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GENERAL EDUCATION – SECONDARY SET A SEPTEMBER 2015

GENERAL EDUCATION – 150 ITEMS


General Instructions:
1. This test booklet contains 150 test questions. Examinees shall manage to use the 2 hours.
2. Read INSTRUCTIONS EXAMINEES printed on your answer sheet.
3. Shade only one (1) box each question on our answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded
will invalidate your answer.
4. AVOID ERASURES.
5. This PRC property. Unauthorized possession, reproduction, and/or sale of this test
booklet are punished by law. (R.A. 8981)
INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinees ID/Answer sheet Set.
2. Write the subject title “GENERAL EDUCATION” on the box provided.
3. Shade Set Box “A” on your answer sheet if your test booklet A; Set “B” if your test
booklet is Set B.
MULTIPLE CHOICES
1. Many a child _______ left to the care of the relatives while the parents work.
A. Are C. Has Been
B. Is D. Will be
2. She hurt ______ when she was slicing the onions.
A. Himself C. Ourselves
B. Myself D. Herself
3. If you forgot ______ textbook, you can use _____, Mark.
A. Yours, your C. Your, mine
B. His, hers D. Our, hers
4. Mr. Tolentino was concerned about the safety of motorists and so he issued circular
containing _________ safety instructions.
A. Himself C. His
B. Themselves D. Their
5. The green revolution refers to food production by planting vegetables and fruit trees. A
natural resources that has not been sufficiency developed is the world’s bodies of water
which promise abundant source of food. Referred to as blue revolution this food refers to
_______.
A. Corals C. Algae
B. Fish D. Seashells
6. Some animals perform services to assist man. Canines serve in war and in peace. Cats
safeguard the home from pests. Pigeons can transmit messages. These possible if these
animals are _________.
A. Fed C. Trained
B. Drugged D. Kept
7. Read the paragraph and answer the item that follows.
Nelson Mandela sacrificed so much in his life – family, friends and a big chunk of
his life for things he believed in a democratic South Africa, with equal rights and
a beacon of hope for the rest of the world.
Nelson Mandela’s dream for South Africa, which was realized, was _____.
A. Cooperation C. Democracy
B. Unity D. Supremacy
8. Read the paragraph and answer the item that follows.
“As far back as I can remember, our family had always been an extended one.
Our grandmother was the mainstay in the family, the silent strength behind our
mother who is her daughter.”
GENERAL EDUCATION – SECONDARY SET A SEPTEMBER 2015

The informal guide and honorary household chief in the extended family is the
______.
A. Grandmother C. Father
B. Mother D. Aunt
9. Shirley has not forgotten that she was betrayed by her best friend and carried such _____ in
her deeply offended heart for a long time.
A. Rancor C. Souvenir
B. Doubt D. Offense
10. Even when her friends betray her, Perla bears no rancor in her heart because she is not
_____.
A. Embarrassed C. Bitter
B. Consoled D. Insulted
11. Clara would any book or magazines she could lay her hands on and read from cover in one
sitting. She is such a ______ reader.
A. Tedious C. Leisurely
B. Serious D. Voracious
12. A lot of water ______ needed to irrigate the parched land.
A. Is C. Is being
B. Are being D. Are
13. You ______ finished eating before we arrive.
A. Have C. Have been
B. Should D. Will have
14. Let us campaign for the total ban ______ of the insecticides.
A. On the use C. On using
B. With the use D. With using
15. “She is a vision of feminine pulchritude”. The underlined word means ________.
A. Homeliness C. Plain
B. Loveliness D. Ugliness
16. “If you want the moon I will get it for you” is an example of ______.
A. Hyperbole C. Irony
B. Synecdoche D. Personification
17. “We listened to a loquacious speaker.” The underlined word means ______.
A. Quiet C. Verbose
B. Simple D. Lousy
18. What emotion or feeling is expressed in the following lines?
To be, or not to be, that is the question,
whether ‘tis nobler in the mid to suffer the slings and arrows of outrageous
Fortune, or to take arms against a Sea of Troubles, and by opposing end them?
A. Sadness C. Joy
B. Anger D. Indecision
19. How is “mercy” described in the following lines?
The quality of mercy is not strained,
It dropped as the gentle rain from heaven
Upon the place beneath; it is twice blest;
It blessed him that gives and him that takes.
A. Everybody deserves mercy C. Mercy drop as rain
B. Mercy is difficult to give D. Mercy is given only to few
20. What figure of speech is the following: “He is the black sheep of the family.”
A. Metaphor C. Hyperbole
B. Simile D. Alliteration
21. “The princess is a phantom of delight” is _______.
A. Simile C. Metaphor
GENERAL EDUCATION – SECONDARY SET A SEPTEMBER 2015

B. Hyperbole D. Irony
22. Poem which is usually composed of fourteen lines which follow specific patterns of rhyme
is called ____.
A. Haiku C. Elegy
B. Sonnet D. Free verse
23. …” it dropped as a gentle rain from heaven” is what figure of speech?
A. Personification C. Metaphor
B. Simile D. Hyperbole
24. Haiku is a traditional Japanese poem consisting of ______.
A. Three lines totaling 17 syllables with nature as topic
B. Eight lines ending in rhyming couplet with death as topic
C. Four lines that rhyme with love as topic
D. Lines of poetry in free verse with ordinary thing as topic
25. Jose Rizal’s novel which revealed the abuses of the Spanish government in the Philippines
and the sufferings of the Filipinos.
A. Noli Me Tangere C. La Solidaridad
B. Mi Ultimo Adios D. La Independencia
26. Ang mga salitang teka, san, tena, dali ay nagtataglay ng _____.
A. Pagkaltas C. Metatesis
B. Tono D. Asimilasyon
27. Tumukoy ito sa taas-baba ng bigkas ng pantig ng isang salita upang mabisa ang pakikipag-
usap.
A. Diin C. Tono
B. Antala D. Segmental
28. Ang mga salitang tanaw, aliw, kamay, reyna ay mga halimbawa ng ______.
A. Diptonggo C. Klaster
B. Pares minimal D. Ponema
29. Uri ng pangatnig na ginagamit sa pagpili, pagbubukod at pagtatangi ay ______.
A. Pamukod C. Paninsay
B. Panapos D. Panlinaw
30. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang nararapat sa komunikasyon na pasulat?
A. Pagkibit ng balikat C. Lakas ng boses
B. Maliksing mga mata D. Maayos na pagpapalugit
31. Isang barayti ng wika na tumutukoy sa wikang nalilikha batay sa dimensyong heograpiko.
Ito ang wikang ginagamit sa isang partikular na rehiyon, lalawigan o pook, malaki man o
maliit.
A. Ekolek C. Etnolek
B. Dayalek D. Sosyalek
32. Ang wikang nabuo mula sa pangunahing wika ng isang lugar o lalawigan na kadalasang
sinasalita sa ibang bayan ng naturang lalawigan ay tinatawag na ________.
A. Ekolek C. Dayalek
B. Etnolek D. Sosyalek
33. Bantas na ginagamit sa pagitan ng panlalaping ika at tambilang.
A. Gitling C. Panaklong
B. Kuwit D. Tuldok
34. Ang pariralang naglaglag-nahulog ay napapakahulugan ng ______.
A. Magkahawig C. Magkapares
B. Magkasalungat D. Idyoma
35. Ano ang kahulugan ng “Neneng is the apple of Daddy’s eyes”?
A. Paborito ni Daddy ang mansanas C. Si Neneng ay tulad ng mansanas
B. Mahal ni Daddy si Neneng D. Tawag-pansin ang mansanas
36. Uri ng pagsasaling-wika na tumutukoy sa mga disiplinang akademikong, agham, kalikasan
at lipunan ay tinatawag na ________.
GENERAL EDUCATION – SECONDARY SET A SEPTEMBER 2015

A. Pangkasaysayan C. Teknikal
B. Pangkultura D. Pampanitikan
37. Sa pangungusap na “Malakas ang boses mo”, ang salitang malakas ay isang ________.
A. Panguri C. Panghalip
B. Pangatnig D. Pandiwa
38. Isang disenyo na pananaliksik na nagsisiyasat sa pamamagitan ng palatanungan o
pakikipanayam.
A. Sarbey C. Feasibility Study
B. Case Study D. Etnograpiya
39. Ang wastong kahulugan ng: The present problem is only a storm in a teacup.
A. Bale-wala C. May galit
B. Buong puso D. Matagumpay
40. Sa anong bahagi ng pananaliksik matatagpuan ang mga lugar at babasahing mapagkukunan
ng mga literatura at pag-aaral?
A. Kabanata I C. Kabanata II
B. Kabanata IV D. Kabanata V
41. Isang uri ng pamahayagan na nag-uulat ng mga tunay na pangyayari batay sa pag-aaral,
pananaliksik, o pakikipanayam at isinulat sa paraang kawili-wili.
A. Editorial C. Lathalain
B. Pangulong tudling D. Kumento
42. Uri ng pagsulat na ang pokus ay ang imahinasyon ng manunulat; pukawin ang damdamin
A. Malikhain C. Teknikal
B. Journalist D. Akademiko
43. Ang proseso ng paghahatid ng saloobin, opinion, karunungan sa pamamagitan ng
makabuluhang tunog ay tinatawag na _______.
A. Pagtala C. Pagsasalita
B. Pakikinig D. Pagbabasa
44. Nakikipag-away ka sa speaker. Ito ay pakikinig na ________.
A. Pasibo C. May lugod
B. Masusi D. Kombatib
45. Ito ang rutang dinaraanan ng mensahe ng tagapagsalita.
A. Konteksto C. Participant
B. Tsanel D. Pidbak
46. Regala Company manufactures beds; in its catalogue, a double bed is priced at P5, 000 or
less a discount of 20%. What will Rizza have to pay for the bed she ordered?
A. P4, 150.00 C. P4, 200.00
B. P4, 100.00 D. P4, 000.00
47. Clara Ramos works as a sales clerk. She paid a salary of P3, 000.00 a week plus a 2%
commission on sales over P4, 000.00. Find her gross pay for a week in which her sales are
P9, 500.00.
A. P3, 500.00 C. P3, 110.00
B. P3, 250.00 D. P3, 210.00
48. A Toyota car travelling at a rate of 70 km per hour leaves the house 2 hours after a Kia Car
has left and overtakes it in 5 hours, at what rate was the Kia car traveling?
A. 40 kilometers per hour C. 50 kilometers per hour
B. 30 kilometers per hour D. 20 kilometers per hour
49. How many prime numbers are there between 1 and 100?
A. 24 C. 22
B. 23 D. 25
50. What number must be subtracted from both numerator and denominator of the fraction
11/23 to give a fraction whose value is 2/5?
A. 4 C. 5
B. 2 D. 3
GENERAL EDUCATION – SECONDARY SET A SEPTEMBER 2015

51. The fraction halfway between 3/7 and 4/7 is _____.


A. ½ C. ¼
B. 1/8 D. 1/3
52. A recipe calls for 2cups of milk for every 7 cups of flour. A chef will use 28 cups of flour,
how many cups of milk must he have?
A. 12 C. 14
B. 10 D. 8
53. If Karl has an average of 76% on his first two tests and has an average of 85% on the four
tests, what is his final average on all six tests?
A. 82.5% C. 81.3%
B. 80.5% D. 82.0%
54. A room is 30ft long, 25ft wide and 14ft high. If 42 balloons are inside the room, how many
cubic feet of space does this allow for each balloon?
A. 250 C. 502
B. 205 D. 25
55. What percent of 75 is 15?
A. 30% C. 20%
B. 49% D. 38%
56. All right angles are _____.
A. Parallel C. Supplementary
B. Oblique D. Equal
57. The side opposite the right of a right angle is the ______ and each of the other two sides is
_____.
A. Hypotenuse, leg C. Leg, hypotenuse
B. Opposite, adjacent D. Adjacent, opposite
58. A 10 meter board leans against the wall. The foot of the board is 8 meters from the wall.
How far up the wall does the board reach?
A. 10 meters C. 6 meters
B. 4 meters D. 8 meters
59. The sum of the sides of a polygon is the _____ of the polygon.
A. Volume C. Legs
B. Area D. Perimeter
60. If two legs of one right triangle are equal respectively to two legs of another, the right
triangles are ____.
A. Congruent C. Supplementary
B. Complementary D. Adjacent
61. Find the least common multiple of 8, 6, 3
A. 24 C. 72
B. 48 D. 96
40𝑥 2 𝑦 2 27𝑥𝑦
62. Perform the indicated operation / 8𝑥 2 𝑦 3
4𝑥𝑦 4
40𝑥 3 40
A. C.
81 81
40𝑥 80𝑥 2
B. D.
81 27
63. The measure of an angle is 25 more than its supplement. What is the measure of the larger
angle?
A. 102.5 degrees C. 110.5 degrees
B. 77.5 degrees D. 95.5 degrees
64. Find the least common multiple of 5, 2, 7
A. 140 C. 15
B. 35 D. 70
(3𝑥−9)
65. Simplify: (𝑥 2 −9)
GENERAL EDUCATION – SECONDARY SET A SEPTEMBER 2015

3 (𝑥+3)
A. C.
(𝑥+3) 3
3 (𝑥−3)
B. D.
(9−3) 3
(8𝑥−24)
66. Simplify: (2𝑥 2 −𝑥−15)
(𝑥−4) 8
A. C.
(𝑥+4) (2𝑥+5)
4 5
B. D.
(𝑥−13) (2𝑥−5)
67. The grades in Mathematics of the students in section A are as follows: 80, 75, 60, 95, and
100. What is the range of their group?
A. 80 – 95 C. 60 – 95
B. 60 – 100 D. 70 – 100
68. Which among the measure of central tendency is not influenced by outliers?
A. Mean C. Median
B. Weighted mean D. Mode
69. What measures of central tendency can best describe the size T – shirts commonly worn by
teenagers?
A. Mode C. Range
B. Mean D. Median
70. If a die is rolled, what is the probability of getting a number divisible by 2?
A. ½ C. 1/3
B. 1/6 D. ¼
71. In a Physics test, 9 students obtained the following scores 80, 86, 78, 88, 90, 82, 76, 84, 92.
What is the median score?
A. 84 C. 86
B. 82 D. 88
72. What is the pressure exerting on the plasma membrane against the cell wall of the bacteria,
fungi and plant cells?
A. Osmotic pressure C. Turgor pressure
B. Wall pressure D. Plasma pressure
73. Which organism is an example of a fungus?
A. Algae C. Euglenoids
B. Yeast D. Entamoeba
74. Which of the following is an example of a useful function for bacteria?
A. Can clean up an oil spill by digesting hydrocarbons
B. May be used as vectors to introduced proteins
C. Can synthesize new forms of heavy metals
D. May be pathogenic and cause human disease
75. Which protist can cause dysentery?
A. Gorilla beringei C. Streptococcus
B. Plasmodium vivax D. Entamoeba histolytica
76. Which organism is classified under Kingdom Fungi?
A. Red Algae C. Diatoms
B. Microsporidia D. Streptococcus
77. Human reproduce when ovum is combined with a sperm leading to the development of an
embryo. This form of reproduction is called ________.
A. Asexual reproduction C. Budding
B. Fertilization D. Binary fission
78. The waste product of photosynthesis is ________.
A. Carbon monoxide C. Carbon dioxide
B. Nitrogen D. Oxygen
79. A hypothetical ecosystem contains Lettuce (the producer), a caterpillar (the primary
consumer), a small passerine bird (the secondary consumer) and a lion (the tertiary
GENERAL EDUCATION – SECONDARY SET A SEPTEMBER 2015

consumer). A gardener arrives and sprays pesticide, killing all the caterpillars. What can
happen to the ecosystem?
A. The passerine birds will thrive
B. The lions will eventually die
C. The passerine birds will convert to herbivores
D. The lettuce will wilt and die
80. What is the molecule that allows plants to capture energy from sunlight?
A. Oxygen C. ATP
B. Carbohydrates D. Chlorophyll
81. A human arm, a bat’s wing and a seal’s flipper are examples of _____.
A. Analogous organs C. Embryonic organs
B. Homologous organs D. Vestigial organs
82. An important endocrine gland that is shaped like a bow-tie and located in the neck is called
_______.
A. Pituitary gland C. Adrenal gland
B. Parathyroid gland D. Thyroid gland
83. Which of the following is an organism that feeds on necrotic and decaying matter?
A. Vulture C. Algae
B. Parakeet D. Yeast
84. The asexual reproduction which occurs when a new organism develops from an outgrowth
is called ____.
A. Fission C. Budding
B. Fertilization D. Grafting
85. Predation is a relationship exemplified by ________.
A. An orchid attached to the trunk of a Narra tree.
B. A hunter shooting a duck in the forest and having it for dinner.
C. A tapeworms living in the gastrointestinal track.
D. A clownfish living within a seas anemone.
86. The molecules that contain an organism’s genetic make-up are called _________.
A. Genetic membrane C. Nucleolus
B. Nucleic acid D. Cytosol
87. What is the process used by plants to convert energy from sunlight into chemical energy?
A. Photosynthesis C. Phytochemical conversion
B. Diffusion D. Cytolysis
88. What are the thin structures essential for cytokinesis, amoeboid movement and changes in
cell shape?
A. Nanofilaments C. Microfilaments
B. Myosin filaments D. Psuedofilaments
89. What are the small hair-like structures that serve a sensory function in eukaryotic cells?
A. Plasma membrane C. Actin filaments
B. Centromere D. Cilia
90. Who was the father of modern taxonomy and responsible for coining the term
Homosapiens for human?
A. Chatton C. H. Copland
B. Aristotle D. Linnaeus
91. What is the possible consequence of eutrophication?
A. Water is colorless and odor free
B. Significantly diminished sea harvest by fisherman
C. Decreased toxicity of bodies of water
D. Less turbidity of water
92. What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy a p-orbital?
A. 6 C. 18
B. 10 D. 14
GENERAL EDUCATION – SECONDARY SET A SEPTEMBER 2015

93. Which of the following statements is TRUE about a textbook laid on the table?
A. The textbook undergoes declaration
B. The textbook undergoes acceleration
C. No force is acting on it
D. The sum of the forces acting upon it is zero
94. A population of rabbits lives in a stable habitat, with no changes in the environment for a
long time. How genetic drift will possibly affected this population.
A. It may decrease genetic variation
B. It may promote the dominance of the rabbits with superior traits
C. It will decrease the population of the rabbits
D. It will stimulate the appearance of new traits
95. Element X has an electron configuration of 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝2 . Based on information, element X
belongs to a/an ___________ family.
A. Alkali metal C. Halogen
B. Carbon D. Coinage
96. Besides solid liquid, and gas, what is the fourth form of matter?
A. Gel C. Plasma
B. Colloid D. Foam
97. Which of the following is the lowest rank of coal and is otherwise called brown coal?
A. Charcoal C. Anthracite
B. Lignite D. Bituminous
98. The feeding connections between all life forms are referred to as _________.
A. Nutrition cycles C. Biochemical pathways
B. Food web D. Fossil cycle
99. What diagnostic test allows microorganisms to multiply in a medium under controlled
laboratory condition in order to determine the cause of an infectious disease?
A. Microbial culture C. Complete blood count
B. Chest x-ray D. Urinalysis
100. If carbohydrates are hydrophilic-organic compounds, lipids are _________ organic.
A. Biomolecules C. Polypeptido
B. Hydrophobic D. Simple
101. This is TRUE of recessive genes.
A. Will only have phenotypic expression if present as a homozygous genotype
B. Should be paired with a dominant gene for it to be expressed
C. Will prevent a dominant gene from expressing its phenotype
D. Have more superior phenotypic traits
102. The bond is sodium fluoride is which of the following types of chemical bond?
A. Halogens C. Ionic bond
B. Alkali metals D. Alkaline earth metals
103. You won the jackpot prize in the lottery. The prize money cannot be paid in currency but
only in gold. Applying your knowledge in chemistry, select the largest amount of gold
from the choices below. (Au=197).
A. 297 grams of gold C. Avogadro’s number of atoms
B. 40.0 kilograms if gold D. 22.4 moles of gold
104. The Brundtland Commission defines it as: “development that meets the needs of the
present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.”
A. Ecological development C. Sustainable development
B. Environmental development D. Uncompromising development
105. Which 2 chemical factors cause decomposition?
A. Putrefaction and respiration C. Autolysis and photosynthesis
B. Death and cellular respiration D. Autolysis and putrefaction
106. An atom of silicon has a mass number of 28 and an atomic number of 14. How many
protons are in this atom?
GENERAL EDUCATION – SECONDARY SET A SEPTEMBER 2015

A. 14 C. 28
B. 12 D. 7
107. Bats are able to navigate in the dark without bumping into anything because they
________.
A. Are able to fluoresce in the dark
B. Have supersonic eyesight
C. Emit sound waves whose returning vibrations can detect the presence of objects
D. Can disappear in the dark
108. The protein shell of a virus is called __________.
A. Nucleolus C. Nucleus
B. Nucleic acid D. Capsid
109. Alcohol is a class of organic compound characterized by ________.
A. A halogen attached to an alkyl group
B. A carbonyl group bonded to 2 carbon atoms
C. A hydroxyl bonded to an alkyl group
D. A carbonyl attached to an either linkage
110. Participation in governance, including the right to vote and seek public office is secured
within the citizenry’s ________.
A. Right to due process C. Political rights
B. Right to suffrage D. Socio-civic rights
111. The right to search for information is invoked through the _________.
A. Writ of habeas corpus C. Writ of habeas data
B. Writ of certiorari D. Writ of amparo
112. Which condition contradicts the social justice mandate in the 1987 constitution?
A. Creation of economic opportunities for all
B. Sense of dependency among citizens
C. Elimination of cultural inequalities
D. Equitable distribution of wealth
113. Which is the fundamental law of the Philippines?
A. The Philippine Constitution C. The Ten Commandments
B. The Civil and Criminal Codes D. The Bill of Rights
114. The fundamental right invoked by filing the “writ of amparo” is ________.
A. The right to self-defense
B. The right to due process
C. The right to life, liberty and security
D. The right to be defended by public attorney
115. The biggest of the seven continents of the world is ________.
A. Asia C. Africa
B. Australia D. Europe
116. Which band played the Marcha Nacional Filipino or the national anthem on June 12,
1898 during the declaration of the Philippine Independence?
A. Malabon Band C. Pangkat Kawayan ng Pateros
B. Kawit Cavite Band d. San Francisco del Monte Band
117. The province in the Philippines which is called “Ma-i” by the Chinese in the 14th century
is ______.
A. Ilocos C. Cavite
B. Mindoro D. Palawan
118. Through the Galleon Trade (1565-1815), the Philippines had extended contacts with
________.
A. Mexico C. China
B. Spain D. Spice Islands
119. Which religious missionary order first arrived in the Philippines?
A. Augustinian C. Dominican
GENERAL EDUCATION – SECONDARY SET A SEPTEMBER 2015

B. Jesuit D. Franciscan
120. Which law set a full trade policy abolishing the quota limitations on the Philippine export
to the United States?
A. Payne-Aldrich Act C. Bell Trade
B. Underwood-Simmons Act D. Hare-Hawes Cutting Act
121. Which power of the states enables to impose charge of burden upon person’s property or
property rights for the use and support of the government in its discharge of appropriate
functions?
A. Eminent Domain C. Value Added Tax
B. Expropriation D. Taxation
122. Which best describes the division of the Legislature into the Senate and the House of
Representatives?
A. Unicameralism C. Co-legislative powers
B. Bipartisanship D. Bicameralism
123. What kind of cooperative system sells farmers’ agriculture produce?
A. Service cooperative C. Marketing cooperative
B. Producers cooperative D. Multi-purpose cooperative
124. The economic policy that good action is one that helps the greatest number of people is
called ______.
A. Mercantilism C. Capitalism
B. Colonialism D. Utilitarianism
125. Which contradicts the Filipino family value of sacrifice?
A. Willingness to forgive C. Inability to forgive
B. Delayed satisfaction of desires D. Tolerance of pain and mistakes
126. The smallest unit of society is the _______.
A. Church C. Purok
B. Family D. Government
127. Is it correct to say that “Bahala na” is a Filipino negative trait?
A. Yes, it is tantamount to leaving one’s fate to another
B. It depends on the situation of the person saying it
C. It depends on the intention of one’s action
D. No, “Bahala na” is a n attitude of daring combined with genuine concern
128. Birth place of Jose Rizal
A. Intramuros, Manila C. Malolos, Bulacan
B. Calamba, Laguna D. Kawit, Cavite
129. One instance of taking away the life of another person without due process is ______.
A. Salvaging C. Capital punishment
B. Suicide D. Euthanasia
130. What was the first term given by Marcel H. del Pilar to the hidden control and
domination by Spanish religious priests over the colonial government.
A. Las suerte partidas C. Frailocracia
B. Pase region D. Complace
131. What does a professional code of conduct prescribe?
A. Civic conduct for all C. Moral and ethical standards
B. Professional traditions and mores D. Stricter implementation of laws
132. Due to family close ties, Filipino families are generally __________.
A. Secular C. Extended
B. Nuclear D. Divided
133. The Philippine President who was known as “the man of the masses” was
A. Fidel Ramos C. Manuel Quezon
B. Ramon Magsaysay D. Manuel Roxas
134. A recently awarded national artist for sculpture was _______.
A. Blaco C. Alcantara
GENERAL EDUCATION – SECONDARY SET A SEPTEMBER 2015

B. Abueva D. Luna
135. The stage who brought fame to her country through her international awards for her stage
performance was ________.
A. Isay Alvarez C. Lea Salonga
B. Geneva Cruz D. Sharon Cuneta
136. Those who advocate the revival of the classics in art and literature are called ______.
A. Humanists C. Reformists
B. Rationalist D. Existentialist
137. The part of the body that controls emotion is __________.
A. Kidney C. Endocrine glands
B. Heart D. Lungs
138. Which characterizes psychologically health people?
A. Pre-occupied only with their interest C. Feels superior over others
B. Concerned with goals beyond themselves D. Can’t accept others as they are
139. Study of human behavior
A. Ethics C. Morality
B. Philosophy D. Psychology
140. The sum of totals person’ effort to cope with stressful situation in life is called
_________.
A. Reaction C. Defense mechanism
B. Anger D. Emotion
141. It illustrates a particular data series through rectangles.
A. Bar graph C. Circle graph
B. Line graph D. Pie graph
142. It can be used to show the progress in academic grades over four quarters.
A. Bar graph C. Line graph
B. Pie graph D. Circle graph
143. It is the process of sorting, recovering and disseminating recorded data through the
computer.
A. Information technology C. Information retrieval
B. Information utilization D. Information Science
144. Social network service available through the computer is _________.
A. Wikipedia C. Google
B. I-pad D. Facebook
145. ________ means the graphics will be displayed more than once.
A. Texting C. Timing
B. Tagging D. Tiling
146. Face-to-face communication is made possible via the computer through _______.
A. Twitter C. Skype
B. e-mail D. Google
147. Message are easily transported anywhere in the world through the ________.
A. e-shopping C. e-register
B. e-learning D. e-mail
148. CTRL is a symbol for _______.
A. Control key C. Backspace
B. Entry key D. Alter key
149. The acronym of HTML means Hyper Text Mark-up __________.
A. Line C. Language
B. Letter D. Label
150. Three-dimensional image reproduced from a pattern of interference is called _______.
A. Internet C. Audio-visual
B. Hologram D. Network
GENERAL EDUCATION – SECONDARY SET A SEPTEMBER 2015

Answer key:
1 B 51 A 101 A
2 D 52 D 102 C
3 C 53 D 103 B
4 C 54 A 104 C
5 B 55 C 105 D
6 C 56 D 106 A
7 C 57 A 107 C
8 A 58 C 108 D
9 A 59 D 109 C
10 C 60 A 110 C
11 D 61 A 111 C
12 A 62 D 112 B
13 D 63 A 113 A
14 A 64 D 114 C
15 B 65 A 115 A
16 A 66 C 116 A
17 C 67 B 117 B
18 D 68 C 118 A
19 A 69 A 119 A
20 A 70 A 120 B
21 C 71 A 121 D
22 B 72 C 122 D
23 B 73 B 123 C
24 A 74 A 124 D
25 A 75 D 125 C
26 A 76 B 126 B
27 C 77 B 127 B
28 A 78 D 128 B
29 A 79 B 129 A
30 D 80 D 130 C
31 B 81 B 131 C
32 C 82 D 132 C
33 A 83 A 133 B
34 A 84 C 134 B
35 B 85 B 135 C
36 C 86 B 136 A
37 A 87 A 137 C
38 A 88 C 138 B
39 A 89 D 139 D
40 C 90 D 140 C
41 C 91 B 141 A
42 A 92 A 142 C
43 C 93 D 143 B
44 D 94 A 144 D
45 B 95 B 145 D
46 D 96 C 146 C
47 C 97 B 147 D
48 C 98 B 148 A
49 D 99 A 149 C
50 D 100 B 150 B

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