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1. Consider the following statements with regard to Government of India Act 1909
1. It introduced diarchy in provinces.
2. For the first time it provided for the association of Indians with the executive councils of viceroy.
3. It introduced the system of separate electorate by giving communal representation to Muslims.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Consider the following


1. Hepatitis A
2. SARS
3. Typhoid
4. Cholera
Which of the above is/are water borne disease?

a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 3 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) All

3. Which of the following is not a type of silk?

a) Mulberry silk
b) Tassar silk
c) Mooga silk
d) Moth silk

4. In Preamble, the ideal of justice–social, economic and political has been take from

a) American revolution
b) Revolution for unification of Germany
c) Russian revolution
d) Meiji restoration

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5. Consider the following statements regarding India’s Foreign Trade Policy 2015-20
1. It aims at increasing India’s exports in goods and services to 900 billion by 2019-20.
2. Previous reward schemes of goods and services for export have been merged into two schemes-
Merchandise Export from India Scheme (MEIS) and Service Export from India Scheme (SEIS).
3. It seeks to raise India’s share in World exports from 2% to 6%.
Select the correct option

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) All of the above

6. Which of the following is not a provision of revised Draft of Indian Financial Code (IFC)?

a) A monetary policy committee headed by the governor of RBI will decide the key policy rates
b) Instead of RBI an independent Debt Management committee will take care of Debt Management.
c) NBFCs will be regulated by RBI
d) A separate consumer agency to set up to protect consumer interest.

7. Match the following


1. Angora Goats Jammu & Kashmir
2. Llama South America
3. Patanwadi Gujarat
4. Nali Rajasthan
Select the correct match

a) 1 and 2
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) All

8. Which of the following are correct regarding MUDRA bank?


1. Its aim is to refinance the Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs) which are engaged in lending to MSMEs.
2. It will be responsible for accreditation and rating of MFIs
3. There are three financial stages for MUDRA- Shishu, Kishore and Tarun.
Select the correct option from the following

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) All of the above

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9. Consider the following regarding ‘The Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Amendment Bill-2015. The bill
seeks to-
1. Amend the definition of Benami transactions.
2. Establish adjudicating authorities and an Appellate Tribunal to deal with benami transactions
3. Specify the penalty for entering into benami transactions
Select the correct option

a) All of the above


b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3

10. Which of the tax is not a form of direct tax?

a) Corporate Income tax


b) Securities Transaction Tax
c) Value added tax
d) Fringe Benefit Tax

11. Consider the following statements with respect to indigenisation of navy


1. INS Kolkata is the first guided missile destroyers indigenously built and operated by Indian Navy
2. So far INS Kochi is the largest indigenized warship built by India
Select the correct answer using the code given below

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above

12. Recently a report entitled leveraging urbanisation in south Asia was released by an international bank.
Which of the following bank released the above report?

a) World bank
b) Asian development bank
c) National development bank
d) Asian investment infrastructure bank

13. Consider the following statement with respect to recently launched satellite “ASTROSAT”
1. ASTROSAT is India’s first dedicated multi wavelength space observatory used for astronomy research
2. It was launched using GSLV launch vehicle
3. USA and Russia are the only two countries that have their own space observatories
Select the correct answer using the code given below

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a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 2 and 3 only

14. Which of the following states given below doesn’t enjoy special status according to Indian constitution?

a) Assam
b) Bihar
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Uttarkhand

15. Which of the following statements with respect to Planet Mars is correct?
1. Mars is referred to as the "Red Planet" because of the presence of excess amount of Lithium and
Magnesium
2. Mars moons are called phobos, Titan and Deimos
Select the correct answer using the code given below

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above

16. A democratic polity is based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty. With regard to this principle,
consider the following
1. Plebiscite
2. Referendum
3. Recall
4. Initiative
Which of the above is/are used in direct democracy?

a) 2, 3 and 4
b) 1 and 2
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) All of the above

17. The branchy part of a tree above the stem is known as

a) Canopy
b) Crown
c) Sapling
d) Understorey

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18. Which of the following state was first reorganized based on linguistic basis?

a) Karnataka
b) Maharastra
c) Tamil nadu
d) Andra Pradesh

19. The first schedule of the Indian Constitution does not pertains to which one of the following
1. Names of States
2. Names of Union territories
3. Name of the people residing inside the territory of the India
4. Territory that may be acquired by the GOI at any time
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 4
b) 3 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only

20. The idea of fraternity in Preamble is taken from

a) American revolution
b) French revolution
c) Russian revolution
d) None of these

21. According to the Constitution of India, Article 3 authorises the Parliament to reorganise the States. With
this authority, the Parliament can
1. Alter the name of any state
2. Diminish the area of any state
3. Alter the boundaries of any state
4. Increase the area of any state
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 1 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) All the above

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22. Which of the following are the sources of Human Capital Formation?
1. Expenditure on education
2. Expenditure on Health
3. Expenditure on Migration
4. Expenditure incurred on acquiring information regarding labour market.
Select the correct option from the following:

a) 1 and 2
b) 3 and 4
c) 1,2 and 4
d) All of the above

23. Which of the following is not a provision of Model APMC Act?

a) It is not compulsory for the farmer to bring his produce to APMC Mandi
b) Exporters, graders, packers etc can buy directly from the farmer.
c) It does not include Contract farming.
d) Prohibits commission agents in any transaction.

24. Consider the following statements:


1. MSP is the minimum price at which the government promises to buy the crop from the farmers.
2. MSP protects the farmer in case of a bumper crop.
3. The price support scheme for oil seeds and pulses is implemented through National Agriculture
Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd.(NAFED)
Select the correct statement:

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2
d) All of the above

25. India’s population growth rate, although high on an absolute scale, has slowed down in past two
decades. Which of the following reasons cannot be attributed to it?

a) Increase in death rate due to TB, dengue, and other infectious diseases.
b) Increase in female literacy rate.
c) Successful family planning schemes in rural areas.
d) Increase in average wedding age.

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26. Consider the following statements:


1. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) includes the total value of all final goods and services produced in a
country in a year.
2. Intermediate products are included in GDP.
3. Gross National Product (GNP) is the summation of GDP and Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA).
Select the correct option from the following:

a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above.

27. Consider the following statements:


Assertion (A): Article 1 describes India, as a ‘Union of States’ rather than ‘Federation of
States’
Reason (R): Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the States
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) Both A and R are True and R is the correct explanation of A


b) Both A and R are True but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is True and R is False
d) A is False and R is True

28. The commitment to equality before law as fundamental rights was declared in

a) Karachi session, 1931


b) Lahore session, 1909
c) Calcutta session, 1929
d) Bombay session, 1934

29. In India, the Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes which of the following ways to acquire citizenship
1. By naturalisation
2. By descent
3. By incorporation of territory
4. By registration
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) All of the above

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30. Compact Disc exhibit rainbow like phenomenon when seen under sunlight because of

a) Reflection and Refraction


b) Refraction and Transmission
c) Reflection, Refraction, Transmission and Diffraction
d) Diffraction and Transmission

31. Which among following committee most strongly advocated organisation of state on linguistic
homogeneity?

a) S K Dhar
b) JVP committee
c) Pottu Sriramulu
d) Fazl Ali

32. Select the correct statements with respect to citizenship is concerned

a) Children of foreign diplomat, born in India, are given dual citizenship so long as the diplomat
continues to be in service in India
b) IFS officer's son if born in India cannot get citizenship in the country where his parent is serving as
Indian diplomat
c) Both
d) None

33. When a switch is in OFF position-


1. Circuit starting from the positive terminal of the cell stops at the switch.
2. Circuit is open.
3. No current flows through it.
4. Current flows after some time.
Choose the combination of correct answer from the following.

a) all are correct


b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) only 4 is correct
d) only 1, 2 and 3 are correct

34. Recently Nangchen Stupa in China was in news for which of the following reasons
1. It is the place where Huen Tsang died
2. It is one of the places on earth where Buddhas relics are found
3. Fa sein delivered his first sermon to people of china after visiting from India
4. This Stupa was constructed by Emperor Ashoka
Select the correct answer using the code given below

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a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 4 only
d) 3 and 4 only

35. Which of the following statements with respect to Diclofenac is incorrect?


1. Diclofenac is used to treat human beings
2. Diclonefac is an anti inflammatory drug used to treat Cattles
Select the correct answer using the code given below

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
e)
f)

36. Recently India, Cambodia signed two MoUs on Tourism & Mekong Ganga Cooperation Initiative. Which
of the following country capital is not involved in Mekong ganga Initiative

a) Bangkok
b) Kaulalumpur
c) Hanoi
d) Nay Pyi Daw

37. Recently world’s longest continental volcanic chain was discovered in which of the following countries

a) Japan
b) Indonesia
c) Phillipines
d) Australia

38. Consider the reaction


1. Glucose -------> A + water + energy (presence of oxygen)
2. Glucose -------> A + water + energy (absence of oxygen)
Select the correct answer

a) 1-A is Alcohol & 2-A is Carbon Dioxide


b) 1-A is Carbon Dioxide & 2-A is Alcohol
c) 1-A is Carbon Dioxide & 2-A is Carbon Monoxide
d) 1-A is Alcohol & 2-A is Carbon Monoxide

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39. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of Government of India Act, 1919?
1. It extended principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for both Sikhs and
Christians.
2. Introduced provincial autonomy
3. Introduced bicameralism in India
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

40. The constituent assembly


1. Was formed as a part of Indian independence act 1947.
2. The assembly consisted of elected members only.
3. Princely states were not given representation in the constituent assembly.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

a) None
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1 Only

41. The ‘Objective resolution’ passed by Jawaharlal Nehru in the pre-independence era is of historical
importance. Which of the following is correct with regard to the objective resolution?
1. It provided for adequate safeguards for minorities, backward and tribal areas.
2. To proclaim India as an independent sovereign socialist secular republic.
3. Its modified version forms the preamble in the present constitution.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

42. With reference to Charter act 1833, consider the following statements
1. It designated Governor General of Bengal as Viceroy of India.
2. It empowered board of control to supervise and direct all operations of civil and military government.
3. It ended activities of East India company as a commercial body.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
a) 3 Only

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b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 Only

43. Which of the following parts of a plant take part in sexual reproduction?
1. Flower
2. Fruit
3. Seed
4. Branch
Choose the correct answer from below.

a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4

44. Which of the following are the features of Parliamentary form of government in India?
1. Dissolution of upper house.
2. Moral responsibility of executive to legislature.
3. Majority party rule.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 Only
c) 3 Only
d) 2 and 3

45. Which of the following is/are list of fundamental duties contained in part IVA of Indian constitution
1. To safeguard public property and abjure violence
2. To prevent slaughtering of cows.
3. To pay income tax regularly without any avoidance.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

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46. Which of the following language[s] is/are not in the list of languages contained in the Eighth schedule of
Indian constitution?
1. English
2. Pali
3. Sindhi
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

a) 2 Only
b) 3 Only
c) 1 and 2
d) 1 Only

47. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Schedule 8 of Indian constitution? The list
of languages also includes
1. Classical languages
2. Official language
3. National language
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 Only

48. Select the incorrect statement

a) The mirrors used as side mirrors in scooters are Convex mirrors


b) The mirrors used by doctors to examine eyes, ears and nose etc are concave mirrors
c) Magnifying glasses are types of concave mirrors
d) Both (a) and (c)

49. The first schedule of the Indian Constitution pertains to


1. Names of States
2. Names of Union territories
3. Citizenship
4. Forms of Oaths and Affirmation
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 4 only
d) 1 only

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50. Schedule 5 of the Indian constitution incorporates


1. Provisions relating to administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes
2. Provisions for establishment of district and regional councils.
3. Schedule areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are governed by this schedule.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

51. consider the following regarding Payment Banks: Select the incorrect option from the above.

a) An individual is allowed to hold a maximum of Rs 100000 balance.


b) They will not issue any debit cards or credit cards.
c) They cannot undertake lending activities.
d) They will only provide payment/remittance services.

52. Consider the following:


1. Cooperative banks are organized under the Cooperative society acts of the state governments.
2. They provided concessional credit to agriculture and rural sector.
3. They usually provided long term loans (3-5 years).
Select the correct option:

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) All of the above

53. What do you understand by insider trading?

a) It refers to sale and purchase of shares by leaking price sensitive unpublished information.
b) It refers to a sale of products at factory outlet on cheaper price.
c) It refers to selling of products by one country in another country, under the market price to capture the
market.
d) It refers to direct buying of agricultural product from the farms.

54. Consider the following regarding Shram Suvidha Portal: Which of the above is not included in Shram
Suvidha Portal?
a) Unique labour identification number.
b) Filing of self certified single online return by Industries
c) Transparent labour inspection scheme via computerized system.

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d) Fixed Government wage rates for skilled and unskilled labour.

55. Recently a landmark scheme for social security was launched by name Atal Pension Yojna. Which of the
following points are true about the scheme?
1. It will guarantee a monthly pension of Rs 1000-10,000.
2. For every contribution made in pension fund, government will contribute an equal amount, with upper
cap of Rs 1000.
3. The scheme targets the unorganised sector.
Select the correct option

a) All of the above


b) 1 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3

56. Which of the following correctly explains disguised unemployment?

a) Where part of the labor force is either left without work or is working in a redundant manner where
worker productivity is essentially zero.
b) Those workers those are highly skilled but working in low paying jobs, workers that are highly skilled
but work in low skill jobs and part-time workers that would prefer to be full-time.
c) When people who are out of work are not counted in official unemployment statistics for a variety of
reasons.
d) When people are without work and actively seeking work.

57. Pollination refers to the

a) Transfer of pollen from anther to ovary.


b) Transfer of male gametes from anther to stigma.
c) Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma.
d) Transfer of pollen from anther to ovule.

58. Consider the following regarding National Manufacturing Policy:


1. It aims to create 100 million jobs in manufacturing sector.
2. An increase in share of manufacturing sector in India’s GDP from 16% to 25% till 2022.
3. Increase in growth of manufacturing sector to 12 to 14 percent across the medium term.
Which of the above statements are correct?

a) All of the above


b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3

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59. The Gini Coefficient is a measure of

a) Ratio of women and men in Indian Parliament


b) Migration rate of Guineas nationals
c) Income inequality
d) Ratio of coinage to currency note

60. “To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India” has been provided in which of the
following of Indian constitution

a) Preamble
b) Directive principles of state policy
c) Fundamental rights
d) Fundamental duties

61. Consider the following


1. Preamble was not part of the Original Constitution, it was added by 42nd Constitutional amendment
Act 1976.
2. The parliament, if need arises, can remove the word socialist and add capitalist, in place of socialist.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None

62. Consider the following


1. The term ‘Economic justice’ is present both in Preamble and Directive Principles of State Policy of
Indian constitution.
2. The ideal of economic justice was taken from French revolution (1786).
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None

63. Consider the following


1. The preamble is a source of power to legislature and it enriches the powers of legislature.
2. Both Fundamental duties and Directive Principles of State Policy cannot be enforced in the courts of
law.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

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a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None

64. Consider the following


1. The Constituent Assembly which was constituted in November 1946 was not only entrusted with
framing the Constitution but later carried on legislative functions as well.
2. Basically the Indian Independence Act 1947 was the implementation of Mountbatten Plan.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None

65. A democratic polity is based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty. With regard to this principle,
consider the following
1. Plebiscite
2. Referendum
3. Recall
4. Initiative
Which of the above is/are used in direct democracy?

a) 2, 3 and 4
b) 1 and 2
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) All of the above

66. Consider the following statements:


Assertion (A) : January 26 was chosen as the date of commencement of the Constitution
Reason (R) : It was on this day in 1930 that Purna Swaraj day was celebrated
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) Both A and R are True and R is the correct explanation of A


b) Both A and R are True but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is True and R is False
d) A is False and R is True

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67. The Indian Constitution is the lengthiest written Constitution and a borrowed one. In this context answer
the following

Features Borrowed Sources


1. Procedure for amendment of the Constitution a)South African Constitution
2. Concurrent List b)Japanese Constitution
3. Federation with a strong centre c)Canadian Constitution
4. Procedure established by Law d)Australian Constitution
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c


b) 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
c) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c
d) 1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b

68. Consider the following statements


1. The Directive Principles of State Policy was inspired from Irish Constitution
2. Fundamental Rights can be amended by the parliament
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None

69. As per Article 368, the Indian Constitution can be amended by


1. Simple majority of the Parliament
2. Special majority of the Parliament
3. Special majority of the Parliament and with the ratification by half of the total states
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above

70. The Constitution of India provides for a federal system of Government in India. But certain federal
features have a unitary bias. Which of the following features does not provide a unitary shade to the
Indian system?
a) Integrated Judiciary
b) Emergency provisions

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c) Appointment of Governor
d) Division of powers

71. Consider the following with regard to Poona Pact, 1932


1. It retained the Hindu joint electorate
2. Reservation was provided for the depressed classes
3. Communal Award was the precursor to the Poona pact
4. It was signed by Mahatma Gandhi and B R Ambedkar
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) All of the above

72. As per Census 2011 data, which is the most populated metro city in India?

a) Delhi
b) Mumbai
c) Chennai
d) Kolkata

73. For a place, to be called a town, according to Indian Census, which of the following conditions is not
required.

a) A minimum population of 5000


b) Minimum population density of 400 persons per sq.km
c) 75% of male population should be engaged in Non- Agriculture work.
d) 25% of area should be under the manufacturing sector.

74. Yellow revolution in India refers to the growth of

a) Smuggling of drugs
b) Increase in solar power
c) Oil seed production
d) Jaundice outbreak

75. Consider the following statements:


1. National Solar Mission target has been increased fivefold to 1,00,000 MW till 2022.
2. Indian Government had put a clean energy cess which was doubled to Rs 100 per ton of emission.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?

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a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None of the above

76. Consider the following regarding Diamond Quadrilateral:


1. The quadrilateral will connect the four metro cities – Delhi, Mumbai, Bangalore and Kolkata.
2. This is a project of Indian railways to establish a high speed rail network.
3. The corridor will be operated on broad guage tracks.
Select the correct option

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above

77. Select the incorrect option

a) Ozone in stratosphere acts as a protective layer while ozone in lower atmosphere acts as a pollutant
b) Ozone hole has been found only at lower latitudes.
c) Montreal protocol has been adopted to ban ozone depleting substances.
d) UV radiations can be harmful to living tissues.

78. What is ‘dependency ratio’ for an economy?

a) The share of working age population as compared to the non-working population.


b) The share of non-working age population as compared to the working age population.
c) The ratio of working age population with that of the total population of the country.
d) None of the above.

79. In Indian Five year plan periods, the Rolling Plan refers to

a) A new Five Year plan that was introduced by the Congress government in 1980
b) A New Plan introduced by the Janata government and subsequently rejected by the Congress
government
c) A two year interim plan introduced during the emergency period
d) None of the above

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80. Consider the following statements about the impact of taxes on the economy of India?
1. It indirectly affects the level of investment in the economy.
2. Tweaking taxes can be counter-inflationary.
3. It has not effect on the foreign investments in the economy.
Which of these is/are true?

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above

81. The Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs) (Regulation and Development) Bill, 2012 intends to regulate and
develop the MFIs sector. Who can be the potential beneficiaries if it becomes a law?
1. Small and Marginal farmers
2. Self-Help Groups
3. MFIs
4. Local money lenders
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1,2 and 3
d) All of the above

82. Which of the following ethnic minority community of Nepal is protesting for amendments in newly formed
constitution of Nepal adopted in September?

a) Khas-Chhetri
b) Tamang
c) Newars
d) Madhesi

83. Which of the following is an acid-base indicator?

a) Vinegar
b) Lime water
c) Turmeric
d) Baking soda

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84. Consider the following statements with respect to recently developed Hybrid Vaccum toilets
1. The vacuum toilet evacuates its discharge into a biodigester tank that is fitted underneath the coach.
2. The biodegester tank contains aerobic bacteria that convert human fecal matter into water and small
amount of gases before discharging the same on the ground or track.
Select the correct answer using the code given below

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above

85. Map of Africa

Identify the countries located in the Map

a) 1-Niger ,2-Somalia, 3-Burkino Faso ,4-Alegeria


b) 1-Somalia ,2-Niger, 3-Algeria, 4-Burkino Faso
c) 1-Algeria, 2-Niger,3-Somalia,4-Burkino Faso
d) 1-Burkino Faso,2-Somalia,3-Algeria,4-Niger

86. Which of the following keyword was not present in the original text of Preamble?

a) Sovereign
b) Justice
c) Socialist
d) Fraternity

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87. Many of the sectoral schemes of the Government converge in ‘Smart Cities’. Consider the following
1. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
2. Swachh Bharat Mission
3. Digital India
4. Indira Awas Yojana
5. INSPIRE Programme
Which of the above schemes of GoI converge in Smart Cities?

a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 5
d) All

88. Which of the following are correct regarding MUDRA bank?


4. Its aim is to refinance the Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs) which are engaged in lending to MSMEs.
5. It will be responsible for accreditation and rating of MFIs
6. There are three financial stages for MUDRA- Shishu, Kishore and Tarun.
Select the correct option from the following

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) All of the above

89. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
1. The Preamble is a source of power to the legislature
2. Preamble is a part of the Constitution
3. Preamble cannot be amended
4. It is non-justiciable, or it is not enforceable in courts of law.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 2 and 4
b) 2 only
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4

90. Cellulose-rich food substances are good source of roughage in human beings because

a) Human beings do not have cellulose-digesting enzymes.


b) Cellulose gets absorbed in the human blood and converts into fibres.
c) The cellulose-digesting bacteria convert cellulose into fibres.
d) Cellulose breaks down into smaller components which are egested as roughage.

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91. With reference to Schedule 9 of the Indian constitution, consider the following
1. It consists of provisions relating to disqualification of members of parliament and state legislature on
ground of defection.
2. It was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
3. The provisions under this schedule is subjected to Judicial Review
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 Only
d) None

92. In which of the following ways a person can lose his citizenship of India immediately, during a war in
which India is engaged?
1. Renunciation
2. Termination
3. Deprivation
4. Naturalization
Select the correct answer using the code given below

a) 1, 2, 3 only
b) 3 only
c) 2, 3 only
d) All

93. With regard to Government of India Act 1935, consider the following statements
1. It introduced diarchy in provinces
2. The act divided the powers between the Centre under two lists namely federal list and provincial list.
3. It introduced bicameralism in the provinces
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

a) 1 and 2
b) 3 Only
c) 2 and 3
d) None

94. Which of the following is not a source of data on unemployment?

a) Reports of census of India


b) National Sample Survey Organisation
c) Directorate general for Employment and training
d) Central Statistical office

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95. When water and nutrients are available, algae grow and multiply rapidly by?

a) Fragmentation
b) Eutrophication
c) Pollination
d) Budding

96. Select the incorrect statement

a) Arteries have thin elastic walls


b) The clot is formed because of the presence of another type of cells in the blood, called WBC
c) Veins are the vessels which carry oxygen-rich blood from all parts of the body back to the heart
d) All

97. Read the following statements with reference to soil


1. Weathering is a very fast process of soil formation.
2. Percolation of water is faster in sandy soils.
3. Loamy soil contains only sand and clay.
4. Top soil contains the maximum amount of humus.
Choose the correct statements from the above.

a) 2 and 4
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2

98. Consider the following


1. Burning of coal
2. Burning of wood
3. Explosion of firework
4. Boiling of water
Which of the above are chemical changes?

a) 1 and 2
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 3

99. When the soil is too basic, plants do not grow well in it. To improve its quality what must be added to the
soil?

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a) Organic matter
b) Quick lime
c) Slaked lime
d) Calamine solution

100. Neutralization reaction is a

a) Physical and reversible change.


b) Physical change that cannot be reversed.
c) Chemical and reversible change.
d) Chemical change that cannot be reversed.

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