determine whether the existi ng network infrastructure can support certain new
features. At which stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach does this activity occur?

prepare phase

plan phase

design phase

implement phase

operate phase

optimize phase

Which phase of the Cisco Lifecycle Services strategy may prompt a network redesign if too many network problems and errors arise in the network?

prepare

plan

design

implement

operate

optimize

Which portion of the enterprise network provides access to network communication services for the end users and devices that are spread over a single geographic location?

enterprise edge

campus module

WAN module

Internet edge

data center

Which family of Cisco switches is specifically designed for data centers?

Catalyst 6500

Catalyst 2000

Nexus 7000

Catalyst 4500

What type of specialized memory is used to facilitate high performance switching in Cisco multilayer switches?

content-addressable memory (CAM)

ternary content addressable memory (TCAM)

address resolution protocol (ARP) memory

Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) memory

Which Catalyst 6500 switch component integrates on individual line modules as well as on the supervisor engine?
 CPU

Flash

ASIC

NVRAM

Which technology consistently increases CPU load on multilayer Catalyst switches?

quality of service (QoS)

access control lists (ACLs)

policy-based routing (PBR)

network address translation (NAT)

Which family of Cisco switches supports Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)?

Catalyst 4948G

Catalyst 4500

Catalyst 6500

Nexus 5000

Which family of Cisco switches supports the greatest number of slots?

Catalyst 4500

Catalyst 6500

Nexus 5000

Nexus 7000

Which two features are unavailable on a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)

use of ASICs

Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) snooping

QoS marking

Time to Live (TTL) decrementing

rewrite of the source and destination MAC addresses

What is the purpose of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture?

It replaces the three-layer hierarchical model with a flat network approach.

It provides an enterprise-wide system network architecture that helps protect, optimize, and grow the network infrastructure that supports the business processes of a
company.

It provides services and functionality to the core layer by grouping various components into a single component that is located in the access layer.

It reduces overall network traffic by grouping server farms, the management server, corporate intranet, and e-commerce routers in the same la

On what is Layer 3 switching fundamentally based?

access control

the ability to circumvent CPU processing

software-based forwarding
 Parallel eXpress Forwarding (PXF)

A user needs to access a file server that is located in another department. Which layer of the Cisco Hierarchical Network Model will process the traffic first?

access

core

distribution

control

Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly describes the function of a switch that is configured in VTP transparent mode?

option 1

option 2

option 3

option 4

option 5

Refer to the exhibit. How should SW2 be configured in order to participate in the same VTP domain and populate the VLAN infor mation across the domain?
 Switch SW2 should be configured as a VTP client.

Switch SW2 should be configured for VTP version 1.

Switch SW2 should be configured with no VTP domain password.

Switch SW2 should be configured as a VTP server with a higher revision number

A network administrator is tasked with protecting a server farm by implementing private VLANs (PVLANs). A server is only allowed to communicate with its default gateway
and other related servers. Which type of PVLAN should be configured on the switch ports that connect to the servers?

isolated

promiscuous

secondary VLAN

community

Refer to the exhibit. During the network upgrade process, a network administrator included switch SW2 in the network. Immedia tely afterward, the users on VLAN10 who were
connected to SW10 lost connectivity to the network. Based on the show vtp status command outputs that are provided, what could be done to remedy the problem?

Configure switch SW2 in VTP client mode.

Configure switch SW2 with VTP version 1.

Configure switch SW2 with the higher revision number.

Configure switch SW2 with the same VTP domain name that SW1 has
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and later inserted into the production network. Before a trunk link has been connected between the two
switches SW1 and SW2, a network administrator issued the show vtp status command as displayed in the exhibit. Immediately after the switches were interconnected, all
users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the possible reason for the problem?

The switches can exchange VTP information only through an access link.

Switch SW2 receives more VLANs from switch SW1 than can be supported.

Switch SW2 has the pruning eligible parameter enabled, which causes pruning of all VLANs from the trunk port.

Switch SW2 has a higher VTP server revision number, which causes deletion of the VLAN information in the VTP domain

Refer to the exhibit. The web servers WS_1 and WS_2 need to be accessed by external and internal users. For security reasons, the servers do not have to communicate with
each other although they are located on the same subnet. Both servers need to communicate with the data server that is locate d on the inside network. Which configuration
will isolate the servers from inside attacks?

Ports Fa3/1, Fa3/2, Fa3/34, and Fa3/35 on DSW1 will be defined as primary VLAN promiscuous ports.

Ports Fa3/1, Fa3/2, Fa3/34, and Fa3/35 on DSW1 will be defined as primary VLAN community ports.

Ports Fa3/1 and Fa3/2 on DSW1 will be defined as secondary VLAN isolated ports. Ports Fa3/34 and Fa3/35 will be defined as pr imary VLAN promiscuous ports.

Ports Fa3/1 and Fa3/2 on DSW1 will be defined as secondary VLAN community ports. Ports Fa3/34 and Fa3/35 will be defined as primary VLAN promiscuous ports
Refer to the exhibit. The DNS servers DNS1 and DNS2 are redundant copies so they need to communicate with each other and to the Internet. The web server and the SMTP
server need to communicate with the Internet, but for security purposes the web and the SMTP servers should not be reachable from the DNS servers. What private VLAN
design should be implemented?

All servers should be configured in separate isolated VLANs. All isolated VLANs should be in the same primary VLAN.

All servers should be configured in separate community VLANs. All community VLANs should be in the same primary VLAN.

The DNS1 and DNS2 servers should be configured in a community VLAN. The web and SMTP servers should be configured in an isolated VLAN. Both the community
and isolated VLANs should be part of the primary VLAN.

The DNS1 and DNS2 servers should be configured in an isolated VLAN. The web and SMTP servers should be configured in a community VLAN. Both the community
and isolated VLANs should be in the same primary VLAN

When configuring an EtherChannel, given that one end of the link is configured with PAgP mode desirable, which PAgP modes can be configured on the opposite end of the
link in order to form an active channel? (Choose two.)

off

on

desirable

auto

Which three effects does the interface command switchport host have when entered on a switch? (Choose three.)

sets the switch port mode to access

enables BPDU guard

enables spanning tree PortFast

enables root guard

disables channel grouping

enables BPDU filtering

What are three characteristics of a VLAN access port? (Choose three.)

A switch port can become an access port through static or dynamic configuration.

An access port is associated with a single VLAN.

An access port should have the 802.1q encapsulation associated with it.

An access port created with the switchport mode access command will send DTP frames by default.

An access port is created with the switchport mode access command and then associated with a VLAN with the switchport access vlan command.

The VLAN that the access port is assigned to will be automatically deleted if it does not exist in the VLAN database of the s witch
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is unable to ping between two workstations, PC1 and PC2, that are connected to switch3548. PC1 is connected to port Fa0/19,
and PC2 is connected to port Gi0/2. Given the output of the show vlan command, which statement is true?

Both workstations are on the same VLAN.

Both workstations are in the default VLAN.

Inter-VLAN routing is not properly configured.

The VLAN interface is administratively shut down.

PC2 is connected to a trunk port instead of an access port

Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 and Switch2 are unable to establish an operational trunk connection. What is the problem betwee n the connection on Switch1 and Switch2?

encapsulation mismatch

switchport mode mismatch

MTU mismatch

VTP mismatch

DTP mismatch

native VLAN mismatch

Refer to the exhibit. Given the exhibited command output, which statement is true?

Interface Fa0/1 is configured for ISL trunking.

Interface Fa0/1 is configured as an access port.

Interface Fa0/1 is configured as an SVI.

Interface Fa0/1 is configured for 802.1Q trunking

Refer to the exhibit. Both SW1 and SW2 are configured with the PAgP desirable mode. Which statement is true?

Both switches will initiate channeling negotiation and will not be able to form a channel.

Both switches will initiate channeling negotiation and will form a channel between them.

Neither switch will initiate channeling negotiation and will not be able to form a channel between them.

Neither switch will initiate channeling negotiation but will form a channel between them
Refer to the exhibit. Given the configuration information of the CAT1 and CAT2 switches, which statement is true?

LACP will form a channel between the switches.

Because the port-channel numbers do not match, LACP will not form a channel between the switc hes.

Because the channel-group commands on SW2 should be set to "on," LACP will not form a channel between the switches.

LACP will form a 200-Mb/s channel between the switches

Which two items are benefits of implementing local VLANs within the Enterprise Architecture? (Choose two.)

A single VLAN can extend further than its associated distribution-layer switch.

Failures at Layer 2 are isolated to a small subset of users.

High availability is made possible because local VLAN traffic on access switches can now be passed directly to the core switc hes across an alternate Layer 3 path.

Layer 3 routing between VLANs can now be applied at the access layer.

Local VLANs are limited to the access and distribution layer

Which two statements describe Cisco best practices for VLAN design? (Choose two.)

Local VLANs should extend no further than the local core router.

Local VLANs should extend no further than the local distribution layer switch.

Local VLANs eliminate the need for redundant access to distribution layer links.

Local VLANs provide a simple design that is easy to troubleshoot

Which two statements are true about the 802.1Q trunking protocol? (Choose two.)
 Untagged frames will be placed in the configured native VLAN of a port.

It is a proprietary protocol that is supported on Cisco switches only.

Private VLAN configurations are not supported.

The native VLAN interface configurations must match at both ends of the link or frames could be dropped

In the context of the Enterprise Composite Architecture, which statement is true about best-practice design of local VLANs?

Local VLAN is a feature that has only local significance to the switch.

Local VLANs do not extend beyond the building distribution layer.

Local VLANs should be created based upon the job function of the end user.

Local VLANs should be advertised to all switches in the network

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the switch CAT2? (Choose two.)

Eleven VLANs were manually configured on the switch.

Six VLANs were either manually configured on the switch or learned via VTP.

Interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1.

Interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in an unspecified VLAN.

VLAN 100 is in dynamic desirable mode.

VLAN 100 has no active access ports

One switch in a Layer 2 switched spanning-tree domain is converted to PVRST+ using the spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global configuration mode command. The
remaining switches are running PVST+. What is the effect on the spanning-tree operation?

Spanning tree is effectively disabled in the network.

The PVRST+ switch forwards 802.1D BPDUs, but does not participate as a node in any spanning tree.

All switches default to one 802.1D spanning tree for all VLANs.

The PVSRT+ reverts to PVST+ to interoperate with the PVST+ switches

Refer to the exhibit. What implementation of spanning tree best describes the spanning-tree operational mode of the switch?

IEEE 802.1D

IEEE 802.w

IEEE 802.1s

PVRST+

Refer to the exhibit. What conclusion does the output support?

PortFast is enabled on interface Fa0/6.

IEEE 802.1w is enabled on VLAN 1.

The forward delay timer has been changed from the default value.

Standard IEEE 802.1D behavior is shown

Refer to the exhibit. After the sequence of commands is entered, how many VLANs will be assigned to the default instance?

4094

4064

4062

4061

Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions does the output show to be true? (Choose two.)

DLS1 is running IEEE 802.1s on instance 1.

DLS1 is running IEEE 802.1D on instance 1.

DLS1 is the root bridge for instance 1.

Interface Fa0/12 will move into the errdisable state if a BPDU is received.

Interfaces Fa0/1 through Fa0/6 are trunk ports

Which three parameters should match all switches within an MST region? (Choose three.)

port costs on trunk ports

configuration name

revision number
 trunk encapsulation method

bridge priority

VLAN-to-instance mappings

Users complain that they lost connectivity to all resources in the network. A network administrator suspects the presence of a bridging loop as a root cause of the problem.
Which two actions will determine the existence of the bridging loop? (Choose two.)

Confirm MAC port security is enabled on all access switches.

Check the port utilization on devices and look for abnormal values.

Verify that the management VLAN is properly configured on all root bridges.

Capture the traffic on the saturated link and verify if duplicate packets are seen.

Ensure that the root guard and loop guard are properly configured on all distribution links

Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW1 is receiving traffic from SW2. However, SW2 is not receiving traffic from SW1. Which STP feature should be implemented to prevent
inadvertent loops in the network?

UDLD

PortFast

BPDU guard

BPDU filtering

Which interfaces should loop guard be enabled on?

root ports

designated ports

root port and alternate ports

ports configured with PortFast

root port and ports configured with PortFast

What will happen when a BPDU is received on a loop guard port that is in a loop-inconsistent state?

The port will transition to blocking state.

The port will transition to forwarding state automatically.

The port will be disabled and the administrator must re-enable it manually.

The port will transition to the appropriate state as determined by the normal function of the spanning tree
Refer to the exhibit. STP is enabled on all switches in the network. The port on switch A that connects to switch B is half duplex. The port on switch B that connects to switch A
is full duplex. What are three problems that this scenario could create? (Choose three.)

Switch B will become the root switch.

Switch B may unblock its port to switch C, thereby creating a loop.

Switch A is performing carrier sense and collision detection, and switc h B is not.

Autonegotiation results in both switch A and switch B failing to perform carrier sense.

BPDUs may not successfully negotiate port states on the link between switch A and switch B.

Spanning tree will keep re-calculating, thereby consuming all the CPU normally used for traffic

Refer to the exhibit. STP is configured on all switches in the network. Recently, the user on workstation A lost connectivity to the rest of the network. At the same time, the
administrator received the console message:

%SPANTREE-2-RX_PORTFAST:Received BPDU on PortFast enable port.Disabling 2/1

What is the cause of the problem?

STP PortFast feature has been disabled on port 2/1.

STP PortFast feature has been enabled on port 2/1.

PAgP has removed port 2/1 from the EtherChannel bundle.

The STP PortFast BPDU Guard feature has disabled port 2/1 on the switch

What are three important steps in troubleshooting STP problems? (Choose three.)

Administratively create bridge loops and see what path the traffic takes.

Administratively disable multicasting and check to see if connectivity is restored.

Check each side of a point-to-point link for duplex mismatch.

Adjust BPDU timers so that there is less overhead traffic on the switching fabric.

Administratively disable ports that should be blocking and check to see if connectivity is restored.

Capture traffic on a saturated link and check whether identical frames are traversing multiple links

Which statement is true about UDLD?

It is automatically enabled.
 It allows devices to transmit traffic one way.

It will disable an EtherChannel bundle if one link has failed.

It allows a switch to detect a unidirectional link and shut down the affected interface

Which two statements are true about STP root guard? (Choose two.)

Root guard is enabled on a per-port basis.

Root guard requires that PortFast be enabled on a switch port.

Root guard re-enables a switch port once it stops receiving superior BPDUs.

Root guard should be configured on all ports on the desired root bridge to prevent another bridge from becoming the root.

If a root guard enabled port receives a inferior BPDU from a nonroot switch, the port transitions to the blocking state to pr event a root bridge election

What happens when a switch running IEEE 802.1D receives a topology change message from the root bridge?

The switch uses the forward delay timer to age out entries in the MAC address table.

The switch uses the max-age timer to age out entries in the MAC address table.

The switch uses the hello to age out entries in the MAC address table.

The switch uses the forward delay and the max-age timer to age out entries in the MAC address table

Which STP timer defines the length of time spent in the listening and learning states?

hello time

forward aging

forward delay

max age

max delay

Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

An RSTP BPDU carries information about port roles and is sent to neighbor switches only.

RSTP elects a root bridge in exactly the same way as 802.1D.

RSTP is capable of reverting back to 802.1D but still maintains the benefits of 802.1w.

RSTP is recognized as the IEEE 802.1w standard.

There are only three RSTP port states: discarding, listening, and forwarding.

UplinkFast and BackboneFast are compatible with RSTP

Which protocol extends the IEEE 802.1w Rapid Spanning Tree (RST) algorithm to multiple spanning trees?

STP

RSTP+

CST

MST

Which protocol should an administrator recommend to manage bridged links when the customer requires a fully redundant network that can utilize load balancing technologies
and reconverge on link failures in less than a second?
 IEEE 802.1Q (CST)

IEEE 802.1s (MST)

Cisco PVST+

IEEE 802.1D(STP)

client sends a request for an IP address to a DHCP server. Which DHCP message to the client will provide the configuration pa rameters that include an IP address, a domain
name, and a lease for the IP address?

DHCPDISCOVER

DHCPOFFER

DHCPREQUEST

DHCPACK

A DHCPREQUEST message has been sent from the client to the DHCP server. What information is included in the message?

initial message to locate a DHCP server

formal request for the offered IP address

confirmation that the IP address has been allocated to the client

denial message to reject the first offer from the DHCP server

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the debug ip dhcp server packet output, which statement is true?

The client sends a DHCPDISCOVER that contains IP address 10.1.10.21 to the DHCP server.

The client sends a DHCPREQUEST that contains IP address 10.1.10.21 to the DHCP server.

The client sends the BOOTREPLY broadcast message to inquire for a new IP address.

The client accepts the offer from the DHCP server for the 10.1.10.21 IP address

What is an advantage to using a trunk link to connect a switch to an external router that is providing inter-VLAN routing?

works with any switch that supports VLANs and trunking

lowers latency

provides redundancy to the VLANs

reduces CPU overhead

Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration taken on router RTA. Users on VLAN 5 cannot communicate with the users on VLAN 10. What should be done to fix the
problem?

A dynamic routing protocol should be configured on the router.

Two static routes should be configured on the router, each pointing to each subnet.

The Fa0/0 interface should be configured with a primary IP address of 10.10.5.1/24 and a secondary IP address of 10.10.10.1/24.

The subinterfaces of the router should be configured with 802.1Q encapsulation

Refer to the exhibit. The router has been properly configured for the trunking interface. Which statement is true about the routing table on the router?

It will show a next hop address of the switch for both VLANs.

It will show one trunking route to 10.0.0.0/8.

It should contain routes to the 10.10.10.0/24 and the 10.10.11.0/24 networks.

Because the switch is not configured properly to trunk VLAN 1 and VLAN 2, the routing table of the router will not show routes to either VLAN .

Because the switch port fa0/1 is in access mode, the routing table of the router will not show any routes
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the diagram and show ip route command output?

Because no routing protocol has been configured, the router will not forward packets between workstations.

The default gateway for hosts on VLAN 10 should be the Fa0/0 IP address of the router.

The default gateway for hosts on VLAN 10 should be the Fa0/0.1 IP address of the router.

The default gateway for hosts on VLAN 10 should be the Fa0/0.2 IP address of the router.

Because their packets are being trunked, hosts on VLAN 10 do not need a default gateway

Which two statements are true about routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)

A routed port behaves like a regular router interface and supports VLAN subinterfaces.

A routed port is a physical switch port with Layer 2 capability.

A routed port is not associated with a particular VLAN.

To create a routed port requires removal of Layer 2 port functionality with the no switchport interface configuration command.

The interface vlan global configuration command is used to create a routed port

Which two statements are true about switched virtual interfaces (SVI) on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)

An SVI behaves like a regular router interface but does not support VLAN subinterfaces.

An SVI is a physical switch port with Layer 3 capability.

By default, an SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1).

Only one SVI can be associated with a VLAN.

To create an SVI requires removal of Layer 2 port functionality with the no switchport interface configuration command

Which three statements about a routed switch interface are true? (Choose three.)

A routed switch port is a physical device that is associated with several VLANs.

A routed switch port is created by configuring a Layer 2 port with the no switchport interface configuration command and assigning an IP address.

A routed switch port is created by entering VLAN interface configuration mode and assigning an IP address.

A routed switch port is a virtual Layer 3 interface that can be configured for any VLAN that exists on a Layer 3 switch.

A routed switch port provides an interface that may provide a Layer 3 connection to a next-hop router.
 A routed switch port can serve as a default gateway for devices

Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration taken on routers RTA and RTB. All users can ping their gateways, but users on VLAN 5 and VLAN 10 cannot communicate
with the users on VLAN 20. What should be done to solve the problem?

A dynamic routing protocol or static routes should be configured on the routers.

A trunk should be configured between routers RTA and RTB.

RTA interface Fa0/1 and RTB Fa0/1 should be configured with three subinterfaces, each with ISL encapsulation.

RTA interface Fa0/1 and RTB Fa0/1 should be configured with three subinterfaces, each with 802.1Q encapsulation

Which statement describes what occurs when a DHCP request is forwarded through a router that has been configured with the ip helper-address command?

The router replaces the source MAC address included in the DHCP request with its own MAC address.

The router replaces the source IP address of the DHCP request with the IP address that is specified with the ip helper-address command.

The router replaces the broadcast destination IP address of the DHCP request with the unicast IP address that is specified wi th the ip helper-address command.

The router replaces the unicast destination IP address of the DHCP request with the unicast IP address that is specified with the ip helper-address command

A client computer is set up for DHCP and needs an IP configuration. During the DHCP client configuration process, which respo nse will enable the client to begin using the
assigned address immediately?

DHCPACK

DHCPREQUEST

DHCPOFFER

DHCPDISCOVER
Refer to the exhibit. What additional configuration is required for host A to receive IP configuration from the DHCP server?

The ip address dhcp command is required on interface Fa0/0.

The ip dhcp information option command is required on interface Fa0/1.

The ip helper-address 10.1.2.10 command is required on interface Fa0/0.

The ip forward-protocol 37 global configuration command is required to forward DNS requests to IP address 10.1.2.10.

The ip forward-protocol 67 global configuration command is required to forward DHCP requests to IP address 10.1.2.10.

The ip forward-protocol 69 global configuration command is required to forward TFTP requests to IP address 10.1.2.10

Which three events will cause the Forwarding Information Base (FIB) table to be updated? (Choose three.)

An ARP entry for the destination next hop changes, ages out, or is removed.

The FIB table is cleared with the clear fib adjacency * command.

The routing table entry for the next hop changes.

The IP packets have an expiring TTL counter.

The TCAM table is flushed and reactivated.

The routing table entry for a prefix changes

Which condition will cause a packet to be process-switched instead of CEF switched?

packets that are switched to an outgoing interface with an outbound ACL applied

packets with a destination interface that is chosen by a routing protocol

packets that need to be fragmented on the outgoing interface

packets with a destination interface that is chosen by a static route

packets that use TCP header options

Which statement is true about the CEF forwarding process?

The FIB table contains the Layer 2 rewrite information.

Adjacency table lookups use the closest Layer 3 prefix match.

The adjacency table eliminates the need for the ARP protocol.

After an IP prefix match is made, the process determines the associated Layer 2 header rewrite information from the adjacency table
What is true about TCAM lookups that are associated with CEF switching?

TCAM includes only Layer 3 lookup information.

A single TCAM lookup provides Layer 2, Layer 3, and ACL information

TCAM lookup tables are used only for the Layer 3 forwarding operation.

TCAM lookup tables are used only for the rapid processing of ACLs within CEF

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to ensure that CEF is functioning properly on the switches between hosts A and B. If the administrator wants to verify the CEF FIB
table entry for the route 10.10.5.0/24 on Sw_MLSA, what should the adjacency IP address be?

10.10.10.1

10.10.10.2

10.10.5.1

10.10.5.2

Refer to the exhibit and the show ip cef output. What can be concluded from the output?

The output validates that the CEF FIB entry for 10.10.5.0/24 is correct.

The cached adjacency address is 10.10.10.1.

The next hop address is 10.10.10.1.

The output shows that packets destined to 10.10.5.0/24 have not been processed by CEF
Refer to the exhibit. What action does the command standby 1 track Serial0/0/0 on router R1 perform?

It links the default gateway virtual address 192.168.21.10 to the IP address 192.168.31.1 on interface Serial0/0/0.

It links the default gateway virtual address 192.168.21.10 to the IP address 192.168.42.2 on interface Serial0/0/0.

It tracks the state of the Fa0/0 interface on R1 and brings down the priority of standby group 1 if the interface goes down.

It tracks the state of the Serial0/0/0 interface on R1 and brings down the priority of standby group 1 if the interface goes down

Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the output of the show standby command?

The current priority of this router is 120.

The router is currently forwarding packets.

This router is tracking two properly operating interfaces.

This router is in the HSRP down state because its tracked interfaces are down
Refer to the exhibit. Switch DSw1 is the active virtual gateway (AVG) and DSw2 is an active virtual forwarder (AVF). Based on this information, which two GLBP statements
are true? (Choose two.)

GLBP is a Cisco proprietary protocol and is supported on all Cisco Catalyst and Cisco router platforms.

None of the switches have had their priority configured.

Switch DSw1 assigns the virtual IP addresses to switch DSw2.

Switch DSw2 has been configured with the glbp 1 priority 95 command.

Two more multilayer switches could join this group.

When host A sends an ARP message for the gateway IP address, switch DSw1 returns the physical MAC address of switch DSw2

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the provided configuration, which routers are the master and the backup virtual routers for the hosts that are connected to the VRRP group 1?

Router R1 is the master for all hosts, and router R2 is the backup for all hosts in the group.

Router R1 is the master for Host1 and Host2. Router R2 is the master for Host3 and Host4.

Router R1 is the master for Host3 and Host4. Router R2 is the backup for Host3 and Host4.

Because of incorrect configuration of the default gateway on the hosts, none of the routers is the master for the VRRP group

How does Cisco IOS server load balancing (SLB) enhance security of a real server?

The IP address of the real server is not needed with IOS SLB, which relies only on MAC addresses.

The IP address of the real server is translated with Network Address Translation (NAT).

The IP address of the real server is advertised as part of a distinct network.

The IP address of the real server is never announced to the external network

How is server IP addressing handled by Cisco IOS server load balancing (SLB) in dispatched mode?

The default gateway address for the subnet is assigned to the virtual server.
 The real servers are configured with the virtual server address as loopback addresses or secondary IP addresses.

The virtual server is assigned an IP address unknown to any of the real servers.

The real servers are configured with IP addresses that differ by a power of 2

What three steps will configure Cisco IOS server load balancing (SLB) in a server farm that is in a data center with real servers? (Choose three.)

Globally enable IOS SLB.

Define the server farm.

Add a trunk link to the switch to connect the real servers.

Associate the real server with the server farm.

Define the virtual IP address.

Enable the real server and define it to be used for the server farm

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output, how many virtual servers are required?

zero

one

two

three

four

five

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the serverfarm RESTRICTED command?

associates the primary serverfarm RESTRICTED_HTTP to the virtual server RESTRICTED

enables the virtual server RESTRICTED_HTTP

associates the primary serverfarm RESTRICTED to the virtual server RESTRICTED_HTTP

enables the virtual server RESTRICTED

 defines the virtual server RESTRICTED

defines the virtual server RESTRICTED_HTTP

Which syslog entry has a severity code that indicates the most serious situation?

Mar 17 06:03:21: 10.1.1.1 %SYS-6-BOOTTIME: Time taken to reboot after reload = 551932 seconds

Mar 17 06:42:20: 10.1.1.1 %SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by mwmwm on vty0 (192.168.254.5)

Mar 17 06:42:21: 10.1.1.1 %CDP-4-DUPLEX_MISMATCH: duplex mismatch discovered on FastEthernet0/3 (not half duplex), with NA-1.30.foo.com FastEthernet0/24
(half duplex).

Mar 17 06:42:22: 10.1.1.1 %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/3, changed state to down

Mar 17 06:42:22: 10.1.1.1 %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/3, changed state to down

Mar 17 06:43:02: 10.1.1.1 %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/3, changed state to up

Refer to the exhibit. From the syslog output, what option is set on the switch sending the messages?

The sequence number is set.

The time stamp is set for uptime.

The logging severity level is set to 3.

The logging facility number is set to sys12

What SNMP attribute provides the best security?

authNoPriv

authPriv

community string

noAuthNoPriv

SNMPv2

Refer to the exhibit. Which feature does a SNMP manager need in order to set a parameter on switch ACSW1?

a manager using an SNMP string of K44p0ut

a manager using host 172.16.128.50

a manager using SNMPv1, 2, or 2c

a manager using authPriv

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is correct about the network?

A Layer 3 link should be installed between the two distribution switches to avoid unexpected traffic paths and multiple convergence events.

The root bridge and HSRP active router should be two different devices.

A Layer 2 access link is required between the two access switches to ensure optimal redundancy.

A third distribution switch should be installed to create redundancy in the event the root bridge fails

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about best practice and the exhibited network design?

The Layer 2 VLAN number should be mapped to the Layer 3 subnet for ease of use and management.

The HSRP active router for VLAN 55 and VLAN 60 should be the same switch.

A Layer 2 access port should be placed between the access switches.

The uplink between the access switches and the distribution switches should be trunk links

What is the main purpose of implementing Cisco NSF?

to continue forwarding IP packets following an RP switchover

to forward all STP updates to all switches in the network.

to keep a backup copy of the latest MAC table in the event of RAM failure.

to move switch ports that are currently in blocking mode to forwarding mode with minimal packet loss

When using RPR, what two events can trigger a switchover from the active to the standby Supervisor Engine? (Choose two.)

clock synchronization failure between the Supervisor Engines

loss of packets from the root bridge

an RP or SP crash on the active Supervisor Engine

frames received on a port that is in blocking mode

port failure
Refer to the exhibit. Which IP SLA statement is true?

IP SLA operation 99 has been incorrectly configured.

IP SLA operation 99 has stopped monitoring the target device.

IP SLA operation 99 had 211 successful replies from the target device.

IP SLA operation 100 has been incorrectly configured.

IP SLA operation 100 has stopped monitoring the target device.

IP SLA operation 100 had 211 successful replies from the target device

Which two statements are true about the Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)? (Choose two.)

A router in the speak state sends periodic hello messages to all routers in the group to acquire a virtual IP address.

A router in the speak state sends periodic hello messages and actively participates in the election of the active or standby router.

A router in the standby state forwards packets that are sent to the group virtual MAC address.

The router in the standby state is a candidate to become the next active router.

The router that is not the standby or active router will remain in the speak state.

What is considered a best practice for an optimal redundant network?

Access switches should have redundant connections to redundant distribution switches.

Access switches should have a backup connection to at least one core device

Dual distribution switches should connect individually to separate core switches.

Three distribution switches should be implemented so that the third switch can take the role of active or standby, as necessary

Which statement is true about a local SPAN configuration?

A port can act as the destination port for all SPAN sessions configured on the switch.

A port can be configured to act as a source and destination port for a single SPAN session.

Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 switched ports can be configured as source or destination ports for a single SPAN session.

Port channel interfaces (EtherChannel) can be configured as source and destination ports for a single SPAN session
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the local SPAN configuration on switch SW1?

The SPAN session transmits to a device on port Fa3/21 a copy of all traffic that is monitored on port Fa3/1.

The SPAN session transmits to a device on port Fa3/21 a copy of all traffic that is monitored on port Fa3/1, but only if port Fa3/1 is configured in VLAN 10.

The SPAN session transmits to a device on port Fa3/21 a copy of all traffic that is monitored on port Fa3/1, but only if port Fa3/1 is configured as trunk.

The SPAN session transmits to a device on port Fa3/21 only a copy of unicast traffic that is monitored on port Fa3/1. All multicast and BPDU frames will be excluded
from the monitoring process

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the VSPAN configuration on switch SW1?

The VSPAN session that is configured on port Fa3/4 can monitor only the ingress traffic for any of the VLANs.

The VSPAN session that is configured on port Fa3/4 can monitor only the egress traffic for any of the VLANs.

Port Fa3/4 must be associated with VLAN 10 or VLAN 20 in order to monitor the traffic for any of the VLANs.

The VSPAN session transmits a copy of the ingress traffic for VLAN 10 and the egress traffic for VLAN 20 out interface Fa3/4

Which configuration guideline applies to using the capture option in VACL?

Capture ports transmit traffic that belongs to all VLANs.

The capture port captures all packets that are received on the port.

The switch has a restriction on the number of capture ports.

The capture port needs to be in the spanning-tree forwarding state for the VLAN

All access ports on a switch are configured with the administrative mode of dynamic auto. An attacker, connected to one of the ports, sends a malicious DTP frame. What is
the intent of the attacker?

VLAN hopping

DHCP spoofing attack

MAC flooding attack

ARP poisoning attack

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is securing a network against DHCP spoofing attacks. On all switches, the engineer applied the ip dhcp snooping command and
enabled DHCP snooping on all VLANs with the ip dhcp snooping vlan command. What additional step should be taken to configure the security required on the network?

Issue the ip dhcp snooping trust command on all uplink interfaces on SW1, SW2 and SW3.

Issue the ip dhcp snooping trust command on all interfaces on SW2 and SW3.

Issue the ip dhcp snooping trust command on all interfaces on SW1, SW2, and SW3.

Issue the ip dhcp snooping trust command on all interfaces on SW1, SW2, and SW3 except interface Fa0/1 on SW1
Which countermeasure can be implemented to determine the validity of an ARP packet, based on the valid MAC-address-to-IP address bindings stored in a DHCP snooping
database?

DHCP spoofing

dynamic ARP inspection

CAM table inspection

MAC snooping

How should unused ports on a switch be configured in order to prevent VLAN hopping attacks?

Configure them with the UDLD feature.

Configure them with the PAgP protocol.

Configure them as trunk ports for the native VLAN 1.

Configure them as access ports and associate them with an unused VLAN

Refer to the exhibit. Given the configuration on the ALSwitch, what is the end result?

forces all hosts that are attached to a port to authenticate before being allowed access to the network

disables 802.1x port-based authentication and causes the port to allow normal traffic without authenticating the client

enables 802.1x authentication on the port

globally disables 802.1x authentication

Refer to the exhibit. Network policy dictates that security functions should be administered using AAA. Which configuration would create a default login authentication list that
uses RADIUS as the first authentication method, the enable password as the second method, and the local database as the final method?
SW-1(config)# aaa new-model
SW-1(config)# radius-server host 10.10.10.12 key secret
SW-1(config)# aaa authentication default group-radius local
SW-1(config)# aaa new-model
SW-1(config)# radius-server host 10.10.10.12 key secret
SW-1(config)# aaa authentication default group-radius enable local
SW-1(config)# aaa new-model
SW-1(config)# radius-server host 10.10.10.12 key secret
SW-1(config)# aaa authentication login default group radius enable local
SW-1(config)# aaa new-model
SW-1(config)# radius server host 10.10.10.12 key secret
SW-1(config)# aaa authentication login default group radius enable local none
SW-1(config)# aaa new-model
SW-1(config)# radius server host 10.10.10.12 key secret
SW-1(config)# aaa authentication login default group-radius enable local none

Refer to the exhibit. A switch is being configured to support AAA authentication on the console connection. Given the information in the exhibit, which three statements are
correct? (Choose three.)
 The authentication login admin line console command is required.

The login authentication admin line console command is required.

The configuration creates an authentication list that uses a named access list called group as the first authentication method, a TACACS+ server as the second
method, the local username database as the third method, the enable password as the fourth method, and none as the last method.

The configuration creates an authentication list that uses a TACACS+ server as the first authentication method, the local username database as the second method,
the enable password as the third method, and none as the last method.

The none keyword enables any user logging in to successfully authenticate if all other methods return an error.

The none keyword specifies that a user cannot log in if all other methods have failed

What is one way to mitigate spanning-tree compromises?

Statically configure the primary and backup root bridge.

Implement private VLANs.

Place all unused ports into a common VLAN (not VLAN 1).

Configure MAC address VLAN access maps

What is one way to mitigate ARP spoofing?

Enable dynamic ARP inspection.

Configure MAC address VLAN access maps.

Enable root guard.

Implement private VLANs

What are two purposes for an attacker launching a MAC table flood? (Choose two.)

to initiate a man-in-the-middle attack

to initiate a denial of service (DoS) attack

to capture data from the network

to gather network topology information

to exhaust the address space available to the DHCP

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration has been applied to ACSw22, frames that are bound for the node on port FastEthe rnet 0/1 are periodically being dropped. What
should be done to correct the issue?

Add the switchport port-security mac-address sticky command to the interface configuration.

Change the port speed to speed auto with the interface configuration mode.

Use the switchport mode trunk command in the interface configuration.

Remove the switchport command from the interface configuration

Refer to the exhibit. What is the state of the monitoring session?

This is a remote monitored session.

No data is being sent from the session.

SPAN session number 2 is being used.

The session is only monitoring data sent out Fa0/1

What is the function of the 6500 Network Analysis Module?

monitors traffic on ingress ports

sends TCP resets to an attacker TCP session

gathers multilayer information from data flows that pass through the switch

provides remote monitoring of multiple switches across a switched network

What technology can be used to help mitigate MAC address flooding attacks?

root guard

Private VLANs

DHCP snooping

VLAN access maps

Dynamic ARP Inspection

What advantage for monitoring traffic flows does using VACLs with the capture option offer over using SPAN?

VLAN ACLs can be used to capture denied traffic.

VLAN ACLs can be used to capture traffic on a spanning-tree blocked port.

VLAN ACLs can be used to capture traffic based on Layer 2, 3, or 4 information.

VLAN ACLs can be used to capture traffic to the CPU separate from the traffic that is hardware switched
What Cisco tool can be used to monitor events happening in the switch?

Embedded Event Manager

Intrusion Prevention System

Network Analysis module

Switched Port Analyzer

Which configuration-related step is required for IGMP snooping on a Catalyst switch?

Enable IGMP snooping in global configuration mode.

Configure the IGMP snooping method.

Enable multicast routing in global configuration mode.

None - IGMP snooping is enabled globally by default

For configuring IP multicast routing, what is the purpose of the global configuration mode command ip pim send-rp-announce 10.1.1.1?

enables IP multicast routing with router ID 10.1.1.1

assigns the role of rendezvous point mapping agent to the router with IP address 10.1.1.1

announces the candidacy of the router with IP address 10.1.1.1 as the rendezvous point for all multicast groups

enables protocol independent multicast (PIM) with router ID 10.1.1.1

What is the result of the global configuration command ip pim send-rp-discovery Loopback0 scope 3?

The router sends broadcast group-to-RP mapping messages so that other routers can automatically discover the RP.

The routers sends group-to-RP mapping messages to 224.0.1.39 so that other routers can automatically discover the RP.

The router sends group-to-RP mapping messages to 224.0.1.40 so that other routers can automatically discover the RP.

The router advertises itself as the RP by sending messages to the 224.0.1.39 address

What is the IP address for the Cisco-RP-announce multicast group?

224.0.1.1

224.0.1.39

224.0.1.40

224.0.0.40

The bootstrap router (BSR) mechanism of automating the distribution of rendezvous point (RP) information uses which IP address to disseminate information to all protocol
independent multicast (PIM) routers?

224.0.0.13

224.0.1.13

224.1.0.13

224.1.1.13
Refer to the exhibit. Router R6 has sent a join message to router R4 requesting multicast traffic for users in the multicast group 224.1.1.1. How will the multicast traffic that is
sent from the multicast server SRC through the R1-R3-R5 path be handled at router R6?

The multicast traffic will be dropped.

The multicast traffic will be sent to switch SW1, which will drop the traffic.

The multicast traffic will be forwarded to all users in the multicast group 224.1.1.1.

The multicast traffic will be sent back to the rendezvous point (RP) through the R4-R2-R1 path

Refer to the exhibit. The network has EIGRP configured on all routers and has converged on the routes advertised. PIM sparse mode has been also configured on a ll routers.
The routers between the Source and the rendezvous point (RP) have (S,G) state in the multicast routing table and the routers between the RP and the Receivers have (*,G)
state in their multicast routing tables. After the first multicast packet is received by the Receivers and the switchover takes place, how will the multicast traffic continue to flow
from the Source to the Receivers?

The traffic will flow via source tree from the Source to the Receivers.

The traffic will flow via shared tree from the Source to the RP and via shared tree from the RP to the Receivers.

The traffic will flow via shared tree from the Source to the RP and via source tree from the RP to the Receivers.

The traffic will flow via source tree from the Source to the RP and via shared tree from the RP to the Receivers

Which two statements about Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) are true? (Choose two.)

PIM does not require an IGP protocol to be configured in the network.

PIM should be configured only on the first and the last hop routers in the multicast tree.

PIM should be configured on the device that hosts the source of the muticast traffic.

PIM Sparse Mode is most useful when there are few senders, many receivers, and the volume of multicast traffic is high.

PIM is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of the unicast IP routing protocol that is running in the network.

Three of the forwarding modes for PIM are PIM Dense Mode (PIM-DM), PIM Sparse Mode (PIM-SM), and PIM Sparse-Dense Mode
Which MAC multicast address correctly maps to the IP multicast address 224.10.50.4?

01.00.5E.10.32.04

01.00.5E.10.50.04

01.00.5E.0A.32.04

01.00.5E.0A.50.04

Which two statements about IP multicast addresses are true? (Choose two.)

IP address 224.0.0.5 identifies the all-routers group.

All IP multicast group addresses fall in the range from 224.0.0.0 through 254.255.255.255.

GLOP addresses and limited scope addresses are two types of IP multicast addresses.

IP addresses between 233.0.0.0 and 233.255.255.255 are reserved link-local addresses.

IP addresses between 224.0.0.1 and 239.255.255.255 can be assigned to the sources of multicast traffic.

IP address 224.0.1.1 is a globally scoped address that has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP).

Which three statements are true about Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) implementation on Cisco routers? (Choose three.)

Bidir-PIM is suited for multicast with larger numbers of sources.

In PIM-SM deployment, all routers create only (*,G) entries for the multicast groups.

In PIM-DM, a multicast sender first registers with the RP, and the data stream begins to flow from sender to RP to receiver.

Available network bandwidth is overutilized outside of the multicast routing zone because multiple streams of data are required between distant routers in place of a
single transmission.

All routers in the PIM network learn about the active group-to-RP mapping from the RP mapping agent by automatically joining the Cisco-RP-discovery (224.0.1.40)
multicast group.

In a PIM-SM network, the routers have the SPT threshold set to 0 by default which guarantees that the last-hop router switches to SPT mode as soon as the host
starts receiving the multicast

What are two reasons to implement wireless in a network? (Choose two.)

increased security

increased mobility

increased productivity

increased cost savings

increased throughput

What is true about the differences between wireless LANs (WLANs) and LANs?

A VPN connection that uses IPsec is not possible with WLANs.

WLANs do not use MAC addresses.

WLANs use CSMA/CA rather than CSMA/CD because WLANs operate at half-duplex.

WLANs use CSMA/CA rather than CSMA/CD because WLANs cannot detect collisions.

WLANs use CSMA/CD rather than CSMA/CA because wireless LANs operate on multiple frequencies.

WLANs use CSMA/CD rather than CSMA/CA because WLANs operate at full-duplex

Which statement is true about the split MAC architecture?

It distributes the processing of 802.11 data and management protocols between a lightweight access point and a centralized WLAN controller.
 Multiple devices can be grouped together to combine total bandwidth.

The conversation flow can be split between multiple switches.

The conversation flow can be split between multiple routers.

What are two reasons to implement voice in a network? (Choose two.)

cost savings

increased productivity

stronger security

increased data throughput

easier administration

What method of QoS gives preferential handling for predefined classes of traffic?

best-effort services

differentiated services

hard QoS services

integrated services

What is a major difference between traffic shaping and policing?

Traffic shaping buffers excessive traffic to smooth traffic whereas policing drops excessive traffic.

Traffic shaping is preferred for traffic flows such as voice and video whereas policing is better for TCP flows.

Traffic shaping controls the rate traffic flows through a switch whereas policing controls traffic flows through a router.

Traffic shaping marks traffic with Layer 2 class of service (CoS) whereas policing marks traffic with the ToS bits in the IP header

Where should QoS classification and marking be done?

access layer

at the first router interface

core layer

distribution layer

What is the function of a gateway within a VoIP network?

provides translation between VoIP and non-VoIP networks

provides connection admission control (CAC), bandwidth control and management, and address translation

provides real-time connectivity for participants in multiple locations to attend the same video conference or meeting

provides call control for IP phones, CAC, bandwidth control and management, and address translation

What are two best practices when implementing voice in a network? (Choose two.)

Create a separate VLAN for voice traffic.

Utilize Power over Ethernet.

Minimize the volume of the data traffic.

Remove all QoS policies that are applied in the network.

Implement access control lists at the distribution layer