_________________________________________________________________________________________________________

EVALS 5 (22 OCTOBER 2010)

TOPICS COVERED:
 DOH Programs: TB DOTS (items 1 – 15) – ISP as prepared by Dr. Ambat
 Rabies Control: (items 15 – 30) – ISP as prepared by Dr. Ambat
 Substance Abuse: (items 31 – 50) – Dr. Ambat
 H1N1: (items 51 – 60) – ISP as prepared by Dr. Ambat
 Environmental Pollutants: (items 61 – 75) – Dr. Gonzaga
 Occupational Health: (items 76 – 100) – Dr. Dacayo

Sources: Commed Book, intelligent answers of the transcriber and one-on-one w/ doc Gonzaga (ahaha charos! Jok lng:P)
REAL SOURCES: HANDOUTS given by the dept, past cor TRANX 2011 & witty guessing of the
transcriber :p

PLS. TAKE NOTE OF THE SET: THIS RECON IS FOR EVALS 5 22 OCTOBER 2010, and the
correct answers are BOLDED and ITALICIZED.
Pahabol Greetings: ALOHA nlng ulet sa mga friends ko, Belated Hapi Balentayms mga beki!!! Hehe! Hapi aral guys! FIGHTING
BATCH 2012!!!~mamau 
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________

EVALS 5
22 OCTOBER 2010

DOH Programs: TB DOTS (items 1 – 15)

1. The priority target group of the National TB control program is/are:
A. Sputum positive cases
B. Patients with clinical findings suggestive of PTB
C. Sputum negative cases but with chest xray findings suggestive of PTB
D. All of the above

Memorize. 

2. The most effective method to control TB infectivity is:

A. Isolation of TB patients
B. BCG vaccination
C. Prompt drug treatment
D. Health education

This is where DOTS or Directly Observed Treatment, Short Course comes in. It is the
framework of TB control, and it employs health workers to counsel and observe their px
swallowing each dose of medicines, and monitor their progress until they are cured.

And chemotherapy is the only way to stop the transmission of TB (Case Holding)

3. The following are components of the “Tutok Gamutan”, except:

A. Chemoprophylaxis of those who are not yet infected
B. Case detection through case finding by sputum smear microscopy
C. Regular and uninterrupted supply of all essential anti-TB drugs
D. Standardized short course chemotherapy of all smear positive cases under proper case
management conditions

Five elements of the DOTS strategy:

Directly – microscopy services (choice B)
Observed
Treatment
Short Course – choice D; drug supplies (choice C)

4. This plays a secondary role in the diagnosis of TB:

A. Chest radiography
B. Sputum culture
C. Tuberculin test
D. BCG vaccination

You request CXR only after sputum collection is smear-negative.

5. The key to success in the treatment of OTB is/are:

A. Adequate information and education to the patient
B. Regimen used is affordable to the patient
C. Regular monitoring of the patient
D. All of the above

Five elements of the DOTS strategy:

Directly
 Observed
Treatment – monitoring systems
Short Course

Choices for 6 – 10:

A. Failure
B. Relapse
C. New
D. Transfer-in
E. Return after default

6. Rizalino Jose, 47 year old is smear positive at the end of 5th month of treatment.
A. Failure
- A patient who, while on treatment, is sputum smear positive at five months or
later during the course of treatment

7. Two months ago, Geraldine Velasco, 50 years old took anti-tuberculosis drug for only 2 weeks.
She now has been diagnosed with pulmonary smear positive PTB.
C. New
- A patient who had never had treatment for TB or who has taken anti-tuberculosis
drugs for less than one month.

8. Neil Jabon has been receiving treatment for OTB at Alfonso RHU as a new patient. He will
continue his treatment at Silang RHU. An NTP referral form was sent from Alfonso RHU so that a
new NTP card can be opened.
D. Transfer-in
- A patient who has been transferred from another facility with proper referral slip
to continue treatment.

9. James Colarina was diagnosed to have PTB last year. He has completed the treatment for 6
months and was declared cured. He has cough for 3 weeks now and is sputum smear positive.
B. Relapse
- A patient previously treated for tuberculosis, who has been declared cured or
treatment completed and is diagnosed with bacteriologically positive (smear or
culture) tuberculosis.

10. Marissa Buladas was smear negative after her 2 nd month of treatment. She stopped collecting her
medications for 3 months. She now is returning for treatment and is smear positive.
E. Return after default
- A patient who returns to treatment with positive bacteriology (smear or culture),
following interruption of treatment for two months or more.

Choices for 11 – 15:

A. Discoloration of urine
B. Deafness
C. Optic neuritis
D. Peripheral neuritis
E. Gout

11. Streptomycin
B. Deafness (or hearing impairment), pain at injection site, severe skin rash due to
hypersensitivity, ringing of the ear, dizziness due to damage to CNVIII, oliguria or
albuminuria due to renal disorder
12. Ethambutol
C. Optic neuritis, there is impairment of visual acuity & color vision due to optic neuritis
13. Pyrazinamide
E. Gout (or hyperuricemia), there is arthralgia due to hyperuricemia, jaundice due to
hepatitis
14. Rifampicin
A. Discoloration of urine (orange or red), GIT intolerance, flu-like symptoms like fever,
muscle pains, inflammation of the respiratory tract, jaundice due to hepatitis, oliguria
or albuminuria due to renal disorder, thrombocytopenia, anemia, shock
15. Isoniazid
D. Peripheral neuritis (or peripheral neuropathy), there is burning sensation in the feet
due to peripheral neuropathy, jaundice due to hepatitis, psychosis & convulsion

Rabies Control: (items 15 – 30)

Choices for 16 – 21: Category of Exposure: Management:
A. I A. May give pre-exposure
B. II prophylaxis
C. III B. Vaccine
C. Rabies immunization
D. Vaccine and rabies
immunoglobulin
Superficial bite wounds 16. B – Category II includes 17. B – Give vaccine only

Bite on the head
Feeding and touching the animal
licking of skin; superficial bites
without bleeding
18. C – Category III includes 19. D – Requires vaccine and
bites which bleed; splashing or RIG
splattering of saliva or CSF or
other infectious body fluids into
eyes/mouth; scalpel nicks or
needle stick injuries where the
needle is in contact with CSF,
nervous tissue, ocular tissue,
internal organs, saliva or other
infectious body fluids
20. A – Category I includes 21 .A – No prophylaxis is
sharing of food/drink with rabid required but may give pre-
patient; casual contact exposure prophylaxis (D0,
D7,D28) if desired

For 22 – 26:
A 26 y/o male and a 28 y/o female got accepted at the Rabies diagnostic laboratory as a nurse
and a medical technologist respectively.

22. Among the two, who should be given the pre-exposure prophylaxis?
A. Nurse
B. Medical Technologist
C. A and B

Pre-exposure prophylaxis should be given to high risk personnels such as:

Veterinarians,
Animal handlers,
Lab workers,
Hospital staff (rabies patients)

23. The schedule for pre-exposure prophylaxis is:

A. 0, 7, 28
B. 0, 3, 28
C. 0, 3, 7, 28
D. 0, 7, 30

Regimens: PVRV (0.5 ml) or PDEV (1.0 ml) IM at 1 site on days 0, 7, and 28
PVRV (0.1 ml) or PDEV (0.2 ml) ID at 1 site on days 0, 7, and 28

24. If the first dose of the vaccine is given on March 5, the next doses will be on:
A. March 12, April 4
B. March 12, April 2
C. March 11, April 1

Compute: 
March 5=day 0
March 12=day 7
April 2=day 28

25. The site of immunization is the:

A. Gluteal area
B. Anterolateral area of the thigh
C. Deltoid area

I can’t really find the exact phrase in our handouts wherein it is said that Deltoid area is for
pre-exposure prophylaxis, but I guess that’s the answer because Gluteal area & Anterolateral
thigh are used more for POST-exposure treatment.

26. Because of a continuing risk of exposure, a booster dose should be given:

A. Every 6 months
B. Every 5 years
C. No booster dose is needed
D. Every 1 – 3 years

Booster dose (every 1 – 3 years) is required for those with continuing risk.

27. A five year old boy was bitten by a rabid dog on his left leg on Feb 1. There was bleeding at
the bite site. He was brought to the animal bite center on Feb 5. The physician prescribed post-
exposure treatment to the patient. This should include:
A. Equine rabies immunoglobulin (ERIG) at 40 unit/kg on days 0, 3, 7, 30 and 90
B. Human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG) at 20 units/kg on day 0
 C. Purified vero cell rabies vaccine at 0.1 ml intradermally at 2 sites on days 0, 3, 7,
and 1 site on days 30 and 90
D. A and C
E. B and C

Choice A is not the answer because Equine rabies immunoglobulin should be given 40
units/kg on day 0 ONLY.

28. A few hours prior to consultation, a 9 year old girl was bitten by her sister’s pet dog on her
right leg. The wound was immediately washed with soap and water before she was brought to the
animal bite center. Past medical history revealed a cat bite when she was 5 years old and she
was given a complete treatment for Category 3 exposure. Being the physician at the animal bite
center you should give:
A. No post-exposure treatment
B. Two booster doses of purified vero cell rabies vaccine on days 0 and 3
C. Another full course of active immunization
D. HRIG at 20 units/kg on day 0
E. B and D

I can’t really find the exact phrase in our hand-outs explaining why choice C is the answer.
So please do memorize. And I guess if years already have passed after your first
immunization, you must get another one. And vaccination is only effective during the
incubation period, which is usually within 20-90 days after the exposure/bite.

29. In most cases, death is an outcome in rabies and is often due to:
A. Acute encephalitis
B. Cardiac arrest
C. Respiratory paralysis
D. All of the above

Memorize. 

30. The most important initial management of dog bite is:

A. Administration of anti-tetanus vaccine
B. Irrigate saliva containing bite wound
C. Use of antibiotics
D. Administration of anti-rabies vaccine

Imperative initial management of the dog bite is to immediately wash vigorously and flush
with soap and water, detergent or water alone the bite wound. Choices A, C, and D are done
later on.

Substance Abuse: (items 31 – 50)

31. The agency responsible for enforcing all legal provisions related to dangerous drugs is:
A. Dangerous Drugs Board (DDB)
B. Department of Health (DOH)
C. Food and Drug Administration
D. Phil. Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA)

PDEA is responsible for all legal provisions related to dangerous drugs. DDB would retain
policy and oversight functions. DOH will develop policies and standards for the licensing and
accreditation of drug testing laboratories, and drug treatment and rehab facilities, they also
train and accredit substance abuse physicians and paramedical workers (thus the
administration of all government-managed drug treatment and rehab centers would be
transferred to DOH).

32. The most common dangerous drug being chosen by users is:
A. Marijuana
B. Methamphetamine
C. Heroine
D. Ketamine

Memorize. Shabu. 

33. The following is/are reason/s why adolescents drink alcoholic beverages:
A. Peer influence
B. Curiosity
C. Problems in the family
D. A and B
E. All of the above

Memorize. Peer influence and curiosity are the top 2 most reasons for the use of alcohol
among adolescents. O, nanggaling din kau jn ahaha. :D
34. The following is/are true about tobacco smoking as reported by the global youth tobacco
survey.
A. In the Philippines 4 out of 10 students aged 13-15 years old had ever smoked cigarettes.
B. Adolescent boys were significantly more likely to have ever smoked than adolescent girls.
C. 1 out of 8 students who had ever smoked took their fisrst cigarette before the age
of 15.
D. All of the above.
I don’t know why choice C is the only answer. According to the hand-out that the department
gave us, all should be correct. So the answer should be choice D. It’s either the answer key
is wrong, or I copied the wrong answer :p

35. Abused substances produce some form of intoxication that may alter:
A. Physical control
B. Judgement
C. Attention
D. Perception
E. All of the above

Memorize.  (sori puro ganto, yan na kse mismo ang nasa past cor/handout)

36. The following are true in the diagnosis of substance abuse, EXCEPT:
A. Urine, blood test and CT scan are useful in the diagnosis of substance abuse.
B. 37% of substance abusers have serious mental illness.
C. Interviewing parents, teachers and caregivers regarding the current behaviour of the
patient is important.
D. The major problem in the diagnosis of substance abuse is the consideration of dual
diagnosis.

Usually the diagnosis of substance abuse is very difficult. But urine and blood tests are
usually done to know if the person is a user or not. Choice A is wrong because of the item CT
Scan (Nothing is mentioned in the past cor that CT scan can be useful in the diagnosis). The
rest of the choices are right.

37. The following is/are true of drug dependence:

A. Large periods of time spent in obtaining, or recovering from the substance
B. Substance is taken in larger amounts over long periods of time than what is
intended
C. Continued use of alcohol or other drugs while knowing that it may cause a lot of
problems.
D. A and B
E. All of the above

Dependence can be considered if at least 3 of the ff. Factors are present:

1. Substance is continually taken in larger amounts or in longer periods than what is
expected
2. A persistent desire with fail efforts to control the use
3. Large periods of time spent obtaining, taking or recovering from the substance
4. Frequent periods of intoxication or detoxification especially when social and major role
obligations are expected
5. Continued use even while knowing that it is creating problems socially, physically
and psychologically
6. Increased tolerance
7. Withdrawal symptoms
8. Substance taken to relieve withdrawal symptoms

38. This substance is used by body builders to stimulate muscle growth.

A. LSD
B. Ketamine
C. Rohypnol
D. Gammahydroxybutyric acid
E. Phenycyclidine

Actually I don’t know why this is the answer. Cos in the past cor GHB (Liquid XTC, G,
Bluenitro), is defined as a drug that can cause mild relaxation but can also lead to coma in
high amount. It is usually used as a date-rape drug because it is easy to put into drinks due
to its tasteless and colorless characteristics. It is also a powerful sedative. So google nyu
nlng kung pde xang pampalaki ng katawan haha. Wag wiki a, unreliable un. :p

39. The following factor/s should be considered in substance abuse treatment, EXCEPT:
A. Gender
B. Food preference
C. Age and developmental stage
D. Cooperation of family members
E. Values and culture
 Factors when considering treatment:
1. Age, developmental stage and maturity
2. Values and cultures because this can affect some forms of treatment
3. Gender
4. Co-existing mental disorders which can interfere with the patient’s ability to successfully
participate in the treatment program
5. Family factors like cooperation of the family members in the treatment for better
results

40. The following is/are true of substance abuse:

A. A public health concern
B. A socio-cultural problem
C. Regarded as the nation’s public enemy number 1
D. A and B
E. All of the above

Substance abuse is regarded as the nation’s public enemy number 1. It is a public

health concern because it affects a large percentage of the population, a socio-cultural
problem, an economic burden, most probably because it affects the working age group in
our country, and a peace and order problem rolled into one.

For nos. 41 – 60 (Matching type), pls. Memorize! 

41. Tobacco – Nicotine is addicting (choice A)

42. Marijuana – Hashish causes intoxication (choice B)
43. Ketamine – A popular anesthetic substance (choice D)
44. Phenycyclidine – Effects are stronger than ketamine (choice E)
45. LSD – Popular in the 1960’s (choice C)

(Other names: usually as to what they look like)

46. Ecstasy – Adam (choice C)
47. Cocaine – Snow (choice E)
48. Methamphetamine – Crystal (choice B)
49. Heroine – Smack (choice D)
50. Rohypnol – Roofies (choice A)

H1N1: (items 51 – 60)

51. Antigenic Shift – Changes in proteins through genetic reassortment (choice C)
Produces different viruses not covered by annual vaccine
52. Pandemic – Worldwide epidemic (choice D)
53. Antigenic Drift – Ongoing and basis for change in vaccine every year (choice A)
Changes in proteins by genetic point mutation & selection
54. Epidemic – A located cluster of cases (choice B)

55. Social distancing – Closing of schools (choice B)... or prohibiting large gatherings. It is a
range of nonquarantine measures that might serve to reduce contact between persons
56. Quarantine – Separation from circulation of asymptomatic persons (choice C)... in the
community that may have been exposed to infection
57. Isolation – Sequestration of symptomatic patients (choice A)... either in home or hospital so
that they will not infect others

58. Probable case – With acute febrile respiratory illness who is positive for influenza A but
negative for H1 and H3 virus (by RT-PCR, or (+) for influenza A by an influenza rapid test or an
influenza IFA plus meets criteria for a suspected case) (choice C)
59. Confirmed case – With acute febrile respiratory illness and laboratory confirmed (real time
RT-PCR & viral culture) H1N1 virus infection (choice B)
60. Suspected case – With acute febrile respiratory illness and has a close contact with
confirmed H1N1 case w/in 7 days (or w/in 7 days travel to community where there are 1 or
more confirmed A(H1N1) cases, or resides in a community where there are 1 or more confirmed
swine influenza cases) (choice A)

Environmental Pollutants: (items 61 – 75)

61. Ecosystems matter to Human Health for “ecosystems” means:
A. 21st century source of health risks
B. Planet’s life support systems for the human species and all other forms of life
C. Fundamental need for food, water, air, shelter etc.
D. A and B
E. B and C

Ecosystems are the planet’s life support systems—for the human species and all other forms
of life.
Human biology has a fundamental need for food, water, clean air, shelter and reltive climatic
constancy.
62. Degradation of ecosystem services result in harmful effects being borne
A. Proportionately within the wealthy
B. Disproportionately by the poor
C. Proportionately by all economic status
D. Disproportionately by the wealthy

Like more traditional risks, the harmful effects of the degradation of ecosystem services are
being borne by the poor (ex. Unequal effects seen in the aftermath of the typhoon).

63. The joint effort of the World Health Organization and UNEP in studying environmental
hazards is known as
A. Ecosystem Health Initiative
B. Health and Ecosystem Linkage Initiative
C. Ecosystem Health Linkage Initiative
D. Health and Environment Linkages Initiative

Memorize.  Health. And. ENVIRONMENT. Linkages. Initiative.

64. Death from Diarrheal diseases is an indicator of this priority risk identified by the Initiative on:
A. Climate change
B. Vector-borne diseases
C. Toxic substances
D. Water, health and ecosystems
E. Urban environment

I cannot find the exact phrase in the past cor explaining why choice D is the answer, but I
guess that is the answer because Diarrheal diseases are usually borne out of Water.

For nos. 65-69, pls. Memorize! 

65. Unintentional poisoning of 355, 000 – Climate change (choice B) ~ i don’t know why this is
the answer 
66. Lead exposure 230, 000 – Toxic substances (choice C)
67. Malaria 1.2 million/dengue – Vector-borne diseases (choice E)
68. Respiratory diseases at 1.6 million – Indoor air pollution and household energy (choice D)
69. Road traffic injuries – Urban environment (choice A)

70. Based on the NSCB 2006 Millennium Development Goals Progress chart regarding malaria,
the Philippines is likely to:
A. Not reach target for malaria
B. Reach target malaria
C. Remain standstill

I don’t have a source for this  so sorry if I can’t explained it. But probably, choice B is the
answer because in Millennium Development Goals, reached naman lagi. Ata..hehe.

71. From the same source, for MDG Goal 7 (Ensure environmental sustainability, Target 7C,
Halve by 2015, the proportion of population without sustainable access to safe drinking water and
improved sanitation), the Philippines is likely to:
A. Remain standstill
B. Reach target
C. Not reach target

Again. 

72. The Multiple-Exposure-Multiple Effect Model (MEME) used for Children’s Illness and
Environment study is known in your current project as the tool
A. Community Diagnosis
B. Problem Investigation
C. Problem tree
D. A and B
E. B and C

In a problem tree, there are multiple exposures that can lead to multiple effects.

73. Water-borne diseases are examples of ___ Environmental Hazards:

A. Traditional
B. Modern
C. A and B
D. None of the above

Traditional – waterborne diseases (ex. Typhoid, Cholera), food safety

Modern – avian flu, bovine spongiform encephalopathy, industries, emissions, spillage
 The answer is probably both because Water-borne diseases could also arise from industries
and spillages (?)

74. The following is/are examples of Modern Environmental Hazards:

A. Noise pollution
B. Pesticide soil contamination
C. Radioactive contamination
D. Mad Cow’s Disease
E. All of the above

See no. 73 

75. The framework for the Philippine National Environmental Health Action Plan has four
components EXCEPT
A. SWATOF’S issues, challenges and strategies
B. Multiple stakeholders
C. Advocacy campaigns
D. Convergence – MDG, International agreements, National Objectives for Health
E. Environmental Health Country Profile and Data Sheet

Again, I don’t have a source for this (sori nmn ). I-memorize nyu nlng...

Occupational Health: (items 76 – 100)

For nos. 76 – 80, pls. Memorize!  at sori wla akons source neto, hulaan nlng nten bket gnun
sgot ahaha :D

76. Water – Department of Interior and Local Government (choice B) ~ feeling ko kaya DILG
kse ung mga bodies of water is sakop or managed by the Local Government (hula lang :p)
77. Air – Department of Environment and Natural Resources (choice C)~ obviously :p
78. Occupational Health – Department of Labor (choice A)
79. Food – Bureau of Food and Drugs (choice E)
80. Sanitation – Department of Health (choice D)

81. Which of the following statements is/are true?

A. The workplace is a safe environment
B. About 30-50% of workers report hazardous exposures
C. Many individuals spend one-third of their adult life in such hazardous work
environments
D. All statements are true
E. B & C are true

Choice A is wrong because the workplace is a hazardous environment.

82. Occupational health is an important strategy to:

A. Improve the overall quality of life of individuals and society
B. Ensure the health of workers
C. Contribute positively to productivity, quality of products, work motivation and job
satisfaction
D. All of the above

Digest. Absorb.

83. The National Objectives for Health 2005-2010 in the Philippines aims to:
A. Reduce morbidity, disability, mortality from adverse occupational conditions
B. Establish an occupational health information system in 10% of municipalities and cities
C. Establish occupational health programs at the local level
D. All of the above are correct
E. A & C are correct

I can’t find the exact phrase in the handouts explaining why choices A & C are the only
answers. Pls digest and absorb nalang 

84. Work places include the following:

A. Hospitals and clinics
B. Call centers
C. Semi-conductor and garment factories
D. Streets
E. All of the above

Workplace refers to the office, premises or worksite, where the workers are habitually
employed and shall include the office or place where the workers who have no fixed or
definite work site (e.g. the streets), regularly report for assignment in the course of their
employment.

85. The elements of Occupational Health are the

 A. Worker, job, tool, work environment
B. Task, act, employee, work environment
C. Employer, employee, union, factory
D. Work environment, task, tool, employer

Worker Tool Task or job Working environment

Genetic composition Biochemical designs and Application Physical condition
Physical constitution specifications Software design Biomechanical
Psychological Change Furniture/equipment
characteristic Training
Disease susceptibility Job satisfaction
Rest breaks
Shift works
Support systems
Management
system

86. An Occupational Health Program in a company can be developed through collaboration

among the
A. Industrial hygienist, employer, safety engineer
B. Industrial hygienist, safety engineer, sanitary inspector
C. Industrial physician, industrial hygienist and safety inspector
D. Industrial physician, industrial hygienist, safety engineer

OH PROGRAM (DIAGRAM)

Industrial Physician

OH
PROGRAM
Industrial Hygiene Safety Engineer

87. Occupational health is considered to be a multidisciplinary activity aiming at

A. Protection and promotion of health of workers
B. Enablement of workers to conduct socially and economically productive lives and
to contribute positively to sustainable development
C. Development and promotion of healthy and safe work, work environments and
work organizations
D. All of the above

Principles of Occupational Health and Safety:

Occupational health is considered to be multidisciplinary activity aiming at:
1. Protection and promotion of health workers by:
- Preventing and controlling occupational diseases and accidents
- Eliminating occupational factors and conditions hazardous to health and safety at
work
2. Development and promotion of healthy and safe work, work environments and
work organizations
3. Enhancement of physical, mental and social well-being of workers and support for the
development and maintenance of their working capacity, as well as professional and
social development at work
4. Enablement of workers to conduct socially and economically productive lives and
to contribute positively to sustainable development

88. Health hazards in the workplace are

A. Also referred to as environmental factors, agents or stresses
B. Etiologic agents of occupational diseases
C. Classified as physical, chemical, biological and ergonomic
D. All of the above
E. A & B only

Digest. Absorb. Memorize. 

Classification of Health Hazards in the Workplace (diagram)

Physical Chemical

Workplace
Health
Hazards

Biological Ergonomic
89. The junior intern on-duty at the Emergency Room just finished extracting blood from a
pregnant woman in labor when she accidentally punctured her hand while recapping the needle.
What potential hazard was she exposed to?
A. Chemical hazard
B. Ergonomic hazard
C. Biological hazard
D. Physical hazard

Chemical hazard – include substances used and/or generated as raw materials, intermediate
products, finished products and waste product; occur in the solid, liquid and gaseous state;
each chemical is documented through a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Ergonomic hazard – related to the fit between a worker and his job, to achieve optimum
efficiency and productivity; design of work and workplace should consider human factors,
physical, mental and emotional capacities of people
BIOLOGICAL HAZARD – DEAL WITH LIVING ORGANISMS WHICH HAVE BEEN FOUND
TO TRANSMIT DISEASE TO MAN OR TO AFFECT HIS HEALTH ADVERSELY (since the JI
was pricked by a needle used to extract blood which could have living organisms that can
transmit disease to man)
Physical hazard – involve contact with various forms of energy; environmental conditions in a
workplace

90. Threshold limit values (TLVs):

A. Are occupational exposure limits
B. Refer only to airborne concentrations of substances
C. Serve as guidelines in the control of workplace health hazards
D. A & C are correct
E. All are correct

TLVs
- occupational exposure limits
- serve as guidelines in the control of workplace health hazards
- refer to airborne concentrations of substances AND represent conditions under
which it is believed that nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed day after
day without adverse health effects

For nos. 91-92: AMIX, a semi-conductor manufacturing company, with 2,500 employees hired
you as their Occupational Health Physician. One of the problems identified by the management is
absenteeism due to sickness. Based on the clinic census, Influenza ranks no. 1 in the illnesses
list.

91. Which is the most appropriate environmental/health hazard control measure in this case?
A. Prevention
B. Shielding
C. Isolation
D. Treatment

Basic Principles to the Control of Environmental and Occupational Health:

1. Prevention – is eliminating effects of or exposure to a hazard (as to this case, prevention
from Influenza)
2. Shielding – is setting up of physical barriers between the source of the problem or hazard
and man
3. Isolation – is separating the hazard from man in terms of either distance or time to
prevent or minimize contact
4. Treatment - involves measures to terminate the existence of a hazard through
destruction or inhibition with the aid of physical, chemical or biological agents
5. Substitution – is the use of other materials, products, activities, processes/operations,
methods, machines, and other equipment instead of hazardous ones; “modification”

92. As the physician, what should be your best recommendation

A. Immunization against flu
B. Treat patients with signs and symptoms of flu
C. Provision of Vitamin C tablets daily by the company
D. Use of face mask

Choice A is for PROTECTION. Choice B is for treatment, and Choice D is for shielding.

93. Giving oral medicine against Malaria before travelling to Palawan is an example of what
environmental control
A. Substitution
B. Prevention
C. Treatment
D. Shielding

See no. 91  prophylaxis is for prevention.

94. Based on the levels of control which is least effective
A. Engineering control
B. Administrative control
C. Use of Personal Protective equipment

Engineering control – requires physical changes in the workplace environment; use of

substitution, isolation and ventilation
Administrative control – includes setting up policies, rules/regulations, safe work
practices, changes in the workplace organization
Personal protective equipment (PPE) – include devices that can protect worker from
head to foot; “last resort” type of protection or control; merely set up a barrier between
the worker and the hazard—hazard is NOT eliminated

95. Newer pesticides which are less hazardous than organochlorines are now being utilized in
agriculture. This is an example of
A. Shielding
B. Isolation
C. Substitution
D. Prevention

See no. 91  organochlorines are being substituted by newer, less hazardous pesticides.

96. Which statement is true regarding Occupational Healt?

A. The promotion and maintenance of the highest degree of physical, mental and
social well-being of workers in all occupations
B. It adapts work to people, and people to their jobs
C. It prevents departures from health and control risks
D. All of the above

Digest. Absorb. 

97. Industrial hygiene involves:

A. The anticipation, recognition, evaluation, and prevention and control of
environmental factors or stresses which may affect the health of the worker
B. Focus on the human factors
C. The treatment of workers
D. All of the above

Choice B is wrong because Industrial Hygiene focuses more on ENVIRONMENTAL factors,

and choice C is wrong because it is NOT for treatment of workers but for anticipation,
recognition, evaluation, and prevention and control of environmental factors or stresses
which may affect the health of the worker

98. Rule 1960 pertains to the Occupational Health Services:

A. Possess all of the additional qualifications required under the rule (such as
training in Basic Course in Occupational Medicine or Basic Occupational Safety
and Health Training)
B. Every employer is required to provide his workplace with medical and dental
services, emergency medicines and dental facilities
C. Occupational Health Practitioner refers only to the physician duly licensed to
practice his or her profession in the Philippines
D. “Occupational Health Practitioner” refers to the physician, nurse, engineer, dentist
or chemist duly licensed to practice his or her profession in the Philippines
E. All of the above

Memorize. Digest. Absorb. 

99. The health hazard associated with Caisson’s disease is

A. Noise
B. Change in barometric pressure
C. Cotton dust
D. Coal dust

Memorize. 

100. Tina is a 24 year old female who works for eight hours as a teller in the tollway. The potential
hazard/s in her work station are
A. Physical hazard
B. Ergonomic hazard
C. Chemical hazard
D. A & B
E. All of the above

See no. 89 
~END OF EVALS 5 RECON~