1-what is the basis for the difference in how the leading and lagging strands of DNA

molecules are synthesized?

1-DNA polymerase can join new nucleotides only to the 3' end of a growing strand.

2-which of the following statement is true of chromatin ?

2- heterochromatin is highly condensed, whereas heterochromatin is transcribed.

3- if a cell were unable to produce histone proteins, which of the following would be a likely
effect ?

3- the cell's DNA couldn't be packed into its nucleus.

4- which would you expect of a eukaryotic cell lacking telomerase ?

4- a reduction in chromosome length.

5-A new DNA strand elongates only in th5' to 3' direction because

5-DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the free 3' end.

6-what determines the nucleotide sequence of the newly synthesized strand during DNA
replication?

6-the nucleotide sequence of the template strand.

7-what is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the stands that make up DNA?

7-The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other
strand.

8-Replication in prokaryotes differs from replication in eukaryotes for which of these

reasons?

8-Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic

chromosomes.

9-In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around

9-histones .
10-Which of the following mutations would be most likely to have a harmful effect
organism?

10- a single nucleotide insertion downstream of, and close to, the start of coding
sequence.

11-The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is

11-complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon.

12- Of the following, which is the most current description of a gene?

12-a DNA sequence that is expressed to form a functional product: either RNA or
polypeptide.

13-A frameshift mutation could result from

13-either an insertion or a deletion of a base.

14-What is the effect of mutation in a gene?

14-It introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA.

15-What translating secretory or membrane proteins, ribosomes are directed to the ER

membrane by

15-a single-recorgnition particle that brings ribosomes to receptor in the ER membrane.

16-Once transcribed, eukaryotic mRNA typically undergoes substantial alteration that

includes

16-excision of introns.

17-Each eukaryotic mRNA, even after post-transcriptional modification, includes 5' and 3'
UTRs. Which are these?

17-the untranslated regions at either end of the coding sequence.

18-In the structural organization of many eukaryotic genes, individual exons may be related
to which of the following?

18- the various domains of the polypeptide product.

19- A given organism has 46 chromosomes in its karyotyoe. We can therefore conclude
which of the following?

19- its gametes must have 23 chromosomes.

20- Assume that you are trying a gene into a plasmid. Someone gives you a preparation of
genomic DNA that has been cut with restriction enzyme X. the gene you wish to insert has
sites on both ends for cutting by restriction enzyme Y. you have a plasmid with a single site
for Y, but not for X. your strategy should be to

20- cut the DNA again with restriction enzyme Y and insert these fragments into the
plasmid cut with the same enzyme.

21- How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that have replicated their
DNA and are just about to begin meiosis?

21- They have half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA.

22- In recombinant DNA methods, the term vector can refer to

22- A plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell.

23- How does the sexual life cycle increase the genetic variation in a species?

23- By allowing independent assortment of chromosomes.

24- A principal problem with inserting an unmodified mammalian gene into a bacterial
plasmid, and then getting that gene expressed in bacteria, is that

24- Bacteria cannot remove eukaryotic introns.

25- Which of the following is true of embryonic stem cells but not of adult stem cells?

25- They can differentiate into any cells types.

26- What is a genome?

26- The complete complement of an organism's genomic sequences.

27- In a viral reproduction, which of the following is characteristic of the lytic cycle?

27- A large number of phages is released at a time.

28- What is a karyotype?

28- A display of every pair of homologous chromosomes within a cell, organized according
to size and shape.

29- What is the enzymatic of restriction enzymes?

29- To cleave nucleic acids at specific sites.

30- In many ways, the regulation of the genes of particular group of viruses will be similar to
the regulation of the host genes. Therefore, which of the following would you expect of the
genes of the bacteriophage?

30- control of more than one gene in an operon.

31- Which of the following is the most probable fate of a newly emerging virus that causes
high mortality in its host?

31- The newly emerging virus will be die out rather quickly or will mutate to be far less
lethal.

32- Whether during mitosis or meiosis, sister chromatids are held together by proteins
referred to as cohesions. Such molecules must

32- Be removed before anaphase can occur.

33- Which of the following represents a difference between viruses and viroids?

33- Viruses have capsids composed of protein, whereas virods represent viral genimuc
nucleic acid and have no capsids.

34- Two individual organisms are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a
particular trait suggests

34- That the parents were both heterozygous.

35- Why do RNA viruses appear to have higher rates of mutation?

35- Replication of their genomes dose not involve the proofreading steps of DNA
replication.
36- What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses?

36- It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis

37- Cystic fiborsis (CF) is a mendelian disorder in the human population that is inherited as a
recessive. Two normal parents have two children with (CF). The probability of their next
child being normal for this characterisitic is which of the following?

37- 1/4

38- Which of the following about the law of segregation is FALSE?

38- It is a method that can be used to determine the number of chromosomes in speies.

39- Proto-oncogenes can change into oncogenes that cause cance. Which of the following
explains the presence of these potential time bombs in eukaryotic cells?

39- Proto-oncogenes normally stimulate cell division.

40- If nondisjunction occurs in meiosis II during gametogenesis, what will be the result at the
completion of meiosis?

40- One of the gametes will be n+1, one will be n-1, and two will be n.

41- What would occur if the repressor of an inducible operon were mutated so it could not

41- Continuous transcription of the operon's genes.

42- The pedigree in the figure shows the transmission of a trait in a particular family. Based
on this pattern of transmission, the trait is most likely

42- Mitochondrial.

43- Muscle cells differ from never cells mainly because they

43- Express different genes.

44- One hereditary disease in humans, called xeroderma pigmenrosum (XP), makes
homozygous individuals exceptionally susceptible to UV-induced mutation damage in the
cells of exposed tissue, especially skin. Without extraordinary avoidance of sunlight
exposure, patients soon succumb to numerous skin cancer. Which of the following best
describes this phenomenon?

44- Inherited inability to repair UV-induced mutation.

45- The incidence of cancer increases dramatically in older humans because

45- The longer we live, the more mutation we accumulate.

46- A gene's location a chromosome is known as which of the following?

46- Locus

47- In animals, embryonic stem cells differ from adult stem cells in that

47- Embryonic stem cells are totipotent, and adult stem cells are pluripotent.

48- The process of cellular differentiation is a direct result of

48- Differential gene expression.

49- Gene expression might be altered at the level of post-transcripitional processing in

eukaryotes rather than prokaryotes because of which of the following?

49- Eukaryotic exons may spliced in alternative patterns

50- Steroid hormones produce their effects in cells by

50- Binding to intracellular recepotrs and promoting transcription of specific genes.

51- Genomic imprinting, DNA methylation, and histone acetylation are all examples of

51- Epingenetic phenomena.

52- In most cases, differentiation is controlled at which level?

52- Trascription.
53- Which describes the ABO blood group system in humans?

53- Multiple alleles.

54- Altering patterns of gene expression in prokaryotes would most likely serve the
organism's survival in which of the following ways?

54- Allowing the organism to adjust to changes environmental conditions.

55- The leading and the lagging strands differ in that

55- The leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of replication
fork and lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.

56- Polytene chromosomes of Drosophila salivary glands each consist of multiple identical
DNA strands that are aligned in parallel arrays. How could these arise?

56- Replication without separation.

57- Suppose you are provided with an actively dividing culture of E. coli bacteria to which
radioactive thymine has been added. What would happen if a cell replicates once in the
presence of this radioactive base?

57- DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive.

58- What kind of chemical bond is found between paired bases of the DNA double helix?

58- Hydrogen.

59- Which point mutation would be most likely to have a catastrophic effect on the
functioning of a protein?

59- A base deletion near the start of a gene.

60- Which of the following is a function of a signal peptide?

60- To translocate polypeptides across the ER membrane.

61- Alternative RNA splicing

61- Can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a signal m RNA.
62- Why does the DNA double helix have a uniform diameter?

62- Purines pair with pyrimidines.

63- Which of the following is most closely identical to the formation of identical twins?

63- Organismal cloning.

64- A cross between homozygous purple-flowered and homozygous white-flowered pea

plants results in offspring with purple flowers. This demonstrates

64- Dominance.

65- Biologists use the terms negative control and positive control to refer to different
mechanisms of gene regulation. Which of the following statements is correct?

65- Negative control occurs when a regulatory protein binds to DNA and prevents
transcription; positive control occurs when a regulatory protein binds to DNA and
stimulates transcription.

66- In a eukaryotic cell the DNA is enclosed in the nucleus, whereas ribosomes that make
proteins are located in the cytoplasm. How does the information in DNA needed to specify
the amino acid sequence of a particular protein make it to the cytoplasmic protein-
manufactruring centers?

66- Messenger RNA molecules act as the link between genes and the protein-
manufactruring centers.

67- The cells that produce sperm in humans contain 46 chromosomes. If one these cells
undergoes meiosis to form sperm cells, and chromosomal nondisjunction occurs in
chromosomes 22 during meiosis I, what is the chromosome number in each of the resulting
sperm?

67- 24;24;22;22

68- The cells that produce sperm in humans contain 46 chromosomes. If one of these cells
undergoes meiosis to from sperm cells, and chromosomal nondisjunction occurs in
chromosomes 22 during meiosis II, what is the chromosome number in each of the resulting
sperm?

68- 23;23;22;24
69- Which of the following characteristics, structures, or processes is common to both
bacteria and viruses?

69- Genetic material composed of nucleic acid.

70- Which of the following can be effective in preventing viral infection in humans?

70- Getting vaccinated.

71- What is name given to viruses that are single-stranded RNA that acts as template for
DNA synthesis?

71- Restoviruses.

72- Which of the following cuts DNA molecules at specific sequence locations?

72- Restriction enzymes .

73- Antiviral drugs that have become useful are usually associated with which of the
following properties?

74-Which of the following statements is the leading hypothesis to explain why many
organisms reproduce sexually?

74- The offspring that result from sexual reproduction are variable, and some of them can
adapt to change of environment or fight off diseases more easily than genetically identical
offspring.

75- Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reaction
and hydrolysis?

75- A and B are correct.

76- All of the following statements concerning saturated fats are true except

76- They have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.

77- What is triacylglycerol?

77- A lipid made with three fatty acids and glycerol.

78- Polysaccharides, lipids, and proteins are similar in that they

78- Are synthesized from monomers by dehydration reaction.

79- Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids?

79- Carboxyl and amino.

80- What maintains the secondary structure of protein?

80- Hydrogen bonds.

81- Testosterone and estradiol are male and female sex hormones, respectively ,in many
vertebrates. In what way(s) do these molecules differ from each other?

81- Testosterone and estradiol have different functional groups attached to the same
carbon skeleton.

82- Both starch and are glucose polymers. Why can animals easily degrade starch, but not
cellulose?

82- Animals have the enzymes to degrade a-1,4-glycosidic bonds, but not b-1,4-glycosidic
bonds.

83- Compared to tropical fish, arctic fish oils have

83- More unsaturated fatty acids.

84- Which of the following best explains why fats, instead of carbohydrates, are used for
long-term energy strong in animals?

84- Carbohydrates contain less energy than fats do, because the larger number of O-H
bonds in carbohydrates have lower free energy than the C-H bonds in fats.

85- Nucleotides in DNA polymer are connected at what points?

85- The sugar one nucleotide is bonded to the phosphate group of the next nucleotide.

86- What is the structural feature that allows DNA to replicate?

86- Complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases.

87- Which of the following functions of proteins should be considered the most
fundamental?

87- Catalysis.

88- In which of the following ways does DNA differ from RNA?

88- DNA contains deoxyribose sugar, while RNA contains ribose.

89- The function of each protein is consequence of its specific shape. what is the term used
for a change in a protein's three-dimensional shape or conformation due to disruption of
hydrogen bonds, disulfide bridges, or ionic bonds?

89- Stabilization.

90-In the following diagram of protein structure, match the letters (a)-(d) with the correct
description listed below:

90- (B)- formation of a-helices and b-pleated sheets.

(C)- overall three-dimensional shape of a polypeptide.

(D)- shape produced when two or more polypeptides associate to form functional

Protein.

91- The cell walls of bacteria, fungi, and plant cells and the extracellular matrix of animal
cells are all external to the plasma membrane. Which of the following is a characteristic of
all these extracellular structures?

91- They are constructed of materials that are largely synthesized in the cytoplasm and
then transported out of the cell.

92- Tay-Sachs disease is a human genetic ………. Which cellular organelle must be involved
in this condition?

92- The lysosome.

93- Ions and even some large molecules can travel directly from the cytoplasm of one
animal cell to the cytoplasm of an adjacent cell through

93- Gap junctions.

94- Why isn't the mitochondrion classified as part of the endomembrane system?

94- Its structure is not derived from the ER.

95- If an individual has abnormal microtubules, due to a hereditary condition, in which
organs or tissues would you expect dysfunction?

95- Sperm, larynx and trachea (respiratory tract).

96- The Golgi apparatus has a polarity or sidedness to its structure and function. Which of
the following statements correctly describes this polarity?

96- All the above correctly describe polar characteristics of the Golgi function.

97- Under which of the following conditions would you expect to find a cell with a
predominance of free ribosomes?

97- A cell that is producing mainly cytoplasmic proteins.

98- Which statement correctly characterizes bound ribosomes.

98- Bound ribosomes generally synthesize membrane proteins and secretory proteins.

99- Motor proteins provide for molecular motion in cells by interacting with what types of
cellular structures?

99- Cytoskeletons.

100- Which of the following is a reasonable explanation for why unsaturated fatty acids
help keep any membrane more fluid at lower temperatures?

100- The double bonds from kinks in the fatty acid tails, forcing adjacent lipids to be
further apart .

101- An animal cell lacking oligosaccharides on the external surface of its plasma
membrane would likely be impaired in which function?

101- Cell-cell recognition.

102- Which of the following statements is correct about diffusion?

102- It is a passive process in which molecules move from a region of higher concentration
to a region of lower concentration.
103- What kinds of molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily?

103- Small and hydrophobic.

104- In order for a protein to be an integral membrane protein if would have to be which
of the following?

104- Amphipathic.

105- Which of the following statements correctly describes the normal tonicity conditions
for typical plant and animal cells?

105- The animal cell is in an isotonic solution, and the plant cell is in a hypotonic solution.

106- You are working on a term that is deigning anew drug………. Which of the following
would be a factor that determines whether the molecule enters the cell?

106- Similarity of the drug molecule to other molecules transported by the target cells.

107- What is the voltage across a membrane called?

107- Membrane potential.

108- In receptor-mediated endocytosis, receptor molecules initially project to the outside

of the cell. Where do they end up after endocytosis?

108- On the inside surface of the vesicle.

109- Which of the following statements about genes is incorrect?

109- One gene only is present in any specific cell type.

110- Asexual reproduction results in indentical offspring unless which of the following
occurs?

110- Mutation.

111- Which of the following is correct of a species that has a chromosome number of
2n=16?

111- Each cell has 8 homologous per cell.

112- After telophase I of meiosis, chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is

112- Haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.

113- Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?

113- Synapsis of chromosomes.

114- If a pair of homologous chromosomes falls to separate during anaphase of meiosis I,

what will be the chromosome number of the four resulting gametes with respect to the
normal haploid number (n)?

114- N +1; n+1; n-1; n-1

115- A man who is an achondroplastic dwarf with normal vision marries a color-blind
woman of normal height……… How many of their daughters might be expected to be color-
blind dwarfs?

115- None.

116- A man with an extra X chromosome, Known as Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY) is

expected to have any of the following EXCPET

116- Increased testosterone.

117- Males are more often affected by sex-linked traits than females because

117- Males are homozygous for the X chromosome.

118- A normal couple has a child with Down syndrome (i.e. his cells contain the extra
chromosome 21). When the mother is 39 years old at the time of delivery. Which is the
most probable cause of this abnormality?

118- One member of the couple underwent nondisjunction in gamete production.

119- Mendel accounted for the observation that traits which had disappeared in the F1
generation reappeared in the F2 generation by proposing that

119- Traits can be dominant or recessive, and the recessive traits were obscured the
dominant ones in the F1.
120- A scientist discovers a DNA-based test for the allele of a particular gene……….

Which is the best use of this discovery?

120- To design a test for identifying heterozygous carries of the allele.

121- Mendel's observation of the segregation of the alleles in gamete formation has its
basis in which of the following phases of cell division?

121- Anaphase I of meiosis.

122- Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long
tails (t). What fraction of the progeny of the cross Bb Tt X BBtt will have black fur and long
tails?

122- 1/2

123- Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs,………. Which of the following terms best describes
this?

123- Pleiotropy.

124- A pedigree analysis for a given disorder's occurrence in a family shows that,………

The disorder is then which of the following?

124- Recessive.

125- A couple has sex daughters. The chance that their next child will be a son is

125- 1/2

126- A 1:2:1 phenotypic ratio in the F1 generation of a monohybrid cross is sign of

126- Incomplete dominance.

127- In birds, sex is determined by a ZW chromosome scheme. ………… what would be the
sex ratio in the offspring of a cross between a male that is heterozygous for the lethal
allele and a normal female?

127- 2:1 male to female.

128- Which of the following describes peristalsis in the digestive system?

128- Smooth muscle contraction that move food through the alimentary canal.

129- Without functioning parietal cells, which of the following would you expect for an
individual?

129- Not to be able to produce pepsinogen.

130- Which of the following hormone action will occur when more energy by a human
organism?

130- Blood glucagon increases.

131- Which of the following would probably contribute to constipation? A substance that

131- Promotes water reabsorption in the large intestine.

132- Breathing is usually regulated by

132- CO2 and O2 concentration and PH-level sensors.

133- How is most of the carbon dioxide transported by the blood in humans?

133- Bicarbonate ions in the plasma

134- Why is the velocity (speed of motion) of blood flow the lowest in capillaries?

134- The total surface area of the capillaries is larger than the total surface area of the
arterioles.

135- Which of the following is a normal event in the process of blood clotting?

135- Activation of prothrombin to thrombin.

136- Which of the following is used to diagnose hypertension in adults?

136- Blood pressure of > 140 mm Hg systolic and/or > 90 diastolic.

137- Which of the following differentiates T and B cells?

137- T cells but not B cells can directly attack and destroy invading pathogens.

138- Which cells and which signaling molecules are responsible for initiating an
inflammatory response?

138- Mast cells: histamines

139- A bacterium entering the body through a small cut in the skin will do which of the
following?

139- Activate a group of proteins called complement.

140- An immune response to a tissue graft will differ from an immune response to a
bacterium because

140- MHC molecule of the donor may stimulate rejection of the graft tissue.

141- A transfusion of type A blood given to a person who has type O blood would result in
which of the following?

141- The recipient's anti-A antibodies clumpingo the donated red blood cells.

142- Which of the following would be most beneficial in treating an individual who has
been bitten by a poisonous snake that has a fast=acting toxin?

142- Injection of antibodies to the toxin.

143- Clonal selection is an explanation for how

143- An antigen can provoke production of high levels of specific antibodies.

144- Histamines trigger dilation of nearby blood vessels, and increase in their
permeability. Which of the signs of inflammation are therefore associated release?

144- Redness, heat, and swelling.

145- Both the eye and the respiratory treat are protected against infections by which of
the following?

145- The secretion of lysozyme onto their surface.

146- A series of enzymes catalyze the sequence of reaction: X -> Y -> Z -> A. ………….. what
substance(s) function(s) as a (n):

146- Substrate X Y Z allosteric A product A Z Y

147- Which is the following is likely to lead to increase in the concentration of ATP in a
cell?

147- An increase in a cell's catabolic activity.

148-For living organisms, which of the following is an important consequence of the first
law of thermodynamics?

148- The organism ultimately must obtain all the necessary energy for life from its
environment.

149- Which of the following statements is usually true concerning catabolic pathways?

149- They are coupled with anabolic pathways to which they supply energy in the form of
ATP.

150- Which of the following best describes the reaction A+B -> C+D shown in figure?

150- The amount of free energy released as a result of the catalyzed reaction is indicated
"d"

151- Choose the pair of terms that correctly completes this sentence: Catabolism is
anabolism as

151- Exergonic is to endergonic.

152- In order to attach a particular acid to the tRNA molecule that will be transport it,……
what must occur in order for the final attachment to occur?

152- The binding of the first two molecule must cause a 3-dimensional change that opens
another active site on the enzyme for the tRNA.

153- What of the following types of reactions would decrease the entropy with in a cell?

153- Dehyrdation reactions.

154- What is the term for metabolic pathways that release stored energy by breaking
down complex molecule?

154- Catabolic pathways.

155- Where dose glycolysis takes place?

155- Cytosol.

156- Which process in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally regardless whether oxygen
(O2) is present or absent?

156- Glycolysis.

157- Why is glycolysis described as having an investment phase and payoff phase?

157- It used stored ATP and then forms a net increase in ATP.

158- Carbon dioxide (CO2) is released during which of the following stages of cellular
respiration?

158- Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and the citric acid cycle.

159- Where are the proteins of the electron transport chain located?

159- Mitochondrial inner membrane.

160- During oxidative phosphorylation, H2O is formed. Where dose the oxygen for the
synthesis the water come from?

160- Molecular oxygen of the air (O2).

161- Why is glycolysis considered to be one of the first metabolic pathways to have
evolved?

161- It is found in the cytosol, does not involve oxygen, and is present in most organisms.
162- The immediate energy source that drives ATP synthesis by ATP synthesis during
oxidative phosphorylation is

162- The H+ concentration gradient across the inner Mitochondrial membrane.

163- Some bacteria are metabolically active in hot springs because

163- Their enzymes have high optimal temperature.

164- If the PH of a solution is decreased from 9 to 8, it means that the

164- Both of B and D are correct

165- The centromere is a region in which

165- Chromatids remain attached to one another until anaphase.

166- Which of the following statements correctly defines a kilocalorie?

166- The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1C.

167-Temperature usually increases when water condenses. Which behavior of water is

most directly responsible for this phenomenon?

167- The release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds.

168- Water's high specific heat is mainly a consequence of the

168- A bsorption and heat when hydrogen bonds break and form.

169- Vinblastine is standard chemotherapeutic drug used to treat cancer. Because

interferes with the assembly of microtubules, its effectiveness must be related to

169- Disruption of mitotic spindle formation.

170- An acid is defined by which of the following?

170- It donates protons to other substances in a solution.

171- In the following diagram of electron-sharing continuum, much the letters A, B and C
with the correct type of bond and charge listed below

171- C A toms are ionized

A A toms have no charge

C Ionic bonds are formed

A Nonpolar covalent bonds are formed

B Atoms have partial charge

A Electrons are equally shared

172- In which of the following statements correctly describes geometric isomers?

172- They have variation in arrangement around a double bond.

173- Carbon dioxide is released during which of the following stages of cellular
respiration?

173- Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and the citric acid cycle.

174- Where are the proteins of the electron transport chain located?

174- Mitochondrial inner membrane.

175- A compound contains hydroxyl groups as its predominant functional group. Which of
the following statements is true concerning this compound?

175- It is hydrophilic, therefore should dissolve in water.

176- A carbon skeleton is covalently bonded to both an amino group and a carboxyl group
when placed in water it

176- Is impossible to determine how it would funcation.

177- What is structural feature that allows DNA to replicate?

177- Complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases.

178- Enzymes that break down DNA catalyze the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join
nucleotides together. What would happen to DNA molecules treated with these enzymes?

178- The phosphodiester linkages between deoxyribose sugars would be broken.

179- Which of the following is an example of hydrolysis?

179- The reaction of fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the utilization of water.

180- Paracrine signaling

180- Involves secreting cells acting on nearby target cells by discharging a local regulator
into the extracellular fluid.

181- Why are human sex hormones considered to be lipids?

181- They are steroids, which are not soluble in water.

182- Polysaccharides, nucleic acids and proteins are similar in that they

182- Are synthesized from monomers by dehydration reactions.

183- Humans can digest starch but not cellulose because

183- Humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the alpha-1,4- glycosidic linkages of starch
but not the beta-1,4- glycosidic linkages of cellulose.

184- The tertiary structure of protein is the

184- Unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide.

185- Which of the following description best fits the class of molecules known as
nucleotides?

185- A nitrogenous base, a phophate group, and pentse sugar.

186- All of the following statements concerning saturated fats are true expect

186- They have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.

187- How do the alpha and beta forms of glucose differ?

187- Their ring structures differ in the location of ahydroxyl group.

188- A hydrophobic amino acid side group would be found where in a protein?

188- On the inside of the folded chain, away from water.

189- The function of each protein is a consequence of its specific shape. What is the term
used for a change in protein's three-dimensional or conformation due to disruption of
hydrogen bonds, disulfide bridges, or ionic bonds?

189- Denaturation

190- The structural level of protein not affected by a disruption in hydrogen bonding is the

190- Primary level.

191- Motor proteins provide for molecular motion in cells by interacting with what types
of cellular structures?

191- Cytoskeletons.

192- The difference in lipid and protein composition between the membranes of the
endomembrane system in largely determined by

192- The function of the Golgi apparatus in strong membrane components.

193- Which of the following statements about a typical plasma membrane is correct?

193- The two sides of the plasma membrane have different lipid and protein composition.

194- Which of the following correctly describes some aspect of exocytosis or endocytosis?

194- Exocytosis and endocytosis change the surface area of the plasma membrane.

195- Which of the following clues would tell you if a cell prokaryotic or eukarotic?

195- Whether or not the cell is partitioned by internal membrane.

196- Which of the following are common traits of chloroplasts and mitochondria?

196- Both have their own DNA.

197- Which of the following produces and modifies polysaccharides that will be secreted?

197- Golgi apparatus.

198- Which is one of the main energy transformers of cell?

198- Mitochondarion.

199- Which one of the following statements about the endomembrane system is correct?

199- Proteins that will be secreted from the cell are likely to be found in closed spaces
bounded of membranes of the endomembrane system.

200- After a membrane freezes and then thaws, it often becomes leaky to solutes. The
most reasonable explanation for this is that

200- The integrity of the lipid bilayer is broken when the membrane freezes.

201- Glucose diffuses through artificial phospholipid bilayers…………..Which transport

mechanism is most probably functioning in the intestinal cells?

201- Facilitated diffusion.

202- As humans, we have receptors for two kinds of beta adrenergic compounds such as
catecholamines………The use of beta 2 antagonist drugs may be useful in asthma because

202- They may dilate (make wider, expand) the bronchioles by relaxing their smooth
muscle

203- In facilitated diffusion, what is the role of transport protein ?

203- Transport proteins provide a hydrophilic route for the solute to cross the membrane.

204- In receptor-mediated endocytosis, receptor molecules initially project to the outside

of the cell. Where do they end up after endocytosis?

204- On the inside surface of the vesicle.

205- What is the term for metabolic pathways that release stored energy by breaking
down complex molecules?

205- Catabolic pathways.

206- Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism?

206- It provides energy coupling between exergonic reactions.

207- Which of the following is true of enzymes?

207- Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reaction by lowering activation energy
barriers.

208- Zinc, an essential trace element for most organisms, ………The zinc most likely
functions as a (n)

208- Cofactor necessary for enzyme activity.

209- From the perspective of cells receiving the message, the three stages of cell signaling
are

209- Signal reception, signal transduction, and cellular response.

210- During which phases of mitosis are chromosomes composed of two chromatids?

210- From G2 of interphase through metaphase.

211- The immediate energy source that drives ATP synthesis by ATP synthase during
oxidative phosphorylation is

211- The H+ concentration gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.

212- At puberty, an adolescent female body changes in both structure and function of
several organ system,…….. How can one hormone, such as estrogen, mediate so many
effects?

212- Estrogen binds to specific receptors inside many kinds of cells, each of which have
different responses to its binding.

213- Which of the following describes cell communication system ?

213- In response to a signal, the cell may alter protein activity in cytosol or gene
expression by transcription of different RNA.
214- Some drugs known as uncouplers facilitate diffusion of the mitochondrial inner
membrane. When such a drug is added, what will happen to ATP synthesis and oxygen
consumption?

214- ATP synthesis will decrease; oxygen consumption will increase.

215- Why is glycolysis considered to be one of the first metabolic pathways to have
evolved?

215- It is found in cytosol, dose not involve oxygen, and is present in most organisms.

216- Pemphigua vulgaris is an autoimmune disorder in which antibodies are produced

against the cadherins of desmosomes. The blistering seen in these individuals is a result of

216- Loss of cell-cell adhesion

217- Streptocoous mutans is a common oral bacterium that forms dental

plaque,………what component of S. mutans is responsible for the formation of dental
plaque?

217- Extracellular matrix materials of the organism

218- In the process of chromosome separation, how do microtubules maintain contact

with the kinetochores and move the sister chromosomes at the same time?

218- The centrosomes employ of the shortening (depolymerization) of the microtubular

proteins.

219- Binding of a signaling molecule to which type of receptor leads directly to a change in
distribution of ions on opposite sides of the membrane?

219- Ligand-gated ion channel.

220- At what stage of mitosis centrioles begin to move apart in animal cell?

220- Prophase.