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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-II
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 3
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Ans. (d)
Ans. (a)
Ans. (d*)
2000 V/200 V, 20 kVA, two winding T/F
Reconnected as Auto T/F → 200/2200 V
2000 V
2000 V 200 V reconnected
as 2200
200 V
200 V
100 V
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 4
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4. The regulation of a transformer in which ohmic loss is 1% of the output and reactance
drop is 5% of the voltage, when operating at 0.8 power factor lagging is
(a) 3.8% (b) 4.8%
(c) 5.2% (d) 5.8%
Ans. (a)
ohmic loss 1% Reactance drop 5%
% ohmic loss = % ohmic voltage drop
% Resistance drop(Vr) = 0.01
% Reactance drop (Vx) = 0.05
Voltage Regulation : Vr cosφ ± Vs sinφ
Given operating power factor cos φ = 0.8
∴ sinφ = 0.6
∴ %V.R. = [(0.01 × 0.8) + (0.05 × 0.6)] × 100
%V.R. = 3.8%
5. In a power transformer, the core loss is 50 W at 40 Hz, and 100 W at 60 Hz, under
the condition of same maximum flux density in both cases. The core loss at 50 Hz will
be
(a) 64 W (b) 73 W
(c) 82 W (d) 91 W
Ans. (b)
Core loss wc is expressed as
wc = kh f + kef 2
kh(40) + ke(40)2 = 50 W ...(1)
kh(60) + ke(60)2 = 100 W ...(2)
By solving (1) and (2)
kh = 0.4167
ke = 0.0208
Core loss at 50 Hz is wc = kh(50) + ke(50)2
∴ wc = 0.4167(50) + 0.0208(50)2
= 73 Watts
Hysterisis loss wh ∝ f
Eddy current loss we ∝ f 2
(For Bm constant)
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 5
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Ans. (d)
7. The breadth factor for 3rd harmonic emf of a 3-phase, 4-pole, synchronous machine having
36 stator slots is
(a) 0.47 (b) 0.53
(c) 0.67 (d) 0.73
Ans. (c)
Breadth factor for rth harmonic:
nr α
sin
Kdr = 2
rα
n sin
2
180° 180°
α = slot angle = = = 20°
slots / pole 36 / 4
n = slots / pole / phase
= 36 / 4 / 3 = 3
∴ Breadth factor for 3rd harmonic is
⎛ 3 × 3 × 20 ⎞
sin ⎜ ⎟⎠
⎝ 2
Kd3 = = 0.67
⎛ 20 × 3 ⎞
3 × sin ⎜
⎝ 2 ⎟⎠
Ans. (b)
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 6
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Ans. (b)
T = 150 N-m
Field reduced by 10% Ia increased by 50%
∴ φ2 = 0.9 φ1
and Ia2 = 1.5 Ia1
T α φ Ia
T2 φ I
= 2 × a2
T1 φ1 Ia1
T2
∴ = 0.9 × 1.5
T1
⇒ T2 = 1.35 (T1)
∴ T2 = 1.35 × 150
= 202.5 N-m
Ans. (c)
11. A 3-phase, induction motor operating at a slip of 5% develop 20 kW rotor power output.
What is the corresponding rotor copper loss in this operating condition?
(a) 750 W (b) 900 W
(c) 1050 W (d) 1200 W
Ans. (c)
Slip = 0.05
Rotor power output = 20 kW
Rotor copper loss = Slip × Rotor power input
∴ Rotor power output = (1 – s) Rotor power input
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 7
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12. What are the signs of load angle in an alternator during generator and motor operations,
respectively?
(a) Negative, negative (b) Positive, negative
(c) Negative, positive (d) Positive, positive
Ans. (b)
13. In an alternator the armature winding is kept stationary while the field winding is kept
rotating for the following reasons:
1. Armature handles very large current and high voltage.
2. Armature fabrication, involving deep slots to accommodate large coils, is easy if
armature is kept stationary.
3. It is easier to cool the stator than the rotor.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
14. Increasing the air gap of a squirrel-cage induction motor would result in
(a) increasing in no-load speed
(b) increase in full-load power factor
(c) increase in magnetizing current
(d) maximum available torque
Ans. (c)
15. A cumulative compound dc motor runs at 1500 rpm on full load. If its series field is
short circuited, its speed
(a) becomes zero (b) remains same
(c) increases (d) decreases
Ans. (c)
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 8
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16. If the capacitor of a capacitor start single-phase motor fails to open when the motor picks
up speed.
(a) The motor will stop.
(b) The auxiliary winding will be damaged.
(c) The capacitor will be damaged.
(d) The winding will be damaged.
Ans. (b)
17. For a 3-phase induction motor, what fraction/multiple of supply voltage is required for
a direct on line starting method such that starting current is limited to 5 times the full
load current and motor develops 1.5 times full load torque at starting time?
(a) 1.632 (b) 1.226
(c) 0.816 (d) 0.456
Ans. (b)
Let ‘x’ be the fraction of supply votlage
∴ Tst α (xv)2 and Tf α v2
Tst → starting torque
Tf → full load torque
Tst x2v 2
=
Tf v2
Tst
⇒ x= = 1.5
Tf
∴ x = 1.22
Ans. (c)
19. The stator loss of a 3-phase induction motor is 2 kW. If the motor is running with a slip
of 4% and power input of 90 kW, then what is the rotor mechanical power developed?
(a) 84.48 kW (b) 86.35 kW
(c) 89.72 kW (d) 90.52 kW
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 9
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Ans. (a)
Stator loss = 2 kW
Slip = 0.04
Power input – stator loss = Stator ouput = Rotor input
∴ Rotor input = 90 kW – 2 kW = 88 kW
Rotor power output = (1 – s) Rotor power input
∴ Rotor power input = (1 – 0.04) (88)
= 84.48 kW
Ans. (a)
21. Air pollution due to smoke around a thermal power station can be reduced by installing
(a) Induced draft fan (b) Super heater
(c) Economizer (d) Electrostatic precipator
Ans. (d)
Ans. (c)
23. The maximum demand on a steam power station is 480 MW. If the annual load factor
is 40%, then the total energy generated annually is
(a) 19819.2 × 105 kWh (b) 18819.2 × 105 kWh
(c) 17819.2 × 105 kWh (d) 16819.2 × 105 kWh
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 10
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Ans. (d)
Average power
Load factor =
Maximum demand
Average power = 0.4 × 480 = 192 mW
= 192×103 kW
Total energy generated in one year
= 192 × 103 × 365 × 24 kW hr
= 16819.2 × 106 kWh
1.
24. To equalize the sending and receiving end voltages, impedance is connected at the
receiving and of a transmission line having the following ABCD parameters:
A = D = 0.9∠0° B = 200∠90° Ω
The impedance so connected would be
(a) 1000∠0° Ω (b) 1000∠90° Ω
(c) 2000∠90° Ω (d) 2000∠0° Ω
Ans. (c)
T⋅L
⎡ A B ⎤ ⎡ 1 0⎤
Equivalent T-parameter = ⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥
⎣C D ⎦ ⎣1/ 2 1⎦
β 200∠90
Aeq = A + = 0.9∠0 +
Z z
for ⎪VS⎪ = ⎪VR⎪
200∠90
Aeq = 1 = 0.9∠0 +
z
⇒ z = 2000∠90°
25. The maximum efficiency in the transmission of bulk ac power will be achieved when the
power factor of the load is
(a) slightly less than unity lagging
(b) slightly less than unity leading
(c) unity
(d) considerably less than unity
Ans. (b)
For max. Power Transfer Condition load should be of leading nature.
1.
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 11
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Ans. (a)
⎧ Eb ⎫
⎨N α ⎬
⎩ φ ⎭
27. When the sending end voltage and current are numerically equal to the receiving end
voltage and current respectively, then the line is called
(a) a tuned line (b) a transposed line
(c) a long line (d) a short line
Ans. (a)
⎪VS⎪ = ⎪VR⎪, ⎪SS⎪ = ⎪SR⎪
For a tuned line.
1.
28. If Vm is the peak value of an applied voltage in a half wave rectifier with a large capacitor
across the load, then the peak inverse voltage will be
(a) 0.5 Vm (b) Vm
(c) 1.5 Vm (d) 2.0 Vm
Ans. (d)
A K
– + L
O
VM VM
A
VS + – D
29. A 100 MVA generator operates load of 50 Hz frequency. The load is suddenly reduced
to 50 MW. The steam valve begins to close only after 0.4 and if the value of the inertia
constant H is 5s, then the frequency at 0.4s is nearly
(a) 38 Hz (b) 44 Hz
(c) 51 Hz (d) 62 Hz
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 12
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Ans. (c)
1 1
⎡ H .S + (ΔPD )Td ⎤ 2 100 × 5 + 50 × 0.4 ⎤ 2
fn = f0 ⎢ ⎥ = 50 ⎡⎢ ⎥⎦ = 51 Hz
⎣ H .S ⎦ ⎣ 100 × 5
1.
Ans. (d)
(MVA)n (KV )20
Zpun = Z pu o × ×
(MVA)0 (KV )n2
2
50 ⎛ 33 ⎞
= 0.9 × ×⎜ ⎟ = 16.2 pu
25 ⎝ 11⎠
31. Symmetrical components are used in power system for the analysis of
(a) balanced 3-phase fault
(b) unbalanced 3-phase fault
(c) normal power system under steady conditions
(d) stability of system under disturbance
Ans. (b)
1.
32. For V-curves for a synchronous motor the graph is drawn between
(a) terminal voltage and load factor
(b) power factor and field current
(c) field current and armature current
(d) armature current and power factor
Ans. (c)
Ans. (a)
1.
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 13
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34. A 2-pole, 50 Hz, 11 kV, 100 MW alternator has a moment of inertia of 10,000 kg.m2.
The value of inertia constant, H is
(a) 3.9s (b) 4.3s
(c) 4.6s (d) 4.9s
Ans. (d)
2
⎛ 2⎞ −6 H.S
M = J.ωe ⋅ ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ × 10 =
P πf
2
⎛ 2⎞ H × 100
10,000 × 2π × 50 × ⎜ ⎟ × 10−6 =
⎝ 2⎠ π × 50
H = 4.93
Ans. (d)
1.
Ans. (b)
Ans. (d)
HVDC is economical to transmit Bulkpower for long distance.
1.
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 14
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38. The three sequence voltages at the point of fault in a power system are found to be
equal. The nature of the fault is
(a) L – G (b) L – L – L
(c) L – L (d) L – L – G
Ans. (d)
Ans. (b)
Ans. (c)
Ans. (c)
42. Which of the following circuits is used for converting a sine wave into a square wave?
(a) Monostable multivibrator (b) Bistable multivibrator
(c) Schmitt trigger circuit (d) Darlington complementary pair
Ans. (c)
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 15
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43. What is the type of breakdown that occurs in a Zener diode having breakdown voltage
(6 V)?
(a) Avalanche breakdown only
(b) Zener breakdown only
(c) Avalanche breakdown where breakdown voltage is below 6 V and Zener breakdown
otherwise
(d) Zener breakdown where breakdown voltage is below 6 V and Avalanche breakdown
otherwise
Ans. (d)
Ans. (c)
45. The lowest frequency of ac components in the outputs of half-wave and full-wave rectifiers
are, respectively, (where ω is the input frequency)
(a) 0.5 ω and ω (b) ω and 2 ω
(c) 2 ω and ω (d) ω and 3 ω
Ans. (b)
1-φ HWR:
1-φ V0↑
2π
π
Fourier Series
VM VM 2V 2V
V0(t) = + ⋅ sin ωt − M cos2ωt − M cos 4ωt ....
π 2 3π 15π
∴ Lowest frequency of ac componetns is ‘ω’
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 16
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1-φ FWR:
1-φ V0↑
ωt
π 2π
Fourier Series:
2VM 4VM 4V
−
V0(ωt) = cos2ωt − M cos 4ωt ......
π 3π 15π
∴ Lowest frequency of ac component is ‘2ω’
46. A half-wave rectifier circuit using ideal diode has an input voltage of 20 sinωt volt. Then
average and rms value of output voltage respectively are
10 20
(a) V and 5 V (b) V and 10 V
π π
20 10
(c) V and 5 V (d) V and 10 V
π π
Ans. (b)
1-φ HWR:
1-φ V0↑
ωt
π 2π
VM
V0 = (1 + cos ∝)
2π
VM 20
α = 0, V0 = =
π π
VM 20
Vor = = = 10 V
2 2
47. For a BJT; IC = 5 mA, IB = 50 μA and ICBO = 0.5 μA, then the value of β is
(a) 99 (b) 91
(c) 79 (d) 61
Ans. (a)
IC = βIB + βICBO
IC 5 × 10−3
β= = = 99
IB + ICBO 50.5 × 10 −6
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CE 8
in
Top 10
AIR Kumar Chitransh Rahul SIngh Piyush Kumar Srivastav Roopak Jain Jatin Kumar Lakhmani Vikas Bijarniya Brahmanand Rahul Jalan
EC 6
in
Top 10
AIR Agam Kumar Garg K K Sri Nivas Jayanta Kumar Deka Amit Rawat Pillai Muthuraj Saurabh Chakraberty
IN 9
in
Top 10
AIR Harshvardhan Sinha Avinash Kumar Shobhit Mishra Ali Zafar Rajesh Chaitanya Shubham Tiwari Palak Bansal Saket Saurabh
CS in
6
Top 10
AIR Ankita Jain Debangshu Chatterjee Himanshu Agarwal Jain Ujjwal Omprakash Sreyans Nahata Nilesh Agrawal
PI in
5
Top 10
AIR Gaurav Sharma Akash Ghosh Niklank Kumar Jain Shree Namah Sharma Agniwesh Pratap Maurya
1st Ranks in ME, EE, EC, CS, IN & PI 53 Selections in Top 10 96 Selections in Top 20 368 Selections in Top 100
ME CE EE EC CS & PI IN
Top 20 Top 100 Top 20 Top 100 Top 20 Top 100 Top 20 Top 100 Top 20 Top 100 Top 20 Top 100
17
Selections
68
Selections
16
Selections
65
Selections
19
Selections
76
Selections
10
Selections
45
Selections
17
Selections
53
Selections
17
Selections
61
Selections
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 17
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48. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied for a transistor to be in saturation?
1. Its collector to base junction should be under forward bias.
2. Its collector to base junction should be under reverse bias.
3. Its emitter to base junction should be under reverse bias.
4. Its emitter to base junction should be under forward bias.
Which of the above conditions are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Ans. (d)
49. In an amplifier with a gain of 1000 without feedback and cut-off frequencies at 2 kHz
and 20 kHz, negative feedback of 1% is employed. The cut-off frequencies with feedback
would be
(a) 220 Hz and 22 kHz (b) 182 Hz and 220 kHz
(c) 220 kHz and 220 kHz (d) 182 Hz and 22 kHz
Ans. (b)
Lf 2 × 103
fL1 = 1 + Aβ = 1 + 1000 × 0.01 = 182 Hz
Ans. (a)
51. Three identical amplifiers each having a voltage gain of 50 are cascaded. The open loop
voltage gain of the combined amplifier is
(a) 71 dB (b) 82 dB
(c) 91 dB (d) 102 dB
Ans. (d)
20 log10 A1A2A3 = 20 log 50 × 50 × 50
= 102 dB
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Ans. (c)
53. The operational amplifier circuit shown in figure having a voltage gain of unity has
(a) High input impedance and high output impedance
(b) High input impedance and low output impedance
(c) Low input impedance and low output impedance
(d) Low input impedance and high output impedance
Ans. (b)
Ans. (a)
A Master-slave configuration stores only 1 bit of information.
55. An operational amplifier has a slew rate of 2 V/μ sec. If the peak output is 12 V, what
will be the power bandwidth?
(a) 36.5 kHz (b) 26.5 kHz
(c) 22.5 kHz (d) 12.5 kHZ
Ans. (b)
S.R 2 × 106
fm = = = 26.5 kHz
2π × Vm 2 × π × 12
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Ans. (c)
Ans. (c)
The following truth table represents a 3-input majority gate as well as the carry output
of a full adder.
a b c y
0 0 0 0
0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0
0 1 1 1
1 0 0 0
1 0 1 1
1 1 0 1
1 1 1 1
a 1
a 1 1 1
y = ab + bc + ca
58. In a 2 input CMOS logic gate, one input is left floating i.e. connected neither to ground
nor to a signal. What will be the state of that input?
(a) 1 (b) 0
(c) same as that of the other input (d) indeterminate (neither 1 nor 0)
Ans. (d)
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AIR 2 AIR 3 AIR 4 AIR 5 AIR 6 AIR 7 AIR 8 AIR 9 AIR 10
CE 10
Selections in
AIR
Top 10
CE Palash Pagaria
Piyush Pathak Amit Kumar Mishra Amit Sharma Dhiraj Agarwal Pawan Jeph Kirti Kaushik Aman Gupta Mangal Yadav Aishwarya Alok
ME 10
Selections in
AIR
Top 10
ME Pratap Ashok Bansal Aarish Bansal Vikalp Yadav Naveen Kumar Raju R N Sudhir Jain Bandi Sreenihar Kotnana Krishna Arun Kr. Maurya
EE 9
Selections in
AIR
Top 10
EE S. Siddhikh Hussain Partha Sarathi T. Nikki Bansal Nagendra Tiwari Anas Feroz Amal Sebastian Dharmini Sachin Sudhakar Kumar Vishal Rathi
E&T 9
Selections in
AIR
Top 10
E&T Ijaz M Yousuf
Saurabh Pratap Siddharth S. Piyush Vijay Manas Kumar Panda Kumbhar Piyush Nidhi Shruti Kushwaha Anurag Rawat
4 Streams 38 73 352
4 Toppers
All 4 MADE EASY
in in
Selections
out of total
Students Top 10 Top 20 434
MADE EASY selections in ESE-2015 : 82% of Total Vacancies
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ME Selections in Top 10 10 Selections in Top 20 18 MADE EASY Selections 83 Out of 99 Vacancies MADE EASY Percentage 83%
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E &T Selections in Top 10 9 Selections in Top 20 19 MADE EASY Selections 82 Out of 98 Vacancies MADE EASY Percentage 84%
“MADE EASY is the only institute which has consistently produced toppers in ESE & GATE”
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59. The expression for MOD number for a ripple counter with N flip-flop is
(a) N (b) 2 N
(c) 2N – 1 (d) 2N – 1
Ans. (b)
MOD number of a ripple counter represents the total number of states followed by it
with N flip-flops, the total possible number of states that could be followed is 2N.
Ans. (a)
ROM ⇒ Read only memory, so no write operation.
Ans. (b)
RAM ⇒ Volatile, ROM ⇒ Non-volatile
Volatile ⇒ Data only with power supply
Non-volatile ⇒ Data is present permanently.
Ans. (b)
HLT & LOCK are for internal machine control operations of NP.
HLT ⇒ To stop NP execution of program
LOCK ⇒ Related to 8086, instruction with lock prefix is executed first.
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63. What is the assembler directive statement used to reserve an array of 100 words in
memory and initialize all 100 words with 0000 and give it a name STORAGE?
(a) STORAGE DW 100 (b) STORAGE DW 100 DUP (0)
(c) STORAGE DW 100 DUP (?) (d) STORAGE DB 100
Ans. (b)
Words so DW ⇒ Define words i.e., 2 bytes of memory locations are reserved.
But for array STORAGE DW 100 DUP (0)
DUP (0) ⇒ Means 100 words space is reserved with data in location initialized as 0000H.
Ans. (b)
AC ⇒ Auxiliary carry flags staus is used only in DAA { DAS
Decimal adjust after additions {subtraction}
All conditional jumps are short jumps z = 1 if data is same when compared.
65. If a 3-phase slip ring induction motor is fed from the rotor side with stator winding short
circuited, then frequency of currents flowing in the short circuited stator is
(a) slip × frequency
(b) supply frequency
(c) frequency corresponding to rotor speed
(d) zero
Ans. (a)
Ans. (d)
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 22
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Ans. (d)
INTR is non-vectored so no spacific location.
Ans. (b)
JNC 16 bit address
Jump if no carry/ if CY = 0 i.e., reset.
Ans. (c)
70. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the instruction CMP A?
(a) Compare accumulator with register A
(b) Compare accumulator with memory
(c) Compare accumulator with register H
(d) This instruction does not exist
Ans. (a)
CMPA ⇒ Compare accumulator with itself i.e., register ‘A’.
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 23
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71. The instruction RET executes with the following series of machine cycle
(a) Fetch, read, write (b) Fetch, write, write
(c) Fetch, read, read (d) Fetch, read
Ans. (c)
RET ⇒ Unconditional returns
1 B instruction, 3 machine cycles (Fetch, Read, Read), 10 T-states.
Read operations are from state memory.
Ans. (b)
Full adder — Combinational
Half adder — combinational
JKFF — Sequential
Counter — sequential
73. When a peripheral is connected to the microprocessor in input/output mode, the data
transfer takes place between
(a) any register and I/O device (b) memory and I/O device
(c) accumulator and I/O device (d) HL register and I/O device
Ans. (c)
In I/O mapped I/O data transfer takes place only between accumulator and I/O device.
74. While execution of I/O instruction takes place, the 8-bit address of the port is placed
on
(a) lower address bus
(b) higher address bus
(c) data bus
(d) lower as well as higher order address bus
Ans. (d)
In IN and OUT instructions, as I/O has 8 bit address in last machine cycle address
is placed on A15 – A8 (AD7 – AD0).
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Ans. (a)
Only port C can be used in BSR mode i.e., bit set reset in mode 0 as only port i/p
or o/p mode 1 and 2 for control signals.
Ans. (d)
All are true.
In 8086 two banks are used as data bus is 16 bits wide i.e., each bank contains
one byte.
77. The sticker over the EPROM window protects the chip from
(a) infrared light from sunlight
(b) UV light from fluorescent lights and sunlight
(c) magnetic field
(d) electrostatic field
Ans. (b)
EPROM ⇒ Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory.
A crystal window is present on the chip so that data can be erased by exposing chip
to UV light after removing chip out of board.
78. A 2400/240 V, 200 kVA, single-phase transformer has a core loss of 1.8 kW at rated
voltage. Its equivalent resistance is 1.1%. Then the transfer efficiency at 0.9 power factor
and on full load is
(a) 95.60% (b) 96.71%
(c) 97.82% (d) 98.93%
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Ans. (c)
Equivalent resistance = 1.1%
% copper loss = % resistance drop
∴ copper loss = 1.1% of output
= 0.011 (200) = 2.2
Output
η=
Output + Losses
200 × 0.9
=
200 × 0.9 + 1.8 + 2.2
= 97.82%
79. The 8259 A programmable interrupt controller in cascade mode can handle interrupt of
(a) 8 priority levels (b) 16 priority levels
(c) 32 priority levels (d) 64 priority levels
Ans. (d)
In 8259A i.e., pic a maximum of 64 I/O devices can be connected in interrupt mode.
By using nine 8259, 64 I/O’s are possible in cascaded mode.
80. 8259 A programmable interrupt controller uses the following initialization commands:
1. ICW1 2. ICW2
3. ICW3 4. ICW4
If 8259 A is to be used in cascaded and fully nested mode, the ICW1 bits D0 and D1
are
(a) 0 and 0 (b) 1 and 0
(c) 0 and 1 (d) 1 and 1
Ans. (b)
In ICW, bits D1, D0
0 → ICW4 not needed
1 → ICW4 needed
0 → Cascade mode
1 → Single mode
Ans. (b)
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Preliminary Examination (Paper-I & Paper-II)
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82. If a carrier of 100% modulated AM is suppressed before transmission, the power saving
is nearly
(a) 50% (b) 67%
(c) 100% (d) 125%
Ans. (b)
For AM; with μ = 1, 66.6% of AM power distributed to carrier.
83. An FM signal is represented by v = 12 sin (6 × 10st + 5 sin 1250t). The carrier frequency
fc and frequency deviation δ, respectively, are
(a) 191 MHz and 665 Hz (b) 95.5 MHz and 995 Hz
(c) 191 MHz and 995 Hz (d) 95.5 MHz and 665 Hz
Ans. (b)
V = 12 sin (6 × 108t + 5 sin 1250t)
Standard FM expression is
s(t) = Ac cos (2πfct + β sin2πfmt)
By comparison ⇒ 2πfc = 6 × 108
fc = 95.5 MHz
β = 5; 2πfm = 1250
Δf = βfm = 995 Hz
84. When the modulation frequency is doubled the modulation index is halved and the
modulating index is halved and the modulation voltage remains constant. This happens
when the modulating system is
(a) AM (b) PM
(c) FM (d) Delta Modulation
Ans. (c)
Kf Am
For FM; β=
fm
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Ans. (b or c)
Given V = A sin (ωct + m sinωmt)
Standard FM expression ⇒ s(t) = Ac sin[ωct + 2πkf ∫m (t)dt]
Standard PM expression ⇒ s(t) = Ac sin[ωct + kpm (t)]
If m(t) = Am cosωm t then given expression is FM.
If m(t) = Am sinωm t, then given expression is PM.
86. The four basic elements in a PLL are loop filter, loop amplifier, VCO and
(a) Up converter (b) Down converter
(c) Phase detector (d) Frequency multiplier
Ans. (c)
87. In a frequency modulated (FM) system, when the audio frequency is 500 Hz and audio
frequency voltage is 2.4 V, the frequency deviation δ is 4.8 kHz. If the audio frequency
voltage is now increased to 7.2 V then what is the new value of deviation?
(a) 0.6 kHz (b) 3.6 kHz
(c) 12.4 kHz (d) 14.4 kHz
Ans. (d)
Given: Δf = 4.8 kHz = kf Am ; Am = 2.4 V
If message amplitude is 7.2 Volts
i.e., A′m = 3Am
Now Δf ′ = 3 × 4.8 = 14.4 kHz
Ans. (b)
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 28
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Ans. (b)
Bandwidth of FM is (β + 1) 2fm
Ans. (b)
Bandwidth requirement of FM higher than AM.
Ans. (a)
92. For a d.c. shunt generator to self excite, the conditions to be satisfied are that there
must be some residual magnetism in the field magnet, it must be in the proper direction
and the shunt field resistance must be
(a) Above the critical field resistance (b) Equal to the critical field resistance
(c) Less than the armature resistance (d) Less than the critical field resistance
Ans. (d)
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Ans. (d)
Collector
p+ substract
n+ -Buffer layer
n– epi
p+
p p
n+ p– n+
Gate Gate
Ans. (c)
Main units of PCM modulator are sampler, quantizer and encoder.
⎛ di ⎞
95. The reverse recovery time of a diode is 3 μs and rate of fall ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ is 30 A/μs. The stored
dt
charge of the diode is
(a) 45 μC (b) 135 μC
(c) 270 μC (d) 540 μC
Ans. (b)
1 di 2
QRR = ⋅ ⋅ t rr
2 dt
1 2
= ⋅ 30A / μ s⋅ (3 × 10−6 ) = 135 μc
2
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 30
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96. NAND and NOR gates are called ‘Universal’ gates primary because
(a) They are available everywhere
(b) They are widely used in I.C. packages
(c) They can be combined to produce AND, OR and NOR gate
(d) They an be manufactured easily
Ans. (c)
A logic gate is known as universal logic gate if all other logic gates can be obtained/
implemented from it.
1
(a) Z (b) Y ⎛⎜ 1 + YZ ⎞⎟
⎝ 4 ⎠
1 1
(c) Z ⎜⎛ 1 + YZ ⎟⎞ (d) ⎜⎛ 1 + YZ ⎟⎞
⎝ 4 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠
Ans. (c)
Ans. (a)
A negative gate current of 20 to 25% of Anode current is required to turn off GTO.
99. A chopper circuit is operating on TRC control mode at a frequency of 2 kHz of a 230
V dc supply. For output voltage of 170 V, the conduction and blocking periods of a
thyristor in each cycle are respectively
(a) 0.386 ms and 0.114 ms (b) 0.369 ms and 0.131 ms
(c) 0.390 ms and 0.110 ms (d) 0.131 ms and 0.369 ms
Ans. (b)
f = 2 kHz
VS = 230V
V0 = 170 V
V0 = αVS
V0 170
α = V = 230 = 0.739
S
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 31
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TON
= 0.739
T
0.739 0.739
TON = = 3
= 3.69 × 10–4
f 2 × 10
= 0.369 ms
TOFF = T – TON = 0.131 ms
Ans. (d)
101. A transformer may have negative voltage regulation if the load power factor (p.f.) is
(a) Leading for some values of p.f. (b) Unity p.f.
(c) Lagging but not zero p.f. (d) Only zero p.f. lag
Ans. (a)
Ans. (d)
Ans. (a)
104. In a-phase inverter with 180° conduction mode the number of switches that is on at any
instant of time is
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
Ans. (c)
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 32
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105. In the sinusoidal pulse-width modulation scheme, if the zero of the triangular wave
coincides with the zero of the reference sinusoidal, then the number of pulse per half
cycle is
fc fc
(a) (b) +1
2f 2f
2fc fc
(c) (d) −1
f 2f
Ans. (d)
Directions:
Each of the next Fifteen (15) items consists of two statements, one labelled as the
‘Statement (I)’ and the other as “Statement (II)”. Examine these two statements carefully
and select the answers to these item using the codes given below.
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I).
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is not
the correct explanation of Statement (I).
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.
106. Statement ((I)) : The armature structures of all rotating machines are laminated in order
to reduce the eddy-current losses.
Statement ((II)) : The armature windings of both the D.C. and A.C. machines have to
deal with alternating currents only.
Ans. (a)
107. Statement ((I)) : The electro-mechanical energy conversion principles are developed
with the ‘field energy’, being magnetic or electric, as the basis.
Statement ((II)) : This approach can deal with only the steady-state analysis of the
electro-mechanical energy conversion, but not the transient-state analysis.
Ans. (d)
108. Statement ((I)) : A Direct-On-Line (DOL) starter for starting dc motor is used for reasons
of economy:
Statement ((II)) : DOL starter limits the starting current to a safe limit.
Ans. (c)
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 33
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109. Statement ((I)) : For constant applied voltage to its terminals, the effect of armature
resistance in the operation of a dc shunt motor, is to reduce the
operating speed, and cause a ‘drooping’ speed Vs. load characteristic.
Statement ((II)) : The effect of armature demagnetization with the decreasing load is to
reduce the drop in operating speed, and can be designed to give a
‘rising’ speed Vs. load characteristic which may result in a possible
‘runaway’
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
111. Statement ((I)) : A synchronous motor can be used as an active device to improve the
power factor of a power system.
Statement ((II)) : By over-excitation the synchronous machine would operate a capacitor.
Ans. (a)
112. Statement ((I)) : Stability of a power system can be improved by using by using parallel
transmission lines.
Statement ((II)) : Two transmission lines in parallel with increase the impedance between
sending end and receiving end compared to single line.
Ans. (c)
113. Statement ((I)) : When all inputs of a NAND gate are shorted to get a single input, single
output gate, it becomes an inverter.
Statement ((II)) : When all inputs of a NAND gate are at logic ‘0’ level the output is at
logic ‘0’ level.
Ans. (c)
When all inputs of a NAND gate are at logic 0 level, the output is at logic 1 level.
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 34
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Ans. (a)
A logic gate is known as universal logic gate if all other logic gates can be obtained/
implemented from it.
115. Statement ((I)) : READY is an output signal used to synchronize slower peripheral.
Statement ((II)) : HOLD is activated by an external signal.
Ans. (d)
I. False as READY is i/p signal to μP.
II. Hold is activated by DMA controller.
∴ True.
116. Statement ((I)) : The direct memory access or DMA mode of data transfer is the fastest
among all the modes of data transfer.
Statement ((II)) : In DMA mode the device directly transfers data to/from memory without
interference from CPU.
Ans. (a)
I and II both are true and II is correct explanation as in DMA data takes place between
μP memory at faster rate without intervention of CPU/μP.
Ans. (b)
Modulation index of AM is always kept less than 1 to make demodulation simple.
Modulation index of FM may be greater than 1.
118. Statement ((I)) : The main function of a freewheeling diode in Rectifier circuits is to
prevent the reversal of load voltage.
Statement ((II)) : The freewheeling diode is never connected across the load.
Ans. (c)
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Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A 35
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119. Statement ((I)) : In sinusoidal pulse width modulation, width of each pulse is varied in
proportion to amplitude of a sine-wave evaluated at the centre of the
same pulse.
Statement ((II)) : The rms value of output voltage can be varied by varying the modulation
index.
Ans. (a)
120. Statement ((I)) : Equal-area criterion can be used to determine the stability of single
machine infinite bus system.
Statement ((II)) : An infinite bus system has infinite inertia and constant voltage.
Ans. (b)
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