Professional Documents
Culture Documents
BANGALORE - 560,012
Program Research
Entrance Paper : Atmospheric Sciences
Paper Code : AS
Time
9.00 A.M. TO 12.00 NOON
G E N E W INSTRUCTIONS
10. Candidates are asked to fill in the required fields on the sheet attached to the answer
book.
I 1. There is no negative marking.
Atmospheric & Oceanic Sciences
PART A
Answer all questions. All questions carry equal weight. (20 x 2 = 40 marks)
2. If the b c t i o n qx) = 1 -2 cos2(x) + Isin(-x)cos(x), 0 < x < 2rr is expanded Ui the fonn
f(x)= &aksin(h) + bkcos(k) ( k = 0 , 1,2,3, ... m), thenall values ofak and bk are
zero, except
(A) bo, b4,a
CB) ao. b4.m
(C) a2, bz
@) al, bl
('7 16
1 2
where z is height above the surface and H is the layer thickness. If p is he viscosity of
the fluid and assuming U to be a constant, the shear stress at z=0is
2
-(x-P)
l D O
7. For G finite and positive and for any finite p, - b e 2a2 dx =
4%~-
(4 P
@ a3
(C) indeterminate
9. If T is the temperature of the Earth's-surface (in K),the wavelength of its peak emission
is proportional to
(4 T
(1 1l.r
(C)
@) lfr'
11. The potential temperature (in OC) of an air parcel initially at a height of 500m above
mem sea level and ternperature of 10 OC is approximately (indeg. C)
12. The velocity field in a fluid is given by V = i u(y) + j v(x,z) + k wb),where (i, j, k) are
unit vectors in the (x, y, z) directions, respectively. The flow is necessarily
(A) rotational
(B) irrotationa1
(C) compressible
@) incompressible
(B) 10 mb
(C) 100 mb
14. The eastern equatorial Pacific ocean surface temperature is significantly above normal
during
(A) an El Nino
) a LaNina
17. If the environmental temperature is Te,the buoyancy force (per unit mass) on a parcel
haviag temperature Tpis (gis acceleration due to gravity)
(4 g
@> g T .
(C) gTJG
@) g(T,- TJRe
END OF PART A
PART B
2. Given that the sea-level pressure and temperature are po and To,respectively, and
assuming that the temperature decreases unifonnly with height at a rate of K, show that
the height of a pressure surface, p, is given by the folIowing expression:
5 . A tomado rotates with constant angular velocity o. Show that the surface pressure at the
cenlre of the tornado is given by
wherepo is [he surface pressure at a distance 1.0 fiom lhc centre and T is the temperature
(assurncd constant). If lhe temperature is 288 K, and pressure and windspecd at 100 m
fiom the centre are 100 kPa and 100 m s-', respectively, what is the central pressure?
6. Water is flowing at a constant flow rate through a large pipc of diameter Dl= GOO mm.
It branclies into two pipes o f diameter D2= 400 m m and D3= 250 mm. A discharge of 5
m3 s-' is maintained in 6OOrnrn pipe. An average velocily V2 =24 rn s*' was measured in
the 400 mm pipe. Delermine the discharge and average velocity in tlie 250 mm pipe.
Assume flow to be incompressibIe. .
Use positive root for z > 0 and negative root for z < 0.
END OF PART B
INDIAN INSTITUTE OF SCIENCE
BANGALORE - 560012
Program Research
Entrance Paper : Biological Sciences
Paper Code : BC
Time
9.00 A.M. TO 12.00 NOON
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. This papcr consists of 100 multiple choice qucstions and carrics a total of 100 marks, onc
mark for each question.
2. Answers io all questions should be marked only on the OMR sheet provided.
3. For each question, darken (fill) the appropriate bubble on the OMR slieel to indicate your
answer.
5 . Darken only one bubble per question. Ifyou mark more than one bubble to answcr a
question, it will be evaIuated as incorrect.
6. If you wish to change your ansiver, please erase the exisiing mark compIetely before
filling in the other bubble.
8. Candidates are rcquired to fill in h e rcquired fields on thc answer sheet attaclied.
BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES
(A) G-quartets
(B) Triplex DNA
(C) Hairpin DNA
(D) Crucifonn DNA
(A) Telomerase
(B) DN A polymerase 1
(C) RNA polymerase
(D) Reverse lranscriptase
4. Spontaneous deamination in a DNA stored at -20°C will lead to conversion of cytosine into
(A) Thymine
(B) Guanine
(C) Adenine
(D) Uracil
5 . Whicli of the following does NOT apply to iriplex DNA
(A) Linkage
(B) Mutation
(C) Reversion
@) Complementation
9. A mixture of 50-mer oligonucleotide and free nucleotides was loaded onro a Sephadex G-50
gel filfration column, which of the following results can be expected?
(A) The oligonucleotide and the nucleotidcs would be retained in the column and they both
can bind the resin
(B) The oligonucleotide would elute first
(C) Nucleotide would elute first
(D) Both CO-eluteon this column
11. Solute movement through which channel is mainIy responsible for the resting voltage?
(A) Porin
(B) Gap junction
(C) Glucose
(D) Potassium
12. Ribonuclease has four disulfide bonds which were reduced by Dithiothreitol in presence of
SM urca. These reagents wcre rernoved by diaIysis so rhal the prolein could refoId and ihe
disulfide bonds reformed. If h e refonnation of S-S bonds occurred randomly, h e expected
rccovery of [he biological activiiy would be
(A) 100%
(B) 80%
(C> 0.95 %
(D) 95 %
13. Myoglobin has 153 amino acid residues. If it was a continuous d-helix, the Iength of
myoglobin would be
(A) 36 nm
(B) 53 nni
(C) 55 nrn
(D) 23 nrn
14. The V,,, of an enzyrne was 90 pmoIeslmin/mg of protein. IT the molecular mass of the
enzyme is 20,000 Da, the tumover nurnber (min -') of thc enxyrne ic
(A) 180
@) 1800
(C) 90
(Dl 18
1 5 . Wiiich or the following are most likely to be unstable?
(A) apolar
(B) apartialdoublebond
(C) planar
(D) t r a ~ in
~ sproteins
19. Which of the following genes is defeciivc in patients suffcring fiom sevcrc cornbined
immunodeficiency syndrome?
(A) cysticfibrosis~ansmembraneconductorrcgulator(CFTR)
(B) adenosine deaminase
(C) ribonucleotide reductase
(D) alpha 2 microglobulin
(A) Hepatitis A
( 3 ) Hepatitis C
(C) Hepatitis B
(D) 1-IepatitisE
21. Which of the following molecules is a poor immunogen in children?
22. Which of thc following proteins is NOT required for the growth of Saccl~aronryces
cerevisiae celis in a medium containing glucose as ihe sole carbon source?
. 23. hcubation of GTP with a protein resulted in the fomation of GDP and P,. The protein is
likely to tie:
(Al Ras
(B) Myc
(C) Fos
(Dl Myb
24. FOS, JUN and MYC are:
26. I i secretory IgA protein subjected to SDS-PAGE under reducing conditions, the number of
bands one can visualize after staining is:
(A) JL5
(B) L - 1 3
(C) IL-4
(D) m-v
28. Which 01 the follow ing aie examples of prirnary lyrnphoid organs
(A) Spleen and Iymph node
(B) Lymph node and Peyer's patches
(C) Bone rnarrow and thyrnus
@) Tonsils and liver
(A) Asn-Ser/Thr
(B) Asn-X-SerlThr
(C) Asn-X-X-SerlThr
(D) Sermhr-Asn
3 1. Which orthe following secondary metabolites is NOT an anti-cancer dmg?
(A) Paclitaxel
(B) Podophyllotoxin
(C) Atropine
(D) %ncristinc
32. (33 and C4 plants differ in their photosynthesis, hoiv?
(A) C4 plants can separate CO1 fixation and Calvin cycle temporally o;spatially
(B) C4 plants can perform the light dependent reactions at night
(C) C4 planis rcquire less energy for thcir carbon acquisilion and are, thcrefore, morc
eficient
(D) C3 planls perfonn the light indepcndent reaclions in ihe vascular bundles
33. If lhc average molecular weight of one amino acid is 110 Daltons, the molecular weight of
a peptide made up of 10 amino acids is expected to be
(A) 1100
(B) 938
(C) 876
P) 744
34. A bacterium has 1000 genes. Among the two daughlers following replication, ihere is a
probability of 11100 that a gene in either of the daughters hac mutated. If a culture of one
million cclIs is raised fiom one bacterium, the probability that the culture is a true clone
(j .en,contains no mutants) js
36. Which of ihe following is common to ihe synthesisof all steroid honnones?
39. If '4~-g~ycint:is used for biosynthetic labeling, which one of the following rnolecules c m
be labeled in bacterial cells?
(A) Colcemid
(B) Adriamycin
(C) Mimosine
(D) Hydroxyurea
I 42. Rous Sarcoma vims uses the following enzyme for its replication:
The protection against Small Pox afforded by prior infection with Cow Pox represents
The antigenic peptides can bind to the T cell receptor when the peptides are only
(A) Puromycin
(B) S lrep toniycin
(C) Tetracycline
(D) Kananiycin
47. Wheii heaied, he AZb0of DNA sample A increases lincarly wilh temperalure, whereas Lhat
of DNA sainplc B increases CO-operatively.Which one of the follorving is correct?
49. You dissolve one mole of sodium acetate in 1 L o f pure water. The concentration of
sodium acetale in Lhis solution is
(A) .l.OM
(B) 10.0M
(C) 4 . O M
(D) 1.1 M
54, The approximate total nurnber of red bIood cells(RBC) in a human body is 25x1012.
About 2x10 l1RBCs are pmduced per day. Therefore, the RBC on an averagc survives for
55. The molecular weight of IgG is 150 kDa. If the mass ratio of antibody:antigen in an IgG-
antigen complex is 1: 1, the molecular weight of ihc antigcn is
(A) 75 kDa
(B) 15OkDa
(C) 251cDa
@) 300kDa
56. Arnino acid composition analysis revealcd that a peptide has 2 AIa, 2 Lys and I Phe.
Further, a) Ala is observed at the ,N-temiinus before and after digcslion with chyrnotrypsin
and b) a iree Lys is re teased afier digestion witli trypsin. Idenii fy the sequence of the
pcplide?
(A) Ala-Ala-Phe-Lys-Lys
(B) Ala-Phe-Lys-Ala-Lys
(C) Ala-Phe-Lys-Lys-Ala
(D) Ala-Phe-Ala-Lys-Lys
57. An oligonieric pro tein dissociates to its component subunits when exposed to temperature
beloiv O'C, whereas high salt concentralion has liltle effecl on its dissociation. The
quaternaty stmcture of the protein is likely to be stabiIized by
59.- In iniiucnza virus infected cells, 5' cap-dependent translation of host cell mRNAs is
severely impaired. The mechanism involvcs:
(A) Diffusion
(B) Osmosis
(C) Active transport
(D)Facilitated difision
(A) ATP-production
(B) Apoptosis
(C) Tricarboxylic acid cycle
(D) Fatty acid biosynthesis
64. For crnbryo cloning by nuclear transfer technology, one would requirc the following to
reconstitute an early cleavage-stage embryo:
65. Which one of the following organisms does no1 have telomeres?
68. The following genotypes are found in a populaiion: AA=70, Aa=50 and aa=20. What are
Lhe allelc frequencies of A and a?
69. A parental cross involvi ng pure tall-round seeded and pure dlvarf -wrinkle seeded pea
plants produccd (all-roundseeded plants. Upon interbreeding Ihe F1lall-round sccded
plants, a total of 400 Fz plants were produced. How many among them were dwarf-round
seeded plants?
70. The concept 'central dogma of molecular genetics' was modi fied by
71. How many rno1ecuIes ofATP are consumed a nd produced for two molecuIes of glucose in
glycolysis?
(A) 2 and 2
(B) 2and4
(C) 2 and 8
(D) 4 and 8
72. A 3.2 kb single copy region was ampliried by PCR from Iiuman genomic DNA. The
human gcnome size is 3 . 21~09bp. Prior to PCR, what proporlion oilhe DNA consisls of
the 3.2 kb target sequence?
(A) 10"
(B) 10-l2
(c) 10'~
(D) I O - ~
73. A protein rich in which of the followi ng amino acids would have a higher bu ffering
capacity at physiologic pH?
74. To calculate the membrane potential, which of ihe following equalions is used?
(A) Einstein-Stokes
(13) Nemst
(C) Goldman
(D) Hodgkin-Huxley
75. The residues that coordinate to the 2n2' in Zinc finger proteins are
76. If ihe residues are arranged in the descending order of hydrophobicity, which one the
following sequences is correct?
77. There are two concentric circles. The radius of [he outer onc is twicc the radius of the
imer circle. What is the ratio of the area between the circles to that of the inner circle?
(A) 1:l
(B) 2: 1
(C) 1:3
(i3) 3:l
78. Cellulose is a polymer of
79. Considcr the benzene ring in which the C-C bond length is 1.4 A. What is ihe disiancc
in A between diagonalIy opposite carbon atoms?
(A) 2.8
(B) 1.4
(C) 0.7
@) 4.2
80. Whicli one of ihe following molecules is a precursor for synthesis of viiarnin C in the liver
and the kidney of most mammals except higher primates?
(A) Glucose
(3) Phenylalanine
(C) Squalene
(D) Linolenic acid
(A) N-acetyl-glucosarnine
(B) Ran:GTP
(C) mannose-6-phosphate
(13) ribose-6-phosphatc
82. The average density of a soluble protein is 1.33 glcm3. Calculate thc specific volurne of a
soluble protein, given that the average molecular weight of an arnino acid residue is 120
Daltons.
(A) O.SOmL/g
(B) 0.75 mL/g
(C) 0.33 mL/g
l.OOmL/g
(II)
83. A guinea pig was given a single injection o f 2 4 ~ aPeriodicaIly,
~ ~ . blood samples were
withdrawn and analyzed immediately for radioaclivily. The data are shown below.
Calculate ihe biological half-life of 2 4 ~ina the blood stream
(A) 3hr
CB) 6hr
(C) 9 hr
(D) 12 hr
84. Which of the foI1owing features ~Ttransposonsis responsible for genetic polarity?
85. The pKa values for adenine (N-1) and guanine (Ii-7) are 4.2 and 3.2, respectively.
At pH 7, the percentage of protonated forms o f these groups are:,
86. Which of the following amino acids would you expect to find inside o l a typical globular
protein at pH 7?
(A) Alpha-amanitin
(B) Colchicine
(C) Puromycin
(D) Fucomycin
88. Elecrroplioresis of a purified protein called X in the presence of sodium dodecyl sulfate
and beia-mercaptoethanol shows a single band of 60 kDa. In a gcl filtraiion experiment,
protein X elutes between alcohol dehydrogenase(160 kDa) and Farnylase (190 kDa). How
many identical subunits protein X is composed of?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Five
(D) Ihree
89. When bacleria develop resistanceto an anlibioiic, thc explanaiion on the basis of natural
selection is that
(A) Resistanl bacteria preexisted which were selected by the presence of the antibiotic
(B) Exposurc to the antibiotic induced [he resisiance
(C) Tlie antibiotic is mutagenic
(D) Resistancc is a naiural and non-genetic proccss
90. Removal o f gcnc activily A fiom a linear pathway rcsulls in highcr than normal Ievek of
transcripts fiom gene B. A reasonable hypothesis wouId be that
(A) Ethylene
(B) Abscisic acid
(C) C y tokinin
(D) Awin
92. Which enzyrne is the target of dmgs used i o treat disease caused by influenza virus?
(A) Collagenase
(13) Hyaluronidase
(C) Neuraminidase
(D) Proteinase
93. Which enzyme complex is responsible for majorib of the ATP-depe ndent degadation of
cylosolic proteins?
(A) NF-kappa B
(B) NFAT
(C) AP-1
(D) STAT
95. von Willebrand disease is due to deficiency of a faclor involved in
97. A cross between two true breeding lines one with dark blue flowers and one with bright
white flowers produces Fl offspring that are iight blue. When the FI progeny are selfed, a
1:2:1 ratio of dark blue to light blue to white fiowers is observed. What genetic
phenomenon is consistent with these results?
(A) Epistasis
(B) -Incompletedominance
(C) Codominance
@) Inbreeding depression
98- Which of the fo]lowing compounds would have the highesl boiling poinl?
(A) CH3CH2CH2CH3
P) cH3NI-I2
(C) CH30H
(D) ( 3 3 2 9
99. Whicli of the foliowing molecules was rnosl likely to have beeii synthesized iii the smooth
endoplasmic rctic ulum'?
(A) Protein
(B) Pliospholipid
(C) Glucose
( II>
Starch
Program Research
Entrance Paper : Chemistry
Paper Code : CY
Time
9.00 A.M. TO 12.00 NOON
9
1. This question paper consists of only objective type questions for a total of 100 rnarks
3. Answer dl questions. A correct answer gets +1 mark and a wrong answer geis -lJ3
rnark.
Abbreviations used:
Me - methyl, Ph - Phenyl
(A)catalyst for epoxidation reaction
(B) component in photosynthetic systern
(C)nitrogen fixation enzyrne
@) di-oxygenbinding metaIloprotein
2. The number of d-d electronic band spectra for the high-spin Fe(III) octahedral
system is '
(A>Zero
@) Two
(C)Three
@)One
(A) [Ti(q5-cs~5)41
@) [~ibl'-c&)41
(C)I T ~ ( ~ ' - C S H' ~- ~) (5 ~~ 5 ) 3 1
(D) ~ i ( q ~ - ~ s ~ s ) z ( q l - ~ ~ ~ ~ h l
(A) 45'
(B) 90"
(C) 107.5"
(D) 109.5"
1 1. Which of the following moIecules is paramagnetic?
12. The hydration energies of the alkaline earth rnetal ions are signiiicantly
GFEATER than for the alkali metal ions because of
14. The effects on the non-metai when i t combines with a metai are
(4SP;
(B) SP
(C)sp3d
(D)sp3d2
16. The quatemary stnicture of human hemoglobin is best described as a
(A) Cations
(B) Anions
(C) Alkali metals
(D) Lanthanides
19. The ioaic radius is srnaller than !he atomic radius for
(A) neon
(B) nirrogen
(C) sodium
0 sulfur
(A) Si-H
@) c-EI
(C) Ge-H
@) Pb-H
24. The structure of CsCl transforms to NaC1 under high pressure. During this
process the coordination number of Cs and C1 change fiom
(A) 8:8
@) 6:6
(C)12:12
(D) 8:6
27. For the presumed equilibrium at 25OC, CH4 (g) + 202 (g) <=> CO2 ( g ) 2Hz0
~
(g), AH= - 802 ki. The equilibriurn constant of this process would be
28. The number of radial nodes in the 4s orbital of the H-atom in a finite distance
6om the nucleus is
29. If a compound is fomed in a FCC lattice with M atoms at ihe corners of the
unit cell N atoms at the face centers, the formula of h e compound will be
30. Bulk CdS has a band gap of 2.6 eV and its op tical absorption edge lies G-475
nm. What wiI1 happen to h e absorption edge when you make CdS in
nanometer dimensions?
(A) La & Lu
(B) Ce & Gd
(C) Eu & Yb
(II ) & Tm
Sm
(A) o(zer0)
P)719
(C)-719
@) 1438
33. Indicate the suitable reagent to carry out the fouowing transfonnation:
(A) P d - C I '
P)L m 3
(C)DDQ
@) HBr
PhNHNH,
-
CH,CO,H, heat
35. The MAJOR product in the reaction between o-hydroxyacetophenone and
benzaldehyde in the presence of NaOH is
i) MeMgBr
ii) H,O+
iii) H2S04
38. - The MAJOR product in the following reaction is
-NaH
40. How rnany signals will be observed in the proton decoupIed 'k C for
hexameihylbenzene?
41. Identify the MAJOR product obiained when the compound shown below is
treated with HCI.
42. The 'II NMR Spectrum of an organic compound of moIecular formula C4H8
exhibited only a singlet at 6 = 1.9 ppm. The compound is:
(A) 1-butene
(B) cis-2- butene
(C) trans-2-butene
@) cyclobutane
Ql- m o
(4L W 3
(B) n-BuLi
(C) dii. NaOH
D)TMS1
a ' CHO
O H H2021uH-
(A) catechol
(13) salicylic acid
(C)o-benzoquinone
(D) salicyl alcohol
47. Which reapnt is used for Uie conversion of benzil io benzilic acid?
'
(A) H NMR
(B) Mass spectrometry
(C)Vapor pressure osinometry
(Dl Elemental annlysis
51. In a Grignard reaction, which of the following dry solvents CAN tie used as
replacement for anhydrous ether
(A) Acetone
(B) Ethyl acetate
(C) Tetrahydrofurm
(D) Tsoprupanol
(A) Polystyrene
(B) Polyvinyl chloride
(C) Tefion
(D)Hyaluronic acid
53. The swengih of the coupling betwen geminal protons in the foiiowing
molecules
54. The expected spectral pattern in ihe proton coupled 13cNMR spectrurn of a
rnixture of equal weights of CHC13and l3c~cl3 would be
55. Identify the product of h e reaction
58. What is [he sequence for the rate of oxidarion in the following reaction
59. Tdentify tlie product of the reaction
(i)Et2NH.HCI
-
.
E t N Formalin
(ii) Me[
(iii) Et3N
CHO
I
60. The relative ease of the reduction of the following substrate with N2H4
61. Identify the MAJOR product of the reaction
AIBN
65. The selection rules for the allowed rotation Rarnan Iines is
(A) AJ = 0,k2
(B) N=*1
(C)bJ= 0
@)AJ=O,&land52
66. The defect that results when eIectrons are trapped in an ionic crystal latiice in
place of an anion vacancy is known as
68. Whicb of the following DOES NOT contain any asymmetric carbon but cm
show enantiomerism
71. If the concentration vs time plot is found to be linear with a negative slope, the
order of the reaction is
72. In collision theory for chernicai reactions, which of the folIowing statement is
TRUE?
(A) The molecules are assumed to have 3N - 6 vibrational degrees of freedorn
one of which leads to the reaction
(B)The molecules have onIy Iranslational degrees of M o m and ody the
relative mslational energy of the two colliding partners is important for
the reaction
(C)One of the rotational degrees of fiexiom for the mklecule leads to the
reaction
(D)Motion of the electrons in the reac tants lead to the reaction
(A) 5.4
@) 9.0
(C) 8.3
9.5
74. Electrdysis of a solution of CuSQ for 60 rnin using 10.0 Arnp current results
in 11.20 g of Cu metal on the cathode. The eficienc y of this elecirodeposition
process is (Atomic mass of Cu = 63.5)
(A) 9.45 %
@) 94.5 %
(C)47.25 %
(Dl 100 9%
(A) 0.42 V
(B) 0.59 V
(C) 1.35 V
(D) 1.18 v
(A) 0.71 V
@) 0.071 V
(C)7.1 V
(D) 0.355 V
77. Using classical equipartition of energy between different modes, the ratio
V C , of the heat capacities at constant pressure and voIume, respectively of
an ideal diatomic gas, wiii be
(A) 513
@) 7f5
(C)3/2
P)9n
78. The total entropy (S) and Helmholtz free energy (A) changes in a spontaneous
process at a constant temperature and volume wouId be
(A)AS<OandAA>O
(B) AS>OandAA=O
(C) AS>Oand A A c O
@)AS=OandAA=O
79. One mol of an ideai gas at 300 K and 2.4618 am is isothermaily and
reversibly expanded 10 twice its volume. The change in enmpy for this
process is
(40
(B) 5.76 JK-'
(C) 2.88 JK"
(D) 8.64 JK-'
80. Five moles of an idea1 gas at P = 10 am. and T = 300 K expanded irreversibIy
and isothemally against an external pressure of 2 atm. until equilibrium is
attained. The work done in the process is
84. How rnany electrons per second pass through a cross section of a metal wire
carrying a current of W9 ampere ?
85. The vapor pressure of crystalline zirconium chioride follows the equation log
p (in mm) = -54M)R + 11.766. The heat of sublirnation (in kcal mol-') at
4 3 7 ' ~is
(A) 24700
(B) 24.7
(C) 103.2
@) 4-7
CS2 mol. wt. 76) has a dielectric constant of 2.64 and a density of 1.26 gcm-3
86.
6
at 20 C. The molar refraction of CS2 is
(A) 1.3~10"
(B) 1.15 x10-'
(C) 1.15 xlo5
@) 1.31 x105
88. The van der Waai's equation of state for a real gas can be expressed in the
"reduced" form
where n: = PIP,, T = T/Tc and cp = VN, with P,T and V denoting the pressure,
temperature and volume respectively, and ihe subscript c refers to ihe
corresponding critical vaiues. With reference to the a b v e equation which of
the following statement is NOT TRUE.
(A) Two gases at the same reduced ternperature and under the same reduced
pressure occupy the same reduced volume
@) If a gas obeying Equation (1) occupies a volume three times its critical
volume at some T and P, its reduced temperature exceeds its reduced
pressure by 113
(C) If a gas obeying Equation (1) is at its cntical temperature and volume, it
has the rernaining degree of freedom, viz, the pressure
@) When a gas obeying Equation (1) is at its critical temperature and
pressure, ((p-1)3= o
Vol
0)
Pressure (atm .)
In the first step of the cycle the gaseous mixture is compressed, in the second
step it is ignited, in the third step it performs mechanicai work and in the
fourth s tep it is released ac exhaust and replaced with a fresh fueyair mixture.
Which step would MOST CLDSELY wrrespond to the ignition process
(A) Step A
(B) Step B
(C) Step C
(Dl Step D
90. The figure shows rhe phase diagram of COz (not to scale)
91. Two colorless liquids X and Y can react reversibly in equilibrium to fonn a
colored cornpound Z releasing protons. The reaction can be written as:
(A) 0.255
(B) 0.740
(C)0.414
@)0.875
(A) 0.07 %
@) 7.0%
(C)30%
@)15.1 9%
94. Among, the folIowing wave functions, which one is acceptable for an
eleciron, bound to a nucleus? (r, 4 #) denote the spherical polar coordinates
of the electron, with respect to the nucleus, r is in atomic units.
(4IN exp(-r)llr
(B) N exp(-r)cos($l2)
(C)N exp(-r)cos(2$)
@l Nexp(r)cos(2+)
95. A particle is coniined to a one dimensional box, aud is in the lowest possible
stationary state. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) It has a nonzero energy and hence its average value of momentum is not
zero.
(B) It has a zero energy and hence its average value of momentum is zero.
(C) It has a non zero energy and its average value of momentum is zero.
(D) It has a zero of energy bu t i ts average value of momenturn is not zero.
96. Among the pictures, chose the one that you think is he best representation of
the wave hnction for the first excited state of a harmonic oscillator. The wave
function is plotted in h e veriicai direction and is represented by a thicker line.
97. A n elecbon (mass m) in a naphthalene may be modeled as a particie in a
TWO DIMENSIONAL box of dimensions a and 20. The expression for the
al1owe.d energy levels of the particle are (nl and nz are quantum numbers that
take values 1,2,3.. .):
(A) La & Lu
(B) Ce & Gd
(C)Eu & Yb
@) Sm&Tm
Program : Research
Entrance Paper : Ecological Sciences
Paper Code - : ES
Time
9.00 A.M. TO 12.00 NOON
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
This paper consists of 100 questions and carries a total of 100
marks, one mark for each question.
Mark only one bubble per question. If you rnark more than one
bubble, the answer will be evaluated as incorrect.
If you wish to change your answer, please erase the existing mark
completely before making the o ther bubble.
3. Becently, a new species of fiog was discovered in the Western Ghats whose closest
relatives are in Seychelles and Madagascar. This ptoves that
4. The deIetion of a DNA sequence does not lead to any change in an organism's traits.
This means that the sequence may have
6 . The tirne spent scanning for predators by a gazelle in grassland habitats is explained
well by h e size of the group in which it is and the height of the grass in the vicinity.
The following equation describes this relationship:
7. One of the cnteria that conservationists typically use to identify habitats for
conservation is high species diversity. This may not always be a good criterion
because
Distance between visual and scent cues Percentage of tested moths attempting to
(cm) feed on either models or scented
paper
0 95
2 95
10 50
50 0
(A) Visual and olfactory cues from flowers are equalIy effective in attracting
moths.
(B) Visual cues are more effective than olfactory ones for fiower recognition.
(C) Olfactory cues are more effective than visual6nes for fiower recognition.
Moths integrate visual and olfactory cues in the process of fiower recognition.
10. Consider a population that shows exponential growth over time: Nt= N& where NO
is initial population size at time = 0, iVr is population size at time t, r is the intrinsic
rate of increase, and e is the constant 2.7 i 8... In such a population
(A) Popuiation growth rate is highest when the population is smalI and declines over
time.
) Population growth rate is smallest when the population is smaU, increaces with
time and reaches an asymptote.
(C) Population growth rate is smailest when the population is smali and increases B
with time.
(D) Population growth rate is constant.
1 1. At a locus with two alleles with fiequencies p and q, assuming Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium, ?hegenetic diversity (measured as heterozygosity) is the bighest when
12. Mass extinction of the dinosaurs occurred at ihe boundary of which geological
periods?
(A) Iridescence
(B) ~&andescence
(C) Bioluminescence
0)Fluorescence
B (A) Transduction
(B) Transformation
(C) Conjugation
IDI Syngamy
16. The figure beiow shows the distribution of tai1 lengths in a population of birds.
5.
s 40
s2
20
Crc
10
0
N ~ . w ~ T ~ ~ ~ . ~ ~ ~ ~ Q ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ w . ~ Q T F ( ~
N N N N N N N N ~ mmmmmnmmm wuw
For such a distribution, measures of central tendency will show the following pattern:
17. Conservationists argue over whether reserves should be set aside in single Iarge
blocks or several smaii blocks. Single large reserves may be better because larger
areas support mare species. However, srnall areas may have advantages as well. Qne
of the arguments proposed in favour of several small patches concerns
(A) 700 kg
(B) 1.4 tonnes
(C) 2. l tonnes
(D) 1.8 tonnes
19. Bird species A and B both nest in marshes. Species A is dominant over B when they
are found together. Species B will occupy the entire marsh if Species A is absent, but
ifSpecies A is present, it will exclude Species B fiom the rnarsb center, and reshict
Species B to the edge of the marsh. For Species B,the entire marsh would represeot
its
21. Which of the following traits is not characteristic of all vascular plants?
23. In a classical conditioning experiment, it was found that rats could be trajned ta
avoid food that made them sick a few hours after ingestion if the food was paired
with a specific odour during presentation. The aversive conditioning did not,
however, work if the food was paired wi th a sound rather than an odour. This
experiment shows that
(A) Rats are not as sensitive to sound stimuli as they are to odours.
) Both sound and odours need to be presented simultaneously with the food for
successful conditioning.
(C) The efficacy of taste aversion conditioning varies for different kinds of stirnuli.
@) Taste aversion is harder to condition than other behaviours.
(A) Mustelidae
(B) Vrverridae
(C) Herpestidae
(13) Hystricidae
25. Due to globd'wanning, species ofplants and anirnals can generally be expected to
migrate fiom
(A) EIigheraltitudestoloweraltitudes.
(B) h w e r dtitudes to higher altitudes.
(C) West to East aIong a given 1atitude.
(D) East to West along a given latitude.
26. The graph below shows the distributionof body masses in two populations PZ and
P2. Which of these two populations needs a larger sample size to accurately
estimate the rnean?
Mess
(A) PT
(B) p2
(C) The information provided is not suficient.
@) S imilar sample sizes are needed for both populations.
27. The foiiowing scientist is associated with both the field of sociobioIogy and the
theory of island biogeography
(A) 0.24
(333 (0.43)~
(C) 0.48
(D) 0.5 ,
29. Climate change, habitat loss, ulbaviolet radiation, fungal disease, overexploitation
and invasives have been implicated in the decline of
(A) Frogs
(B) Vultures
(C) Tigers
(D) Snakes
h
m
u 2-15 i -
-
food g e M
Cthroligh
Imi used bp
0-lngrowhand
mwemma2
body size in cm
(A) 1 cm
(B) 2.5 cm
(C) 2.25 cm
(D) 1.5 cm
32. Two resources may be described as antagonistic when
33. Chimpanzees are more closely reIated to hurnans than they are to gorillas, yet
chimpanzees and gorillas appear morphologically very similar to each other. This is
because
(A) Middle lamela => primary celI wall -> secondary cell w a l = > plasma
membrane => cytoplasm
) Plasma membrane => primary cell wall -> secondaq cell wall=> middle
lameIla~cytoplasm
(C) Cytoplasm => plasma membrane => middle lamella => secondary cell wall
=> priinary cell wall
(D) Middle lameI1a -> secondary cell wall=> primary cell wall=> plasma
membrane => ,cytoplasm
36. The cross between a mutant mother and a normal father gives rise to offspring that
are ali mutant; the reciprocal cross gives nse to offspring that are all normal. This
means that the mutation is likely to be
37,-Isolated islands such as the Hawaiian and Galapagos islands have a higher proportion
of closely related endemic species occupying different niches thanthe mainiand.
Which of ihe following statements is not a plausible explanafion for the above
observation?
(A) Very few species fiom the mainland colonize these islands.
) Species that colonize these islands eventuaily radiate into multiple species.
(C) Isolated islands often have numerous unoccupied niches.
(D) These islands have higher rates of species extinction
38. C4 plants and CAM plants are sirnilar in their photosynthetic adaptations in which
of these respects?
(A) In both cases, the stornata normaIly close during the day.
) Both types of plants make their sugar without the C3 (Calvin) cycle.
(C) Tn both cases, an enzyme other than Rubisco carries out ihe h t step in carbon
kation.
(II)Both types of plants make rnost of their sugar in the dark.
39. Soay sheep males show two types of hom phenotypes: large-homed or small-
horned. The mating success of the two phenotypes shows the following pattern:
Young Old
40. In population A, each woman bears exactly two female children, bom at maternal
ages 20 and 25. Population B is the same, except that the children are bom when the
mother is 25 and 30. Assume that these are the only differences between A and B.
When the sizes of the two popuiations are monitored over time, we will find that
42. If the average moiecular weight of one arnino acid is 110, the molecular weight of a
peptide made up of 10 amino acids is expected to be
(A) 1100
@) 938
(C) 876
(Dl 744
43. You wish to.compare the overall similarity i n h d y form between four species of
insects belonging to a particular group. To this end, you perform detailed
morphometric measurements using 42 different characters on ten individuals of
each species. An appropriate s tatisticaI test to quantitatively analyse morphological
simiIarity wouId be
44. Which of the following is Ieast Iikely to explain greater bird species diversity in &he
terrestrial iropics along a latitudinal gradient?
46. The totgl number of species of insects in two large fields is the same. Within each of
these fields are two smaller patches. In Field 1, the two patches share very few
species. In the other, the two patches share most species. Which of the following
statements is true?
(A) The individual patches in field I have more species than in field 2.
(B) The individual patches in field 2 have more species than in field 1.
(C) The individual patches in both fields have the same number of species.
@) There is high species turnover between fields 1 and 2.
47. Species that are most likely to have atrophied vision are those that
48. Which of the foliowing sets does not represent four members of Artiodactyla found
in India?
49. Which statement about Mendel's cross of 7T peas with tt peas is nof m e ?
P- P+ P+ P+ P+
Red- Red- Red- Red+ Red+
(A) The preference evolved first followed by the evolution of the red colour.
) The red colour evoIved before the preference and was subsequently lost in
species A and B.
(C) The preference q d the red colour evolved at the sarne tirne but the red colour
was subsequently lost in species A and B.
@) The preference evolved independently in species A, B, C and D,while the red
colour evolved independently in species C and D.
(A) 1 metre
(B) 0.1 m
(C) 1 miliimetre
(D) 0.1 rnillimetres
52. Let uc suppose ihere are 10 red socks and 10 green socks in a drawer. Suppose we
were to draw two socks fiom the drawer at random, one after the other, without
replacement (i.e. without putting back the first sock). What is the probability of
getting two green socks?
(A) 0.237
(B) 0.278
(C) 0.5
@) 1
55. Consider a plant with dehiscent seed podc. At what angle to the ground should the
seeds be expelled if they are to travel the largest possible horizontal distance?
(A) 30 degrees.
(B) 60degrees.
(C) 45 degrees.
@) 90 degrees.
5 6. An island in the Indian Ocean is hst colonized by bird species A. .Several decades
later, bird species B, a close relative of species A with a similar sized beak, also
arrives and establishes itself on this island. SubsequentIy, the beak sizes of the two
species diverge. This is an example of
58. Oil starts to smell bad afier being stored for a long time. This is because of
59. Individuals of a bird species that sings at dawn were captured and kept singly in
complete darhess for two months and their singing activity was continuously
monitored. Each bird typically produced song everyday but, with time,the singing
period no longer coincided with the dawn.When exposed to normal light the birds,
within a couple of &ys, synchronised their singing activity with the &wn.
Which of the foIlowing statements is false?
6 1. h the h i t fly, a point mutation in one gene can causi: the ffy to develop four wings
instead of two. This is likely to be because
64. h honeybee colonies, the leveIs of mRNA of a specific gene called period (per) were
found to be elevated in foragers as opposed to non-foraging members of the colony.
Foragers are typicaiiy older fhan non-foigers in bee colonies. A few young
' p ~ c i o u sforagers
' were found and their per mRNA levels were found to be as
high as normai foragers. This experiment demonstrates that
65. Ears of different moth species are found on different parts of the body, including the
thorax, wings, abdomen and proboscis. This suggests that
(A) Moths are evolving more rapidiy than oiher insect groups.
(B) Ears in moths arose as a single event in their phylogenetic history.
(C) Ears in moths arose multiple times in their phylogenetic history.
@) The siructure of moth ears is different fiom those of other insect groups.
66. imagine that we were interested in the surface area of a bird's wing, divided by the
body length of the bird (call this "relative wing area" or RWA). From geometrical
considerations alone, what would you expect when comparing the RWA of a small
bird with that of a large bird? Assume that there is a strong positive correlation
between wing Iength and body length.
(A) RWA of a small bird is expected to be larger than RWA of a large bird.
(B) RWA of a srnall bird is expected to be smaller than RWA of a large bird.
(C) RWA of a srnall bird is expected to be the same as the RWA of a large bird.
@) RWA does not depend on the size of the bird.
68. A study looked at how foraging animals should distribute themselves in an area
where the habitat consists of many patches that vary in the abundance of resources. Tt
proposed that the foraging rate of an individual in each resource patch should increase
with the amount of resources available and decrease with the number of conspecifics
in ihat patch. At equilibrium, all individuals attempt to maximise their foraging rates
by moving between the patches. Which of the following assumptions is not made by
this model?
69. In the evolution of flowers, there have been major trends towards
(A) Radial symmetry, proliferation and separation of parts and ovary above the
petals.
) Radial symmeby, reduction and fwion of parts and ovary below the petals.
(C) Bilateral symrnelry, reduction and fusion of parts and ovary below the petds.
) Bilateral symmefq, prolifmtion and separaiion of parts and ovary above the
petals.
70. The bacteria which cause septicaemia are fast becoming resistant to the antibiotics
used for controlling them. Which one of the foIlowing explanations fits best?
(A) Each and every individual bacterium, in order to survive, develops a resistance
to the antibiotic when exposed to it, and passes that resistance on to future
generations.
(B) Only some bacteria, io order to survive, develop a resistance to the antibiotic
when exposed to it, and pass that resistance on to future generations.
(C) A few bacteria bave a natural heritable.resistanceto the antibiotic, so they
survive when exposed to it, and pass that resistance on to future generations.
All the bacteria have a natural heritable resistance to the antibiotic, so they
survive when exposed to it, and pass that resistance on to hture generations.
'
7 1. You carefully study populations of iwo very similar field mice, one fiom Kmataka
md one fiom Kerala. You want to know whether the populations belong to the
species or to two different species. You could most confidently decide this if you
could
(A) Show that the ranges of the two mice overlap without hybridization o c c m n g
) Bring the hvo types of mice into the laboratory to see if they wiI1 mate.
(C) Demonstrate that the natural ranges of the two types of mice are entirely
allopatric.
(D)Show that the Karnataka mice Live in wetter habitats than the Kerala mice.
72. When plants do not receive enough water their photosynthetic rate drops
significantly. This is because
(A) Water is a raw materia1 needed for the light dependent reactions.
(B) The stomata close and carbon dioxide is not available.
(C) Sugar builds up and inhibits photosynthesis.
) Not enough oxygen is produced to keep glycolysis running.
73. Which of the foliowing is the new species of macaque recently discovered in
Aninachal Pradesh?
(A) Short term memory formation requi res 3 0 minutes of exposure to the s timuli.
(B} Long term memory formation requires 30 minutes of exposure to the stimuli.
(C) Memory formation occurs within 10 rninutes of encountering the stimuli.
(D) Memory forrnation begins 10 minutes afler encountering the stimuli.
75. You can see the sal k e (Shorea robusta) growing naturalIy in which of these
regions?
76. A one sq.kmforest patch contains 1000 trees. The average gbh (girth at breast
height) is 6.2 m. The area of the canopy is 100 times the cross sec tional area at
breast height. If no sunIight penehtes through the canopy when the sun is
overhead, what percentage of the forest floor receives sunlight? (Take pi = 3.1)
77. There is a small population of tiger;. A geneöc study show that there is relatively
little genetic difference betweenindividuals..The most li kely cause for this is
79. An ordered data set consists of one million DNA sequences arranged according to
lengih. If you were asked to h d a sequence of desired Iength, choosing each
sequence in your search at random, you should be able to find the desired sequence in
about
(A) 2 steps.
(B) 20 steps.
(C) 200 steps.
(D) 2000 steps.
80. During a study on fish in a pond, 200 fish are caught and marked on the first day. On
the second day of sampling, 1 50 fish are caught, of which 50 are aiready found to be
marked. What is the estimate of the total number of fish in the pond?
8 1. A piant ecologist hai to s tudy the diversity of plants in a forest with a smng gradient
of rainfall fiom North to South. A good sampling design would be
82. From our understanding of energy flow through various trophic levels of an
ecosystem, which of the following statementc is correct?
(A) About 50% of the energy in one trophic level is passed on to the next level.
(B) Primary consurners have the highest ecological efficiency.
(C) Only a negligible amount of energy is lost along each link in the food chain.
) Producing meat is an inefficient way of obtaining energy trapped by
pbotosynthesis.
83. Which of the following is ciosest to being iso-osmoiic to its environment?
84. In flying insects such as dragonflies,buttedies and grasshoppers, the wing beat
hequency is low and each nerve impulse results in wing muscle coniraction. In flies
and bees, however, the wing beat fiequency is several times the nerve impulse
fiequ&ncy.Which of the following is not an adaptation to achieve this?
(A) 0.5
(l3) 0.25
(C) 0.125
@) 0.0625
87. Wild pigs regularly feed on sorghum crops but ody within 1 m o f the boundary of
the-cropfield. Given this.crop feeding behaviour, if a farmer wished to minimise the
area dmaged by wild pigs, uShich of the following conQurations of crop fields
should he prefer?
(A) Diplopoda
(B) Cmtacea
(C) Arthropoda
(D) Arachnida
90. When the net p~imarjproductivity (NPP) of a grassland is plotted as a function o f the
mean annual rainfall (R), which of the following functions would best describe the
relationship between them?
(A) Linear
(B) Hyperbolic
(C) Negative exponential
(II)Positive exponential
91. Twenty transects were laid in an undisturbed evergreen forest and hirty were laid in
an adjoining degraded forest, and data on the number of species of snakes seen in
each of them over a one ,year period were recorded. To test whether species
composiiion between evergreen and degraded forests is significantly different, which
would be the most appropriate method of statis tical analysis?
93. Which of the following is not an explanation for higher species richness in a
community?
94. Which of the following is likely to be heard at the W e s t distance from source from
the calIer (given that all calls are produced with the same loudness)?
95. Identical genomes can give rise to sirikingly different phenotypes. Which of ihe
following is not an exampIe of this?
(A) Sodium
(B) Potassium
(C) Calcium
@) Magnesium
97. PJhich of the following is a wrong expIanation for why tehperate and
Arctic lakes never fieeze completely solid?
(A) The hydrogen bonds in ice make ice less dense than liquid water.
(B) Water expands when it solidifies.
(C) Water is denser as a solid than as a liquid.
@) Floating ice insulates the liquid water below.
(A) Embryogeny
(B) Neoteny
(C) Fluctuating asymrnetry
) Developmental asynchrony
Time
9.00 A.M. TO 12.00 NOON
Q
C/
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. The question paper consists of three parts. PART A, PART B,AND PART C.
3. Candidates &e asked to fill in the required fields on the sheet attached to the answer
book.
PART A
(A) lucky
(B) powerful
(C) very smart
(D) enriching
2. What is the meaning of the word: Admonition
(A) Comment
031 Deep respect
(C) W&g
(D) Act responsibly
3. Complete the nekt hvo sentences: He wants to buy watemelons. He goes to the fruit
seller and the fniits available on the seller's cm.
(A) Investigates
(B) Examines
lscovers
(Cl D'
@) Explores
(4 Are
03) o n
(C) In
@) Have
5. Spot the emr: I a snake. His eyes & not move. Neither d m he mouth, which
& pded back inside a silent grimace.
(4 See
(B) Do
(C) 1s
(D) Inside
In quesliom 6 and 7, select fhe pair of words fiom the &en option thd best expresses a
rehtbnship SIMILAR b the pair in the CAPITAL letters
Nobody likes to pay taxes - and most of us would agree that corporations a% particularly
successful in minimizing their tax. In fact, corporate lawyers and accountants have made
an art form of dodging through the mazes that are most countries tax systems. Last
December, for exarnple, a Norwegian court of appeals ruled that painting was an art form
and painters should be exempt from value added tax. Painters w o r h g in the GST Art
Gallery had refused to pay the tax of 25% on their share of the entry fee, on the basis that
painters were artists and not employees. Over in Europe, Romania also faces its own
unique tax problems. For every oficially registered witch, who pays taxes on her
mystical services, another 4000 cast their spells tax fiee, costing the treasury millions. Tn
China, meanwhile, the tax office launched a drive last year. To persuade artists who eam
more than $20,000 per year - a group estirnated to number in million - to pay s e ~ i c tax.
e
About 3000 painters volunteered in Beijing but in some cities not a single painter
registered to pay. Another Chinese tax-raising idea had a very different result. Chinese,
authorities in the Fujian province decided to give bonus marks in exams to schooIchildren
whose parents were painters and eamed more than $20,000.This caused an outrage.
9. In the light of the reading above, idenhfy the option vtrhich comes cIosest to
describing he foiiowing set of words: EXEMFT: MYSTICAL: DODGiNG
Behold a perfect day in the late 21" ccentury. Your eyes open to a perfect mug of coffee
made automatically by your perfect coffee maker. You work out in he gym for a perfect
body, talk on the cell phone in pursuit of a perfect reception, spend 10 hours in office in
perfect isolation, come back home to a perfect pizza delivered for you and go to bed for a
perfect sleep. The driving force behind this perfect world we have made for ourseIves is
the desire to eliminate intermediaries. Most ihings like entertainment, health and news is
routinely acquired without mediation of authorities and contact with people. What was
interesting about the 18' century was that with aii its efforts at human moderation it was
also the great and glorious timw of political and social revoiutions. Community was seen
as a natural consequence of human impulses. Thinkers of the 1 8 century ~ asI;ed a
question that applies to the people in the 21Mcentury. How does one live b l y and
comfortably in the world and at !he same tirne live in the world? With aIl the new science
and technoIogies that make our lives so perfect, we have misplaced the standard of basic
social usefulness. We most often refuse to make use of our common characteristics:
courtesies and kindnesses, an aristocmcy of spirit which recognizes the pain of others.
MPULSE: ARISTOCRACY
14. Of the figures appearing in the passage above, which of the following four
corrections given below would yield a new caiculation showing tha t even income
beIow that of the median family income would enable families in Hubii to afford
Hubli's median-priced house?
Psychological research indicates that College Footbdl and Hockey players are rnore
quicldy moved to hostility md aggression than are college athletes in non-contact sports
such as Sprinting and Swirnming. But the researchers' conclusion - that contact sports
encourage and teach phcipants to be hostile and aggressive - is untenable. The Football
and -Hockey players were probably more hostiie and aggressive to begin wi th than h e
~ ~ r i n t e and
r s Swimmers.
15. Which of the following, if me, would most strengthen the concIusion drawn by the
psychological researchers?
(A) The Football and Hockey players became rnore hostiie and aggressive during
the season and remained so during the off-season, whereas there was no
increase in aggressiveness among the Sprinters and Swimmers.
(B) The Footbd and Hockey players, but not the Sprinters and Swimmers, were
aware at the start of the experirnent that they were being tested for
aggressiveness.
(C) The Sprinters and Swimmers, but not the Football and Hockey pIayers, were
- aware at h e start of h e experiment that ihey were being tested for
aggressiveness.
@). The same psychological research indicated that the Footbail and Hockey
players had a great respect for cooperation and team pIay, whereas the
Sprinters and Swimmers were most concemed with excelling as individual
cornpetitors.