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IIT-JEE Previous Year Question Papers

IIT JEE 1997 Question Paper

PHYSICS
Time: Three hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Instructions

1. Answer all questions in the language of your choice as shown in your admit
card.
2. The paper consists of eight printed pages (16 questions)
3. Answers to the next question should start after drawing a separating
horizontal line with a space of 3 cm.
4. Answer all sub-questions of a question at one place in the same order as in
the question paper.
5. There are no negative markings.
6. Use of calculator is prohibited.
7. Use of logarithmic tales is permitted.

Useful data

Acceleration due to gravity g = 9.8 m/s2


Velocity of light in vacuum c = 3.0 x 108 m/s
Planck’s constant h = 6.63 x 10-34 J s
Mass of Electron me = 9.1 x 10–31 kg
Electronic charge e = 1.6 x 10–19 C
Electron binding energy in H atom = 13.6 eV
1 eV = 1.6 x 10–19 J

1. A cart is moving along + x direction with a velocity of 4 m/s. A person on the cart
throws a stone with a velocity of 6 m/s relative to himself. In the frame of
reference of the cart the stone is thrown in y-z plane making an angle of 30 °with
vertical z axis. At the highest point of its trajectory, the stone hits an object of
equal mass hung vertically from the branch of a tree by means of a string of
length L. A completely inelastic collision occurs, in which the stone gets
embedded in the object. Determine:

(i) The speed of the combined mass immediately after the collision with
respect to an observer on the ground
(ii) The length L of the string such that the tension in the string becomes zero
when the string becomes horizontal during the subsequent motion of the
combined mass.

2. Two blocks of mass m1 = 10 kg and m2 = 5 kg, connected to each other by a


massless inextensible string of length 0.3 m are placed along a diameter of a turn
table. The coefficient of friction between the table and m1 is 0.5 while there is no
friction between m2 and the table. The table is rotating with an angular velocity of
10 rad/s about a vertical axis passing through its centre O. The masses are
placed along the diameter of the table on either side of the centre O such that the
mass m1 is at a distance of 0.124 m form O. The masses are observed to be at
rest with respect to an observer on the turn table.

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(i) Calculate the frictional force on m1.


(ii) What should be the minimum angular speed of the turn table so that the
masses will slip from this position?
(iii) How should the masses be placed with the string remaining taut, so that
there is not frictional force acting on the mass m1? (5)

3. Two thin circular disks of mass 2 kg and radius 10 cm each are joined by a rigid
massless rod of length 20 cm. The axis of the rod is along the perpendicular to
the planes of the disk through their centers (see Fig 3). This object is kept on a
truck in such a way that the axis of the object is horizontal and perpendicular to
the direction of the motion of the truck. Its friction with the floor of the truck is
large enough so that the object can roll on the truck without slipping. Take x axis
as the direction of motion of the truck and z axis as the vertically upwards
direction. If the truck has an acceleration of 9 m/s2, calculate:

(i) The force of friction on each disk


(ii) The magnitude and the direction of the frictional torque acting on each
disk about the centre of mass O of the object. Express the torque in the
^ ^ ^
vector form in terms of unit vectors I, j, and k in the x, y and z direction.
(5)

4. In the following, column I lists some physical quantities and the column II gives
approximate energy values associated with some of them. Choose the
appropriate value of energy from column II for each of the physical quantities in
column I and write the corresponding letter A, B, C, etc against the number (i),
(ii), (iii) etc, of the physical quantity in the answer book. In your answer, the
sequence of the column I should be maintained. (4 x 1 = 4)

Column I Column II
(i) Energy of thermal neutrons (A) 0.025 eV
(ii) Energy of X-rays (B) 0.5 eV
(iii) Binding energy per nucleon (C) 3 eV
(iv) Photoelectric threshold of a metal (D) 20 eV
(E) 10 keV
(F) 8 MeV

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5. A non-viscous liquid of constant density 1000 kg/m3 flows in a streamline motion


along a tune of variable cross section. The tube is kept inclined in the vertical
plane as shown in Fig P-2. The area of cross section of the tube at two points P
and Q at heights of 2 meters and 5 meters are respectively 4 x 10–3 m2 and 8 x
10–3 m2. The velocity of the liquid at point P is 1 m/s. Find the work done per unit
volume by the pressure and the gravity forces as the fluid flows from point P to
Q. (5)

6. A band music at a frequency f is moving towards a wall at a speed vb. A motorist


is following the band with a speed vm. If v is the speed of sound, obtain an
expression for the beat frequency heard by the motorist. (5)

7. One mole of a diatomic ideal gas (γ= 1.4) is taken through a cyclic process
starting from point A. The process A à B is an adiabatic compression, B à C is
isobaric expansion, C à D is an adiabatic expansion and D à A is isochoric. The
volume rations are VA/VB = 16 and VC/VB = 2 and the temperature at A is TA =
300 K. Calculate the temperature of the gas at the points B and D and find the
efficiency of the cycle.

8. The apparatus shown in figure consists of four glass columns connected by


horizontal sections. The height of two central columns B and C are 49 cm each.
The two outer columns A and D are open to the atmosphere. A and C are
maintained at a temperature of 95 °C while the columns B and D are maintained
at 5 °C. The height of the liquid in A and D measured from the base line are 52.8
cm and 51 cm respectively. Determine the coefficient of thermal expansion of the
liquid. (5)

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9. In each sub-question of this question, four alternatives are given of which only
one alternative is correct/best answer. Select the correct/best alternative and
write down the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D in your answer book against the
sub-question number. In your answer, the sequence of the sub-question should
be the same as given in the question paper. (9 x 1 = 9)

(i) The average translational kinetic energy of O2 (relative molar mass 32)
molecules at a particular temperature is 0.048 eV. The translational
kinetic energy of N2 (relative molar mass 28) molecules in eV at the same
temperature is

(A) 0.0015 (B) 0.003


(C) 0.048 (D) 0.768

(ii) A vessel contains 1 mole of O2 gas (relative molar mass 32) at a


temperature T, The pressure of the gas is P. An identical vessel
containing one mole of He gas (relative molar mass 4) at a temperature
2T has a pressure of

(A) P/8 (B) P


(C) 2P (D) 8P

(iii) A proton, a deuteron and an α-particle having the same kinetic energy
and moving in circular trajectories in a constant magnetic field. If rp, rd and
rα denote respectively the radii of the trajectories of these particles, then

(A) rα = r p < r d (B) rα > r d > r p


(C) rα = r d > r p (D) rp = r d = r α

(iv) A spherical blackbody with a radius of 12 cm radiates 450 W power at


500 K. If the radius were halved and the temperature doubled, the power
radiated in watt would be

(A) 225 (B) 450


(C) 900 (D) 1800

(v) A traveling wave in a stretched string is described by the equation

y = A sin (kx – ωt)

The maximum particle velocity is

(A) Aω (B) ω/k


(C) dω/dk (D) x/t

(vi) As per Bohr model, the minimum energy (in eV) required to remove an
electron from the ground state of double ionized Li atom (Z = 3) is

(A) 1.51 (B) 13.6


(C) 40.8 (D) 122.4

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(vii) The circuit shown in the figure contains two diodes each with a forward
resistance of 50 ohms and with infinite backward resistance. If the battery
voltage is 6 V, the current through the 100 ohm resistance (in amperes) is

(A) zero (B) 0.02


(C) 0.03 (D) 0.036

(viii) Which of the following statements is not true?

(A) The resistance of intrinsic semiconductors decreases with


increase of temperature.
(B) Doping pure Si with trivalent impurities give p-type
semiconductors.
(C) The majority carries in n-type semiconductors are holes.
(D) A p-n junction can act as a semiconductor diode.

(ix) The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from a surface


when photons of energy 6 eV fall on it is 4 eV. The stopping potential in
volts is

(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 10.

10. Two capacitors A and B with capacities 3 µF and 2 µF are charged to a potential
difference of 100 V and 180 V respectively. The plates of the capacitors are
connected as shown in the figure with one wire from each capacitor free. The
upper plate of A is positive and that of B is negative. An uncharged 2 µF
capacitor C with lead wires falls on the free ends to complete the circuit.
Calculate

(i) the final charge on the three capacitors, and


(ii) the amount of electrostatic energy stored in the system before and after
the completion of the circuit (5)

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11. Three infinitely long thin wires, each carrying current I in the same direction, are
in the x-y plane of a gravity free space. The central wire is along the y-axis while
the other two are along x = ± d.

(i) Find the locus of the points for which the magnetic field B is zero.
(ii) If the central wire is displaced along the Z-direction by a small amount
and released, show that it will execute simple harmonic motion. If the
linear density of the wires is λ, find the frequency of oscillation (5)

12. A pair of parallel horizontal conducting rails of negligible resistance shorted at


one end is fixed on a table. The distance between the rails is L. A conducting
massless rod of resistance R can slide on the rails frictionlessly. The rod is tied to
a massless string, which passes over a pulley fixed to the edge of the table. A
mass m, tied to the other end of the string, hangs vertically. A constant magnetic
field B exists perpendicular to the table. If the system is released from rest,
calculate (5)

(i) the terminal velocity achieved by the rod, and


(ii) the acceleration of the mass at the instant when the velocity of the rod is
half the terminal velocity.

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3. Fill in the blanks in the following. In your answer book, write down the sub-
question number (i), (ii), etc., and your answer(s) against its corresponding to
each blank. Do not write the full statement, Your answer should be in the same
sequence as given in the question paper. (11 x 2 = 22)

(i) A rod of weight w is supported by two parallel knife edges A and B and is
in equilibrium in a horizontal position. The knives are at the distance d
from each other. The centre of mass of the rod is at distance x from A.
The normal reaction on A is ____ and on B is ____

(ii) The equivalent resistance between points A and B of the circuit (Fig P-7)
given below is ____ Ω

(iii) In the circuit (P-8) shown below, each battery is 5 V and has an internal
resistance of 0.2 ohm. The reading in the ideal voltmeter V is ____ V.

(iv) A light of wavelength 6000 Å in air, enters a medium with refractive index
1.5. Inside the medium its frequency is ____ Hz and its wavelength is
____ Å

(v) Two thin lenses, when in contact, produce a combination of power + 10


diopters. When they are 0.25 m apart, the power reduces to + 6 diopters.
The focal length of the lenses are ____ m and ____ m

(vi) The equation of state of a real gas is given by

( P+ a
V2
) (V – b) = RT

Where P, V, and T are pressure, volume and temperature respectively


and R is the universal gas constant. The dimensions of the constant a in
the above equation is ____

(vii) A ring shaped tube contains two ideal gases with equal masses and
relative molar masses M1 = 32 and M2 = 28. The gases are separated by
one fixed partition and another movable stopper S which can move freely
without friction inside the ring. The angle α as shown in the figures are
____ degrees.

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(viii) A symmetric lamina of mass M consists of a square shape with a


semicircular section over each of the edge of the square as shown in Fig
P-10. The side of the square is 2a. The moment of the inertia of the
lamina about an axis through its centre if mass and perpendicular to the
plane is 1.6 Ma2. The moment of inertia of the lamina about the tangent
AB is the plane of the lamina is _______

(ix) A particle is projected vertically upwards from the surface of Earth (radius
Re) with a kinetic energy equal to half of the minimum value needed for it
to escape. The height to which it rises above the surface of the Earth is
_____

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(x) Earth receives 1400 W/m2 of solar power, If all the solar energy falling on
a lens of area 0.2 m2 is focused on to a block of ice of mass 280 grams,
the time taken to melt the ice will be ___ minutes. (Latent heat of fusion of
ice = 3.3 x 105 J/kg)

(xi) A ray of light is incident normally on one of the faces of a prism of apex
angle 30 ° and refractive index √2. The angle of deviation of the ray is
____ degree.

14. In Young’s experiment, the upper slit is covered by a thin glass plate of refractive
index 1.4 while the lower slit is covered by another glass plate, having the same
thickness as the first one but having refractive index 1.7. Interference pattern is
observed using light of wavelength 5400 Å. It is found that the point P on the
screen where the central maximum (n = 0) fell before the glass plates were
inserted now has 3/4 the original intensity. It is further observed that what used to
be the fifth maximum earlier, lies below the point P while the sixth minimum lies
above P. Calculate the thickness of the glass plate. (Absorption of light by glass
plate may be neglected)

15. Assumed that the de Broglie wave associated with an electron can form a
standing wave between the atoms arranged in one dimensional array with nodes
at each of the atomic sites. It is found that one such standing wave is formed if
the distance d between the atoms of the array is 2 Å. A similar standing wave is
again formed if d is increased to 2.5 Å but not for any intermediate value of d.
Find the energy of the electrons in electron volts and the least value of d for
which the standing wave of the type described above can form. (5)
248
16. The element Curium 96 Cm has a mean life of 1013 seconds. Its primary decay

modes are spontaneous fission and α-decay, the former with a probability of 8 %
and the later with a probability of 92 %. Each fission releases 200 MeV of energy.
The masses involved in α-decay are as follows:
248 244 4
96
Cm = 248.072220 u, 94
Pu = 244.064100 u and 2
He = 4.002603 u.

Calculate the power output from a sample of 1020 atoms.


(1 u = 931 MeV/c2) (5)

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CHEMISTRY
Maximum Marks: 100
Time: Three hours

Instructions
1. Answer all questions in the language of your choice as shown in your admit card.
2. The paper consists of eight printed pages (10 questions)
3. Answer to next question should start after drawing a separating horizontal line
with a space of 3 cm.
4. All sub-questions of a question should be answered at one place in the same
order as in the question paper.
5. There are no negative marking.
6. Use of all type of calculating devices, graph paper, trigonometric/statistical tables
is prohibited.
7. Use of logarithmic Tables is permitted.

Useful data:

Avogardo constant NA = 6.02 x 1023 mol–1.


Faraday constant F = 96500 C mol–1.
Gas constant R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1.
or
R = 0.082 dm3 atm K–1 mol–1.
Relative atomic masses H = 1.0; O = 16.0
C1 = 35.5; Cr = 51.99; Ag = 107.8
Atomic numbers Na = 11; Mg = 12
V = 23; Cu = 29; Ag = 47

1. There are fifteen sub-questions in this question. For answering each sub-question,
four alternatives are given, and only one of them is correct. Indicate your answer for
each sub-question by writing one of the letters A, B, C, or D only in the answer=book
(15 x 1 = 15)

(i) For a d-electron, the orbital angular momentum is

(A) √6 ( h/2π) (B) √2 ( h/2π)


(C) ( h/2π) (D) 2(h/2π)

(ii) The standard reduction potentials of Cu2+ | Cu and Cu2+ | Cu+ are 0.337 V
and 0.153 V respectively. The standard electrode potential of Cu+ | Cu half
cell is

(A) 0.184 V (B) 0.827 V


(C) 0.521 V (D) 0.490 V

(iii) The compressibility factor for an ideal gas is

(A) 1.5 (B) 1.0


(C) 2.0 (D) ∞

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(iv) Which contains both polar and non-polar bonds?

(A) NH4C1 (B) HCN


(C) H2O2 (D) CH4

(v) The critical temperature of water is higher than that of O2 because the H2O
molecule has

(A) fewer electrons than O2 (B) two covalent bonds


(C) V-shape (D) dipole moment

(vi) Which one of the following species is not a pseudohalide?

(A) CNO– (B) RCOO–


(C) OCN– (D) NNN–

(vii) Ammonium dichromate is used in some fireworks. The green coloured


powder blown in the air is

(A) CrO3 (B) Cr2O3


(C) Cr (D) CO

(viii) Which of the following compounds has sp2 hybridization?

(A) CO2 (B) SO2


(C) N2O (D) CrO(O2)

(ix) The number of moles of KmnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of
sulphite ion in acidic solution is

(A) 2 (B) 3.
5 5

(C) 4 (D) 1
5

(x) Which of the following compounds is expected to be coloured?

(A) Ag2SO4 (B) CuF2


(C) MgF2 (D) CuC1

(xi) How many optically active stereoisomers are possible for butane-2, 3-diol?

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

(xii) When cyclohexane is poured on water, it floats, because:

(A) cyclohexane is in ‘boat’form


(B) cyclohexane is in ‘chair’form
(C) cyclohexane is in ‘crown’form
(D) cyclohexane is less dense than water.

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(xiii) Which of the following is an organmetallic compound?

(A) Lithium methoxide (B) lithium acetate


(C) lithium dimethylamide (D) Methyl lithium.

(xiv) In the reaction p-chlorotoluene with KNH2 in liq. NH3, the major product is:

(A) o-toluidine (B) m-toluidine


(C) p-toluidine (D) p-chloroaniline.

(xv) (CH3)3CMgC1 on reaction with D2O produces:

(A) (CH3)3CD (B) (CH3)3OD


(C) (CD3)3CD (D) (CD3)3OD

2. Fill in the blanks (write only your answers in the answer book sequentially):

(A) In the Arrhenius equation, k = A exp(–E|TR), A may be termed as the rate


constant at _____

(B) When Fe(s) is dissolved in aqueous hydrochloric acid in a closed vessel, the
work done is _____

(C) A liquid which is permanently supercooled is frequently called a _____

(D) Enthalpy is an _____ property


-
(E) In the reaction I– + I2 à I3, the Lewis acid is ____.

(F) Silver jewellery items tarnish slowly in the air due to the reaction with _____.

(G) Compounds that formally contain Pb4+ are easily reduced to Pb2+. The
stability of the lower oxidation state is due to ____.

(H) Glycerine container one _____ hydroxy group.

(I) 1, 3-Butadiene with bromine in molar ratio generates predominantly ____.

(J) Vinylchloride on reaction with dimethyl copper gives ____.

3. (A) A sample of AgC1 was treated with 5.00 mL of 1.5 M Na2CO3 solution to give
Ag2CO3. The remaining solution contained 0.0026 g of C1– per litre. Calculate
the solubility product of AgC1 (Ksp(Ag2CO3) = 8.2 x 10–12) (5)

(B) The rate constant for the first order decomposition of a certain reaction is
described by the equation

log (k/s–1) = 14.34 – 1.25 x 104 K


T
(i) What is the energy of activation for this reaction
(ii) At what temperature will its half-life period be 256 minutes? (5)

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4. (A) Compute the heat of formation of liquid methyl alcohol is kilojoules per mole,
using the following data. Heat of vaporization of liquid methyl alcohol = 38
kJ/mol. Heat of formation of gaseous atoms from the elements in their
standard states: H, 218 kJ/mol; C, 715 kJ/mol; O, 249 kJ/mol

Average bond energies: C – H, 415 kJ/mol


C– O, 356 kJ/mol
O – H, 463 kJ/mol (5)

(B) To a 25 mL H2O2 solution, excess of acidified solution of potassium iodide


was added. The iodine liberated required 20 mL of 0.3 N sodium thiosulphate
solution. Calculate the volume strength of H2O2 solution. (5)

5. (A) Write balanced equations for the following: (5 X 1 = 5)

(i) Phosphorus is treated with concentrated nitric acid.


(ii) Oxidation of hydrogen peroxide with potassium permanganate in
acidic medium.
(iii) Manufacture of phosphoric acid from phosphorus.
(iv) Reaction of aluminium with aqueous sodium hydroxide.
(v) Reaction of zinc with dilute nitric acid.

(B) Write the formulae of the following complexes: (2 X 1 = 2)

(i) Pentamminechlorocobalt (III)


(ii) Lithium tetrahydroaluminate (III)

(C) Element A burns in nitrogen to give an ionic compound B. Compound B


reacts with water to give C and D. A solution of C becomes ‘milky’ on
bubbling carbon dioxide. Identify A, B, C and D. (3)

6. Complete the following, giving the structures of the principal organic products:
(10 X 1 = 10)

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7. (A) How many grams of silver could be plated out on a serving tray by
electrolysis of a solution containing silver in +1 oxidation state for a period of
8.0 hours at a current of 8.46 Amperes? What is the area of the tray if the
thickness of the silver plating is 0.00254 cm? Density of silver is 10.5 g/cm3.
(3)

(B) Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction

Fe2+ + Ce4+ == Fe3+ + Ce3+

(given E °Ce4+|Ce3+ = 1.44 V; E °Fe3+|Fe2+ = 0.68 V (2)

(C) Chromium metal crystallizes with a body centred cubic lattice. The length of
the unit edge is found to be 287 pm. Calculate the atomic radius. What would
be the density of chromium in g/cm3? (3)

(D) An acid type indicator, H1n differs in colour from its conjugate base (In–). The
human eye is sensitive to colour differences only when the ratio [In–]/[H1n] is
greater than 10 or smaller than 0.1. What should be the minimum change in
the pH of the solution to observe a complete colour change (Ka = 1.0 x 10–5)?
(2)

8. (A) A compound of vanadium has a magnetic moment of 1.73 BM. Work out the
electronic configuration of the vanadium ion of the compound. (2)

(B) A soluble compound of a poisonous element M, when heated with Zn/H2SO4


gives a colourless and extremely poisonous gaseous compound N, which on
passing through a heated tube gives a silvery mirror of element M. Identify M
and N (2)

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(C) Between Na+ and Ag+, which is stronger Lewis acid and why? (2)

(D) The crystalline salts of alkaline earth metals contain more water of
crystallisation than the corresponding alkali metal salts. Why? (2)

(E) Anhydrous A1C13 is covalent. From the data given below, predict whether it
would remain covalent or become ionic is aqueous solution.
(Ionisation energy for A1 = 5137 kJ mol–1.; ∆Hhydration for A13+ = – 4665 kJ
mole–1. ∆Hhydration for C1– = – 381 kJ mol–1. ) (2)

9. (A) Acetophenone on reaction with hydroxylamine-hydrochloride can produce


two isomeric oximes. Write structures of the oximes. (2)

(B) 2, 2-Dimethyloxirane can be cleaved by acid (H+). Write mechanism. (2)

(C) Which of the following is the correct method for synthesizing methyl-t-butyl
ether and why? (2)

(CH3)3CBr + NaOMe à
CH3Br + NaO-t-Bu à

(D) Although phenoxide ion has more number of resonating structures than
benzoate ion, benzoic acid is a stronger acid than phenol. Why? (2)

(E) The hydrocarbon A, adds one mole of hydrogen in the presence of a platinum
catalyst to from n-hexane. When A is oxidized vigorously with KmnO4, a
single carboxylic acid, containing three carbon atoms, is isolated. Give the
structure of A and explain. (2)

10. (A) Aluminium sulphide gives a foul odour when it becomes damp. Write a
balanced chemical equation for the reaction. (2)

(B) Arrange the following ions in order of their increasing radii.


Li+, Mg2+, K+, A13+ (1)

(C) Arrange the following sulphates of alkaline earth metals in order of


decreasing thermal stability: BeSO4, MgSO4,CaSO4, SrSO4 (1)

(D) Write a balanced equation for the reaction of 14N with α-particle (1)

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