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Murali Bharadwaz Classes for MD/MS Entrance Coaching Programme


29 Week NEETPG MD Entrance Live Online interactive Classes
www.onlinembbs.com Quiz Day - 11 1

1. Which of the following groups RNA viruses are A. the requirement of an obligate intracellular habitat.
B. its replicative cycle is distinguished by two morphologic
common causes of viral meningitis?
forms that develop within cytoplasmic vacuoles.
A. Rhinoviruses
C. the lack of detectable peptidoglycan in its cell envelope.
B. Caliciviruses
D. its use of host coenzymes of energy metabolism.
C. Enteroviruses
9. A 40-year-old, veterinarian from Coorg reserve
D. Flaviviruses
forest in Karnataka presents with severe
2. A distinguishing feature of human Mycoplasma headache, myalgia, and splenomegaly in addition
species is that they: to pulmonary findings. A scanty sputum was
A. stain well with Giemsa but not by Gram stain. obtained, containing a few mixed bacteria and
B. contain no bacterial peptidoglycan. scattered mononuclear cells on routine Gram
C. are not immunogenic because they mimic host cell staining. Which of the following organism is most
membrane components.
likely to caause these symptoms?
D. cannot be cultivated in vitro.
A. Chlamydophila pneumoniae
3. For which of the following organisms is there no B. Chlamydophila psittaci
known animal reservoir? C. Chlamydia trachomatis
A. Francisella tularensis D. Legionella pneumophila
B. Pasteurella multocida 10. The diagnosis of a rotavirus infection:
C. Bordetella pertussis A. can be made, in most cases, on the basis of the clinical
D. Brucella melitensis presentation.
B. can be made based upon the detection of viral capsid
4. An important step in the mechanism proposed for antigens in stool samples.
oncogenesis by human papillomaviruses is: C. is routinely made by electron microscopy of suitably treated
A. inactivation of a cellular regulatory gene by human stool samples.
papillomavirus integration into the coding region of the D. can only be made on epidemiologic grounds (for example,
gene. if there is an epidemic).
B. transactivation of a normally silent cellular oncogene by a 11. A 26-year old male working as marketing executive
human papillomavirus early protein. from Thirupati presents with a urethral discharge and
C. reversal of keratinocyte differentiation caused by continued dysuria. A swab specimen was collected and examined
active replication and production of progeny human by Gram stain followed by light microscopy.
papillomavirus. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes were detected in the
D. specific binding of certain human papillomavirus early exudate along with intracellular and extracellular
proteins to cellular antioncoproteins. Gram negative diplococci. How should this patient’s
infection be treated?
5. The characteristic spectrum of diseases caused by A. With penicillin
autonomous parvoviruses is related to the fact that B. With a tetracycline-based antibiotic such as doxycycline.
they: C. With a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic such as
A. integrate into a specific chromosomal site that disrupts an ceftriaxone
essential gene and leads to death of the cell. D. With a combination of ceftriaxone and doxycycine
B. require host cells that are actively progressing through 12. Pathogens in the genus Rickettsia:
the mitotic cycle. A. grow only extracellularly.
C. infect only terminally differentiated cells. B. . generally invade the endothelial lining of capillaries, causing
D. code for an early protein that shuts off cellular protein small hemorrhages.
synthesis. C. cause contagious infections because they are disseminated
by respiratory droplets.
6. A 60-year-old man who is munocompromised had D. are clinically sensitive to penicillin.
received multiple courses of antibiotics. Blood 13. The characteristic rash of erythema infectiosum is
cultures grew gram-positive cocci, which tested due to:
positive with group D streptococcal anti - sera. The A. virion/antibody immune complex formation.
isolate was resistant to penicillin and vancomycin. B. bone marrow suppression caused by killing of erythrocyte
Which one of the following is the most likely precursors by B19 infection.
pathogen? C. damage to the liver.
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. B19 infection of epithelial cells.
B. Enterococcus faecium 14. Which of the following results are consistent with a
C. Streptococcus pyogenes diagnosis of gonococcal infection?
D. Streptococcus agalactiae A. Growth of small colonies consisting of gram-negative
diplococci. Bacteria grown on plates are catalase and
7. Which one of the following is characteristic of oxidase positive.
mycobacteria? B. Growth of small colonies consisting of gram-positive cocci.
A. They contain mycolic acids. Bacteria growth on plates are catalase and oxidase positive.
B. They are resistant to inactivation by heat. C. Growth of small colonies consisting of gram-negative
C. They grow extracellularly. diplococci. Bacteria growth on plates are catalase and
D. They are anaerobic. oxidase negative.
D. Growth of large mucoid colonies consisting of gram-negative
8. A feature of chlamydiae that is unique to this group bacilli. Bacteria growth on plates are catalase and oxidase
is: negative.

Every day Monday –Friday 5:00 pm -8:00 pm, Saturday – online Subject test and
Discussion 5 pm -8pm Sunday – Full Scale online NEET PG Grand test and Live
Discussion 12:00 -3:00 pm Call to enroll today : 09000868356 , 09505948391
Dr. Murali Bharadwaz Classes for MD/MS Entrance Coaching Programme
29 Week NEETPG MD Entrance Live Online interactive Classes
www.onlinembbs.com Quiz Day - 11 2
15. The early genes of DNA viruses code primarily for 23. Which one of the following statements concerning
proteins whose functions are required for: plasmids is true?
A. transcription of viral mRNA. A. All plasmids can be transfered between bacteria by
B. translation of the capsid proteins. conjugation.
C. replication of the viral DNA. B. Much of the information coded in the plasmid is essential
D. final uncoating of the infecting virions. to the survival of the bacteria cell.
16.A group of 40 people from Patna complained of C. Resistance plasmids carry genes for antibiotic resistance.
experiencing fatigue, fever, nausea, and dark urine D. Resistance plasmids cannot be transferred to other bacterial
and were observed to be jaundiced Within 3 to 4 cells.
weeks after eating raw oysters at a company 24. Which of the following is most characteristic of
partyThe causative agent consistent with this history Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection?
is most likely: A. Infection results in a fever of sudden onset accompanied
A. hepatitis A virus. by a productive cough.
B. hepatitis B virus. B. Infection most commonly occurs in the upper respiratory
C. hepatitis E virus. tract.
D. hepatitis D virus. C. Infection is definitively diagnosed by direct microscopic
17. An older, alcoholic male develops severe, necrotizing examination of sputum.
lobar pneumonia. The organism is Lac+ and produces D. Reinfection is rare and less severe than primary infection.
a luxuriant capsule. The most likely agent is: 25. A 36-year-old woman complained of unrelenting
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae. headache, accompanied by fever, chills, and malaise.
B. Serratia species. After 2 to 4 days, a dry cough developed. Chest X-
C. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis. rays reveal a patchy, diffuse bronchopneumonia
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. involving both lobes. Her white cell count was normal.
18. The microscopic picture in peripheral smear seen Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
in presentation typical of infectious mononucleosis A. Legionellosis
B. . Infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae
caused by Epstein-Barr virus is due to:
C. Infection with Streptococcus pneumoniae
A. stimulation of B-cell proliferation by the Epstein-Barr virus
D. Infection with Haemophilus influenzae
early proteins synthesized in the infected cells.
26. which of the following is the drug of choice for most
B. proliferation of cytotoxic T cells responding to Epstein-
trematode infection?
Barr virus antigens expressed on the surface of infected B
A. Niclosamide
cells.
B. Thiabendazole
C. a primary humoral immune response to the Epstein-Barr
C. Praziquantel
virus infection.
D. Diethylcarbamazine
D. macrophages responding to the death of Epstein- Barr
27. Killing of liver cells infected with hepatitis B virus is
virus–infected cells.
primarily caused by:
19. Which of the following is the typical source of
A. shut-off of cellular protein synthesis.
hepatitis A and E infection.:
B. intracytoplasmic accumulation of hepatitis B virus antigen
A. contaminated water supply.
aggregates.
B. body fluids, such as urine and semen.
C. degradation of cellular mRNA.
C. respiratory droplets.
D. attack by cytotoxic T lymphocytes directed against
D. direct contact.
hepatitis B virus antigens.
20. Plasmodium falciparum, which causes malaria, is an
28.The following results were obtained from serological
example of:
and biochemical testing of the serum in a patient
A. an ameboid protozoan.
suffering from hepatitis HBsAg positive, HBeAg
B. a sporozoan.
positive, anti-HBcAg IgM positive, anti-HBsAg
C. a flagellate.
negative, HDV RNA negative, elevated liver enzymes.
D. a schizont.
From these results, how would you diagnose this
21. A 24 year old man from Varanasi presented with
patient’s infection?
high fever, pain in the abdomen, and watery diarrhea.
A. Acute hepatitis B disease
There is a faint rash on the patient’s abdomen and
B. Chronic hepatitis B disease
chest. A blood specimen was collected and plated
C. Chronic hepatitis B disease with hepatitis D superinfection
on MacConkey agar, incubated at 37°C in ambient
D. Acute hepatitis D disease
air. Lac– colonies grew on the plates. The cultured
organism was a gram-negative rod that did not
29. Which of the following helminthic diseases is
produce Shiga or Shiga-like toxins. The most likely
transmitted by direct skin penetration by helminth
etiological agent for this man’s disease is:
larvae?
A. Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli
A. Filariasis
B. Shigella dysenteriae
B. Visceral larva migrans
C. Salmonella typhi
C. Dracunculiasis
D. Helicobacter pylori
D. Schistosomiasis
22. Specific antitoxin is an important part of treatment
30. Which of the following is transmitted to humans via
in:
an arthropod vector?
A. gas gangrene.
A Pasteurella multocida
B. tetanus.
B. Legionella pneumophila
C. necrotic enteritis.
C. Yersinia pestis
D. pseudomembranous colitis.
D. Brucella abortus

Every day Monday –Friday 5:00 pm -8:00 pm, Saturday – online Subject test and
Discussion 5 pm -8pm Sunday – Full Scale online NEET PG Grand test and Live
Discussion 12:00 -3:00 pm Call to enroll today : 09000868356 , 09505948391

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