Question Bank CPL

Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh

CPL Subject : Air Law

Chapter – 02

1. ICAO publishes:

a) Standards and recommended practices which are enforced world wide without exception
b) Standards which are law for contracting states and recommendations for the rest of the world
c) Standards and recommended practices for ICAO contracting states only
d) International law

2. Which annex covers carriage of cargo?

a) 9
b) 14
c) 6
d) 11

3. Which annex pertains to design of aerodromes?

a) 14
b) 11
c) 6
d) 18

4. Which Annex contains information concerning Air Traffic Services?

a) Annex 11
b) Annex 10
c) Annex 14
d) Annex 15

6. What is cabotage?

a) Restricting domestic air service to a national carrier

b) Aircraft from a foreign country picking up passengers in another country
c) Aircraft providing a commercial air service within the EEC
d) An airline disembarking and embarking passengers in another country
7. The `standards' contained in the annexes to the Chicago Convention are to be considered

a) Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states.
b) Binding for all member states.
c) Binding for all member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference.
d) Binding for all airline companies with international traffic.

8. Which ICAO Annex deals with the processes involved with the regular transport of passengers and
luggage?

a) Annex 2
b) Annex 6
c) Annex 17
d) Annex 18

10. What is the objective of ICAO?

a) To assist states to purchase aircraft

b) To help airlines set up
c) To assist with improving international aviation
d) To train pilots for international aviation

11. Which annex to the Chicago convention provides the details for the minimum acceptance of international
crew licences?

a) Annex 9 - Facilitation
b) Annex 1 - Personnel Licensing
c) Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft
d) Annex - 17 Security

12. Which of the annexes deals with the transportation of cargo?

a) Annex 9 – Facilitation
b) Annex 18 - Transportation of Dangerous Goods
c) Annex 16 - Environmental Protection
d) Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft
14. Which annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft?

a) Annex 15
b) Annex 16
c) Annex 17
d) Annex 18

15. Which annex of the Chicago convention deals with registration marking of aircraft?

a) Annex 6
b) Annex 11
c) Annex 17
d) Annex 7

17. Which ICAO body furnishes the "Standards and Recommended Practices" (SARPS) for adoption by the
Council?

a) The Assembly
b) The Regional Air Navigation Meeting
c) The Council itself
d) The Air Navigation Commission

18. The Annex of the Chicago Convention which contains the Standards and Recommended Practices
(SARPS) for personnel licensing is:

a) Annex 2
b) Annex 12
c) Annex 11
d) Annex 1
21. A captain is authorised in the event that a passenger has committed an offence or is suspected to be about to
commit an offence, to:

a) Disable him
b) Require passengers to assist in restraining
c) Request cabin crew to assist
d) Deliver the person to the appropriate authority

26. It is suspected that a person on board an aircraft will commit an act that would jeopardise the safety of
the aircraft; the PIC may:

a) request the crew to detain the passenger

b) ask the passenger to disembark
c) order the other passengers to detain the passenger in question
d) hand him/her over to the authorities

29. What freedom allows an aircraft to land in a foreign country for technical reasons?

a) First freedom
b) Fourth freedom
c) Third freedom
d) Second freedom

30. The first freedom of the air allows:

a) Over-flight only
b) Acceptance of tickets issued by other operators
c) Landing for technical reasons
d) Carriage of mail and cargo

33. What freedom covers landing and refueling in another state?

a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 3rd
d) 4th

39. The second Freedom of the Air is the right to:

a) Make a commercial flight between 2 States with passengers on board

b) Land for technical reasons
c) Cabotage
d) Over-fly a State without landing
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 2 International Agreements and Organizations

1 C 21 D
2 C 22 B
3 A 23 D
4 A 24 A
5 B 25 D
6 A 26 D
7 C 27 C
8 B 28 A
9 C 29 D
10 C 30 A
11 B 31 D
12 A 32 D
13 A 33 B
14 D 34 B
15 D 35 A
16 D 36 C
17 D 37 C
18 D 38 B
19 B 39 B
20 D
Chapter – 05

1. What age do you need to be to exercise the privileges of a CPL licence?

a) 18
b) 21
c) 16
d) 23

2. When you are over 40 and the holder of an ATPL, how often are you required to have a medical
examination?

a) The 12 month period reduces to 6 months

b) The 24 month period reduces to 12 months
c) The 6 month period reduces to 3 months
d) The 9 month period reduces to 3 months

3. You can use simulator hours towards the 1500 hours required for an ATPL. How are simulator hours
limited?

a) Maximum of 100, not more than 15 in a procedural flight trainer

b) Maximum of 100, not more than 30 in a procedural flight trainer
c) Maximum of 100, not more than 25 in a procedural flight trainer
d) Maximum of 100, not more than 50 in a procedural flight trainer

4. What is the night flying hours requirement for an ATPL licence?

a) 75 hours PIC
b) 100 hours PIC or co-pilot
c) 100 hours PIC
d) 75 hours PIC or co-pilot

5. One of the privileges of the holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence is to:

a) Act as PIC of any aircraft in commercial air transport operations

b) Act as PIC of any single engine aeroplane in commercial air transport operations
c) Act as a flying instructor
d) Act as PIC of any aircraft involved in operations other than commercial air transportation

7. When are you required to tell the authorities of an illness?

a) after the 21st day of illness has elapsed

b) on the 21stday of the illness
c) after a month
d) after medical has expired

8. To obtain a CPL, how many hours of cross country flying are required?

a) 15 hrs
b) 20 hrs
c) 25 hrs
d) 35 hrs
9. What medical is required for the issue of a CPL?

a) Class 2
b) As required by ICAO.
c) Class 1
d) None of the above.

10. The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot under supervision of the PIC and performing the
functions and duties of the PIC shall be entitled to be credited:

a) with 50% of the flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
b) in full, but not more than 300hrs towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
c) the flight time in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
d) the flight in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence according to
the requirements of the licensing authority

11. For an ATPL how many night hours are required?

a) 30
b) 75
c) 100
d) 150

12. For an ATPL, how many cross-country hours are required?

a) 200
b) 100
c) 150
d) 250

14. When you are a newly qualified flying instructor (A) you have to be supervised by a senior flying
instructor. When will supervision cease?

a) Once you have passed a competency check

b) When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 25 students solo
c) When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 100 students solo
d) When you have completed 100 hours solo

15. At what ages can you exercise the privileges of an ATPL?

a) 21 -60
b) 21 -59
c) 8-59
d) 8-60

17. Which of the following correctly identifies the cross country hours requirement for a CPL(A)?

a) 100 hours PIC or SPIC

b) 20 hours cross country as PIC including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300
nm) in the course of which full stop landings are made at two different aerodromes
c) 25 hours including at least one flight of 2 hours duration covering at least 300 nm and to
include 2 landings
d) 10 hours solo with at least one flight over 300 nm with at least two landings
18. What is the minimum age for a holder of a PPL?

a) 16
b) 17
c) 18
d) 21

22. Of the 1500 hours required experience for an ATPL ......... hours may be in a simulator but not more than
....... hours may be in a basic instrument trainer or basic procedure trainer.

a) 100 15
b) 100 20
c) 100 25
d) 75 25

25. According to CAR’84, what classes of medical exist?

a) Class 1 only
b) Classes 1, 2 and 3
c) Classes 1 and 2
d) Classes 1, 2, 3 and 4

27. The validity of multi engine type rating shall be 1 year from:

a) date of issue
b) date of application received by the authority
c) date of skill test
d) date of medical examination

28. In order to carry out PPL instruction you must hold:

a) PPL with instructor rating

b) Have CPL with FI rating
c) CPL
d) ATPL

29. For a pilot to hold an ATPL, the hours required are:

a) 250 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 150 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision
b) 200 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 75 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision
c) 250 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 75 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision
d) 200 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 150 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision

30. A pilot with a CPL can act as:

a) PIC in commercial aviation

b) PIC in any single engine aircraft engaged in commercial aviation
c) PIC of any single pilot aircraft engaged in commercial aviation
d) PIC in any aircraft for which he/she is type rated in commercial aviation

31. From what date is the initial general medical assessment valid from?

a) The date of the assessment

b) The date the certificate delivered to the pilot
 c) The date of licence issue
d) The date of the revalidation of the licence

33. The minimum age for a CPL holder is

a) 17 years
b) 18 years
c) 16 years
d) 21 years

34. Which of the following Annexes of the Chicago Convention contains the minimum specification for a
crew member's licence to be recognised by Contracting States?

a) Annex 2
b) Annex 3
c) Annex 1
d) Annex 4

36. The applicant for an ATPL for aircraft shall have at least:

a) 100 hours night flying purely as Pilot in Command

b) 75 hours night flying as Pilot in Command or as 2nd Pilot
c) 100 hours night flying as Pilot in Command or as 2nd Pilot
d) 75 hours night flying as Pilot in Command

37. A CPL applicant undergoing integrated flight training shall have completed:

a) 150 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time

b) 150 hours flight time
c) 200 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time
d) 200 hours flight time

An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 5 Personnel Licensing

1 A 20 B
2 A 21 C
3 C 22 C
4 B 23 D
5 D 24 C
6 B 25 B
7 A 26 A
8 B 27 A
9 C 28 B
10 C 29 A
I1 C 30 C
12 A 31 A
13 C 32 B
14 B 33 B
15 B 34 C
16 C 35 A
17 B 36 C
18 B 37 B
19 C 38 D
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 6

4. Aircraft coming in from the left which light will you see first?

a) Steady red
b) Steady green
c) Flashing green
d) White

5. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on IFR then changing to VFR?

a) Z
b) Y
c) I
d) V

6. What are the VMC limits for class B airspace?

a) Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface

b) 8km flight visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally from cloud
c) 5km flight visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally from cloud
d) The same as class D

8. Whilst airborne you see a flashing green light from the Tower. What does this mean?

a) cleared to land
b) return for landing and await clearance to land
c) give way to other landing aircraft
d) land at this aerodrome after receiving clearance to land and proceed to the apron

10. You are taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and are shown a flashing green light. What does
it mean?

a) Return to start point

b) Clear to taxi
c) Clear to take off
d) Stop

11. You have been intercepted. What is the signal for `clear to proceed'?

a) Rocking wings
b) Flashing lights
c) Cut across track
d) Breaking turn up and left

12. Which has priority to land?

a) A hospital flight
b) An emergency
c) A military flight
d) A VIP flight
14. Which of these is not a distress frequency?
1. 121.5 MHz
2. 2182 KHz
3. 243.0 KHz
4. 2430 KHz

a) 4 only
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 3 and 4

15. If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what do you set on the SSR transponder?

a) A/2000 + C
b) A/7500 + C
c) A/7600 + C
d) A/7700 + C

16. You are taxying an aircraft on the ground and you see a flashing red light from the tower. What does it
mean?

a) Stop
b) Taxi clear of the landing area
c) Give way to approaching aircraft
d) You are not clear to take off

17. Aircraft A is a VFR flight operating in a CTR under an ATC clearance. Aircraft B is entering the CTR
without clearance. As they converge, which one has the right of way (RoW)?

a) B has right of way regardless of aircraft type and position

b) A has right of way regardless of aircraft type and position
c) A has right of way if B is on the right
d) B has right of way if A is on the left

19. If a pilot wishes to cancel an IFR flight plan and proceed VFR in VMC, he must inform ATC and
include the phrase:

a) "Cancelling my flight plan"

b) "Cancelling my flight"
c) "Cancelling my IFR flight"
d) "Cancelling my IMC flight plan"

20. What signal from a marshaller to a pilot indicates "apply brakes"?

a) Waving the arms across the face

b) Drawing the palm across the throat
c) Clenching raised fists
d) Holding both arms up with palms facing forward

21. ATC has given you the transponder code of 5320. In case of a radio failure in flight you must set:

a) A 7600 Mode C
b) A 0020 Mode C
c) A 5300 Mode C
d) A 7620 Mode C
22. For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least:

a) 50 minutes before off-block time

b) 60 minutes before departure
c) 10 minutes before departure
d) 30 minutes before off-block time

23. Which Mode A code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognised as an aircraft in distress?

a) Code 7500
b) Code 7700
c) Code 7000
d) Code 7600

24. An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft must immediately try to contact the intercepting
aircraft on the following frequencies:

a) 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz

b) 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
c) 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz
d) 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz

25. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. Instructions given by this aircraft do not comply with
ATC instructions. You should:

a) select code 7500 A on your transponder

b) ask ATC for different instructions
c) comply with instructions given by the intercepting aircraft
d) comply with ATC instructions

26. A pilot crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outwards and then moves the arms outwards.
What does this signal indicate?

a) clear to move forward

b) brakes off
c) remove chocks
d) clear to close all engines

An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 6 R ule s o f T he Air

1C 2D 3C 4B 5B
6D 7B 8B 9A 10B
11D 12B 13A 14D 15D
16B 17D 18B 19C 20C
21A 22B 23B 24A 25C
26C
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 7 S ect io n 1

1. Against what political background was the Chicago Convention of 1944 held?

a. World War I
b. The Korean War
c. World War II
d. The American War of Independence

2. What in civil aviation terms does `territorial airspace' mean?

a. The airspace over a state's land-mass of a state within international agreed frontiers
b. All the airspace over a state extending to the limits of space
c. The airspace over a state and the adjacent international waters to a defined median line forming a
boundary with another state
d. The airspace over a state and its territorial waters

3. What law is applicable over the `high seas'?

a. International law
b. The law of the state of registry of the aeroplane over flying the high seas area
c. The ICAO law
d. The law of the state closest to the point in the high seas area

4. If an aeroplane, which is registered in the Bangladesh, is over-flying France, does the commander have to
obey the law of France ?

a. Yes at all times

b. No, the law of the Bangladesh applies because the aeroplane is not landing in France
c. Yes, but only if it does not conflict with the law of Bangladesh
d. Yes, but if there is a confliction with Bangladesh Law he must ask the French authority what he
should do

5. A scheduled air service, in international context, is defined as:

a. A regular series of flights from one place to another

b. Flights from one place to another in accordance with an agreed schedule and a bilateral
agreement between the two states
c. Any flight for which the flight plan is published in advance
d. Any flight in accordance with the first and second freedoms of the air

6. Do any rules of the air exists over international waters (high seas areas)?

a. Yes - ICAO Annex 2 - Rules of the Air

b. No. No state has the right to impose its law over the high seas
c. Yes - the rules of the air that are applicable to the state with the closest land-mass
d. Yes - the rules of the air of the state of registry of the aeroplane

8. With regard to search and rescue of aircraft (SAR), each state is required to:

a. Maintain an efficient SAR service capable of responding within 1 hour

b. Comply fully with the standards and recommended practices of annex 12 to the Chicago
Convention
c. Maintain and fully staff a rescue co-ordination centre (RCC)
d. Co-operate with adjacent states for the purpose of SAR
17. It is an offence to commit an unlawful act in an aeroplane in the air. Who is empowered to prosecute such an
offence?

a. Interpol
b. The Authority of the State of registration of the aeroplane
c. The Authority of the State of the Operator
d. ICAO through the International Court at The Hague

19. What is the SSR unlawful interference (hijack) code?

a. 2000
b. 7777
c. 7600
d. 7500

20. You are the commander of an aeroplane in flight. From whom do you get the authority to act as commander?

a. The passengers
b. The Operator
c. The authority of the state of registry of the aeroplane
d. The national legislature of the state of registry of the aeroplane

25. Can you continue to fly if you are over 65?

a. No
b. Yes, but only for single engine operation
c. Yes, but not in commercial aviation
d. Yes, if there are two pilots on board, and you are the only pilot on board 65 or over

27. Your valid flight crew licence is always to be carried with you when exercising the privileges of the licence.
What else must you carry?

a. Your passport or a means of photographically identifying yourself

b. Your valid medical certificate
c. Your valid medical certificate or your passport
d. Your valid medical certificate and a document containing a photograph of you that confirms you
identity as stated on your licence

32. You are not permitted to exercise the privileges of your licence if you are aware that you are unwell.
Which of the following would be classified as being unwell?

a. Suffering a minor condition that requires the occasional use of medication

b. Admission to hospital or a clinic for 12 hours or less
c. Undergoing any surgical or invasive procedure
d. The need to wear dark glasses

33. You are required to inform the authority that you are unable to fly because of certain medical concerns.
One such situation is:

a. A visit to hospital or a clinic as a patient

b. Persistent sickness that has lasted 21 days
c. Persistent sickness that has lasted more than 21 days
d. Diagnosis of the need for spectacles to be used for reading
38. It is night time and your aeroplane is parked on the movement area of an aerodrome. Is the aeroplane
required to be lit?

a. Yes, to indicate its extremities unless otherwise adequately illuminated

b. Only if the engines are running
c. No
d. Yes, aircraft are to be lit at all times on an aerodrome

39. It is daytime and your aeroplane is fitted with anti-collision high intensity strobe (capacitive discharge)
lights.You are flying IFR just in the base of the clouds and the lights are creating a stroboscopic effect
that is worrying some of the passengers. Can you switch the strobe lights off?

a. No. Aircraft with anti-collision lights are to show them at all times
b. Yes but only because it is daylight
c. No because you are flying IFR
d. Yes

40. If you intend to fly the aeroplane to simulate IMC, you must have dual controls and a safety pilot at the
other set of controls. Must the safety pilot be a qualified pilot?

a. No, he only needs to be a qualified observer

b. No, but he must be capable of detecting any errors you make
c. Yes
d. No, he is there only to cover the case of you suffering a debilitating condition that renders you
incapable of flying the aeroplane, but he must have rudimentary knowledge of flying

41. `If you are flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome you are required to conform with or avoid the formed
traffic pattern'. For which of the following is this statement true?

a. Only if you intend landing at the aerodrome

b. If you are aware that the aerodrome is there
c. If you are flying inside the aerodrome traffic zone (ATZ)
d. Regardless of whether you are inside or outside the ATZ

42. When is a flight plan is required?

a. For all flights

b. For all IFR flights
c. For all VFR flights in controlled airspace
d. For all flights which require an air traffic service

43. When is a flight plan not required?

a. For VFR flights crossing international boundaries

b. For flights along boundaries between FIRS providing the flight does not actually cross the
boundary
c. For VFR flights in advisory airspace
d. For flights over distances less than 50Km at night

44. A flight plan is required to include the number and type of aircraft for which the flight plan is
submitted.(NB one FP may be submitted for a formation of aeroplanes!). What other information is
required regarding the type of aeroplane?
a. Wake turbulence category
b. Optimum cruising mach number
c. Maximum un-pressurised cabin altitude
d. Minimum equipment list
45. When is a flight plan `closed'?

a. When it is complete and ready for filing

b. When all the passengers are on board and the flight is announced as `closing'
c. When the aeroplane arrives at the destination
d. On the receipt of the arrival report at the ATSU at the arrival aerodrome

46. When is an ATC clearance to be obtained?

a. Prior to operating any controlled flight

b. Prior to entry into controlled airspace
c. Prior to take off from the initial departure aerodrome where the route involves landing at several
aerodromes en route
d. At least 30 minutes prior to take off

50. If you suffer a comms failure during the later stages of a flight after you have been given an Estimated
Approach Time (EAT) that is significantly different from your flight planned ETA, what do you do?

a. Try and land within 30 minutes of the EAT, if possible

b. Revert to the original flight planned ETA and land as close to that time as possible
c. Stay in the holding pattern and squawk 7600 until you run short of fuel and then squawk 7700
and make an approach to land
d. Abandon the instrument approach and squawk 7700 and make a straight in approach in VMC

51. If you see a military aeroplane (a small one with missiles on it) positioning itself ahead, slightly to the
left, and slightly above you and it is rocking its wings, what does this mean?

a. Congratulations, you have just joined the Red Arrows (Gulp! Where are the rest of them!)
b. You have just been intercepted and he/she wants you to follow
c. You are flying in military restricted airspace and are in danger
d. The Air Traffic Controllers have fouled up the clearances. This is an incident and must be
reported by AIRPROX procedures

52. When is a VFR flight not permitted to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR?

a. If the cloud ceiling is 1500ft or less and ground visibility is 5km or less
b. If the cloud ceiling is greater than 1500ft, but ground visibility is only 5km
c. If the cloud ceiling is less than 1500ft, or ground visibility is less than 5km
d. If the cloud ceiling is more than 1500ft, with ground visibility 5km or less

53. Unless authorised, in Bangladesh VFR flight is not permitted above what flight level?

a. FL150(Correct)
b. FL245
c. FL200
d. FL 180

54. When or where are you permitted to fly VFR below 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 600m
radius of the aircraft over towns, cities etc.. or below 500 ft above ground or water?

a. En route outside of an ATZ

b. Over the sea within gliding distance of the shore
c. In class G airspace in daylight
d. Only where necessary for take off and landing
56. You are flying VFR in class C airspace outside of a CTR and you doubt if you can maintain VMC
much longer. What should you do'?

a. File an IFR flight plan and continue whilst awaiting clearance

b. If unable to get a clearance to continue under IFR leave CAS and land at the nearest suitable
aerodrome
c. Get a Special VFR clearance and continue
d. Push on in VMC until the last minute then squawk 7700 and let the Air Traffic Controllers
sort it out.

57. You are flying IFR at FL 100 in class A airspace. The Air Traffic Controller warns you that there is
traffic in your 12 O'clock at range 10 miles and asks you if you are VMC with a view to taking
avoiding action. What should you do?

a. Assess the meteorological conditions and if the minima for class A airspace is exceeded
report your flight conditions as VMC
b. Regardless of the meteorological conditions, report your flight conditions as IMC
c. Advise ATC that VFR is not applicable in class A airspace
d. Ask for Radar Advisory service to avoid the contact unless ATC advises that it has
disappeared

58. You are flying IFR in class B airspace but are flying in good VMC. What must you consider before
making a request to cancel the IFR flight plan and to proceed VFR?

a. What is the correct VFR flight level for the class of airspace
b. How long are you going to be able to maintain VMC
c. How much day light is left
d. Do you have the necessary equipment fitted in the aeroplane to make a VFR approach at the
destination

59. When may you routinely ignore the table of IFR cruising levels (flight levels) if flying IFR in class A
airspace?

a. In good VMC
b. Above 24 500 ft
c. Where Reduced Vertical Separation Minima standards are in force
d. When cleared above a level to employ a cruise climb technique

60. If you are operating an IFR flight outside of controlled airspace, are you required to maintain a
listening watch with an ATS unit?

a. No
b. Yes, always
c. Yes, but only in areas or along routes where a flight plan is required
d. Yes if you are flying in IMC

61. If you have an urgent message to transmit regarding the safety of an aeroplane, what proword do you
prefix the message with?

a. Help
b. Mayday
c. Pan Pan
d. Securite (pron - see cure ee tay)
62. If you have been intercepted by a military aircraft, on what frequency should you attempt to
communicate with the military pilot?

a. The frequency in use

b. 121.500 Mhz
c. 119.100 Mhz
d. 123.450 Mhz

64. You are taxiing on the manoeuvring area and see a flashing white light pointed at you from the tower,
what does it mean?

a. Give way to an approaching aeroplane

b. Return to the starting point
c. Stop
d. Continue taxiing to the holding point of the active runway

65. You are short final after having received a clearance to land and you see a red pyrotechnic flare fired
from the tower. There are no other aeroplanes in the circuit, what does the flare mean?

a. The Tower controller is scaring the birds away

b. An aeroplane is taxiing out of sight of the tower controller and he is ordered to stop
immediately
c. You have not acknowledged the clearance to land
d. Notwithstanding any previous clearance, you are not to land for the time being

66. You are taxiing towards the runway at an aerodrome and it is outside the published hours of the ATC
watch. You see this yellow marking on the taxiway, what does it mean and what must you do?

a. It is a holding point but not the closest one to the runway. You can ignore it.
b. It is a holding point other than the closest to the runway. You must stop and check that you are
clear to continue taxiing
c. It is a holding point for another runway so can ignore it.
d. It means that the taxiway is weak and you must not stop on it.

67. A green flag is flying from the signals mast at an aerodrome. What does it mean?

a. Glider flying is in progress

b. Take-off and landing are not restricted to the same direction
c. Right hand circuit in force
d. Non radio traffic is permitted to use this aerodrome

68. You are taxiing towards the terminal building but have not been allocated a bay for parking. You see a
man standing in an open space facing you with his arms raised vertically above his head. What does this
mean?

a. I am not your marshaller, I am waiting for the next aeroplane.

b. I am your marshaller, keep moving ahead and I will indicate when it is safe to turn into this
parking bay
c. This is your parking bay
d. Stop immediately

69. You are ready to start engines but there is no ground intercom system working. How do you indicate tot
he marshaller that you intend to start no. 2 engine first?

a. Raise your right hand with the index finger extended making a circular motion, whilst pointing
to no 2 engine
 b. Raise a hand with two fingers extended
c. Raise a hand with two fingers extended and then raise and lower the other hand with a clenched
fist
d. Raise a hand and make a circular motion and leave it to him to work out which engine is starting

73. In general, what navigation aids are used to define RNAV departure routes?

a. NDB and ILS

b. VOR and NDB
c. VOR and DME
d. NDB and DME

74. Which of the following correctly defines the five segments of an instrument approach procedure?

a. En-route, Initial, Immediate, Final, Missed Approach

b. Arrival, Initial, Intermediate, Final, Missed Approach
c. Arrival, Initial, Intermediate, Final, Terminal
d. En-route, Initial, Secondary, Final, Terminating

77. During the latter stages of an instrument approach, track accuracy is of paramount importance as it is the
major factor in defining the limits of the obstacle clearance zone which leads to calculation of DH. Which of the
following facilities is the most accurate for providing track guidance?

a. VOR
b. ILS localiser
c. ILS glide path
d. NDB

79. What is the optimum gradient of the final approach segment (the glide path)?

a. Not less than 3.5%

b. 3.5°
c. About 300ft/km
d. Should not exceed 5%

80. Where does the initial approach segment end?

a. At the start of the final approach segment
b. At the FAF
c. Overhead the facility upon which the procedure is based
d. At the intermediate fix

81. In a missed approach procedure, turns are not specified until the climb is established. Why is this?

a. The aeroplane is too close to the ground and obstacle clearance my not be achieved
b. The final approach track is along the extended centre line of the runway and deviation from this
track may result in a collision with other approaching aircraft
c. The safest direction to go is in the direction of the runway and the climb-out lane
d. The initialisation of the climb (attitude change, drag reduction, application of power) requires
the attention of the pilot, therefore turns are not specified.
82. Where does the missed approach procedure start?

a. At the beginning of the initial missed approach phase

b. At the missed approach point (MAPt)
c. At the point at which the instrument approach procedure cannot be continued
d. At DH for a precision approach or at MDH for a non precision approach

85. In still air, holding on a facility at 5000 ft, what is the length of the outbound leg?

a. 1 1/2 minutes starting over or abeam the fix

b. 1 minute starting abeam the fix
c. It is determined by either distance or time, whichever is specified
d. Not less than 5nm

86. The minimum permissible holding level for a holding pattern is based on the obstacle clearance height of
obstacles within the buffer area. The buffer area extends:

a. All the way around the holding area and encompasses the entry area
b. To 5nm beyond the boundary of the holding area
c. To 5nm beyond the boundary of the holding area but not including the entry area
d. 2nm to the non holding side of the boundary of the holding area and 5 nm from the boundary of
the holding area on the holding side of the pattern

89. When flying through the transition layer, how is vertical position is reported?

a. As a flight level
b. It depends upon what you have set on the altimeter
c. As an altitude when ascending and as a flight level when descending
d. It doesn't matter because the layer is not very deep

91. When/where is the use of aerodrome QFE permitted?

a. When transiting the Aerodrome Traffic Zone

b. Within a zone if the aerodrome is within a CTR
c. When flying en-route in the vicinity of an aerodrome if regional QNH is below the subscale of
the altimeter
d. For terrain clearance during the final approach to a runway

96. If your transponder fails before departure, can you continue if the flight is a controlled flight?

a. No, you must get if fixed even if the flight does not enter controlled airspace
b. Yes, but only if the flight does not enter class A, B or C controlled airspace
c. Yes if you have entered `X' in field 10 (SSR capability) of the flight plan form
d. Yes after seeking exemption from the requirements to carry SSR equipment on controlled
flights

97. What do the initials SRA mean?

a. Separated Radar Approach

b. Simplex Radar Application
c. Secondary Radar Approach
d. Surveillance Radar Approach
99. What is defined by a minimum obstacle clearance of 300 m (984 ft) within 46 km (25 nm) of a homing
facility providing the basis for an instrument approach?

a. Minimum Safe Altitude

b. Minimum Sector Altitude
c. Mandatory Safety Area
d. Maximum Speed Area

An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 7

P r o ced u r e s fo r Air Na v i ga tio n Se r vic es / Air cr a f t Op er at io n s
Sec tio n - 1

Q Ans. Ref. Q Ans. Ref. Q Ans. Ref. Q Ans. Ref.

1 C 2.1.2 26 B 5.3.9 51 B 6.7.4(l) 76 D 7.5.2
2 D 2.1.2.2 27 D 5.3.10 52 C 6.3.2 77 B 7.5.7.ai
3 B 2.16.1/2 28 C 5.3.2 53 C 6.3.3.a(1) 78 B 7.5.7.2.ai
4 A 2.16.1 29 A 5.5.4 54 D 6.3.3.c(l) 79 D 7.5.10
5 B 2.1.3.3a 30 D 5.5.4.c 55 B 6.3.4 80 D 7.7.1
6 A 6.1.1 31 C 5.6.1 56 B 6.2.19 81 D 7.8.2
7 A 2.1.4.1 32 C 5.7.4.b 57 A 6.3.1 82 B 7.7.1
8 D 2.2.3 33 D 5.7.5.b 58 B 6.4.4.1 83 B 7.5.3.C
9 B 2.3.1 34 D 7.12.5 59 D 6.4.5 84 A 7.11.5
10 B 2.6.2 35 A 6.2.4 60 C 6.4.6.b 85 C 7.11.6
11 C 2.7 36 B 6.2.5d 61 C 6.6.2 86 B 7.11.8
12 C 2.7.1 37 A 6.2.6 62 B 6.7.2.c 87 C 7.11.8.c
13 C 2.8.1 38 A 6.2.12.b2 63 A 6.8.2 88 A 7.12.6
14 D 2.3.1/9.1 39 D 6.2.12.e 64 B 6.9.2 89 B 7.12.5
15 D 2.10.4c 40 C 6.2.13.a2 65 D 6.9.2 90 C 7.12.7
16 A 2.10.2 41 D 6.2.14 66 A 6.9.4.m 91 D 7.12.9
17 B 2.11.1 42 D 6.2.15.al 67 C 6.9.3.2 92 B 7.13.1.a
18 B 2.11.4 43 C 6.2.15.a2 68 C 6.10.1 93 A 7.13.3
19 D 7.14.1 44 A 6.2.15.0 69 B 6.10.2 94 D 7.13.3
20 B 2.16.2 45 D 6.2.15.f 70 B 7.3.1.2 95 B 7.14.1
21 B 2.13.1 46 A 6.2.17 71 C 7.3.2.1 96 D 7.14.3.c
22 D 2.13.2aii 47 B 6.2.18 72 C 7.3.3 97 D 7.15.2
23 B 5.2.1.a 48 D 6.3.1 73 C 7.3.5 98 A 7.15.2.1.a
24 C 5.3.6 49 B 6.2.21.c2 74 B 7.5.1.1 99 B 7.5.1.4
25 C 5.3.7 50 A 6.2.21.c5 75 C 7.5.1 100 C 6.1.5
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 7 S ect io n -2

2. Unless otherwise published or informed by ATC, after entering a hold all turns are made:

a) To the left
b) To the left then right
c) To the right
d) Procedure turn right then left

3. In a holding pattern, turns are to be made at:

a) Rate of turn of 3 °/sec

b) Rate of turn of 3 °/sec or 20 ° bank whichever is lesser
c) Rate of turn of 30°/sec or at a bank angle of 25° whichever is lesser
d) Bank angle of 25°

5. What radius from a terminal VOR is MSA provided?

a) 25nm
b) 10nm
c) 15nm
d) 15km

6. What is the longest period of time that you can fly the 30° leg of a teardrop procedure when joining a
holding pattern?

a) 1 1/2 mins
b) 2 1/2 mins
c) 3 mins
d) 30 secs -

8. What is the maximum speed (under normal conditions) for an aeroplane to enter a hold at 11,000 ft.
without special ATC clearance?

a) 230 kts
b) 285 kts
c) 250 kts
d) 240 kts

9. What is the climb gradient required during the intermediate segment of a missed approach?

a) 5.5%
b) 2.5%
c) 0.8%
d) 3.3%

12. A precision Approach Procedure is defined as:

a) An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information

b) An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such operations
c) An instrument approach procedure utilising azimuth and glide path information provided by an
ILS or a PAR
d) An approach using bearing, elevation and, optionally, distance information
16. In general, for a straight in non-precision approach, the MDA/H will be not less than:

a) OCH/A
b) 200ft
c) 350ft
d) 400ft

19. When carrying out a 45/180° procedure turn in Class C, D or E aircraft, how long should the 45° leg be ?

a) 1 minute
b) 1 minute 15 seconds
c) 1 minute 30 seconds
d) 2 minutes

20. What is the airspeed for holding area construction for a CAT B aircraft in a hold under normal
conditions at 4,250 metres (14,000 ft) ?

a) 0.83 Mach
b) 490 km/hr (265 kts)
c) 315 km/hr (170 kts)
d) 520 km/hr (280 kts)

21. What is the maximum interception angle which is allowed to the intermediate approach segment from
the initial approach segment for a non-precision approach ?

a) 30 °
b) 45°
c) 120°
d) 15°

23. An instrument approach is made up of a number of segments. How many of them are there?

a) 4
b) 5
c) 3
d) 6

24. On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment start?
a) DH
b) FAF
c) FAP
d) MAPT

25. On an instrument approach, part of the procedure enables the aircraft to return inbound from outbound with
track reversal. This is called:
a) Base Turn
b) Procedure Turn
c) Reverse Procedure
d) Racetrack

28. What are the obstacle clearance limits for visual manoeuvring (circling)?
a) only determined for Cats A & B
b) only determined for Cats C, D & E
c) different for all Cats
d) the same for all Cats
30. At what distance does an SRA normally terminate?

a) 2nm
b) 1 nm
c) 3nm
d) 1/2 nm

32. Which direction are turns in the standard holding pattern?

a) left
b) right
c) depends on w/v
d) depends on entry made

33. When making an approach, when should a pilot change his altimeter from standard to aerodrome
setting, unless otherwise authorised by ATC?

a) Transition altitude
b) Transition level
c) 300011 above sea level or 1000ft AGL, whichever is higher
d) within the transition layer

34. What is the Cat 2 ILS criteria for instrument runways?

a) RVR 350m DH not below 100ft

b) RVR 200 DH not below 100ft
c) RVR 200 DH not below 200ft
d) RVR 300 DH not below 200ft

35. When is OCH for an ILS approach complied with?

a) not more than 1/2 scale glide path and full scale localiser deflection
b) not more than 1/2 scale localiser deflection
c) not more than 1/2 scale glide path and 35 ° localiser deflection
d) not more than full scale glide path and 1/2 scale localiser deflection

36. For the three entries into a hold, what is the sector tolerance?

a) +/- 5°
b) +/- 10 °
c) +/- 15 °
d) +/- 20°

37. How wide is the buffer area associated with a holding pattern?

a) 3 kms
b) 3 runs
c) 5 kms
d) 5 nms

38. What is the width of the zone of flexibility regarding which procedure to execute when joining a holding
pattern?
a) +/-5 °
b) +/-10°
c) +/-15°
d) +/-20°
39. What range would the radar service be normally terminated for an SRA?

a) 1 nm
b) 1.5 nm
c) 2 nm
d) 4 nm

41. In which stage of an instrument approach do you align with the runway?

a) Initial segment
b) Final segment
c) Arrival segment
d) Intermediate segment

42. During a visual manoeuvre (circling) in the downwind position you lose visual contact with the threshold of
the landing runway. What do you do?

a) Carry out the missed approach procedure

b) Turn through 90° and head towards the centre of the aerodrome until you regain visual reference
c) Head towards the FAF
d) Orbit in the present position until the visibility improves

43. What are ICAO defined instrument approaches?

a) Non-precision and CAT I / II / III precision

b) Non-precision and Precision in general
c) Precision CAT I / II / III
d) Instrument precision and CAT 11/111

44. What is the transition level?

a) The first flight level above the transition altitude

b) The highest flight level available below the transition altitude
c) The top of the ATZ
d) The level at which 1013 is set

46. What is the name of the phase of an instrument approach in which the aircraft is aligned with the runway and
descent commenced?

a) Final
b) Initial
c) Intermediate
d) Arrival

48. Are the minimum obstacle clearance heights for circling approach to land:
a) the same for Cat A and B aircraft
b) Different for each category
c) The same for Cats A, B and D
d) The same for Cat A and B, and the same for Cat C and D

50. Is it legal to pass over the Missed Approach Point at an altitude higher than MDA?
a) Yes
b) Never
c) Sometimes
d) It depends on the flight conditions
51. For an instrument approach, the missed approach gradient is:

a) 3%
b) 3.3%
c) 5%
d) 2.5%

54. What is the turn from outbound to inbound called with track reversal?

a) Base turn
b) Procedure turn
c) Reversal procedure
d) Racetrack procedure

56. When following a SID, the pilot must:

a) Calculate the track required and request ATC clearance to follow it

b) Fly the heading without wind correction
c) Adjust the track specified to allow for the wind
d) Fly the heading to make good the required track allowing for the wind

58. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?

a) From where a new instrument approach can be commenced

b) Where 50 ft obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained
c) Where a climb is established
d) At the missed approach point

59. Who determines OCA/H?

a) The operator
b) The flight operations department
c) The authority of the State
d) The Commander

63. OCH clearance on ILS is given, provided the accuracy flown on the localizer is within:
1
a) /4 scale deflection
b) 1'/2 scale deflection
c) 1 scale deflection
d) 1/2 scale deflection

65. When calculating the type of entry to a holding pattern, which of the following is applicable?
a) Aircraft magnetic heading
b) Aircraft true track
c) Aircraft track over the ground
d) Aircraft compass heading

66. The holding direction of a holding pattern is 052 ° magnetic. You are flying inbound to hold on a heading of
232° magnetic. What type of join should you make?
a) Direct
b) Parallel
c) Offset or Parallel
d) Reciprocal
67. What is the zone of flexibility either side of sector boundaries when joining a hold?

a) 5°
b) 2.5
c) 10°
d) 2°

68. Where does the initial sector of a missed approach procedure end?

a) When a height of 50m has been achieved and maintained

b) When established in the climb
c) At the missed approach point
d) When en-route either to the hold or departure

70. The obstacle clearance surfaces for an ILS assume a pilot localizer accuracy of.

a) 1/4 scale
b) 1/2 scale
c) 1 scale
d) 1 1/2 scale

71. Flying a holding pattern in a jet aircraft at FL 1 10, the max IAS is:

a) 170 kt
b) 240 kt
c) 230 kt
d) 280 kt

72. The abbreviation OIS means:

a) Obstacle in surface
b) Obstruction in surface
c) Obstruction identification surface
d) Obstacle identification surface

74. Which of the following defines a standard holding procedure?

a) Right turn at the fix; 1 minute below 14 000 ft

b) Left turn at the fix; 1 minute below 14 000 ft
c) Right turn at the fix; 1.5 minutes below 14 000 ft
d) Left turn at the fix; 1.5 minutes above 14 000ft

76. What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach?

a) Initial; Intermediate; Descent; Final; Landing

b) Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Missed Approach
c) Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing; Missed Approach
d) Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing

78. In a category A aeroplane, which reversing turn takes approximately 2 minutes in still air?
a) 45/180° procedure turn
b) 80/260° procedure turn
c) Base turn
d) Racetrack
79. During the arrival and initial segments of an instrument approach (not in mountainous areas) what is the
minimum obstacle clearance provided?

a) 300m
b) At least 300m
c) 150m
d) At least 150m

80. When conducting a procedure turn (45°/180°), for how long should the 45° leg be flown for a Cat A or Cat B
aircraft ?

a) 1 minute 30 seconds
b) 1 minute
c) 1 minute 15 seconds
d) 2 minutes

82. What are the phases of the Missed Approach Procedure?

a) Initial, intermediate and final

b) Arrival, initial, intermediate and final
c) Initial and final
d) Arrival, intermediate and final

83. The visual phase of a flight after completion of an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into the position
for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for a straight-in approach is termed as:

a) Visual Approach
b) Aerodrome traffic pattern
c) Visual Manoeuvring (circling)
d) Contact Approach

85. When on the final approach track a step-down fix is made, the decent has to be conducted such that:

a) You are 50 ft above the nominal glidepath

b) The fix is passed no lower than the specified crossing altitude
c) You leave the intermediate approach altitude step-by-step until reaching the MAPt
d) The fix is passed with the mandatory vertical speed of 500 ft/min.

87. A precision approach is a direct instrument approach:

a) conducted by a crew consisting of at least 2 pilots who are properly trained

b) which uses azimuth, elevation and distance information, provided that the pilot uses a flight
director or an autopilot and is certified to a height of 200 ft.
c) which uses azimuth, distance and elevation information
d) which uses azimuth and elevation information

89. The minimum sector altitude gives an obstacle clearance of 300 metres within a certain radius from the
navigation aid on which the instrument procedure is based. This radius is:

a) 15 nms (28 kms)

b) 30 nms (55 kms)
c) 25 nms (46 kms)
d) 20 runs (37 kms)
90. What is the minimum ground visibility for a CAT I ILS approach?

a) 800m
b) 550m
c) 50m
d) 550ft

91. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?

a) I minute 30 seconds
b) 1 minute
c) 2 minutes 30 seconds
d) 2 minutes

92. Where does the initial approach segment begin in an instrument approach procedure?

a) At the IF
b) At the IAF
c) At the FAF
d) At the final en-route fix

93. If the track on an instrument departure is published the pilot is expected to:

a) correct for the known wind so as to stay within controlled airspace

b) ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind
c) ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track
d) ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

94. Under which circumstances may an aircraft on a "straight in" VOR approach continue below OCA?

a) When it seems possible to land

b) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but does not have the runway in sight
c) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and is visual with the runway lights
d) When the tower is visible

98. Turns in a standard holding pattern are:

a) in a direction dependent on the wind

b) in a direction dependent on the type of entry
c) left handed
d) right handed

99. The term "timed approach procedure" is used to expedite, if needed, the approach of a number of inbound
aircraft. This is achieved by asking aeroplanes to

a) make a step-down descent in approaching sequence

b) pass the specified inbound fix at a given time
c) conduct the approach procedure with specified speeds
d) pass a specific point
101. Your transponder fails prior to departure and it is not practical to effect a repair.
ATC is required to:

a) Permit you to proceed, as directly as possible, to the nearest suitable aerodrome where a repair
can be made
b) Permit you to proceed as normal
c) Forbid you from taking off
d) Permit you to take off as long as you have indicated the failure in the Flight Plan

103. A visual circling approach procedure:

a) can only be conducted under radar control

b) is a visual manoeuvre conducted under IMC
c) entails the radar controller providing separation
d) has to be conducted with visual reference to the ground

104. When can an aircraft descend below MSA?

1) the airfield and underlying terrain are visible and will remain so
2) the aircraft is under radar control
3) the underlying terrain is visible
4) the aircraft is following an approach procedure

a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 7 P r o ced ur e s fo r Air Na v i ga tio n Ser v ic e s / Air cr a f t

Op er a tio n s Se ctio n -2

1A 27 A 53 A 79 B
2C 28 C 54 B 80 B
3C 29 B 55 D 81 B
4A 30 A 56 D 82 A
5A 31 D 57 B 83 C
6A 32 B 58 C 84 A
7C 33 B 59 C 85 B
8A 34 A 60 A 86 A
9B 35 B 61 D 87 D
10 A 36 A 62 D 88 C
11 D 37 D 63 D 89 C
12 C 38 A 64 B 90 A
13 B 39 C 65 A 91 A
14 B 40 A 66 C 92 B
15 B 41 B 67 A 93 A
16 A 42 A 68 B 94 C
17 C 43 A 69 A 95 D
18 C 44 A 70 B 96 A
19 B 45 C 71 C 97 C
20 C 46 A 72 D 98 D
21 C 47 B 73 B 99 B
22 A 48 B 74 A 100 D
23 B 49 B 75 D 101 A
24 C 50 A 76 B 102 B
25 B 51 D 77 C 103 D
26 C 52 A 78 B 104 A
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 8

1. What is the definition of Distress?

a) An emergency condition where an aircraft is in imminent danger and requires

immediate assistance
b) Persons on board an aircraft are in imminent danger and the flight cannot be continued
c) The aircraft will be unable to land at a suitable aerodrome
d) The aeroplane has a message to transmit concerning the safety of person on board or
within sight

2. What defines the SAR alert phase (ALERFA)?

a) A situation in which an aeroplane and passengers are known to be in serious and
imminent danger
b) A situation where it is certain that fuel is exhausted
c) A situation where apprehension exists about an aeroplane and its safety
d) A situation in which an aeroplane and its passengers are in emergency

5. In what class of airspace are all aircraft separated from one another and VFR is permitted?

a) D
b) E
c) A
d) B

7. A control zone extends laterally from the centre of an aerodrome or aerodromes in the direction of
approaching aircraft for at least

a) 7nms
b) 5 rims
c) 15 rims
d) 20 rims

8. What is the speed limit below 10,000 ft in Class E airspace ?

a) 250 kts TAS

b) 250 kts IAS
c) Not applicable
d) 200 kts IAS

9. Voice ATIS is transmitted on a:

a) Discrete VHF frequency only

b) Discrete VHF frequency or on voice on VOR
c) VHF frequency or on ILS frequency
d) ILS only

10. Who is responsible for setting into movement the Alert Phase?

a) FIC or the relevant ATCU

b) The State and ATC
c) The Area Control and the RCC
d) RCC and the FIR
11. What is the definition of the Emergency Phase?

a) The Distress Phase

b) The Alarm Phase
c) The Alert Phase
d) A generic term meaning as the case maybe the Uncertainty Phase, the Alert Phase or the
Distress Phase

Note : Although this is within the scope of Chapter 8, the reference is under Definitions contained in Chapter 18
of the Air Law Notes.

12. FIS is provided to aircraft concerning collision hazards in the following classes of airspace:

a) C,D,E,F,G
b) F and G only
c) F
d) A,B,C,D,E,F,G

13. What are the three elements of an Air Traffic Control Service:

a) Radar, SAR and FIS

b) Area, Approach and Aerodrome
c) Radar, Procedural and FIS
d) Radar, Procedural and Alerting Service.

14. For VFR flight in class E airspace:

a) ATC clearance and two way radio are required

b) Two way radio not required
c) ATC clearance and/or two way radio are required
d) ATC clearance is required

15. Danger, Prohibited and Restricted areas must be designated by:

a) country identifier, followed by P/D/R, followed by the identifier

b) country identifier followed by P/D/R
c) P/D/R followed by the identifier
d) country identifier followed by numbers

17. Who is responsible for designating the RNP for an airway?

a) the State
b) the State + ICAO
c) ICAO
d) RAN

18. In which class or classes of airspace would essential traffic information be given to VFR traffic about other
VFR traffic?

a) B
b) BODE
c) BC
d) BCD
19. What is the primary function of a CTR and a CTA ?

a) The controlling of all traffic close to an aerodrome

b) The controlling of all traffic in Class F airspace
c) The controlling of all traffic in Class F & G airspace
d) The controlling of IFR traffic

21. What type of airspace extends from the surface to a specified upper limit?

a) control area
b) Air Traffic Zone
c) control zone
d) TMA

22. What class of airspace can you get an advisory service for IFR traffic and a FIS for VFR traffic?

a) C
b) D
c) C
d) F

23. The lowest height of a CTA above ground or water is:

a) 300m
b) 150m
c) 200m
d) 500m

24. How often is an ATIS updated?

a) Every 30 mins for VFR, every 59 mins IFR

b) When there is a change in information, irrespective of content or intensity
c) When the minimum ceiling and visibility are below VFR minimum
d) When there is a significant change in information.

25. RNP3 is a containment value meaning that a percentage of aircraft operating along a particular route
would be within 3nm of the centre line all the time. What is that percentage?

a) 98%
b) 93%
c) 95%
d) 90%

26. In what class of airspace is IFR separated from IFR and all other traffic gets FIS?

a) A
b) B
c) D
d) C; D and E

27. The lower boundary of an UIR must be:

a) An IFR flight level
b) A VFR flight level
c) Is not specified
d) At any flight level
28. List the services provided in a FIR:

a) FIS only
b) FIS, advisory ATC, ATC
c) FIS, aerodrome control
d) FIS, alerting service

30. Who organises the RNP specification for airspace?

a) The State in which the airspace is located

b) ICAO
c) The State + ICAO
d) States who agree what the RNP should be

31. What is the upper limit of a CTA?

a) 2,000 ft
b) 3,000 ft
c) 5,000 ft
d) A VFR Flight Level

33. In what class of airspace can both IFR and VFR fly and IFR traffic only receives an advisory service
for separation?

a) F
b) E
c) G
d) D

35. You are flying a visual approach in Class C airspace. ATC will:

a) separate you from all traffic

b) separate you from all IFR traffic
c) separate you from all arriving traffic
d) separate you from all VFR traffic

36. In which airspace can you be cleared to fly without a radio?

a) E&G
b) D
c) E, D
d) C, D, E

37. In which class of airspace is IFR and VFR permitted; IFR is separated from all traffic, VFR
separated from IFR and receives traffic information about other VFR traffic?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D

38. In class C airspace, what flights are separated?

a) All flights
b) IFR from all flights; VFR from VFR
c) IFR from IFR; VFR from IFR and VFR from VFR
d) IFR from IFR; IFR from VFR; VFR from IFR
40. An aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to do so within 5 minutes of the ETA of landing
and communications have not been re-established with the aircraft. What phase of the Alerting Service
will be declared by the ATSU ?

a) DETRESFA
b) INCERFA
c) ALERFA
d) EMERGFA

41. A Control Zone has to exist to at least:

a) 5 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where
approaches can be made
b) 20 rims from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where
approaches can be made
c) 15 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where
approaches can be made
d) 10 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where
approaches can be made

42. When an aircraft encounters difficulty, the initiation of the alert phase is the responsibility of:

a) Air Traffic Coordination Centres

b) Air Traffic Control and Flight Information Centres
c) Search and Rescue Coordination Centres
d) Air Traffic Control Centres only

44. According to ICAO Annex 11, what does the following statement define : "information concerning the
occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may effect the safety of low-
level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low-level flights in the FIR
concerned or sub-area thereof."

a) NOTAM
b) SIGMET Information
c) AIRMET Information
d) En-route Weather Report

An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 8 Air T r a f fi c S er v ic es

1A 2C 3D 4D 5D 6D 7B 8B 9B 10 A
11 D 12 A 13 B 14 B 15 A 16 B 17 A 18 A 19 D 20 C
21 C 22 D 23 C 24 D 25 C 26 C 27 B 28 D 29 B 30 A
31 D 32 A 33 A 34 B 35 A 36 A 37 C 38 D 39 B 40 C
41 A 42 B 43 C 44 C
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 9

1. When, in airspace where VFR is permitted, the PIC of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in
accordance with VFR until destination:
1) He/she must inform the control unit of his intention using the expression "cancelling my IFR
flight"
2) He/she must request and obtain clearance
3) ATC will acknowledge with the time the IFR flight is cancelled
4) The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight Which of the following combinations is
correct?

a) 2 and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 1 and 3
d) 1 and 4

3. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on IFR then changing to VFR?
a) Z
b) Y
c) I
d) V
4. What is the delay for a controlled flight after which a flight plan has to be re-filed?

a) 30 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 60 minutes
d) 60 minutes

6. What is the standard ICAO position report?

a) Aircraft callsign, position, time, level, next position and time, ensuing significant point
b) Aircraft callsign, position, time, level, next position and time
c) Aircraft callsign, position, level, next position and time
d) Aircraft callsign, position, level, TAS, time

7. After a delay of how long must a flight plan be amended or re-submitted for an uncontrolled flight?
a) 15 mins
b) 30 mins
c) 45 mins
d) 60 mins

8. How is speed entered in item 15 of a flight plan?

a) Ground speed
b) True airspeed
c) Ground speed plus 10%
d) Indicated airspeed

10. You have been given a clearance by ATC but you are forced to deviate from it for some reason. What do
you do?
a) Request deviation from the clearance after the fact
b) Tell ATC at any time after the deviation
c) Tell ATC as soon as possible after the deviation
d) Notify ATC in writing within 24 hours
11. You file a VFR flight plan. What do you put in field 16 (total EET)?

a) Time from brakes off to overhead the destination

b) Time from brakes released to landing time
c) Time from take off to overhead the destination
d) Time from take off to landing

12. In the case of a delay of a controlled flight, the filed flight plan must be amended or cancelled and a new
flight plan must be filed, when the delay is:

a) 30 minutes more than the estimated off-blocks time

b) 60 minutes more than the estimated off-blocks time
c) 30 minutes more than the estimated departure time
d) 60 minutes more than the estimated departure time

13. What are the contents of section 2 of an AIREP?

a) present position and ETA

b) estimated time over the FIR boundary and endurance
c) estimated elapsed time (EET) and endurance
d) ETA and endurance

An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 9

P r o ced u r e s fo r Air T r a f f ic M a na ge me nt ( P AN S R AC D OC - 4 4 4 4 )

1C 2B 3B 4A 5C 6A 7D 8B 9B 10C
11C 12A 13D 14 A
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 1 0

1. What types of separation do ATC apply?

a) Horizontal, longitudinal and timing

b) Horizontal, vertical and longitudinal
c) Horizontal , vertical and composite
d) Horizontal, vertical and lateral

2. What is a strayed aircraft?

a) One that has gone significantly off-track

b) One that is lost and has reported so to ATC
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’.
d) One which its position has not been established by ATC

4. If you want to descend through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the minimum separation
is:

a) 20 minutes
b) 10 minutes
c) 5 minutes
d) 15 minutes

5. What is the longitudinal separation standard required for RNAV routes?

a) 80 nm
b) 60 nm
c) 50 nm
d) 20 nm

6. When can one aircraft pass through the level of another aircraft which is flying along an ATS route, in
VMC maintaining own separation?

a) If the pilot requests and the state approves

b) If the pilot requests and it is day time
c) If the pilot requests during day or night
d) Irrelevant - the manoeuvre is not permitted

7. Minimum RNAV separation when RNP is specified is:

a) 80 nm
b) 50 nm
c) 80 or 50 dependant upon the RNP type
d) 20 nm

8. If two aircraft are using the same VOR, by what lateral distance must the aircraft be separated before one
of the two may commence a climb or descent?

a) 5 nm
b) 10 nm
c) 15 nm
d) 20 nm
9. Whilst in IFR in VMC you decide to maintain your own separation to descend through the level of
another aircraft. What is required?

a) During day you must request clearance and with ATC authority approval
b) You must request clearance and the ATC authority must approve, during day or night
c) You only need to request approval for the manoeuvre
d) In CAS the manoeuvre is illegal

11. An ATCO advises a pilot that "clearance expires at 0920" What does this mean?

a) The flight must end by 0920

b) The slot time cannot be later than 0920
c) The next clearance will be issued at 0920
d) Time at which the clearance is cancelled if the flight hasn't commenced

12. What is the separation standard between aircraft at the same altitude when using DME to determine
range from a beacon?

a) 10 nm where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second
b) 10 nm where the first aircraft speed is 20 kts faster than the second
c) 20 nm where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second
d) 20 nm where the first aircraft speed is 20 kts faster than the second

13. Two aircraft are using the Mach Number technique (both at same Mach Number or first faster than
second) for same track separation. If using an RNAV track what would be the standard separation in lieu
of time?

a) 80 nm
b) 60 nm
c) 50 nm
d) 25 nm

15. Two aircraft are flying the same route where the Mach Number technique is applied. What is the
minimum RNAV distance based separation that may be applied in lieu of the normal 10 minutes longitudinal
separation?

a) 150nm
b) 50nm
c) 80nm
d) 120nm

18. A separation minimum based on "RNAV" distance can be used at the moment the level is being passed,
assuming that every aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on-track" waypoint. The minimum is:

a) 60 nms
b) 80 nms
C) 50 rims
d) 20 nms

An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 1 0 Ar ea Co n tr o l S er vi ce

1C 2C 3A 4C 5A 6B 7C 8C 9A 10A
11D 12B 13A 14B 15C 16B 17D 18B 19D
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 1 1

1. At commencement of final approach, if the approach controller has wind component information, what
change in cross wind component change would be passed to the pilot?

a) 10 kts
b) 8 kts
c) 3 kts
d) 5 kts

2. Where an aeroplane is approaching to land, what is the maximum time spacing applied between that
aeroplane and any other taking off in any direction?

a) 3 minutes
b) 5 minutes
c) 10 minutes
d) 2 minutes

3. Approach control is provided for:

a) All arriving and departing controlled flights

b) All arriving IFR traffic
c) Traffic within the CTA
d) All VFR traffic

5. A revised EAT shall be transmitted to an aircraft whenever it differs from that EAT previously
transmitted by:

a) 5 minutes or more
b) 10 minutes or more
c) 1 minute or more
d) 15 minutes or more

6. If one aircraft wishes to occupy the level of another aircraft which has been cleared to descend, when can
the first aircraft start descending to that level?

a) When the second aircraft reports leaving the level

b) When the second aircraft reports 1,000 ft out of the level
c) When the second aircraft reports at the cleared level
d) When the second aircraft reports through 500 ft from the original level

7. On an approach by an IFR flight, when can this be converted to a visual approach:

a) after the FAF

b) with visual reference to the terrain
c) when the visibility is greater than 5km
d) after the MAP

8. A controlled flight reports `field in sight'. Under what conditions may the flight make a visual approach?
.
a) when the controller will provide separation from other traffic
b) the aircraft has passed the FAF
c) with a met visibility at least 8kms
d) the remainder of the approach is to be conducted under VMC.
9. Two aircraft are departing from the same runway, the first aircraft being 40kts or more faster. What
separation should be provided?

a) 2 mins
b) 3 mins
c) 5 mins
d) 7 mins

10. On departure a 1 minute separation can be applied if the aircraft fly on diverging tracks immediately
after take-off at least:

a) 45°
b) 15°
c) 30°
d) 20°

11. When can normal separation be reduced?

a) When the controller has both aircraft in sight

b) When the following aircraft has the preceding in sight and can maintain it
c) When both pilots request it
d) When both aircraft are under radar control

15. Under which circumstances may an aircraft on a "straight in" VOR approach continue below OCA?

a) When it seems possible to land

b) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but does not have the runway in sight
c) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and is visual with the runway lights
d) When the tower is visible

16. The term "timed approach procedure" is used to expedite, if needed, the approach of a number of
inbound aircraft. This is achieved by asking aeroplanes to:

a) make a step-down descent in approaching sequence

b) pass the specified inbound fix at a given time
c) conduct the approach procedure with specified speeds
d) pass a specific point

17. According to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees magnetic converted
with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction:

a) before landing and taxi for take-off

b) in anticipation of the upper wind for areas North of 60° N and South of 60° S
c) when an aircraft is requested by the meteorological office or on specified points to give an
AIREP
d) when the local variation is greater than 10°East or West

18. What separation is applied to two aircraft where the first is 40 kts faster than the second on departure?

a) 2 mins
b) 5 mins
c) 10 mins
d) 4 mins
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 1 1 Ap p r o ac h C o nt r o l Ser v ice

1D
2B
3A
4D
5A
6A
7B
8A
9A
10A
11B
12D
13B
14B
15C
16B
17A
18A
19A
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 1 2

1. What is the maximum distance from touchdown that a radar controller can request a change of speed to
an aircraft on final approach?

a) 5nm
b) 3nm
c) 2nm
d) 4nm

2. What is the criterion for an aerodrome to be controlled?

a) It must be located within a CTR

b) It must have a control tower giving an ATC service
c) It must have a control tower and be in a CTR
d) It must be in controlled airspace

3. What is separation for a light aircraft taking off after a medium aircraft providing they are both using the
same runway?

a) 5 min
b) 3 min
c) 1 min
d) 2 min

4. What is the primary reason for Radar in ATC?

a) Separation
b) Helping when aircraft communications have failed
c) To assist pilots with technical problems
d) To assist pilots of aircraft that are lost

5. When must you operate your SSR transponder?

a) Always
b) At all times unless otherwise instructed by ATC
c) At your discretion regardless of ATC instructions
d) Mode A always; Mode C at pilots discretion

9. Between two aircraft on the same track, what is the minimum radar separation which must be provided
for wake turbulence?

a) 4 nms
b) 2.5 nms
c) 2 nms
d) 3 nms

10. The maximum speed change that may be required during a radar approach is:

a) ± 40 kts
b) ± 5 kts
c) ± 10 kts
d) ± 20 kts
11. To whom is the alerting service provided?

a) All IFR traffic

b) All flight-planned aircraft
c) All hijacked aircraft
d) All traffic known to ATC

14. An aircraft in receipt of a radar service is told to "resume own navigation". This means:

a) The pilot is responsible for own navigation

b) Radar vectoring is terminated
c) The pilot should contact next ATC unit
d) The pilot should contact the current ATC unit

15. What is standard radar separation?

a) 5nm
b) 3nm
c) 10nm
d) 15nm

17. A radar controller wants to identify an aircraft on radar. By how much will the aircraft be turned?

a) 45°
b) 15°
c) 30° or more
d) a minimum of 25 °

20. When may the pilot operate the `ident' switch on the transponder?

a) in controlled airspace
b) when requested by ATC
c) in uncontrolled airspace
d) when under radar control

21. If you are given an instruction by ATC, steer heading 030, is the heading:

a) Degrees true, to be corrected for wind

b) Degrees magnetic to be corrected for wind
c) Degrees true
d) Degrees magnetic

22. When should you use a SSR mode C transponder?

a) Only when directed by ATC

b) Always
c) Always in controlled airspace
d) Only in controlled airspace

24. What separation is required between a medium taking off behind a heavy?
a) 2 mins
b) 3 mins
c) 4 mins
d) 5 mins
25. What is the minimum radar separation for two aircraft established on the same localiser?

a) 5 nm
b) 5 nm when the first a/c is 20 kts faster than the second
c) 10 nm
d) 20 nm

26. The maximum radar separation between 2 aircraft on the same approach with wake turbulence separation
applied as required is:

a) 6 nms
b) 2.5 runs
c) 4 nms
d) 2 nms

28. If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what do you set on the SSR transponder?

a) A/2000 + C
b) A/7500 + C
c) A/7600 + C
d) A/7700 + C

30. During radar vectoring procedures, turns are to be:

a) At pilots discretion
b) Dependant on weather conditions
c) At a standard rate unless instructed by ATC
d) Not less than 30°

31. Aerodrome traffic is considered to be:

a) Aircraft on the movement area and flying in the vicinity

b) Aircraft on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity
c) Aircraft on the movement area only
d) Aircraft on the manoeuvring area only

32. On final approach, what is the minimum radar separation standard, notwithstanding wake turbulence
separation?

a) 5 nm
b) 2.5 nm
c) 2 run
d) 1 nm

33. What is the minimum radar separation when a heavy category aircraft is preceding a light category
aircraft on final approach?

a) 2.5 run
b) 3 nm
c) 5 nm
d) 6 nm
37. The phases used to indicate that an aircraft is in distress or used when an aircraft is assumed to be in
distress are:

a) uncertainty phase, urgency phase and distress phase

b) uncertainty phase, alert phase, urgency phase and distress phase
c) uncertainty phase, alert phase and distress phase
d) uncertainty phase, alert phase and urgency phase

38. A light or medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy from an intermediate part of the same runway.
What wake turbulence separation will be applied?

a) 3 minutes
b) 2 minutes
c) 5 minutes
d) 1 minute

41. Which separation minimum must be used for wake turbulence when a medium aircraft departs behind a
heavy aircraft and both use the same runway?

a) 2 minutes
b) 1 minute
c) 3 minutes
d) 4 minutes

42. What does the ATC term "radar contact" mean?

a) the aircraft is identified and will receive separation from all aircraft while you are
communicating with this radar facility
b) ATC is receiving your transponder and will provide you with vectors and advice concerning
traffic until you are notified that contact is lost
c) your aircraft is identified on the radar screen
d) you receive radar advisory concerning traffic until you are notified that the contact is lost or
radar service is terminated

43. The letter " L" is used in the wake turbulence section of the flight plan when the maximum certified
take-off mass of an aircraft is less or equal to:

a) 5,700 kg for fixed-wing aircraft and 2700 kg for helicopters

b) 14,000 kg
c) 20,000 kg
d) 7,000 kg

44. If an aircraft is vectored to intercept the localiser during parallel runway operations, the final vector must
be such that the aircraft is enabled to intercept the localiser course with an angle not greater than:

a) 20°
b) 30°
c) 15°
d) 25°
.
45. The minima that must be applied to aircraft which are landing after a "heavy" or "medium" aircraft
complying with wake turbulence separation on a timed approach is:
a) light aircraft behind medium aircraft; 4 minutes
b) medium aircraft behind medium aircraft; 2 minutes
c) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 3 minutes
d) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 2 minutes
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 1 2
Aer o d r o me Co ntr o l, R AD AR Ser v ice s, Ad vi so r y Ser v ice a nd Aler ti n g S e r v ice

1D 25 A
2B 26 A
3D 27 C
4A 28 D
5B 29 D
6B 30 C
7C 31 B
8B 32 A
9A 33 D
10 D 34 A
11 D 35 D
12 B 36 B
13 D 37 C
14 B 38 A
15 A 39 A
16 A 40 D
17 C 41 A
18 C 42 C
19 D 43 D
20 B 44 B
21 D 45 D
22 B 46 A
23 B 47 A
24 A
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 1 3

2. In which section of the AIP would you find information on holding, approach and departing procedures?

a) GEN
b) ENR
c) AD
d) None

3. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of:

a) AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins
(PIBs), AICs, checklists and summaries.
b) AIP and amendment service, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, AIRACs,
checklists and summaries.
c) AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, AIRACs, AICs, checklists and
summaries.
d) AIP & Supplements, AIRACs, NOTAMs and pre-flight bulletins

4. In what section of the AIP are details of SIGMET found?

a) GEN
b) ENR
c) AD
d) COMMS

5. Where in the AIP is a list of Location Indicators to be found?

a) GEN
b) COMMS
c) AD
d) AGA

6. A check list for NOTAMs is issued:

a) every 5 days
b) every 28 days
c) every 18 days
d) at intervals of not more than one month.

7. AIP approach charts do not give information for Instrument Approach Procedures for:

a) OCA/H
b) Visibility minima
c) Obstacles protruding above the obstacle free zone
d) DME frequencies

8. AIP supplements with extensive text and graphics cover a short period. What is a long period in this
respect?

a) 1 yr
b) 2 months
c) 3 months
d) 6 months
9. AIRAC is:

a) A breakdown service
b) Notification of operationally significant changes to the AIP
c) A medical evacuation flight
d) An Army Air Corps publication

10. What information is not on an aerodrome approach plate?

a) DME frequency
b) OCA
c) Dominant obstacles
d) Operating minima if the aerodrome is being used as an alternative

11. Where in the AIP is information concerning re-fuelling facilities and services found?

a) ENR
b) SUPP
c) AD
d) GEN

12. Where in the AIP would you find information concerning prohibited, restricted or danger areas?

a) ENR
b) SUPP
c) AD
d) GEN

14. What is the co-efficient of braking, if the braking action is reported as medium?

a) Between. 1.0 and 0.25

b) Between 0.25 and 0.3
c) Between 0.30 and 0.35
d) Between 0.35 and 0.4

16. Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):

a) Facilitates ATC services but is not an official organisation

b) only gives ATC information to an aircraft in flight and on the ground
c) has the same authority and privileges as an ATC organisation, but the activities are neither
continuous or regular
d) can only give limited service to its users but, in any case, cannot give ATC services

An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 1 3 Aer o na ut ic a l I n fo r ma tio n S er vic e s

1A 2B 3A 4A 5A 6D 7B 8C 9B 10 D
11 C 12 A 13 A 14 C 15 D 16 D 17 C
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 1 4

5. A radio altimeter operating area must extend before the threshold of a precision approach runway for a
distance of at least:
a) 100 metres
b) 200 metres
c) 300 metres
d) 500 metres

7. How are the runways marked at an airfield where there are three parallel runways?
a) 02.03.04
b) The QDM for the third runway will be increased by 10°
c) The L and R runways will have differing QDM's
d) `L' `C' `R'

9. What is a stopway for?

a) Stopping after landing distance
b) Extending the Landing Distance Available
c) Stopping after an aborted take off
d) A runway extension for big aircraft

11. A transverse white stripe on a runway is associated with a:

a) closed runway
b) runway which is 2400 meters or longer
c) displaced runway
d) runway available for circling to land approaches

14. The stopway is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the take-off run available which is
prepared as a suitable area:
a) To stop an aircraft after a rejected take-off
b) To stop a landing aircraft in case of an emergency
c) To stop a starting or landing aircraft
d) To stop a landing aircraft if it overshoots the runway

15. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Taxiway markings are white and runway markings are yellow
b) Numerals on aerodrome signs are reserved for runways
c) A clearway has the same function as a RESA
d) The pairs of touchdown zone markings are separated from each other by 120 meters

16. A PAPI system consists of

a) 2 wing bars of 4 lights uniformally spaced
b) 1 wing bar of 4 lights uniformally spaced
c) 2 wing bars of 6 lights uniformally spaced
d) 2 wing bars of 2 lights uniformally spaced

An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 1 4 Aer o d r o me s

1B 2D 3A 4D 5C 6D 7D 8D 9C 10 A
11C 12B 13C 14 A 15B 16B
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 1 5

1. How many bars are there on a full Calvert approach light system?

a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2

2. Lead in lights are:

a) Green at threshold across the runway

b) White flashing in direction pointing towards the runway
c) Yellow
d) Steady white across the runway

4. What colour are runway end lights?

a) Unidirectional red
b) Unidirectional white
c) Omni directional red
d) Omni directional white

5. What is the colour of threshold lighting?

a) Omni directional green

b) Uni-directional green, showing in the direction of the approach
c) Uni-directional white, showing in the direction of the approach
d) Red uni-directional

6. On a Cat I lighting system, what is the distance between the single, double and treble lights on the
extended centre-line of a runway?

a) 150 metres
b) 200 metres
c) 250 metres
d) 300 metres

7. What colour lights are runway edge lights, not including cautionary areas or pre-displaced thresholds`?

a) Red or yellow
b) White
c) Yellow
d) Blue

8. An aerodrome identification beacon on a land based aerodrome is:

a) blue
b) white
c) green
d) red
9. What colour is an aerodrome identification beacon light?

a) Flashing Green
b) Flashing Green and White
c) Steady Green
d) Flashing White

10. What is the colour of threshold lights?

a) Steady white
b) Flashing white
c) Steady green
d) Flashing green

11. What is the length of the approach lighting for a CAT I system?

a) 300 m
b) 600 m
c) 900 m
d) 1200 m

14. Aerodrome information signs are:

a) Black on red, or red on black

b) Yellow on red, or black on yellow
c) Yellow on black, or black on yellow
d) Orange on black, or black on orange

15. Taxiway edge lights are:

a) Fixed showing blue

b) Fixed showing green
c) Fixed showing yellow
d) Flashing showing blue

17. Runway lead-in lights must consist of.

a) Only flashing lights

b) A group of at least 3 white lights which are flashing in sequence in the direction of the runway
c) Arbitrary number of green lights
d) Always a straight row of lights in the direction of the runway

19. On the PAPI system the pilot can see, during the approach, two white lights furthest from the runway
and two red lights closest to the runway. Is the aircraft?

a) Under the approach glide path

b) Above the approach glide path
c) Precisely on the glide path
d) On or close to the approach glide path

20. The abbreviation "PAPI" stands for:

a) Precision Approach Path Index

b) Precision Approach Power Indicator
c) Precision Approach Path Indicator
d) Precision Approach Power Index
21. What is the light indication of a land-based aerodrome beacon?

a) Green alternating with white flashes or white flashes only

b) White flashes only
c) Green flashes only
d) Same as an Aerodrome Identity Beacon

An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 1 5 Aer o d r o me Li g ht s a nd S i g n s

1A
2B
3A
4A
5B
6D
7B
8C
9A
10C
11C
12A
13A
14C
15A
16B
17B
18D
19D
20C
21A
22B
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 1 6

1. What is the colour of a low intensity obstacle light?

a) Blue
b) Steady red
c) Yellow
d) Flashing red

2. Low intensity obstruction lights on buildings and moving objects are:

a) Flashing green
b) Flashing yellow
c) Steady red
d) Steady blue

5. What colour lights are vehicles moving on the aerodrome required to show?

a) Flashing yellow
b) Flashing red
c) Flashing blue
d) Steady red

6. What colour are emergency vehicles painted that are used on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome?

a) Green
b) Dayglo orange
c) A single conspicuous colour, preferably red or yellowish green
d) White and red chequered

8. An object of limited mobility (an air bridge for example) is lit by:

a) low intensity steady red lights

b) low intensity flashing red lights
c) medium intensity steady red lights
d) medium intensity flashing red lights

9. Must an aerodrome fire station be located within the confides of an aerodrome?

a) No, providing the response time can be met

b) Yes
c) No
d) No, providing it is within 3 minutes driving time of the aerodrome

10. The level of rescue and fire fighting facilities is dependent upon the category of the aerodrome. What
factors determine this category?
a) Aeroplane reference field length, wing span and outer main gear wheel span of the largest
aircraft using that aerodrome
b) The length of the longest runway and the area to be covered
c) The overall length and the fuselage width of the longest aircraft using that aerodrome
d) The length of the longest runway and total area of hardstandings (including access roads)

An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 1 6 Aer o d r o me Ob s tac le s a n d E mer g e nc y Ser v ice s

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Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 1 7

5. The General Declaration is signed by the:

a) The Pilot in Command only

b) The Pilot in Command or the Agent
c) Any flight crew member
d) The Operator

An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 1 7 F aci li ta tio n

1B 2A 3B 4C 5B

Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 1 8

2. What does the SAR signal "X" on the ground mean?

a) We need help
b) We are OK
c) We need medical supplies
d) We have gone away

4. For what period are SAR services to be provided by a Contracting State?

a) During the hours of operation of an FIR

b) On a 24 hour basis
c) hours before until 2 hours after the first flight arrives and the last departing flight within an FIR
d) During the hours of both commercial and military air operations within the FIR

5. Three aircraft are at the scene of an accident. Aircraft 1 arrives first but cannot contact ATC. Aircraft 2
arrives second and has good communications with ATC. Aircraft 3 arrives last and is an SAR aircraft.
Who assumes responsibility ?

a) Wait for aircraft 3 to arrive

b) Aircraft 2 because he has good communications with ATC
c) Aircraft 2 until aircraft 3 arrives
d) Aircraft 1 until aircraft 2 arrives who then passes control to aircraft 3

6 Which of the following means `Require assistance'?

a) Y
b) X
c) LL
d) V

7. When sighting a distress flare at night, you should:

a) Circle once
b) Flash landing lights or navigation lights
c) Rock wings
d) Send the letter R in Morse by lights to the downed aircraft
9. Who is responsible for the efficient organisation of an efficient SAR service?

a) FIC and RCC

b) RCC and rescue sub-centres
c) FIC, RCC and ACC
d) ICAO through regional navigation plans

10. What does the SAR ground signal "V" mean?

a) We have gone south

b) We need assistance
c) We need medical assistance
d) Yes

12. Using the visual SAR signals the symbol for "we have found all personnel" is:
a) ++
b) LLL
c) LL
d) Y

An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 1 8 S ear c h a nd Re sc u e

1A
2C
3C
4B
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8D
9B
10 B
I1 C
12 C
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 1 9

2. In ICAO Annex 17 (Security), what does Security mean?

a) To safeguard international civil aviation operations against Unlawful Interference
b) To safeguard international civil aviation operations
c) To safeguard international civil aviation operations against hijacking
d) To safeguard international civil aviation operations against terrorism

3. ICAO Annex 17 states that each State is responsible for establishing security at:
a) all aerial locations within the FIR
b) at each aerodrome serving international civil aviation
c) all international airports
d) all international and commercial airports

4. Contracting States must design a security programme, with regard to Unlawful Interference, to safeguard:
a) Passengers, cargo and crews for international flights
b) Passengers, crews, ground personnel and the general public
c) Crews only for international flights
d) Passengers, cargo and crews for international flights and, at their discretion, all of these for
domestic flights

5. If armed personnel are to be carried to ensure the safety of an aircraft, then:

a) the PIC must be informed
b) the state of departure must notify the state of arrival
c) the state of departure must notify the airport of arrival
d) all of the above

6. According to Annex 17, security is defined as "a combination of measures and human resources intended
to safeguard:
a) civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference"
b) international civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference"
c) international aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference"
d) aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference"

7. Operators are to ensure that procedures are detailed for the carriage of:

a) Deportees and people under lawful custody

b) Deportees, people under lawful custody and inadmissibles
c) Only people under lawful custody when physically restrained
d) Only deportees and inadmissibles

8. Airlines are to have procedures in place when carrying potentially disruptive passengers confined to:
a) Inadmissibles, deportees, persons in custody
b) Persons in custody
c) Inadmissibles, deportees
d) Deportees, persons in custody

9. An aircraft subjected to Unlawful Interference cannot be denied:

a) Permission to land and fuel
b) Air Traffic Services, permission to land and the use of navigational aids.
c) Food and water for the occupants of the aircraft
d) Air Traffic Services and fuel
10. To whom does the National Security organisation of a state have to make available a written version of
its national security programme for civil aviation?

a) ICAO and ECAC

b) ICAO
c) ECAC
d) Other States

11. For the transport of persons who are at risk for security and/or health, certain precautions should be
taken among which is to:
a) Embark after all other passengers
b) Embark before all other passengers
c) Embarking at the captain's discretion
d) Embarking at the State's discretion

12. An isolated parking area is to be provided for an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference which is
never less than ............ metres from other parking positions:
a) 1,000
b) 2,500
c) 3,000
d) 100

13. A national civil aviation security programme must be established by:

a) ICAO and other organisations including the Contracting States concerned
b) ICAO
c) All Contracting States
d) ECAC

14. Member States should ensure that specific security measures are conducted in the air transport of
undesirable passengers. These are seen as:
a) None of the answers are correct
b) Deportees, inadmissible passengers and persons in custody
c) Deportees and inadmissible passengers only
d) Deportees and persons in custody

15. The State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft subjected to
an act of unlawful interference until:
a) the end of the subsequent investigation
b) as such time as requested by the passengers and crew
c) their journey can be continued
d) they are returned to their country of origin

16. A person found to be inadmissible shall be given to the custody of the operator who shall be responsible
for:
a) transportation to where the person commenced his/her journey or to any place where the person
is admissible at the expense of the operator without redress.
b) transportation to where the person commenced his/her journey or to any place where the person
is admissible at the expense of the operator. However nothing precludes the operator from
recovering from such a person any transportation costs arising from his/her inadmissibility.
c) returning such a person to their country of origin
d) returning such a person to their normal residence

An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 1 9 S ec ur it y

1B 2A 3B 4B 5D 6B 7B 8A 9B 10 D
11B 12 D 13 A 14 B 15 C 16 B
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 2 0

1. According to ICAO, who is entitled to be represented on an Aeronautical Accident Investigation Board

(AAIB)?

a) State of Registry and state of aircraft manufacture

b) State of Registry, aircraft operator and state of operator
c) Any state which on request provides assistance or information to help the AAIB.
d) Any ICAO state

2. An aircraft wheel gets stuck in the mud whilst taxiing to the runway for take-off and sustains damage. Is
this:

a) an incident
b) an accident
c) a serious incident
d) covered by normal operating procedures

3. Who is responsible for the investigation of an accident?

a) State of Occurrence
b) State or Registry
c) ICAO
d) Combination of A and B

4. In which language must an accident report be submitted to ICAO?

a) An ICAO (working) language

b) English
c) Major national language
d) Any language of a contracting state

5. The sole purpose of Accident Investigation is the prevention of future accidents and:

a) Apportion blame
b) Nothing else
c) To improve manufacturing design
d) To help judicial investigations

6. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft must be allowed to resume its flight provided that:

a) the state where the aircraft is registered, the state where the aircraft is designed and the state
where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy, agree that the aircraft is still
airworthy.
b) the state where the aircraft is registered is of the opinion that the sustained damage is of such a
nature that the aircraft is still airworthy
c) the state where the aircraft is designed and the state where the prototype of the aircraft is
declared to be airworthy, send a message to the state where the aircraft is registered which says
that the aircraft is still airworthy
d) the state where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy has informed the state
where the aircraft is registered that the sustained damage is of such a nature that the aircraft is
still airworthy
7. Just before arrival at the apron, the aircraft unintentionally taxies onto the grass causing the wheel to ride
into a pothole. The aircraft has sustained serious damage and consequently the crew is forced to delay
the departure:

a) considering that there is no physical injury and that the flight has ended, the action that has to be
taken is merely constricted to notification of the insurance company, the mechanic, the operator
and persons who are in charge of runways and taxiways
b) This is an accident and the crew should follow the appropriate procedures
c) This is an incident and the captain has to report this to the aerodrome authority within 48 hours
d) This is an irregularity in the exploitation. This crew should inform the operator about the delay
caused by necessary repairs
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 2 0 Air cr a f t Ac cid e n t a nd I n cid e nt I n v e st i ga tio n

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2B
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5B
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Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 2 1

1. It has been raining but the surface of a runway has no patches of standing water on it. How would ATC
describe the state of the runway in this situation?

a. Wet
b. Damp
c. Not dry
d. Braking action poor

2. What information concerning contaminants on an aerodrome is reported by SNOWTAM?

a. Clear ice, rime ice and snow

b. Light snow, heavy snow and blizzard
c. Snow, ice and standing water
d. Wet snow, dry snow and frozen snow

4. Where a parking bay is provided at an aerodrome for the use by aircraft that have been subject to
unlawful interference, what is the minimum distance that parking bay is to be from other bays?

a. 50m
b. 100 m
c. 150 m
d. 200 m

5. What colour is taxiway centre line markings?

a. White
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Green/yellow

6. What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate?

a. The threshold
b. A temporary displaced threshold
c. A displace threshold
d. 1000 ft from the end zone

8. What marks a runway holding position?

a. One of three different line arrangements painted across the taxiway

b. Occulting yellow `guard' lights
c. A red marker board either side of the taxiway
d. A red light stop bar

9. What colour are apron safety lines?

a. White
b. Red
c. Green
d. A contrasting colour from the aircraft stand markings
10. Do all runways require centreline markings?

a. No, only paved runways

b. No, only runways over 50 m wide
c. No, only instrument runways
d. Yes, but temporary grass runways may be exempt if less than 1200m long

13. A NOTAM is to be issued to addressees for whom the information is of operational significance
provided they would not have ..... days prior notification. What number of days correctly fills the space?

a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9

14. What is an ASHTAM used for?

a. Notification of no smoking areas

b. Volcanic activity
c. Predicted volcanic eruptions
d. Aerodromes closed by volcanic ash contamination

16. On a runway with a length of 2500 m, how many pairs of touchdown zone markings are required?

a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 3

18. Which would you expect to find on a taxiway, at the closest point to a runway?

a. A stopbar
b. A pattern A runway holding position
c. Cat 1 holding point
d. A taxiway/runway intersection sign

19. For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of the runway is a `runway vacated' sign
positioned?

a. 30 m
b. at the end of the ILS/MLS sensitive area
c. 60 m
d. A distance equal to twice the width of the runway

20. Crash/rescue (emergency) services provision is categorised according to physical characteristics of the
type of aeroplane using the aerodrome. The categories are 1 - 10. Upon what are the categories based?

a. Length and max take-off mass

b. Max number of passengers and crew
c. Overall length and fuselage width
d. Max landing mass and max number of passengers
21. What is the ICAO bird strike information system called?

a. IBSI
b. IBIS
c. IRIS
d. BSIS

22. An obstacle that is required to be marked in the vicinity of an aerodrome where night operations are
carried out, is 180 m high. How is it to be lit?

a. High intensity white flashing lights

b. Red flashing lights
c. Steady (non flashing) red lights
d. A combination of red lights every 50 m and high intensity flashing white at 90 m and 180 m.

23. How is a paved pre-threshold area which is not suitable for use by aircraft, marked?

a. By white arrows directing approaching aircraft to the displaced threshold

b. By yellow chevrons pointing towards the threshold
c. By a yellow X
d. By white crosses evenly spaced

25. What is the purpose of a Crew Member's Certificate?

a. To permit aircrew temporary residence in en route countries

b. To allow flight crew to be exempt customs, health and immigration formalities at an enroute
aerodrome
c. To replace the crew member's licence
d. To provide identification of aircrew

26. When are Search and Rescue facilities are to be provided in the airspace of a state?

a. From 2 hours before until 2 hours after any flight enters/leaves the airspace
b. On a 24 hour basis
c. When a state of emergency has been declared
d. When the authority of the state deems necessary

29. What is the meaning of this SAR ‘N’visual signal when used by survivors on the ground?

a. Require assistance
b. Negative
c. Affirmative
d. Require medical assistance

31. 25% of the runway of a runway is covered with standing water. How would ATC describe the state of the
runway?

a. Water patches
b. Flooded
c. Damp
d. Wet
33. Two aircraft are departing from a reporting point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum track
separation required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the other aircraft's
level?

a. 15° and a distance of 15 nm or more

b. 15° and a distance of 15 Km or more
c. 30° and a distance of 15 nm or more
d. 30° and a distance of 15 Km or more

35. What track divergence angle is required immediately after take off to allow a departure interval of one
minute between successive departures from the same runway to be achieved?

a. 10°
b. 15°
c. 30°
d. 45°

37. For a separation of 2 minutes to be applied between successive departures on the same track, what is
the required speed difference?

a. The preceding aircraft must be 20kts faster than the following aircraft
b. The preceding aircraft must be 40kts faster than the following aircraft
c. The preceding aircraft must be 50kts faster than the following aircraft
d. The preceding aircraft must be 60kts faster than the following aircraft

38. What classifies an aeroplane as `heavy' for wake turbulence separation?

a. Wing span of 35m or more

b. Four turbojet engines
c. Take off mass of 145 000 kg
d. 245 passenger seats

40. What type of air traffic service is provided in class F airspace?

a. Air traffic advisory service to IFR flights and flight information to VFR
b. Air traffic advisory to all participating IFR traffic and flight information to others
c. Radar advisory service to participating traffic and flight information where no radar is
available
d. Air traffic control to participating traffic and advisory ATC to all other

41. What is required for aircraft flying IFR in advisory airspace but not electing to use the air traffic
advisory service?

a. Keep clear of all notified advisory routes

b. Fly at VFR flight levels
c. File a flight plan
d. Maintain a good look out for other IFR traffic using the service

42. An IFR flight not in receipt of an advisory service w ishes to cross an advisory route. What
procedure shall be used to cross the route'?

a. Cross at an intermediate level i.e FL75: FL95 etc..

b. Cross at 90° to the centre line at the appropriate IFR level
c. Cross at 90" to the centre line at the appropriate VFR level
d. Such crossings ire only to be made at the base of the airway
45. Which of the following is an approved method of identifying a contact on radar as an aeroplane to
which a service is to be given'?

a. The aircraft reporting his position as a range and bearing from the radar head
b. Observation of a SSR squawk
c. Observation on radar of a turn made by the aircraft
d. Aircraft compliance with an instruction to squawk ident

47. A MEDIUM wake turbulence category aircraft is following a HFAVY category aircraft on a
radar vectored approach to land. What is the minimum radar separation to be applied'?

a. 5 nm
b. 4 nm providing 1000 ft vertical separation also maintained
c. 6 nm until the speed of the heavy is reduced below wake turbulence threshold
d. There is no specified minimum for this case

50. You are flying IFR in controlled airspace and are advised that radar service is terminated. What must
you do?

a. Resume position reports

b. Squawk standby
c. Squawk A/2000
d. Leave controlled airspace

51. If you are flying a surveillance radar approach (non-precision), what information must the radar
controller pass to you?

a. Your distance from touchdown and observed deviation from the glide path
b. Distance from touchdown and advisory height information
c. Range and bearing from touchdown and when you are at MDH
d. Distance to run to your MDH and deviation from the extended centre line

53. Which of the following defines a visual approach?

a. When an instrument approach is not completed and visual reference to terrain is subsequently
maintained
b. An approach made under VFR using instrument height and track guidance
c. Any part of an instrument approach that is carried out in VMC
d. The circling portion of a precision approach to a runway other than the runway on which the
landing is to be made

54. What is the only item permitted to protrude through the plane of an approach lighting system within 60
m of the centre line?

a. An ILS or MLS azimuth (centreline guidance) antenna

b. A fixed object not more than 45 ft high
c. The ILS glidepath antenna
d. The aerodrome boundary security fence

55. What colour are runway edge lights?

a. Blue
b. Yellow
c. Red
d. White
56. Where a runway has a displaced threshold what colour are the edge lights between the end of the runway
and the displaced threshold, showing in the direction of the approach?

a. Blue
b. White
c. Red
d. Green

57. Are runway edge lights required to show all round (omni-directionally)?

a. No, only in the direction of the approach

b. Yes where they are intended to provide guidance during circling
c. No, they are only required to show in azimuth in both runway directions
d. Yes but not vertically (limited to 15° above the horizontal)

58. Which of the following correctly describes runway end lights?

a. Fixed; uni-directional; red

b. Fixed, omni-directional; red
c. Fixed; uni-directional; green
d. Fixed; omni-directional; green

61. Generally, when and where are stop bars provided'?

a. They are used as traffic lights on aerodromes to control vehicles in poor ground visibility
b. They are used specifically to indicate "stop here" to non radio traffic in IMC conditions
c. They are positioned at all taxi-holding positions for runways when RVR is less than
350m
d. At runway entrances to prevent vehicular movement in RVR equal to or less than 550m

64. Which of the following correctly defines aerodrome operating minima?

a. Cloud base and ground visibility for take off

b. Cloud ceiling and ground visibility for take off
c. Cloud base and RVR for take off
d. Cloud ceiling and RVR for take off.

65. What is the name of the part of an aerodrome used for the positioning of aircraft for the
embarkation/disembarkation of passengers?

a. Apron
b. Ramp
c. Stands
d. Parking Bays

66. What is the proper name given to a business that includes the provision of flights for the purpose of
public transport of passengers or cargo?

a. A scheduled air service

b. A commercial air operation
c. An air transport operation
d. An airline
67. What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft above the
relevant DH or MDH?

a. Glide path
b. Final approach
c. Approach to landing
d. Go around/Missed approach

71. What is the maximum permitted intercept angle between the initial approach track and the intermediate
approach track for a precision instrument approach?

a. 30°
b. 45°
c. 60°
d. 90°

72. Where does the missed approach procedure start?

a. At DH/MDH
b. At any point that the criteria to continue the approach is lost
c. At the missed approach point
d. Over the threshold of the instrument runway

73. If the ILS glide path transmitter fails during an instrument procedure can the approach be continued?

a. Yes, but DH now becomes MDH

b. Yes, but the non-precision criteria must be complied with
c. It depends if the descent on the GP has already been initiated
d. Yes if the flight is in VMC

74. Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment?

a. This is the segment in which speed and configuration are adjusted

b. It is not possible to guarantee full obstacle clearance in this segment
c. Usually track guidance is poor in this segment resulting in a requirement for a high MOC
d. Pilots cannot cope with track maintenance and a high rate of descent

75. A Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) Area may be sectored to exclude a prominent obstacle. Under what
circumstances is this is permitted?

a. Flight visibility of 1500 m or more and cloud ceiling of 850ft or more

b. The obstacle is outside the final approach or missed approach areas
c. The obstacle lies on the other side of the aerodrome from the threshold of the landing runway
d. The obstacle height for that obstacle is not more than 10% higher than the OCH calculated
without consideration of that obstacle

77. A holding pattern is established on a fix position with an inbound heading of 180° mag. You are
approaching the fix from the southwest. What type of joining procedure is required?

a. Offset join (sector 2)

b. Reverse direct (sector 3)
c. Teardrop procedure (sector 2)
d. Sector 1 (parallel)
78. You are required to carry out a sector 2 (offset) joining procedure to a holding pattern. What is the
required track divergence from the reciprocal inbound track from on top the fix towards the outbound
end?

a. 20°
b. 30°
c. 45°
d. 60°

79. It is normal for holding procedures at 14 000 ft and below to include an outbound leg of 1 minute
duration. How long is the outbound leg above 14 000 ft?

a. 1'/2 minutes
b. 2 minutes
c. 21/2 minutes
d. not specified

80. How much obstacle clearance is guaranteed at the edge of the buffer area (5 nm outside of the holding area)
of a holding pattern?

a. 300 m (1000 ft) (2000 ft in mountainous areas)

b. 150 m (500 ft)
c. 90 m (300 ft)
d. nil

81. Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?

a. Yes
b. No, where DME is used it may be specified in terms of distance
c. Yes even where DME is used the maximum length is always a time
d. No, where G/S is less than 65kts, the outbound leg must be at least 2 nm long

83. The QNH is 1040 Mb and you are flying over the sea at 800 ft. What (assuming the T/Alt is MSL) would
your flight level be?

a. FL 10
b. FL 0
c. FL -10
d. You have no intention of flying over the Dead Sea, therefore the question is totally academic!

84. After setting 1013 Mb at the transition altitude you have to climb 350 ft to the transition level (FL 40 )
which is the level you intend to fly en-route. Whilst climbing you are asked to report you vertical position.
How would you do this?

a. As a height above the transition altitude

b. As an altitude AMSL
c. As a FL with respect to the standard pressure setting of 1013 Mb
d. Tell the air traffic controller that you are already at FL 40 (it will take a short time to get there
anyway!)

85. Which of the following is true concerning the Transition Altitude?

a. It can be a general altitude applicable to all aerodromes in a state
b. The calculated height should be rounded down to the nearest 1000 ft
c. The transition altitude shall not be less than 3000 ft
d. The transition altitude must allow 1000 ft clearance above the top of the aerodrome traffic zone
91. What is a controlled flight?

a. A flight under IFR and in accordance with an Air Operators Certificate

b. A flight which is subject to an ATC clearance
c. A flight in controlled airspace in IFR or VFR
d. A flight by a manned aeroplane

92. What defines a danger area?

a. A zone where military activity includes firing projectiles in the air

b. Notified airspace (zone or area) where activities dangerous to flight may exist
c. NOTAM activated airspace where the normal flight rules are disregarded
d. Airspace of defined dimensions where activities dangerous to flight may exist

93. Which of the following correctly defines flight visibility?

a. The ability to determine in the air the distance and identity of unlit objects by day and lit objects
by night
b. Visibility determined in flight not obscured by cloud, dust, haze or precipitation
c. The forward distance at which objects can be discerned in the airwith reference to atmospheric
conditions
d. The forward visibility from the cockpit of an aeroplane

94. When does night exist?

a. During the hours of darkness

b. From 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes after sunrise
c. From the beginning of evening civil twilight until the beginning of morning civil twilight
d. During the period when the centre of the Sun's disc is 6° below the horizon

95. In order to fly as pilot-in-command for commercial air transport, you must hold a type rating on the
type of aeroplane you are required to fly. What must you pass to achieve the type rating?

a. A skill test including oral examinations as required

b. A proficiency check including oral examinations as required
c. Theoretical knowledge tests both written and oral
d. A flying performance check and a written type technical examination

96. Which of the following correctly defines Special VFR?

a. Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is
required to remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
b. A flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in conditions below VMC
c. A flight in IMC for which the pilot and/or the aeroplane is unable to comply with the
requirements of IFR
d. A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without
compliance with IFR

97. What is the name for a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle designed to allow aeroplanes
to turn off at higher speeds than would be permitted at a right angled turn on to a normal taxiway?

a. Rapid turn off lane

b. High speed exit lane
c. Rapid exit taxiway
d. Acute angle exit
99. Which of the following would be described as aerodrome traffic?

a. All the traffic on the movement area of an aerodrome

b. All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and flying in the vicinity of the
aerodrome
c. Local flying aeroplanes in or adjacent to the visual circuit.
d. Any traffic flying through the aerodrome traffic zone.

100. What is defined as: `A control area or portion thereof established in the form of a corridor equipped with
radio navigation aids'?

a. A terminal manoeuvring area

b. An upper air route
c. An airway
d. A SVFR entry/exit corridor

An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 2 1 N atio n al La w

1 A 26 B 51 B 76 B
2 C 27 A 52 B 77 D
3 B 28 A 53 A 78 B
4 B 29 B 54 A 79 A
5 C 30 B 55 D 80 D
6 C 31 A 56 C 81 C
7 A 32 A 57 B 82 C
8 C 33 C 58 A 83 B
9 D 34 D 59 A 84 C
10 A 35 D 60 A 85 A
11 B 36 A 61 C 86 A
12 C 37 B 62 D 87 A
13 C 38 C 63 D 88 B
14 B 39 B 64 D 89 C
15 D 40 B 65 A 90 C
16 A 41 C 66 C 91 B
17 D 42 B 67 C 92 D
18 B 43 D 68 A 93 D
19 B 44 B 69 B 94 D
20 C 45 D 70 C 95 D
21 B 46 A 71 D 96 B
22 A 47 A 72 C 97 C
23 D 48 C 73 B 98 C
24 C 49 D 74 A 99 B
25 D 50 A 75 B 100 C
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 2 2 Sec tio n -1

1. ICAO Annex 17 lays down the rules to establish security measures for passengers with regard to:

a. Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design.
b. Cabin baggage and checked baggage
c. Passenger baggage
d. Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods and access control

3. Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud
base is lower than

a. 1000 feet and less than 8 kms visibility

b. 2000 feet and less than 5 kms visibility
c. 1500 feet or less than 5 kms visibility
d. 1000 feet and less than 5 kms visibility

4. When requesting to engage the parking brake, a marshaller will give the following signal
a. Arms repeatedly crossed over the head
b. Arms placed down and crossed in front of the body moving horizontally
c. Raise arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in front of the body.Then clench fist.
d. Arms placed horizontally sideways with palms towards the ground beckoning downwards.

5. When doing a procedure turn (45°/180°) going outbound turned 45° off track, the time taken from the
beginning of the turn for Cat A and Cat B aircraft is

a. 1 minute 30 seconds
b. 1 minute
c. 1 minute 15 seconds
d. 2 minutes

6. Concerning the three entries to the hold, the entry has to be flown on

a. Heading
b. Track
c. Course
d. Bearing
7. When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall

a. Only use the word "wilco"

b. Only read back the code
c Only use the word "roger"
d Read back mode and code

8. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment, where the aircraft is lined up with the runway centre line
and when the decent is commenced is called

a Intermediate approach segment

b Initial approach segment
c Arrival segment
d Final approach segment

9. What does DER mean ?

a Distance end of route

b Departure end of runway
c Distance end of runway
d. Departure end of route

10. What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure ?

a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed

b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible
c Maintain your assigned altitude and land at the nearest aerodrome at which there are VMC
conditions
d Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

13. Who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft ?

a. The State
b. The Operator
c. The Commander
d. The owner
14. Who is responsible for the safety of an ATC clearance concerning terrain clearance ?

a the ATS reporting point when accepting the flight plan

b the Captain
c the Operator of the aircraft
d. ATC

16. For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least

a. 50 minutes before off-block time

b. 60 minutes before departure
c. 10 minutes before departure
d. 30 minutes before off-block time

17. An aircraft, on a radar approach, should be told to consider making a missed approach when the aircraft
is not visible on the radar screen for a significant period of time and when it is within

a the last 2 nms of the approach

b the last 5 nms of the approach
c the last 4 nms of the approach
d the last 3 nms of the approach

18. Clocks and other timing equipment used by air traffic services must be checked in order to be able to
give the time within plus or minus

a 15 seconds of UTC
b 10 seconds of UTC
c 30 seconds of UTC
d 1 minute of UTC
22. How many red lights have to be seen by the pilot, who's aircraft on final approach follows a normal
PAPI defined glide-path ?

a 2
b none
c 3
d 1

23. A Clearway is a squared area that is established to

a protect aircraft during take-off and landing

b to enable the aircraft to stop in the case of an aborted take-off
c to enable the aircraft to make a part of the initial climb to a specified altitude
d to decrease the risk of damage to aircraft which run off the end of the runway

25. When someone's admittance to a country is refused and he/she is brought back to the operator for
transportation away from the territory of the state

a the operator won't take any transportation costs from the passenger which arise from his/her
inadmissibility
b the operator is not responsible for that person, to whom the admittance to the host country is
refused
c the operator and state of the operator are both responsible for the refused person
d the operator will not be prevented from taking any transport costs from a person which arises
out of his/her inadmissibility
28. A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level
deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus

a. 10%
b. 3%
c. 5%
d. 2%

29. Concerning aircraft registration markings , no combinations can be used if they can be mistaken for

a. codes which are used for identification of ICAO documents

b. letter combinations beginning with Q
c. 3 letter combinations which are used by international code of signals
d. 5 letter combinations which are used by international code of signals

30. What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside
controlled airspace unless otherwise directed `?

a. 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 kms of the heading

b. 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 kms of the estimated position of the aircraft
c. 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 rims of the planned track
d. 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 rims of the planned track
33. The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the

a. pilot in command
b. operator
c. ATC Controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace
d. owner of the aircraft

34. Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless

a. they operate outside controlled airspace

b. if asked by ATC
c. with are within controlled airspace
d. they operate a transponder with mode C

36. It is permitted in a particular sector, if there is a conspicuous obstacle in the visual maneuvering area
outside the final and missed approach areas, to disregard that obstacle. When using this option, the
published procedure shall be

a. circling is only permitted in VMC

b. recommended not to execute a circling approach in the entire sector in which the obstacle is
situated.
c. prohibit a circling approach for the concerned runway
d. forbid a circling approach in the entire sector in which the obstacle is located

37 If the track on an instrument departure is published the pilot is expected to

a. correct for the known wind so as to stay within controlled airspace

b. ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind
c. ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track
d. ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

38. Close to an aerodrome that will be used for landing by aircraft, the vertical position shall be expressed as

a. altitude above sea level on or above transition altitude

b. flight level on or under the transition altitude
c. flight level on or under the transition level
d. altitude above sea level at or below transition altitude

39. A manoeuvre where a turn is made from a "designated track" followed by a turn in the opposite direction
to enable the aircraft to fly the prescribed track is called

a. Base turn
b. Reverse track
c. Race track
d. Procedure turn
40. The transition of altitude to flight level and visa versa is made

a. On the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent
b. At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent
c. At the transition level only
d. At the transition altitude only

41. Lights on an airfield or in the vicinity can be extinguished if they can be re-lit

a. At least 5 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft

b. At least 15 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft
c. At least 30 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft
d. At least 60 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft

42. Air Traffic Service unit consists of

a. Air Traffic Control Units and Flight Information Centers

b. Flight Information Centers and Air Services Reporting offices
c. Air Traffic Control Units, Flight Information Centers and Air Traffic Services Reporting offices
d. Air Services Reporting offices and Air Traffic Control Units

44. When the captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance

a. the Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan.
b. he/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance.
c. he/she may ask a new clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance
d. he/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

45. The transition from IFR to VFR is done

a. on the Captain's initiative

b. whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace
c. if told by ATC
d. at the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

46. According to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees magnetic converted
with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction

a. before landing and taxi for take-off

b. in anticipation of the upper wind for areas North of 60° N and South of 60° S
c. when an aircraft is requested by the meteorological office or on specified points to give a PIREP
d. when the local variation is greater than 10°East or West
47. The longitudinal separation minimum based on time between aircraft at the same FL, where there is
enough coverage for navigation aids and the preceding aircraft has a higher true airspeed of 20 kts
minimum is

a. 3 minutes
b. 15 minutes
c. 5 minutes
d. 10 minutes

49. What is the length of the approach lighting system of a Cat II precision landing runway ?

a. 900m
b. 600m
c. 300m
d. 150m

50. A PAPI must consist of

a. A row of 4 multiple at equal distance from each other

b. Two rows of 4 multiple at equal distance from each other
c. A row of 2 multiple at equal distance from each other
d. Two rows of 6 multiple at equal distance from each other

51. Lights at the end of the runway shall be

a. Steady unidirectional lights radiating white light in the direction of the runway
b. Steady white lights with controllable intensity
c. Steady omnidirectional red lights with controllable intensity
d. Steady unidirectional lights radiating red light in the direction of the runway

52. An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if

a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures

b. The aircraft receives radar vectors
c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain
visual contact
d. All of the above
54. The VMC minima for a VFR flight within ATS airspace class B are

a. 8 km visibility at or above 3050m AMSL and clear of cloud

b. 5 rims visibility at or above 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of
cloud
c. 8 kms visibility at or above 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of cloud
d. 5 rims visibility at or above 3050m AMSL and clear of cloud

55. The minimum response time for the aerodrome rescue and fire fighting services to the end of
each runway as well as to any other part of the movement area is

a. 3 minutes and not exceeding 4 minutes

b. 2 minutes and not exceeding 3 minutes
c. 2 minutes and not exceeding 4 minutes
d. 3 minutes and not exceeding 5 minutes

58. A marshaller crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outwards and then moves the arms
outwards. What does this signal indicate ?

a. clear to move forward

b. brakes off
c. remove chocks
d. clear to close all engines

59. What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace ?

a. No flight plan required

b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory
service or not.
c. Flight plan required but PIC need not notify of any changes
d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required
61. A Type Rating is applicable to

a. An aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness

b. An aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State
c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation
d. An aircraft that requires additional skills training

62. If an aircraft is radar vectored to intercept a ILS localiser, what is that maximum intercept angle ?

a. 45°
b. 30°
c. 15°
d. 20°

63. What are the objectives of ATC Services

a. To prevent collisions between aircraft, to prevent collisions between aircraft on the

maneuvering area and obstructions on that area and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow
of air traffic.
b. To prevent collisions between controlled aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow
of air traffic.
c. To provide separation of aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic.
d. To provide separation of controlled aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of
air traffic.
67. A TODA consists of

a. The take-off run available excluding the clearway

b. The take-off run available including the clearway
c. The take-off run available excluding the stopway
d. The take-off run available only

68. The continued validity of a C of A of an aircraft is subject to the laws of

a. The State of Registration

b. The State of Registration ands the State of the Operator
c. The State of the Operator
d. The State of Registry and the State of Design

69. ATIS will only broadcast cloud base information when the cloud base is

a. 3 000 ft
b. 5 000 ft
c. When Cb's are present
d. When the cloud base is below MSA

71. Voice ATIS

1. cannot be broadcasted on a voice ILS
2. cannot be broadcasted on voice VOR
3. is broadcasted only on a discreet VFH frequency
4. is broadcasted on either a discreet VFH, VOR or an ILS frequency

a. 1 only is correct
b. 2 only is correct
c. 4 only is correct
d. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
76. What is the meaning of the symbol LLL search parties ?

a. We have only found some personnel

b. We have found all personnel
c. Operation completed
d. Nothing found
83. A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a Cargo Manifest shall, apart from the
information indicated in the heading of the format of the cargo manifest, not require more than the
following items

a. Airway bill number, and the number of packages only

b. Total weight and the number of packages only
c. Total weight and the nature of the goods only
d. Airway bill number, the number of packages and the nature of goods

85. Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under a procedure applicable to

a Accompanied baggage or under a simplified customs procedure distinct and different from that
normally applicable to other cargo
b. Cargo
c. Dangerous Goods
d. Mail
86. An area symmetrical about the extended runway centreline and adjacent to the end of the strip, primarily
intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aircraft undershooting or overrunning the runway is defined
as a

a. Clearway
b. Runway Strip Extension
c. Runway end safety area
d. Altimeter Operating Area Extension

87. For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of the runway is a "runway vacated" sign
positioned ?

a. To a distance of the nearest Pattern `A' holding position

b. At the end of the ILS/MLS Sensitive Area
c. It depends on the Aerodrome Category
d. 85 metres

88. What is required if a stop bar is not provided at a runway entrance and runway is to be used with RVR of
less than 550m

a. Both a Pattern `A' and `B' holding position

b. High intensity taxiway centerline lights only
c. Runway guard lights
d. Both high intensity taxiway centerline lights and high intensity taxiway edge lights

90. ATIS broadcasts should contain cloud details, when

a. they are below 2,500m

b. they are below 1,500m or MSA, whichever is the greater.
c. they are below 1,000m
d. they are below 1,000m or MSA, whichever is the greater.

91. What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach

a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach
b. Land on the instrument runway
c. Initiate a missed approach
d. Return to the FAF
93. When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by
the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in
addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to

a. each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained
as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO.
b. ICAO only
c. each State whose citizens were known to be on board only
d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

95. When a State renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of
its own license, the validity shall

a. not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of the license.

b. not extend beyond the period of validity of the license
c. be at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid
d. be at the discretion of ICAO

96. Where in the AIP would you find details on instrument holding procedures ?

a. GEN
b. ENR
c. AD
d. AGA

97. The loading limitations shall include:

a. All limiting mass and centres of gravity

b. All limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loading
c. All limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loading
d. All limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity

98. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:

a. Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.

b. Aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
c. Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
d. Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the
Chicago convention.
102 If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language
is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted
aircraft to descend for landing?

a. Let down
b. Descend
c. Descend for landing
d. You land

103. An aircraft manoeuvrings in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower.
This signifies that the aircraft must:

a. do not land because the airport is not available for landing.

b. give way to another aircraft.
c. return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.
d. not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.

104. Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio
failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?

a. Switching on and off three times the landing lights

b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
c. Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights
105. The main factor/s that dictate/s in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is/are:

a. the terrain surrounding the aerodrome.

b. ATC availability and requirements.
c. availability of navigation aids.
d. airspace restrictions applicable and in force.

106. One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is:
a. The landing runway and an alternative landing possibility (runway) are in sight.
b. The required visual references have been established and can be maintained.
c. The Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.
d. The horizontal Visibility is at least 5 NM and the Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.

107. If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any
particular holding pattern, he should:

a. advise ATC as early as possible.

b. execute a non-standard holding pattern in accordance with the performance of his aeroplane.
c. remain within the protected area, but may deviate from the prescribed holding.
d. follow the radio communication failure procedure.

108. The Transition Level:

a. shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
b. shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established.
c. is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIR
d. is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command.

109. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode

a. only when directed by ATC.

b. unless otherwise directed by ATC.
c. only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
d. regardless of ATC instructions

112. Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
a. Achieving separation between IFR flights
b. Achieving separation between controlled flights
c. Providing advisory service
d. Providing flight Information Service

114. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace
below FL 290 is:

a. 500 feet (150 m).

b. 2500 feet (750 m).
c. 1000 feet (300 m).
d. 2000 feet (600 m).

116. For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be
reduced:

a. If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests

b. Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight
c. When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able
to maintain own separation
d. At the discretion of the air traffic controller
117. In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a
medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway?

a. 3 minutes
b. 2 minutes
c. 1 minute
d. 4 minutes

119. When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restore is impossible, then:

a. you must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which the ATC will endeavor to provide for
continuation of the flight;
b. departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
c. you are not allowed to commence the flight
d. the flight can only continue in the most direct manner;

123. In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre
line have a length of:

a. 250 m.
b. 200 m.
c. 150 m.
d. 300 m.

124. When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory
of the state, the operator:

a. shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his
(her) inadmissibility.
b. shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility
c. is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state
d. the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible

125. Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation?

a. The Authority of the State in which the accident took place.
b. The Operators of the same aircraft type.
c. The aircraft manufacturer.
d. The State of design and manufacturer.

126. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the
responsibility of the

a. operational air traffic control centres

b. flight information or control organizations
c. air traffic co-ordination services
d. search and rescue co-ordination centres

127. An aircraft intercepted by a military aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication
with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies

a. 121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 243.0 MHz

b. 121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 406.0 MHz
c. 121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 282.0 MHz
d. 243.0 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 121.5 MHz
129. Except in special cases, the establishment of change-over points shall be limited to route segments of:

a. 1 00nms or more
b. 75nms or more
c. 60nms or more
d. 50nms or more

130 The body, which governs licensing of pilot licenses or the equivalent documents, must decide if the
experience of the pilot in training done on a simulator is acceptable as part of the total flying time of
1500 hours. Exemption from such experience shall be limited to a maximum of

a. 100 hours, of which not more than 15 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a
synthetic flight trainer
b. 75 hours, of which not more than 20 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a
synthetic flight trainer
c. 100 hours, of which not more than 20 hours may be done on a synthetic flight trainer
d. 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a basic
instrument flight trainer

131. When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall

a. Only use the word "wilco"

b. Only read back the code
c Only use the word "roger"
d Read back mode and code

132. Who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft ?

a. The State
b. The Operator
c. The Commander
d. The owner

133. Who is responsible for the safety of an ATC clearance concerning terrain clearance ?

a the ATS reporting point when accepting the flight plan

b the Captain
c the Operator of the aircraft
d TC

134 An aircraft, on a radar approach, should be told to consider making a missed approach when the aircraft
is not visible on the radar screen for a significant period of time and when it is within

a the last 2 rims of the approach

b the last 5 rims of the approach
c the last 4 rims of the approach
d the last 3 rims of the approach
136. The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the

a. pilot in command
b. operator
c. ATC Controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace
d. owner of the aircraft

137. Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless

a. they operate outside controlled airspace

b. if asked by ATC
c. with are within controlled airspace
d. they operate a transponder with mode C

138. Lights on an airfield or in the vicinity can be extinguished if they can be re-lit

a. At least 5 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft

b. At least 15 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft
c. At least 30 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft
d. At least 60 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft

139. Air Traffic Service unit consists of

a. Air Traffic Control Units and Flight Information Centres

b. Flight Information Centres and Air Services Reporting offices
c. Air Traffic Control Units, Flight Information Centres and Traffic Air Services Reporting offices
d. Air Services Reporting offices and Air Traffic Control Units

140. According to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees magnetic converted
with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction

a. before landing and taxi for take-off

b. in anticipation of the upper wind for areas North of 60° N and South of 60° S
c. when an aircraft is requested by the meteorological office or on specified points to give a PIREP
d. when the local variation is greater than 10° East or West
141. A PAPI must consist of

a. A row of 4 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from each
other
b. Two rows of 4 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from
each other
c. A row of 2 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from each
other
d. Two rows of 6 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from
each other

146. Contracting States shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall comply
with the documentary procedures as proscribed by

a. The Acts in force of the Universal Postal Union

b. The Acts in force of the General Postal Union
c. The Acts in force of the Warsaw Convention
d. The Acts in force of the International Postal Union
147. Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under a procedure applicable to

a Accompanied baggage or under a simplified customs procedure distinct and different from that
normally applicable to other cargo
b. Cargo
c. Dangerous Goods
d. Mail

148. ATIS broadcasts should contain cloud details, when

a. they are below 2,500m

b. they are below 1,500m or MSA, whichever is the greater.
c. they are below 1,000m
d. they are below 1,000m or MSA, whichever is the greater.

150. When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by
the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in
addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to

a. each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained
as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO
b. ICAO only
c. each State whose citizens were known to be on board only
d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 2 2 Sp ec i me n Q ue s tio n s

An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 2 2 Sp eci me n Q ue s tio n s

Sec tio n -1

1A 41 D 81 B 121 B
2C 42 C 82 C 122 B
3C 43 A 83 D 123 D
4C 44 B 84 A 124 A
5B 45 A 85 A 125 A
6A 46 A 86 C 126 A
7D 47 C 87 B 127 A
8D 48 D 88 C 128 D
9B 49 A 89 D 129 C
10 B 50 A 90 B 130 D
11 D 51 D 91 C 131 D
12 A 52 D 92 B 132 C
13 C 53 C 93 A 133 B
14 B 54 C 94 D 134 A
15 A 55 B 95 B 135 A
16 B 56 A 96 B 136 A
17 A 57 A 97 B 137 B
18 C 58 C 98 A 138 D
19 B 59 B 99 A 139 C
20 D 60 A 100 B 140 A
21 A 61 C 101 A 141 A
22 A 62 A 102 B 142 C
23 C 63 A 103 A 143 C
24 B 64 C 104 B 144 A
25 D 65 B 105 A 145 B
26 A 66 D 106 B 146 A
27 C 67 B 107 A 147 A
28 D 68 A 108 A 148 B
29 D 69 B 109 B 149 B
30 B 70 A 110 C 150 A
31 D 71 A 111 D 151 D
32 D 72 C 112 B
33 A 73 A 113 B
34 B 74 D 114 C
35 D 75 C 115 B
36 D 76 C 116 C
37 A 77 B 117 B
38 D 78 C 118 A
39 D 79 119 B
40 B 80 A 120 B
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 2 2 Sec tio n -2

1 The `standards' contained in the annexes to the Chicago Convention are to be considered

a. Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states
b. Binding for all member states
c. Binding for all member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
d. Binding for all airline companies with international traffic

5 It is suspected that a person on board an aircraft will commit an act that would jeopardise the safety of
the aircraft; the PIC may
a. request the crew to detain the passenger
b. ask the passenger to disembark
c. order the other passengers to detain the passenger in question
d. hand him her over to the authorities

7 Which of the following is not permitted in the registration mark of an aircraft?

a. Four letter Q codes

b. Five letter international identification signals
c. Three letter international identification signals
d. Any number identifying an ICAO document

10 The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot under supervision of the PIC and performing the
functions and duties of the PIC shall be entitled to be credited:
a. with 50% of the flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
b. in full, but not more than 300hrs towards the total time require for a higher grade of licence.
c. the flight time in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
d. the flight in full toward the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence according to
the requirements of the licensing authority.

11. For an ATPL(A), how many night hours are required:

a. 30
b. 75
c. 100
d. 150

12 When you are a newly qualified flying instructor (A) you have to be supervised by a senior flying
instructor. When will supervision cease?

a. Once you have passed a competency check

b. When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 25 students solo
c. When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 100 students solo
d. When you have completed 100 hours solo

14 What is the period of validity of a PPL class 2 medical in according to regulations?

a. 24 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65, then 6 months
thereafter
b. 24 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65
c. 60 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65, then 6 months
thereafter
d. 60 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65
16 A CPL applicant undergoing integrated flight training shall be completed

a. 150 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time

b. 150 hours flight time
c. 200 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time
d. 200 hours flight time

21 What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a S VFR flight to take off from an aerodrome in a
CTR?

a. 1000m
b. 1500m
c. 2000m
d. 3000m

22 In a holding pattern, turns are to be made at:

a. Rate of turn of 3°/sec

b. Rate of turn of 3°/sec or 20° bank whichever is lesser
c. Rate of turn of 3°/sec or at a bank angle of 25° whichever is lesser
d. Bank angle of 25°

25 What is the climb gradient required during the intermediate segment of a missed approach?

a. 5.5%
b. 2.5%
c. 0.8%
d. 3.3%

27 In general, for a straight in non-precision approach, the MDA/H will be not less than

a. OCH/A
b. 200ft
c. 350ft
d. 400ft

28 What is the airspeed for holding area construction for a CAT B aircraft in a hold under normal
conditions at 4,250 metres (14,000 ft) ?

a. 0.83 Mach
b 490 km/hr (265 kts)
c 315 km/hr (170 kts)
d 520 km/hr (280 kts)

29 For the intermediate section of a missed approach, what is the minimum obstacle clearance:

a. 30m
b. 100m
c. 50m
d. 120m
30 At what distance does an SRA normally terminate:

a. 2nm
b. 1 nm
c. 3nm
d. ½ nm

31 What is the Cat 2 ILS criteria for instrument runways

a. RVR 300-450m DH not below 100ft

b. RVR 200 DH not below 100ft
c. RVR 200 DH not below 200ft
d. RVR 300 DH not below 200ft

33 Within what angle of the extended centre line of a runway is a non-precision approach considered to be
straight in?

a. 10°
b. 15°
c. 30°
d. 40°

34 The 45° leg of a 45/270° procedure turn for a Cat C aircraft is:

a. 1 min
b. 1 min 15 seconds
c. 1 min 30 seconds
d. Continued until interception of the glide slope

37 The Vth for a Category B aircraft is

a. Up to 91 kts
b. 90 to 121 kts inclusive
c. 141 to 165 kts inclusive
d. 91 to 120 kts inclusive

38 When using a DR segment to take up an ILS instrument approach, what is the maximum length of the
track that may be used to intercept the localiser ?

a. 10 nms
b. 5 nms
c. 10 minutes
d. 5 minutes

40 The minimum sector altitude gives an obstacle clearance if 300 metres within a certain radius from the
navigation aid on which the instrument procedure is based. This radius is

a. 15 nms (28 kms)

b. 30 nms (55 kms)
c. 25 nms (46 kms)
d. 20 nms (37 kms)
42 What is the speed limit below 10,000 ft in Class E airspace ?

a. 250 kts TAS

b. 250 kts IAS
c. Not applicable
d. 200 kts IAS

43 What is the definition of the Emergency Phase ?

a. The Distress Phase

b. The Alarm Phase
c. The Alert Phase
d. A generic term meaning as the case maybe the Uncertainty Phase, the Alert Phase or the
Distress Phase

45 Danger, Prohibited and Restricted areas must be designated by

a. country identifier, followed by P/D/R, followed by the identifier

b. country identifier followed by P/D/R
c. P/D/R followed by the identifier
d. country identifier followed by numbers

52 What are the contents of section 2 of an AIREP ?

a present position and ETA

b estimated time over the FIR boundary and endurance
c estimated elapsed time (EET) and endurance
d ETA and endurance

53 If you want to descend through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the minimum separation is

a. 20 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 5 minutes
d. 15 minute

54 If two aircraft are using the same VOR, by what lateral distance must the aircraft be separated before one
of the two may commence a climb or descent'?

a. 5 nm
b. 10 nm
c. 15 nm
d. 20 nm

55 What is the separation standard between aircraft at the same altitude when using DME to determine
range from a beacon?

a. 10 nm where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second
b. 10 nm where the first aircraft speed is 20 kts faster than the second
c. 20 nm where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second
d. 20 nm where the first aircraft speed is 20 kts faster than the second
56 The longitudinal separation minimum, based on time between two aircraft at the same altitude, for which
navigation aids can give a frequent determination of position and speed and when the proceeding aircraft
has a true airspeed of at least 40 kts higher than the following aircraft, is

a. 5 minutes
b. 6 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. 3 minutes

58 Where an aeroplane is approaching to land, what is the maximum time spacing applied between that
aeroplane and any other taking off in any direction?

a. 3 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. 2 minutes

59 On departure a 1 minute separation can be applied if the aircraft fly on diverging tracks immediately
after take-off at least

a. 45°
b. 15°
c. 30°
d. 20°

61 What is separation for a light aircraft taking off after a medium aircraft providing they are both using the
same runway?

a. 5 min
b. 3 min
c. 1 min
d. 2 min

62 Between two aircraft on the same track what is the minimum radar separation which must be provided
for wake turbulence is

a. 4 nms
b. 2.5 nms
C. 2 nms
d. 3 nms

63 A heavy aircraft has made a missed approach to a runway in the opposite direction to normal take-off.
What is the separation required for a light aircraft taking off ?

a. 2 minutes
b. 3 minutes
c. 1 minute
c. 5 minutes
64 Radar separation may be applied before an aircraft taking off and a preceding departing aircraft
providing the departing aircraft can be identified from the end of the runway within
a. 5nm
b. 3nm
c. 2nm
d. 1 nm
65 What is the minimum radar separation for two aircraft established on the same localiser?

a. 5 nm
b. 5 nm when the first a/c is 20 kits faster than the second
c. 10 nm
d. 20 nm

68 A radar controller can request an aircraft to change speed when it is on the intermediate and final
approach phase, except in certain conditions specified by the proper ATS authority. The speed change
must not be more than

a. ± 15 kts
b. ± 8 kts
c. ± 10 kts
d. ± 20 kts

69 The minima that must be applied to aircraft which are landing after a "heavy" or "medium" aircraft
complying with wake turbulence separation on a timed approach is

a. light aircraft behind medium aircraft ; 4 minutes

b. medium aircraft behind medium aircraft ; 2 minutes
c. medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft ; 3 minutes
d. medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft ; 2 minutes

70 An integrated aeronautical information package consists of

a. AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins
(PIBs), AICs, checklists and summaries.
b. AIP and amendment service„ NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, AIRACs,
checklists and summaries.
c. AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, AIRACs, AICs, checklists and
summaries.
d. AIP & Supplements, AIRACs, NOTAMs and pre-flight bulletins

79 An object of limited mobility (an air bridge for example) is lit by

a. low intensity steady red lights

b. low intensity flashing red lights
c. medium intensity steady red lights
d. medium intensity flashing red lights

82 Who is responsible for the efficient organisation of an efficient SAR service?

a. FIC and RCC

b. RCC and rescue sub-centres
c. FIC, RCC and ACC
d. ICAO through regional navigation plans

83 Using the visual SAR signals the symbol for "we have found all personnel" is

a. ++
b. LLL
c. LL
d. Y
84 According to Annex 17, security is defined as "a combination of measures and human resources
intended to safeguard

a. civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference

b. international civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference
c. international aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference
d. aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference

85 When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft must be allowed to resume its flight provided that

a. the state where the aircraft is registered, the state where the aircraft is designed and the state
where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy, agree that the aircraft is still
airworthy.
b. the state where the aircraft is registered is of the opinion that the sustained damage is of such
a nature that the aircraft is still airworthy
c. the state where the aircraft is designed and the state where the prototype of the aircraft is
declared to be airworthy, send a message to the state where there aircraft is registered which
says that the aircraft is still airworthy
d. the state where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy has informed the state
where the aircraft is registered that the sustained damage is of such a nature that the aircraft is
still airworthy
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s – C hap ter 2 2 Sp eci me n Q ue s tio n s

Sec tio n -2

1C 44. A
2A 45. A
3D 46. A
4D 47. C
5D 48. B
6B 49. A
7B 50. C
8C 51. A
9C 52. D
10 C 53 B
11 C 54. C
12 B 55. B
13 C 56. D
14 C 57. D
15 D 58. B
16 B 59. A
17 C 60. A
18 C 61. D
19 B 62. A
20 D 63. A
21 B 64. D
22 C 65. A
23 A 66. D
24 C 67. D
25 B 68. D
26 B 69. D
27 A 70. A
28 C 71. C
29 A 72. D
30 A 73. A
31 A 74. B
32 A 75. C
33 C 76. A
34 B 77. B
35 A 78. A
36 D 79. A
37 D 80. C
38 A 81. A
39 D 82. B
40 C 83. C
41 D 84. B
42 B 85. B
43 D