Ese Civil Solution

Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
SET - C
1. Which of the following statements are correct Sol.

in respect of temperature effect on a long RE
carrying three hinged arch? HE E
R
1. No stresses are produced in a three- 200 N
hinged arch due to temperature change 2m
alone.  C
TE
A

2. There is a decrease in horizontal thrust 2m
due to rise in temperature. HD
3. There is an increase in horizontal thrust D B
due to rise temperature. RD
4m 4m
AS
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Taking moment about D
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
200 × 8 = HE × 4
Ans. (a)
1600
2. Consider the frame as shown in the figure HE = = 400 N
4
M
E 200 N
3. The load system in the figure moves from left
HE
to right on a girder of span 10 m.
2m
 C 150 kN
 
90 –  120 kN
S
2m 70 kN
60 kN
D 4m 4m
IE
0.5 m 0.5 m 1m
The magnitude of the horizontal support A B
reaction at E is
10 m
(a) 400 kN (b) 300 kN
(c) 250 kN (d) 200 kN The maximum bending moment for the girder
Ans. (a) is nearly
(a) 820 kNm (b) 847 kNm
(c) 874 kNm (d) 890 kNm
Ans. (d)
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
Sol. 80 200 200 80
120 60 150 70
or
2m 2m
0.5m 0.5m 1m A
4m 12m
16m
12 A 10
RR
10 m
16 16
Resultant location of load is given by
150 +
120
TEE
60 R 70 2m 2m
10m
–
x –2
16
x = T
(70  0)  (150  1)  (60  1.5)  (120  2)
400
–4
16
ILD for SF at (A)
ASS
= 1.2 m When 200 kN load is leading :
Max. BM will be taken as below 150 kN Max. (–)ve SF when 200 kN is just to the left
of sec. (A)
MA
150
120 60 R=400 70  4   2 
VA = 200    80  
 16   16 
S M
960
= = –60 kN
16
4.1m 0.5m 0.3m 1m 3.9m
400  4.9 When 80 kN load is leading :
0.1m 0.1m
10
= 196 kN
Max. (–)ve SF when 80 kN is just to the left
of (A)
IEIES
BM below 150 kN is 196 × 4.9 – 70 ×1

= 890.4 kNm.  4   2  720
VA = 80    200   = = –45 kN
 16   16  16
4. Two wheel loads 80 kN and 20 kN respectively
spaced 2 m apart, move on a girder of span When 200 kN is just to the left of (A)
16 m. Any wheel load can lead the other. The
maximum negative shear force at a section  4   10 
VA = 200    80   = 0
4 m from the left end will be 16
   16 
(a) –50 kN (b) –60 kN
5. The maximum possible span for a cable
(c) –70 (d) –80 kN supported at the ends at the same level
Ans. (b) (assuming it to be in a parabolic profile)
Sol. 1
allowing a central dip of of the span with
10
permissible stress of 150 N/mm2 (where the
steel weighs 78,000 N/m3) will be nearly
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
(a) 1270 m (b) 1330 m 6. A three-hinged arch has a span of 30 m and

(c) 1388 m (d) 1450 m a rise of 10 m. The arch carries UDL of 60
kN/m on the left half of its span. It also carries
Ans. (c) two concentrated loads of 160 kN and 100
Sol. Let the maximum horizontal span be  kN at 5 m and 10 m from the right end.
metres.
The horizontal thrust will be nearly

Dip of the cable = h = metres (a) 446 kN (b) 436 kN
10
(c) 428 kN (d) 418 kN
8 h2 Ans. (c)
Length of the cable = L =   
R
3 
Sol.
 8  h 2  60 kN/m 100 kN

= 1  3     = L
TE
    160 kN
 8 1  308
=  1    = 300  10m
 3 100 
Let the area of the cable be A mm2 H
Weight of the cable = W 30m
AS
308 A R
=   78000 N;
300 10002 R × 15 – H × 10 – 60 × 15 × 7.5 = 0
W = 0.08008 A N 1.5R – H – 675 = 0 ...(1)
Each vertical reaction R × 30 – 60 × 15 × 22.5 – 100 × 10 – 160
M
× 5 = 0
W
= V= ; R = 735 kN
2
 H = 427.5 kN
W
Horizontal reaction = H =
8h 7. An unstable vibratory motion due to combined
S
W 5 bending and torsion which occurs in flexible

= (10) = W plate like structures is called
8 4
(a) Galloping (b) Ovalling
IE
 Max. tension = Tmax = V 2  H2

(c) Flutter (d) Oscillation
2 2
 W   5W  Ans. (c)
=  2   4  = 1.35 W
    Sol. Flutter is a oscillatory motion that results from
the coupling of aerodynamic forces with the
= 1.35 × 0.08008 A N
elastic deformation of a structre. It is often the
Tmax results of combined bending and torsion and
Maximum stress = = f max effects plate like structures.
A
Examples: sign boards and suspension
 1.35  0.08008 = 150
bridges decks.
  = 1387.5 m
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
8. A propped cantilever beam of span l and

x
constant plastic moment capacity Mp carries 12t
30°
a concentrated load at mid-span. The load at
We P
collapse will be b a
12t 30°
2 Mp 4 Mp
(a) (b)
l l
Effective width (W e) = a + 24t (If, x > 12t)
RR
6 Mp 8 Mp
(c) (d) Effective width (W e) = b (If, x < 12t)
l l
Ans. (c) 10. A wind brace is to be provided between two
TEE
columns spaced at 5m, at an inclination of
MP 30° with the horizontal, to resist a tension of
Sol.
L/2 PL/2 320 kN developed by a wind force. The
T 
 
eff ectiv e area required will be nearly
(considering 150 N/m2 as a relevant factor)
(a) 1670 mm2 (b) 1640 mm2
ASS
MP MP
(c) 1600 mm2 (d) 1570 mm2
Ans. (c)
L
MA
P  = 3MP 
2 11. A beam column for non-sway column in a
building frame is subjected to a factored axial
6MP load of 50 kN, factored moment at bottom of
S M
P=
L column of 45 kNm. For ISHB 200, the values
9. A steel plate is subjected to tension. The are A = 4750 mm2,  y  45.1, h = 200 mm, b
tensile force is applied over a width ‘a’ whereas = 200 mm, bf = 9 mm and the effective length
the gross width of the plate ‘b’. The dispersion is 0.8 L. Its buckling load will be
IEIES
of the force from the point of application is at (a) 910 kN (b) 930 kN
about 30° with the axis and extends to a
maximum width of 12 times the thickness t of (c) 950 kN (d) 980 kN
the plate. The effective width which into action Ans. (c)
will be Sol. Pe = equivalent axial load
(a) 2a + 12t (b) a + 12t
2Mz
(c) a + 24t (d) 2a + 24t Pe = P  , where d = depth of beam
d
Ans. (c)
45000
Sol. = 500 + 2 × = 950 kN
200
12. Which of the following assumptions are correct

for ideal beam behaviour?
1. The compression flange of the beam is
restrained from moving laterally
2. The tension flange of the beam is
restrained from moving laterally.
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
3. Any form of local buckling is prevented.

(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) 3 only
Ans. (b)
Sol. Two important assumptions are made for ideal
beam behaviour. Fig. (a)
(i) Compression flange of beam is restrained

Vierendeel girders : When the chords are
laterally.
parallel as shown in figure below, they are
(ii) Local buckling of elements is prevented.
R
called as Vierendeel girders. In a Vierendeel
girder, the loading is carried by a combination
13. In which one of the following industrial roofing
of pure flexure and flexure due to shear
contexts, is the loading carried by the
induced by the relative deformation between
TE
combination of pure flexure and flexure due
the ends of the top and bottom chord
to shear induced by the relative deformation
members, similar to that found in castellated
between the ends of the top and bottom chord
beams.
members?
(a) Vierendeel girders
AS
(b) Scissors girders
(c) Lenticular girders
(d) Mansard girders Fig. (b)
Ans. (a) Lenticular truss : The lens shaped truss is
Sol. Mansard truss : When straight members are called as lenticular truss, as shown in figure
M
used for top chords, they are called Mansard below has been used in some bridges in USA.
trusses. Any web system may be used, since Here again the web members will carry zero
the web stresses are normally small. If, for forces and hence may be removed and the
example, a parabolic upper chord is used and joints may be made rigid as shown in figure
the truss is subjected to a uniform load, there below.
S
will be no stress in the web members, uniform

tension throughout the lower chord, and
compression in the upper chord (forces in
upper chord members will be slightly higher
IE
than the lower chord members due to their

slope). In other words, the behaviour will be Fig. (c)
similar to that of a tied arch of the same rib
form. The diagonals, though carrying zero Scissors truss : The scissors truss is shown
forces, are provided for stability under varying below, is used infrequently in steel construction
loading conditions, if the joints are pin- but is included to show as efficient form for
connected. Both bowstring and mansard use in short spans. In these types of trusses,
trusses are used for longer spans. both the chords are sloped.
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
dc
For minimum cost, 0
ds
 –k1/s2 + 2k2s + k3 = 0
 k1/s + 2k2s2 + k3s = 0
Fig. (d)  –l + 2p + r = 0
 l = 2p + r
14. Bearing stiffeners are provided
RR
(a) At the ends of plate girders 16. A welded plate girder of span 25 m is laterally
restrained throughout its length. It has to carry
(b) At the ends of plate girder and on both a load of 80 kN/m over the whole span besides
faces of the wen
TEE
its weight. If K = 200 and f y = 250 MPa, the
(c) At the ends of plate girder and only on thickness of web will be nearly
one face of the web (a) 10 mm (b) 14 mm
T
(d) At the points of concentrated loads, to
protect the web f rom the direct
compressive loads.
(c) 16 mm
Ans. (a)
(d) 20 mm
ASS
Ans. (d) Sol. Span (l) = 25 m
Sol. Bearing stiffners are provided at joints of Factored applied udl = 1.5 × 80 = 120 kN/m
MA
concentrated loads, to protect the web from Total factored applied load (W) = 120 × 25
the direct compressive loads. = 3000 kN
15. If the cost of purlins/unit area is p and the W
S M
cost of roof covering/unit area is r, then cost Let self weight of the girder = kNm
200
of trusses/unit area l for an economical
3000
spacing =  15 kNm
200
(a) p + r (b) 2p + r
 Total uniform factored load = 120 + 15
IEIES
(c) p + 2r (d) 2p + 2r
= 135 kNm
Ans. (b)
2
135  25
Sol. Cost of truss is inversely proportional to the Maximum bending moment (M) =
spacing of truss, 8
= 105.46.875 kNm
 l  k1 / s
Optimum thickness of web,
Cost of purlins is directly proportional to the 1/3
square of spacing of trusses  M   10546.875  10 6 
tw  
 fyk 2  2

 P = k2s2    250  200 
Cost of roof covering is directly proportional = 10.17 mm  10 mm
to the spacing of trusses
17. A proper cantilever ABCD is loaded as shown
 r = k3s in figure. If it is of uniform cross-section, the
 Total cost = l + p + r collapse load of the beam will be nearly
C = k1/s + k2s2 + k3s
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
A
W W/8
A D
B MP C MP h
L/2 L/2 L/3

B C
b
MP MP
(a) 6.5 (b) 5.6 The shape factor will be nearly
L L
(a) 2.3 (b) 3.2
R
M M (c) 4.1 (d) 5.0
(c) 4.7 P (d) 3.8 P
L L
Ans. (a)
Ans. (a)
TE
Sol. Shope factor of triangular section is 2.34
Sol. Collapse mech-1
19. Fatigue in RCC beams will not be a problem
W W/8 if the number of cycles is less than
L/2 L/2 L/3
A D (a) 20,000 (b) 25,000
B C 
MP (c) 30,000 (d) 35,000
AS
Ans. (a)
W L 24 MP
  = MP   W  20. The desired characteristic strength of a mix is
8 3 L
20 N/mm2. The standard deviation is 4 N/
Collapse mech-2 mm2 for 150 mm size of concrete cubes; and
K = 1.645. The average strength of the cubes
M
W W/8 will be nearly

L/2 B L/2 L/3
A (a) 38.2 N/mm2 (b) 32.4 N/mm2
 C D
(c) 26.6 N/mm2 (d) 22.8 N/mm2
MP  
MP Ans. (c)
S
MP
Sol. Mean strength or average strength of cube
L W L fm = f ck + K
W –   = 3MP 
IE
2 8 3 Given f ck = 20 N/mm2
11 K = 1.645
WL = 3MP
24  = 4 N/mm2
MP  fm = 20 + 1.645 × 4
 W = 6.545
L = 26.58 N/mm2
18. Consider a triangular section with base b and  26.6 N/mm2

height h as shown in the figure. 21. A circular column is subjected to an un-
factored load of 1600 kN. The effective length
of the column is 3.5 m, the concrete is M 25,
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
ASC
and the value of g  = 2% for Fe 415
Ag
2.5m
steel. The design diagram of the column will
be nearly 80 N

(a) 446 mm (b) 432 mm
2.5m
(c) 424 mm (d) 41 mm
RR
Ans. (a)
Sol. From the options, it is clear that the column
is a short colum. 80(5)3
= = 10 × 10 –3
TEE
 48 EI
leff 3.5  103
As all the options are >  80(5)3
12 12 EI =
T = 291.67 mm
Hence we can consider the column as a short
48  10  10 3
Critical load =
2EA
ASS
axially loaded column 2
Pu = 0.4 f ck Ac + 0.67 f y Asc 2E 2EImin
= =
Asc = 2% of Ag = 0.02 Ag 2eff
MA
2
  eff 
 1.5 × 1600 × 103 = 0.4×25 (Ag – 0.02 Ag)  
 rmin 
+ 0.67 × 415 × 0.02 Ag
2
S M
 2400 × 103 = 9.8 Ag + 5.561 Ag =  EI

2eff
2400  103
 Ag =  156239.82 mm2 2 80(5)3
15.361 =  = 8224.67 N
(5)2 48  10  103
IEIES
 2
 D = 156239.82 23. The recommended imposed load on staircase
4
in residential buildings as per IS 875 is
 D = 446 mm
(a) 5.0 kN/m2 (b) 3.0 kN/m2
22. A strut is made of a circular bar, 5 m long and (c) 1.5 kN/m2 (d) 1.3 kN/m2
pin-jointed at both ends. W hen f reely
supported the bar gives a mid-span deflection Ans. (b)
of 10 mm under a load of 80 N at the centre. Sol. The recommended imposed load on stair case
in residential building as per IS 875
The critical load will be
(IS 875 (part 2), clause 3.1) is 3 kN/m 2.
(a) 8485 N (b) 8340 N
(c) 8225 N (d) 8110 N 24. A 230 mm brick masonry wall is to be provided
with a reinforced concrete footing on site
Ans. (c) having soil with safe bearing capacity of 125
Sol. kN/m2, unit weight of 17.5 kN/m3 and angle of
shearing resistance of 30°. The depth of
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
footing will be nearly  

(a) 0.8 m (b) 0.7 m  1 
=  d
(c) 0.6 m (d) 0.5 m 1  3t 
 280 
Ans. (a)
 
2  1 
q  1  sin   =    350
Sol. Depth of footing = 3  140
  1  sin   1 
 280 
2 = 140mm
125 1  sin30 
R
= 
17.5 1  sin30   x 
Balance moment = 0.5bx bc  d  b 
 3 
2
125  1  125 d
TE
=    C
17.5  3  157.5
xb
= 0.793 m
d  xb 
 0.8 m d  
 3 
25. A rectangular beam 200 mm wide has an T
AS
effective depth of 350 mm. It is subjected to
 140 
a bending moment of 24,000 Nm. The = 0.5  200  140  5   350  N.mm
permissible stresses are c = 5 N/mm2, t =  3 
140 N/mm2; and m is 18. The required area = 21233.33Nm
of tensile reinforced will be
 MORbalance < B.M
(a) 688 mm2 (b) 778 mm2
M
 Section needs to be designed as a over

(c) 864 mm2 (d) 954 mm2 reinforced
Ans. (b) Depth of Neutral axis

Sol. b = 200mm
 x
d = 350mm 0.5bxc  d   = 24000Nm
S
 3 
M = 24000Nm
 x
C = 5N/mm2  0.5  200  x  5   350  
3
IE

(Permissible stress in concrete in bending
= 24000×103N.mm
compression)
 175000x – 166.67x2 – 24000 × 103 = 0
t = 140N/mm2
(Permissible stress in steel)  x = 887.78mm (it is out of section and
shall be discarded)
m = 18 (Modular ratio)
x = 162.10mm
It is a WSM based quations,
 1 
Balance depth of N.A =  3St d
1  
 280 
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
cbc (C) modulus of elasticity will have low creep and

shrinkage.
x These aggregate will generally not allow the
change in volume due to higher rigidity.
Also, as cement paste and water-cement ratio
is responsible for creep and shrinkage,
keeping minimum water-cement ratio, larger
fst (Strain diagram) aggregate size will lead to less shrinkage.
RR
m
(For over reinforced section) (strain diagram) 27. During earthquakes, the corner and edge
columns may be subjected to
c fst
TEE
= m dx (a) Uniaxial bending
x  
(b) Biaxial bending
5 fst


T
162.20
= 18 350  162.20

f st = 104.20 N/mm2

(c) Combined biaxial bending and torsion
(d) Combined biaxial bending and tension
Ans. (d)
ASS
MOR from tension side
Sol. During earthquake structre can behave as a
 x cantilever, inducing the tensile force in the
 24000 × 103 = fst A st  d  
MA
 3 columns lying on the side of application of

lateral load while inducing compressive force
 162.20 
= 104.20A st  350  on the columns on the opposite side.
 3 
S M
Also, biaxial bending will be there in the corner

 Ast = 778.30mm2  778mm2
and edge columns.
26. Which of the following statements are correct
28. The minimum number of bars required in a
with reference to ensuring minimum shrinkage
rectangular column for an earthquake resistant
of prestressed concrete?
design, is
IEIES
1. The water-cement ratio and proportion of

(a) 4 (b) 6
cement paste should be kept minimum to
reduce shrinkage. (c) 8 (d) 10
2. Aggregates of larger size, well graded for Ans. (c)
minimum void, need a smaller amount of
29. The permissible of allowable compressive
cement paste, and attendant shrinkage
stress f ac of brick masonry does not depend
will be smaller.
on
3. Harder and denser aggregates of low
(a) Type of strength of bricks
water absorptions and high modulus of
elasticity will exhibit small shrinkage. (b) Efflorescence of bricks
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) Strength of mortar
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Slenderness ratio
Ans. (d) Ans. (b)
Sol. Concrete with aggregates that are hard, dense Sol. “Efflorescence” is a defect which is caused
and have low water absorption and high due to presence of excessive soluble salts in
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
brick earth. These salts after getting dissolved Resisting moment about toe
in water, appear in form of fine whitish crystals
on the exposed brick surface. This defect will  5  1.5  (5  1.5)
= 264     308  2 
result in ugly appearance. But it doesn’t affect  2  3
the strength of brick masonry. = 1840.67 kNm
Eccentricity about centroid
30. A masonry dam 8 m high 1.5 m wide at the 5
= x
top and 5 m wide at the base retains water to 2
a depth of 7.5 m, the water face of the dam
(MR  M0 ) 1840.67  689.765
being vertical. If the weight of water is 9.81 
R
x =
kN/m3, weight of masonry is 22 kN/m3, the
Vertical load (308  264)
maximum intensity of stress developed at the = 2.01 m
base will be nearly. 5
(a) 196 kN/m2
(c) 160 kN/m2
Ans. (b)
Sol.
(b) 182 kN/m2
(d) 148 kN/m2
TE e=
2
 2.01  0.49 m
Stress at toe =
=
572 
1
W
b
6  0.49 


1 

6e 
b 

AS
5  5 
= 181.80 kN/m  182 kN/m2
2
1.5 m
31. Consider the following data
Root zone depth = 2 m
Existing water content = 5%
M
Dry density of soil = 15 kN/m3

8.0 m Water applied to their soil = 500 m3
7.5 m
Water loss due to evaporation and deep
percolation = 10%
S
Area of plot = 1000 m2

5m The field capacity of the soil will be nearly.
IE
(a) 16.8 % (b) 17.7 %

Weight of rectangular portion = 1.5 × 8×22 (c) 18.8 % (d) 19.7 %
= 264 kN Ans. (d)
Weight of triangular portion Sol. Root zone depth, D = 2 m
= 0.5 × (5 – 1.5) × 8 × 22  d = 15 kN/m3
= 308 kN
 w = 9.81
Overturning moment about toe
7.5 Water applied to the soil = 500 m3
2
= 0.5  9.81 7.5 
3  Water loss due to evaporation and deep
= 689.765 kN-m
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
percolation = 10% foundation.

 Amount of water lost = 50 m3 2. The diff erence in weir crest and
downstream river bed may not exceed 3m.
 Total water stored = 450 m3
3. W hen water passes ov er it, the
 Area of plot = 1000 m2
longitudinal location of the formation of
450 hydraulic jump is variable.
 Depth of water stored, d =  0.45 m
1000 This weir is of the type.
 Existing water content may be assumed
RR
(a) Vertical drop weir
as M0 = 5%
(b) Masonry or concrete sloping weir
d
 d =   D  (FC  M0 ) (c) Dry stone slope weir
TEE
w
(d) Parabolic weir
15
0.45 =  2 (FC  0.05) Ans. (b)
9.81
T FC = 0.1971
FC = 19.71%
Sol. Masonary on concrete sloping weir.
Weir of this type are of recent origin. They
ASS
are suitable for soft sandy foundation, and
32. Consider the following data for irrigation water: are generally used where the difference in
weir crest and downstream river bed is limited
MA
Milli - equivalent to 3m, when water passes over such a weir,

Concentration hydraulic jump is formed on the sloping glacis.
per litre
1 Na 24 34. Consider the following data while designing
S M
 an expansion transition for a canal by Mitra’s

2 Ca 3.6
method:

3 Mg 2
Length of flume = 16 m
The solidum-Absorption ratio (SAR) is nearly Width of throat = 9 m
IEIES
(a) 13.1 (b) 14.3 Width of canal = 15 m

(c) 15.5 (d) 16.7 If Bx is the width at any distance x from the
Ans. (b) flumed section, the values of BX at x = 8 m
and at x = 16 m are nearly
[Na ]
Sol. SAR = (a) 10.8 m and 15 m
[Ca2 ]  [Mg2 ]
(b) 11.3 m and 15 m
2
(c) 10.8 m and 13 m
24
= (d) 11.3 m and 13 m
3.6  2
2 Ans. (b)
SAR = 14.34 Sol. According to Mitra, channel at any section, at

a distance x from the flumed section is given
33. Consider the following statements with respect by,
to weir under discussion:
Bn  Bf  Lf
1. Its design corresponds to soft sandy Bx = L B  (B  B )x
f n n f
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
where, Bn = 15 m, width of canal (c) Train the flow along a certain course
Bf = 9 m, width of throat (d) Reduce the silting in the river bed
Lf = 16 m, length of flume Ans. (c)
Bx = width at any distance x from flumed Sol. Groynes are the embankment type structures,
section constructed transverse to the river flow,
at x = 8 m extending from the bank into the river. They
are constructed to protect the bank from which
15  9  16 they are extended, by deflecting the current
Bx =  11.25  11.3 m
16  15  (15  9) away from the bank i.e, to train the flow along
a certain course.
R
at x = 16 m
37. Which one of the following compounds of
15  9  16
Bx =  15 m nitrogen, when in excessive amounts in water,
16  15  (15  9)  16
TE
contributes to the illness known as infant
methemoglobinemia?
(a) Ammoniacal nitrogen
35. Consider the following data for a drain:
(b) Albuminoid nitrogen
L = 50 m a = 10 m, b = 10.3 m, and
(c) Nitrite
AS
k = 1 × 10–5 m/s
(d) Nitrate
If the drains carry 1% of average annual
rainfall in 24 hrs, the average annual rainfall Ans. (d)
for which this system has been designed will Sol. Presence of nitrates in too much amount
be causes a disease called methemoglobinemia
(a) 78 cm (b) 84 cm (also known as blue baby disease). Children
M
suffering from this disease may vomit, their

(c) 90 cm (d) 96 cm skin colour may become dark and may die in
Ans. (b) extreme cases.
4k 2 38. Consider the following data regarding a
Sol. S= (b  a2 )
q theoretical profile of a dam:
S
4  105  (10.32  102 ) Permissible value of compressible stress

50 =
q   350 tonnes/m2
IE
q = 4.872 × 10–6 m3/s

Specific gravity of concrete s = 2.4
1
   (S  1)
100 Uplift coefficient c = 0.6m
q=
8.64  104
The value of   1
 = 0.841m  84 cm
36. The purpose of constructing a ‘Groyne’ is to The height and base width will be nearly
(a) Expand a river channel to improve its (a) 125m and 63m
depth (b) 175m and 63m
(b) Encourage meandering (c) 125m and 93m
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
(d) 175m and 93m in a city of one lakh population. The factor of
Ans. (c) safety is taken as 1.5, detention time as 4 h
and overflow rate as 20,000 litres/day/m2. The
Sol.  = 350 tonnes/m2 area of 3m deep plain sedimentation tank as
GC = 2.4 per surface loading consideration will be
 = 1 tonnes/m3 (a) 1025m2
(b) 1075m2
 =  wH(Gc  C  1)
(c) 1125m2
RR
350 = 1 × H (2.4 – 0.6 + 1)
(d) 1175m2
H = 125 m
Ans. (c)
TEE
H Sol. Given,
B= GC  C
Water demand = 150litres/head/day
T B=
125
2.4  0.6
 93 m Population = 1 lakh
Factor of safety = 1.5
ASS
39. Chlorine usage in the treatment of 25,000 m3/ Detention time = 4hrs
day of water has been 9 kg/day. The residual Overflow rate = 20,000litres/day/m2
chlorine after 10 minutes contact is 0.2 mg/  .
Depth of tank = 3m
MA
The chlorine demand of water would be nearly

Water flow = 150 × 105 × 1.5
(a) 0.28mg / 
= 22.5MLD
S M
(b) 0.22mg /  Q
Area of tank =
Overflow rate
(c) 0.16mg / 
22.5  106
(d) 0.12mg /  =
20,000
IEIES
Ans. (c) = 1125m2

Sol. Given, Flow = 25000m3/day
41. The rain intensity over 54 hectares of land is
Chlorine use = 9kg/day
50 mm/h, 30% of area consists of roof surface
Residual chlorine = 0.2 mg /  with runoff rate as 0.9, 30% is open field with
runoff rate of 0.2 and remaining 40% is road
9kg / day network with runoff rate of 0.4. The storm
Chlorine dose =
25000m3 / day water flow will be nearly
(a) 2.6m3/s (b) 3.7m3/s
9  106mg
= 3  (c) 4.8m3/s (d) 5.9m3/s
25000  10
Ans. (b)
= 0.36mg / 
Sol.
 Chlorine demand = 0.36  0.2mg / 
= 0.16mg / 
40. The demand of water is 150 litres/head/day
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
Ans. (c)
C1A1  C2 A 2  C3 A 3
Ceq = A1  A 2  A 3 Sol. As, sludge density index
100
= 0.9 × 0.3 + 0.2 × 0.3 =
+ 0.4×0.4 Sludge Volume index m  / gm 
= 0.49 100
=
 176 
 2000mg  2g
Q=CiA
 2 
 
50  103
= 0.49 ×  54  104 = 1.14g / m
3600
R
= 3.675 m3/sec 44. Which one of the following gases is the
 3.7 m3/sec. principal by-product of anaerobic
TE
decomposition of the organic content in waste
42. Critical dissolved oxygen (D.O.) deficit occurs water ?
in which one of the following zones of pollution (a) Carbon monoxide
of oxygen sag curve in case of self-purification
of natural streams ? (b) Ammonia
(a) Zone of recovery (c) Hydrogen sulphide

AS
(b) Zone of active decomposition (d) Methane
(c) Zone of degradation Ans. (d)
(d) Zone of clear water Sol. Methane is the principal by-product of

anaerobic decomposition of the organic
Ans. (b) content in waste water (around 60%).
Sol.
M
45. Consider the following statements with

Zone of Zone of
degradation recovery reference to the mixing of industrial waste
water with domestic waste water :
Clearer Clearer
DO water water
1. The industrial waste water can be mixed
S
Saturation with domestic water when it has higher BOD.

D.O
D.O 2. The industrial waste water can be mixed

sag c
40% of D.O ur ve
with domestic water when the pH value of
IE
Zone of
active industrial waste water is highly alkaline.
decomposition
Saturation
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
43. The MLSS concentration in an aeration tank (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
as 2000 mg/l and the sludge volume after 30
minutes of settling in a 1000 ml graduated (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
cylinder is 176ml. The value of sludge density Ans. (d)
index (SDI) will be nearly
Sol. Limit for disposal of industrial waste in sewer
(a) 3.34g / m (b) 2.22g / m line for BOD is 500mg/l and for pH is 5.5 –
9.0 according to BIS standard.
(c) 1.14g / m (d) 0.26g / m
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
And industrial waste compatible with domestic

ELR
sewage can be mixed with domestic sewer
(inversion)
H eight
hence neither of statements is true. Inversion
condition ALR
46. The waste water from a factory having a pH
of 10, contains KOH only. For waste water Temp.
discharge is 80m3/day. The total quantity of
KOH per day will be nearly
48. A thermal power plant burns coal at the rate
RR
(a) 4.5 kg/day (b) 5.4 kg/day of 8t/h. The coal has sulphur content of 4.5%.
(c) 6.3 kg/day (d) 7.2 kg/day The rate of emission of SO2 will be
Ans. (*) (a) 180 g/s (b) 200 g/s
TEE
Sol. pH = 10 (c) 220 g/s (d) 240 g/s
pOH = 14 – 10 = 4 Ans. (b)
T
[OH–] = 10–pOH
[OH–] = 10–4 mole/litre
Sol. Rate of coal Burning = 8t/hr = 8000kg/hr
Sulphur content in coal = 4.5%
ASS
Molecular weight of KOH = 39 + 16 + 1 Sulphur (S) present in coal after burning will
be converted into SO2 (sulphur di-oxide)
= 56gm
Rate of burning of sulphur present in coal
Total quantity of KOH per day = discharge ×
MA
concentration of KOH 415

= 8000kg/hr 
= 80 × 103 × 10–4 1000
= 360kg/hr
S M
= 8 mol/day
= 8 × 56 gm/day As the sulphur converted into sulphur di-oxide,
moles of sulphur present in coal will be equal
= 0.448 kg/day to SO2 released
47. Fanning type of plume behaviour takes place S + O2  SO2
IEIES
when Moles of sulphur converting into

(a) Super-adiabatic lapse rate prevails with 360kg / hr
light to moderate wind speed SO2 = Molecular weight
(b) Extreme inversion conditions exist in the
presence of light wind 360  103
= / hr
(c) There exists a strong super-adiabatic 32
lapse rate above a surface of inversion = 11250 moles/hr
(d) Plume is caught between two inversion Rate of emission of SO2 = Rate of burning of
layers sulphur × molecular weight of SO2
Ans. (b) = 11250 × 64gm per hour
Sol. Fanning plume behaviour takes place when
11250  64
extreme inversion conditions exist in the = gm / sec
3600
presence of light wind.
= 200gm/sec
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
49. The property of clays by virtue of which they 35 22

regain, if left alone for a time, a part of the  
0.42  WS 0.3  WS
strength lost due to remoulding at unaltered
moisture content, is known as  W S = 0.0969 = 9.69%
(a) Thixotropy (b) Sensitivity VL  Vd
 100
(c) Consistency (d) Activity Vd
 Shrinkage ratio (SR) =
Ans. (a) WL  WS
Sol. The property of soil due to which loss of 35

=  1.083  1.1
strength on remoulding can be regained if left (42  9.69)
R
undisturbed for sometime is known as
“Thixotropy”. 51. The ratio of a given volume change in a soil
expressed as percentage of the dry volume,
Increase in strength with passage of time is
to the corresponding change in water content
TE
due to tendency of clay soil to regain their
is called
chemical equilibrium with the reorientation of
water molecule in adsorbed layer. (a) Specific gravity of soil solids
(b) Mass-specific gravity of soils
(c) Shrinkage ratio of soils
50. The plastic limit and liquid limit of a soil are
AS
30% and 42% respectively. The percentage (d) Density ratio of soils
volume change from liquid limit to dry state is Ans. (c)
35% of the dry volume. Similarly the
Sol.
percentage volume change from plastic limit
to dry state is 22% of the dry volume. The
 V1  V2 
shrinkage ratio will be nearly  V   100
 
M
S.R. = d
(a) 4.2 (b) 3.1 (w1  w 2 )
(c) 2.2 (d) 1.1
Ans. (d) Here, V1 – V2 = change in volume of soil
Sol. Vd = dry volume of soil

S
w1 – w2 = change in water content

52. A masonry dam is founded on pervious sand
VL D a factor of safety of 4 is required against
IE
B boiling. For the sand, n = 45% and GB = 2.65.

VP C
The maximum permissible upward hydraulic
VS O gradient will be nearly
A
(a) 0.18 (b) 0.23
WS WP WL (c) 0.28 (d) 0.33
VL  Vd V  Vd Ans. (b)
 P
WL  WS WP  WS Sol. GS = 2.65
VL  Vd VP  Vd n = 45% = 0.45
 100  100
Vd VS
 
WL  WS WP  WS
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
n 0.45 0.45  Cu = 170.38 × (0.11 + 0.0037 × 30)

 e    0.82
1  n 1  0.45 0.55 = 37.65  37.7 kN/m2
Gs  1 54. A 6m high retaining wall with a vertical back
Critical hydraulic gradient (iCr) = has a backfill of silty sand with a slope of 10°
1 e
for the backfill. With values of KR = 760 kg/
1.65 m2/m and KV = 100kg/m2/m, the total active
=  0.906
1.82 earth pressure will approximately
iCr (a) 128kN/m (b) 134kN/m
RR
FOS = i
possible (c) 138kN/m (d) 142kN/m
0.906
 ipossible =  0.2265  0.23
TEE
4
Ans. (c)
Sol. kH = 760 kg/m2/m
53.
T
The representative liquid limit and plastic limit
values of a saturated consolidated clay deposit
are 60% and 30%, respectively. The saturated
kV = 100 kg/m2/m
By Peck, Hanson and Thornburn
ASS
unit weight of the soil is 19 kN/m3. The water
1 2 1 2
table is at 8 m below ground level. At a depth PH  K H  H   760  6
of 10m from the ground surface, the undrained 2 2
MA
shear strength of the soil will be nearly = 13680 kg/m = 136.8 kN/m
(a) 37.7 kN/m2 (b) 33.5 kN/m2
1 2 1 2
(c) 29.3 kN/m2 (d) 25.1 kN/m2 PV  K V  H   100  6
S M
2 2
Ans. (a)
= 1800 kg/m = 18 kN/m
Sol. Given : W L = 60%
2 2 2 2
W P = 30%  PA  PH  PV  136.8  18
IEIES
 sat  19 kN / m
3 = 138 kNm
55. The vertical stress at any point at a radial

distance r and at depth z as determined by
8m
using Boussinesq’s influence factor KB and
Westergaard’s influence factor KW would be
2m
r
almost same for   ratios equal to or greater
z
For clayey soil,   Cu
than
Cu
 0.11  0.037 Ip (%) (a) 2.0 (b) 1.8
z
(c) 1.5 (d) 1.2
z = 8 × 19 + 2(19 – 9.81) = 170.38 kN/m2 Ans. (c)
Ip = 60 – 30 = 30% Sol. Boussinesq’s influence factor = kB
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
 1  Df
3  2  1, dc  dq  1
= r B
2 1    
  z   For strip footing
Westergaard’s influence factor = kW
sc = sq = 1
1
= 3/ 2 For   0, Nc  5.14, Nq  1, N  0
 2
 1  2  r  
 z   qu = CNc + (  t  1   sub  0.5)  Nq
r qu = 40 × 5.14 + (20 + (20 – 9.81)×0.5) × 1
R
When  1.5, k W  k B
z = 230.695 kN/m2  231 kN/m2
Hence, QBoussinesq  QWestergaard
(Assuming  t   sat for clay)
TE
56. A strip footing 2m in width, with its base at a
depth of 1.5m below ground surface, rests on 57. The settlement due to secondary compression
3 is predominant in
a saturated clay soil with  sat  20kN / m ; cu
(a) Granular soils
= 40kN/m 2; u  0; c’ = 10kN/m 2; and
(b) Inorganic clays
AS
 '  20 . The natural water table is at 1m
(c) Organic clays
depth below ground level. As per IS : 6403 –
1981, the ultimate bearing capacity of this (d) Very fine sand and silts
footing will be Ans. (c)
(taking the relevant Nc as 5.14) Sol. Seondary compression is caused by creep,

viscous behaviour of the clay-water system,
(a) 327kN/m2 (b) 285kN/m2
M
compression of organic matter etc.

(c) 253kN/m2 (d) 231kN/m2 In organic clays due to high content of organic
Ans. (d) matter, secondary consolidation is
predominant.
Sol.
S
58. A raft foundation 10m wide and 12m long is

to be constructed in a clayey soil having shear
Dw = 1m strength of 12kN/m2. Unit weight of soil is
IE
16kN/m 3. the ground surface carries a

Df =
1.5m surcharge of 20kN/m2; the factor of safety is
1.2 and the value of Nc = 5.7. The safe depth
B = 2m
of foundation will be nearly
As per IS6403:1981 (a) 8.2m (b) 7.3m
qu = scdcic CNc + sqdqiq qNq (c) 6.4m (d) 5.5m
For footing we consider end of construction Ans. (d)
stability, Sol.
 C = Cu = 40 kN/m2,   u  0
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
k,  depend upon the pile material.
60. An excavation is made with a vertical face in

H Heaving
Qf a clay soil which has C u = 50 kN/m 2 ,
q q  t  18kN / m3 and sn = 0.261. The maximum
depth of a stable excavation will be nearly
(a) 10.6m (b) 12.4m
RR
(c) 14.2m (d) 16.0m
2
Given : q = 20 kN/m 2, u  Cu  12 kN / m , Ans. (a)
 = 16 kN/m3, B = 10 m, L = 12 m
TEE
C
Bearing capacity of soil for rectangular raft Sol. Sn = F    H
c t
footing in cohesive soil is given by :
As it is asked to calculate maximum depth of
 T B
Q f  1  0.3  CNc  D f  q
L
excavation, FOS = Fc = 1
50
ASS
 10  0.261 =
=  1  0.3  12  5.7  16D f  20 1 18  H
 12 
 H = 10.64  10.6 m
= 105.5 + 16D
MA
Base failure will occur when Qf = 0 61. Reconnaissance survey for determining
feasibility and estimation of scheme falls under
105.5 the classification based on the
Hence, D =  6.59
S M
16
(a) Nature of the field of survey
(minus sign indicates that it is excavation)
(b) Object of surveying
D 6.59
Safe depth =  = 5.49 m (c) Instruments used
FOS 1.2
(d) Method employed
IEIES
59. The skin frictional resistance of a pile driven Ans. (b)

in sand does not depend on
Sol. During reconnaissance survey, surveyor
(a) Lateral earth pressure coefficient should first of all thoroughly examine the
(b) Angle of friction between pile and soil ground to ascertain as how the work can be
(c) Pile material arranged in the best possible manner.
(d) Total stress analysis It falls under classification based on purpose

or object of surveying (for which surveying is
Ans. (d) conducted).
Sol. Skin frictional resistance for a driven pile in On the basis of object of surv ey the
sand classification can be as given below.
Q f   K  av tan    A surface (1) Control survey
(2) Hand survey
Where, k = lateral earth pressure coefficient
(3) Topographic survey
 = angle of friction between pile and soil
(4) Engineering survey
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
(a) Reconnaissance survey  tan (90  ) = cot 

(b) Preliminary survey
63. In plane surveying where a graduated staff is
(c) Location survey observed either with horizontal line of sight or
(5) Route survey inclined line of sight, the effect of refraction is
to
(6) Construction survey
(a) Increase the staff reading
(7) Astronomic survey
(b) Decrease the staff reading
(8) Mine survey
(c) Neither increase nor decrease the staff
62. A survey line BAC crosses a river, A and C reading
R
being on the near and distant banks
(d) Duplicate the staff reading
respectively. Standing at D, a point 50m
measured perpendicularly to AB from A, the Ans. (b)
TE
bearings of C and B are 320° and 230° Sol. Refraction is the phenomenon of light rays
respectively, AB being 25m. The width of the deviating from a straight line as they pass
river will be through different layers of air of different
(a) 80m (b) 90m densities.
(c) 100m (d) 110m Due to refraction ray of light bend towards
AS
centre of earth. Hence refraction make reading
Ans. (c)
lower than what it should be with a horizontal
Sol. line of sight.
Horizontal line of sight

C
T.V
M
R ef
r ac
te d
ray
x M.V
320°
A
S
50 m D

25 m 230°
IE
64. A sidereal day is the average time taken by

(a) The Earth to move around the sun once
B (b) The Moon to move around the Earth once
(c) The first point of Aries to cross the same
In ABD meridian successively
25 1 (d) The Earth to move around its own axis
tan  =   cot   2 once
50 2
x Ans. (c)
In  DAC 2
50 Sol. Side real day is the time interval between the
x
tan (90  ) = x  100 m
50
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
movement of the first point of aries over the = 100 m; and the size of each photograph is
same meridian twice. 20cm × 20cm. The minimum required number
of photographs will be
65. In triangulation in order to control the
accumulation of errors of length and azimuth (a) 170 (b) 158
subsidiary bases are selected. At certain (c) 146 (d) 134
stations the astronomical observations for Ans. (d)
azimuth and longitude are also made. These
stations are called A
RR
Sol. Number of photograph, N =
a
(a) Transportation stations
(b) Bowditch stations
A
1cm 1 
TEE
N= 
(c) Universe stations S  
 (1  PL   (1  Ps )w  
)l 100 m 10,000 
   
(d) Laplace stations  S   S 
Ans. (d)
Sol. T
The defect of triangulation is that it tends to
accumulate errors of length and azimuth, since 1
150  106
N = (1.06)  0.2 (1  0.3)  0.2

1
ASS
4
the length and azimuth of each line is based 10 104
on the length and azimuth of the preceding
line. 150  106
N=
MA
To control the accumulation of errors, 0.4  0.2  0.7  0.2  108

subsidiary bases are also selected. At certain 15  107
stations, astronomical observations f or N=
4  2  7  2  104
S M
azimuth and longitude are also made. These

N = 133.393  134 Nos.
stations are called Laplace stations.
68. Which one of the following conditions is not
66. A vertical photograph is taken at an altitude
correct with respect to the transition curve?
of 1200m above mean sea level (a.m.s.l.) of
IEIES
a terrrain lying at a elevation of 80m a.m.s.l. (a) It should be tangential to the straight
The local focal length of camera is 15cm. The approaches at the two ends
scale of the photograph will be nearly (b) It should meet the circular curv e
(a) 1 : 8376 (b) 1 : 7467 tangentially
(c) 1 : 6558 (d) 1 : 5649 (c) Its curvature will necessarily be non-zero
at the point of take-off from the straight
Ans. (b)
approaches
f 15  102 (d) The rate of increase of curvature along
Sol. Scale, S =  the transition reach should match with the
H  h 1200  80
increases of cant.
1 1
=  Ans. (c)
7466.66 7467
Sol. Radius of transition curve should be infinite
67. Aerial photographs are required to be taken when taking off from straight line or meeting
to cover an area of 150 km2. The longitudinal the straight line.
and side overlaps are to be 60% and 30%
respectively. The scale of photograph is 1cm
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
1 same radius. If the lines are 12m apart and

 Curvature = and R =  the maximum distance between tangent points
R
measured parallel to the straights is 48m, then
Curvature = 0
the maximum allowable radius will be
69. A circular curve has a long chord of 80m and (a) 51.1m (b) 52.3m
a versed sine of 4m. The height and ordinate
(c) 53.5m (d) 54.7m
at a distance of 30m from the mid-ordinate
will be nearly Ans. (a)
(a) 3.06m (b) 2.72m Sol.
(c) 2.24m (d) 1.76m 0 Railway
R
 T2
Ans. (d)
Sol. Long chord, L = 80 m
TE
12 R R
Versine = Mid-ordinate (M) = Oo = 4m
Oo 
30m
Ox
T1 T2 48
L/2
T1T2 = 482  122
AS
= 49.47m
R
12
sin  / 2 =  0.2426
49.47
 = 28.07°
2
L
O o  R  R   
2
M
12
2 Radius =
2 1  cos  
2
L
R  R 2     4 12
2 =
2 1  cos 28.07 
S
2
L = 51.01m
(R  4)  R 2   
2
71. In an old map, a line AB was drawn to a
(R – 4) = R2 – (40)2
IE
magnetic bearing of 5°30’, the magnetic

R2 – 8R + 16 = R2 – 402 declination at the time being 1° East. If the
present magnetic declination is 8°30’ East,
8R = 1616
the line should be set to a magnetic bearing
R = 202 m of
x2 (a) 358° (b) 2°
O x  Oo 
2R (c) 6 30 (d) 257°
2
30 Ans. (a)
Ox  4   1.77 m
2  202
70. Two parallel railway lines are to be connected

by a reverse curve, each section having the
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
Sol. 73. Consider two cars approaching from the

opposite directions at 90km/h and 60km/h. If
T.N the reaction time is 2.5s, coefficient of friction
M.N
is 0.7 and brake efficiency is 50% in both the
1° cases, the minimum sight distance required
5°30 B
T.B = 6°30 to avoid a head-on collision will be nearly
A
(a) 154m (b) 188m
(c) 212m (d) 236m
RR
Ans. (d)
Sol. Min sight distance required
Old map
TEE
 v12   v 22 
T.N =  v1tr     v 2 tr  
B  2g   2g 
T T.B = 6°30
2° M.N

=  90  0.278  2.5 

 90  0.278 2 
2  9.81 0.35 

ASS
8°30
  60  0.278 2 
+  60  0.278  2.5  
MA
 2  9.81 0.35 
A M.B = 360° – 2° = 235.92 m
= 358°
 236 m.
S M
Note : Co-effn of friction is taken as 0.35 (is 0.7 ×

0.5)
New map
74. What is the extra widening required (as
72. An unconformity is nearest magnitude) for a pavement of 7m
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width on a horizontal curve of radius 200m, if

(a) A surface of erosion or non-deposition as
the longest wheel of vehicle expected on the
detected in a sequence of rocks
road is 6.5m and the design speed is 65km/
(b) A layer of boulders and pebbles in a h?
sequence of rocks
(a) 0.3m (b) 0.5m
(c) A layer of clay or shale in an igneous
(c) 0.7m (d) 0.9m
mass
Ans. (c)
(d) A type of joint especially associated with
folded and faulted rocks Sol.
Ans. (a) nl 2 v
We = 
Sol. An unconformity is a buried erosional or non- 2R 2.64 R
depositional surface separating two rock
masses or strata of different ages, indicating 2  6.52 (65  0.278)
that sediment deposition was not continuous. = 
2  200 2.64  200
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
= 0.6952 Ans. (d)

 0.7 m. Sol. Various methods of speed and delay studies
are :
75. A vehicle moving at 40km/h speed was
1. Floating car method
stopped by applying brake and the length of
the skid marks was 12.2m. If the average 2. License plate method or vehicle number
skid resistance of the pavement is 0.70, the method
brake efficiency of the test vehicle will be 3. Interview technique
nearly
4. Elevated observation
(a) 80% (b) 74%
5. Photographic technique
R
(c) 68% (d) 62%
Ans. (b) 78. Consider the following data with respect to
the design of flexible pavement :
TE
Sol.
Design wheel load = 4200kg
v2
µbraking test = Tyre pressure = 6.0 kg/m2
2gl
Elastic modulus = 150 kg/cm2
 40  0.278 2
=
AS
2  9.81 12.2 Permissible deflection = 0.25cm
= 0.5166
1
(take 1/2  1.77, 1/ 2  0.564,  0.318 and
0.5166 
braking =  100
0.7
2  9.87 )
= 73.79%
M
The total thickness of flexible pavement for a

 74%.
single layer elastic theory will be nearly
76. The main drawback of automatic counters- (a) 42cm (b) 47cm
cum-classifiers, used for traffic volume studies,
(c) 51cm (d) 56cm
is that it is not yet possible to classify and
S
record Ans. (c)

(a) Vehicle type (b) Axle spacing Sol.
IE
(c) Axle load (d) Speed 1/2

 3P 2 2

Ans. (a) Total thickness =   a 
 2E  
77. Which one of the following is not a part of
‘speed and delay’ studies?  3P 2  P  
1/2
(a) Floating car method =     

 2E   p  
(b) Vehicle number method
1/2
(c) Interview technique  2
3  4200   4200  
(d) License number method =    
 2  3.14  150  0.25   3.14  6  
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
 51 cm. (d) Wind tends to carry drifting sand in a

zigzag way
79. The minimum possible grade that can be
provided in a tunnel and its approaches with Ans. (d)
providing adequately for proper drainage is 83. Consider the following data for designing a
(a) 0.1% (b) 0.2% taxiway for operating Boeing 707 – 320
(c) 0.3% (d) 0.4% aeroplane :
Ans. (b) Wheel base = 17.70m
RR
80. The section of the tunnel adopted perfectly in Tread of main loading gear = 6.62m
lieu of ease of construction and maintenance
Turning speed = 40km/h
TEE
in hard rock tunnels, where the risk of roof
failure or collapse caused by external pressure
Coefficient of friction between tyres and
from water, or from loose or unstable soil
pavement surface = 0.13
T
conditions on tunnel lining is practically non-
existent is
(a) Circular section
The turning radius of the taxiway will be
(a) 98.5m (b) 94.5m
ASS
(b) Segmental roof section (c) 89.5m (d) 86.5m
(c) Horse-shoe section Ans. (a)
MA
(d) Egg-shaped section

84. Which one of the following instances of
Ans. (a) performance of aircraft is not considered for
Sol. According to IRC : SP-91, circular sections
S M
determining basic runway length ?

are structurally best and are commonly used (a) Normal landing case
for underwater tunnels, tunnels through soft
ground and for tunnels excavated with TBM. (b) Normal take-off case
(c) Engine failure case
81. Which one of the following methods is adopted
IEIES
for tunneling in soft soils? (d) Emergency landing case
(a) Pitot tunnel method Ans. (d)
(b) Drift method Sol. Basic runway length is determined by 3 cases:
(c) Needle beam method (i) Normal landing case
(d) Heading and benching method (ii) Normal take off case
Ans. (c) (iii) Engine failure case
82. Which one of the following features does not Directions: Each of the next six (06) times
pertain to Littoral drift? consists of two statements, one labeled as
‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement
(a) It depends on length of wave (II)’. You are to examine the two statements
(b) It is the process of erosion of deposition carefully and select the answers to these six
by waves items using the codes given below :
(c) Waves caused by prevailing wind, stir up Codes:
and move sand particles
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are the area required for maximum mid-span
individually true, and Statement (II) is the moment in the slab.
correct explanation of Statement (I). Ans. (b)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are Sol. Both statements are individually correct. We
individually true, but Statement (II) is not provide torsion reinforcement in order to
the correct explanation of Statement (I). minimize the crack due to torsion.
(c) Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is
false 89. Statement (I): The inclination of the resultant
stress with normal can exceed angle of repose
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is
(adopting old terminology).
true.
R
Statement (II): The ratio of the difference
85. Statement (I): Expansive cement is used in
between greatest and least intensities of
repair work for opened up joints.
pressure to their sum cannot exceed the sine
Statement (II): Expansive cement expands
while hardening.
Ans. (a)
Sol. Expansive cement is a cement, which when
mixed with water, it will have a tendency to
TE Ans. (d)
Sol.
of the angle of repose (adopting old
terminology).
AS

increase in volume significantly while setting.
This will be helpful to repair the damaged  r = resultant stress
concrete surfaces.

 tan  
86. Statement (I): Plastic hinges are developed 
when stress at every point is equal to yield
M
stress.

Statement (II): Plastic hinges are formed at
sections subjected to the greatest curvature. (, )
 angle of repose
Ans. (b)   
S

3 1
87. Statement (I): If degree of fixity at supports is
lessened, the maximum hogging moment at  The inclination of the resultant stress with
IE
the ends will decrease. normal (i.e., angle of obliquity) cannot exceed
angle of repose, so statement (I) is incorrect
Statement (II): If degree of fixity at supports
is lessened, the maximum sagging moment 1  greatest pressure intensity
at mid-span decreases.
3  least pressure intensity
Ans. (c)
1  3
88. Statement (I): Torsion reinforcement is Now, sin  =
1  3
provided at (and near) corners in a two-way
slab which is simply supported on both edges  statement II is correct
meeting at the corner.
90. Statement (I): Alum works in slightly alkaline
Statement (II): The area of reinforcement in range.
each of the layers shall be three-quarters of
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
Statement (II): At higher temperatures, 93. A construction equipment has an initial cost
viscosity of water (resistance to settling) of Rs. 2,00,000 and salvage value of Rs.
decreases and flocs settle better. 50,000 at the end of an economic life of 5
Ans. (b) years. The rate of straight-line depreciation
and total depreciation will be
Sol. Alum is a coagulant which works efficiently in
slightly alkaline range i.e. between 6.5 to 8.5. (a) 0.1 and Rs. 1,50,000
At higher temperature viscosity of water (b) 0.2 and Rs. 1,50,000

decreases and floc formation is better (c) 0.1 and Rs. 1,00,000
RR
91. A front-end loader on a given job moves a (d) 0.2 and Rs. 1,00,000
load of 1.5 m3 of loose soil in one cycle Ans. (b)
TEE
consisting of loading-lifting-trav elling- Sol. Total depreciation = Initial cost – Salvage value
unloading-return trip-and-ready for next = 200,000 – 50,000
loading. If each cycle time is 1.2 minutes, the
= 1,50,000
T
actual output will be
(a) 75 m3/hour (b) 70 m3/hour  Depreciation by straight line method
ASS
(c) 65 m3/hour (d) 60 m3/hour Ci  Cs
=
n
Ans. (a)
Sol. Actual output = Volume in one cycle in cum 1 1
MA
 Rate of depreciation =   0.2

× No. of cycle per hour n 5
60
= 1.5   75 m3
S M
1.2
During this we will not consider idle time 94. Consider the following assembly with different
because in question it is accounted as ready operations
for next loading.
B D G
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92. Which of the following techniques belong to

A E
‘Project Time Plan’? H K
1. Critical path method C F
2. Precedence network analysis

Operation Standard time minutes
3. Line of balance technique
A 60
4. Linear programme chart
B 65
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
C 29
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
D 37
Ans. (a) E 28
Sol. Techniques for project time plan are critical F 63
path method, precedence network analysis
and line of balance technique. G 36
H 126
Linear programme chart is used for profit
maximisation, cost minimisation and resources K 64
allocation.
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
There are 250 working days in a year to (a) Activity float (b) Free float
produce 4000 units in a year. The minimum (c) Total float (d) Interfering float
number of work stations required will be
Ans. (b)
(a) 13 (b) 12
Sol. Activity float is range within which the start
(c) 11 (d) 10 time may fluctuate without affecting the
Ans. (a) completion time of the project
Sol. Total float is the maximum time by which an
activity can be delayed without affecting
EST Activity name EFT project completion time.
R
Duration
Free float is the time by which an activity can
60 B 125
65
125 D 162
37
162 G 198
36
be delayed without affecting earliest start time
0 A 60
of succeeding activity
TE
60 89 E 117
28 Interfering float is difference between total float
60 C 89 198 H 324 324 K 388
29 126 64 and free float.
89 F 152
63 97. A crew consisting of two carpenters and one
helper can fix 10 m2 of a slab form work in 8
The time required to assemble 1 unit is 388 hours and the hourly labour rate of a carpenter
AS
minutes. is Rs. 85 and for a helper is Rs. 69.50. An
average hourly rate per worker of the crew
Assuming 8 hours of working in a year. will be nearly
No. of unit manufactured by 1 working station (a) Rs. 90 (b) Rs. 80
250  8  60 (c) Rs. 70 (d) Rs. 60
in 250 days will be =  309.27
388
M
Ans. (b)
No. of working station required to manufacture Sol. Average hourly rate per worker
4000 units in a year will be
2  Carpenter rate  1 Helper rate
4000 =
 12.933  13 3
=
S
309.27
2  85  1 69.5
=
95. Flattening and smoothing the road surface by 3
scrapping is called = 79.83  80Rs.
IE
(a) Compaction (b) Consolidation

98. A project with the production cost of Rs. 100
(c) Grading (d) Ditch digging crores, has a 20,000 man-months as direct
Ans. (c) labour, of which 60% is non-productive time.
The labour cost as estimated while tendering
Sol. A motor grader in road construction is used
is 20% of project cost. If 15% of the wastage
for cutting, spreading and levelling of material
resulting f rom non-productiv e time is
i.e., flattening and smoothing.
eliminated by using improved methods, the
96. The amount of time by which the start of the resulting saving in labour cost will be
activity may be delayed without interfering with (a) 14.5% (b) 18.5%
the start of any succeeding activity is called
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
(c) 22.5% (d) 26.5%

1200
Ans. (c) Duration = d =  35.3 days
40  0.85
Sol. Lobour costed = 20% of project cost
35.3
= 0.2 × 100 = = 5.648  5.5 weeks
5  1.25
= 20 crores
Non productive labour time at 60% of labour 100. A systematic measurement and evaluation of
cost the way in which an organization manages its
RR
health and safety programme against a series
= 0.6 × 20 = 12 crores
of specific and attainable standards is called
Non productive time = 0.15 × 12
(a) Safety inspection (b) Safety audit
TEE
= 1.8 crores
(c) Safety plan (d) Safety committee
Saving as percentage of productive work value
Ans. (b)
T 1.8 crores
= 40% of 20crores  100
= 22.5
Sol. Safety audit-It is systematic measurement and
evaluation of the way in which an organization
manages its health and safety programme
ASS
against a series of specific and attainable
99. Consider the following data : standards.
Work is carried out by a contractor employing
MA
101. On a construction project, the contractor, on

labour with 25% overtime per day an average, employed 100 workers with 50
Working for 5 days a week hours working per weeks. The project lasted
S M
Contractor peak manpower is 40 per day for 35 weeks and, during this period, 14
disabling injuries occurred. The injury-
Build-up period is 20% frequency rate will be (based on one lakh of
Rundown period is 10% man hours worked)
Total effort in standard man days is 1200 (a) 5 (b) 6
IEIES
(c) 7 (d) 8
The duration of work by Trapezoidal
manpower distribution pattern will be Ans. (d)
(a) 5.5 weeks (b) 6.5 weeks Sol. Injury frequency rate
(c) 7.5 weeks (d) 8.5 weeks No. of injuries 5
=  10
Ans. (a) Total No. of hours worked
Sol. Effort in man-days = peak manpower 14  10
5
= 8
×  (build up period)
2
 peak level period
102.
100  50  35
The graphical representations wherein long

duration jobs are broken down to key
+
rundown period
2  segmental elements, wherein events are
shown in chronological order without attention
to logical sequencing, and wherein
 0.2d 0.1 d 
interdependencies between the events is not
1200 = 40   0.7 d  
 2 2  highlighted, is referred to as
= 40 × 0.85 d
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
(a) CPM (b) Milestone chart M
(c) GANTT chart (d) PERT


Ans. (b)
Sol. In milestone chart long duration jobs are
broken down to key segmental elements which 10 m
are called as events, these are present in G Q
chronological order. Interdependencies x P
between events of various jobs is not shown. Wboat
WTotal
103. A ship weighs 127 MN. On filling the ship’s B´
R
boats on one side with water weighing 600 W boat = 600kN
kN with the mean distance of the boats from Take moment of all force about “M”.
the centre line of the ship being 10 m, the
TE
angle of displacement of the plumb line is  MM = 0 (equilibrium)
2°16'. The metacentric height will be nearly W Total × x = W boat × GQ
(Take sin2°16' = 0.04, cos2°16' = 0.9992 and 127600x = 600 × 10
tan2°16' = 0.04) x = 4.4022 × 10–2m
(a) 1.73 m (b) 1.42 m
AS
x
(c) 1.18 m (d) 0.87 m GMP sin  = GM
Ans. (c)
x 4.7022  10 2
Sol. GM  =
sin  0.04
GM = 1.176
M
GM  1.18m
M
104. For frictionless adiabatic flow of compressive
 fluid, the Bernoulli’s equation with usual
notations is
S
G P
B 2 2
x k p1 v1 k p2 v2
WTotal (a)   z1    z 2  hL
B WTotal k  1 w 1 2g k  1 w 2 2g
IE
B´ Wboat
10m 2 2
k p1 v1 k p2 v 2
Ship (b)   z1    z2
k  1 w 1 2g k  1 w 2 2g
M = Metacentric p1 v1
2
p v
2
(c)   z1  Hm  2  2  z 2
GM = Metacentric height w1 2g w 2 2g
sin  = 0.04 (Given)
2 2
Total weight (W total ) = 127000 + 6000 = k p1 v 1 p v
(d)   z1  Hm  2  2  z 2  hL
127600kN k  1 w 1 2g w 2 2g
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
Ans. (b) 1. The f low is unif orm and pressure

Sol. For compressive flows in fluid dynamic in distribution is hydrostatic before and after
adiabatic state Bernoulli’s equation is the jump.
2. Losses due to friction on the surface of
V2  k p the bed of the channel are small and
 gz    = constant
2  k  1  hence neglected.
Where k is ratio of specific heats of the fluid. 3. The slope of the bed is small, so that the
component of the weight of the fluid in
V22
RR
k p1 V12 k p2
the direction of flow is negligibly small.
   z1 =   z2
k  1 w1 2g k  1 w 2 2g
107. Water is to be pumped out a deep well under
105. The phenomenon of generation of lift by
TEE
a total head of 95 m. A number of identical
rotating an object placed in a free stream is pumps of design speed 1000 rpm and specific
known as speed 900 rpm with a rated capacity of 150
T
(a) Coanda effect
(b) Magnus effect
l/s are available. The number of pumps
required will be
(a) 1 (b) 3
ASS
(c) Scale effect
(c) 5 (d) 7
(d) Buoyancy effect
Ans. (b)
Ans. (b)
MA
Sol. Given,
Sol. Magnus effect is a phenomenon associated
with spinning object moving through a fluid Total head, H = 95m
producing lift force on the object N = 1000rpm
S M
106. Which of the following assumptions is/are Ns = 900rpm

made in the analysis of hydraulic jump? Q = 150 / S
1. It is assumed that before and after jump
N Q
formation the flow is essentially two- We know, Ns =
IEIES
dimensional and that the pressure H1/4

m
distribution is hydrostatic.
1000 150
2. The length of the jump is small so that 900 =
H3/4
m
the losses due to friction on the channel
floor are small and hence neglected.  Hm = 32.5m
3. The channel floor is horizontal or the slope For lefting water to a higher head, pumps are
is so gentle that the weight component of to be installed in series.
the water mass comprising the jump is H
very high. Required number of pumps =
Hm
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
95
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 =
32.5
Ans. (b) = 2.92  3
Sol. Before deriving the expression for the depth
of hydraulic jump, the following assumptions 108. Consider the following data from a test on
are made. Pelton wheel :
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
Head at the base of the nozzle = 32 m (c) Base-land plant

Discharge of the nozzle = 0.18 m3/s (d) Run-of-river plant
Area of the jet = 7500 mm2 Ans. (d)
Power available at the shaft = 44 kW Sol. Run-off river plants are one which does not
Mechanical efficiency = 94% store any water and utilises the water as it
flows.
The power lost in the nozzle will be nearly
110. Two turbo-generators, each of capacity 25,000
(a) 3.9 kW (b) 4.7 kW kW, have been installed at a hydel power
(c) 3.5 kW (d) 2.3 kW station. The load of the hydel plant varies from
R
Ans. (b) 15,000 kW to 40,000 kW. The total installed
plant capacity and the load factor are nearly
Sol. Given, Q = 0.18m3/S
(a) 40,000 kW and 68.8%
TE
A = 7500mm2
(b) 50,000 kW and 68.8%
= 7500 × 10–6m2
(c) 40,000 kW and 62.3%
Shaft power = 44kW
(d) 50,000 kW and 62.8%
xm = 94%
Ans. (b)
H = 32m
AS
Sol. Since two generators each of capacity 25,000
Power at the base of the nozzle = gQH kW have been installed, hence
= 9.81 × 0.18 × 32 Total installed plant capacity = 2 × 25000
= 56.5 kW = 50,000kW
1 Average load over

QV 2
M
Kinetic energy per second of Jet = a certain period

2
Now, load factor =
2 Peak load during
1  0.18 
=  0.18   6 
that period
2  7500  10 
15000  40000
1000
S
 kW 2
1000 =
40000
= 51.84kW = 0.6875
IE
Power lost in nozzle = 56.5 – 51.84 = 68.8%

= 4.66kW 111. An airfoil is a streamlined body as shown in
the figure below. Because of the streamlining
109. A certain hydropower plant utilizes the flow of the body, the seperation occurs only at the
as it occurs, without any provision for storage. extreme rear of the body, resulting in
It is premised that a defined minimum dry
weather flow is available. Such a plant is l
classified as
V
(a) Diverted-flow plant
(b) Pooled storage plant
(a) A very high pressure drag
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
(b) A small wave and consequently small 113. Which of the following are components parts
pressure drag for an oil pressure governor in modern
(c) A moderate pressure drag turbines?
(d) No pressure drag 1. Servomotor, known as relay cylinder
Ans. (b) 2. Oil sump
Sol. As Airfoil is a streamlined body, so separation 3. Oil pump which is driven by belt connected
of boundary layer occur only at the extreme to turbine main shaft
RR
rear of the body. So due to small wake size 4. Draft tube
at back, pressure difference between front and (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
back reduces. So, form drag (pressure drag)
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
TEE
is comparatively very small in airfoil.
Ans. (a)
112. A plate 0.025 mm distant from a fixed plate
moves at 60 cm/s and requires a force of 0.2 Sol. The main components of an oil pressure
T
kgf/m2 to maintain this speed. The dynamic
viscosity of the fluid between the plates will
be nearly
governor are :
(i) the servomotor or relay cylinder
ASS
(ii) The distribution valve or control valve
(a) 9.2 × 10–10 kgfs/cm2 (iii) Actuator or pendulum
(b) 8.3 × 10–10 kgfs/cm2 (iv) Oil pump
MA
(c) 7.4 × 10–10 kgfs/cm2 (v) Gear pump which runs by tapping power
(d) 6.5 × 10–10 kgfs/cm2 from the power shaft by belt drive.
S M
Ans. (b) (vi) A pipe system communicating with the

Sol. control valve servometer and the pump
Pendulum
or actulator
60cm/s
0.025mm Fly ball
IEIES
Lever
Sleeve
Fluid of dynamic From
Fulcrum
A
viscosity ‘’ turbine shaft
Distribution
valve
 = 0.2 kg.f/m2
Gear B
pump
du Towards
 =  turbine
dy guiding
Oil sump Servomotor or mechanism
kg.f 600mm / sec relay cylinder
0.2 = 
m2 0.025mm Fig. Oil pressure governor
kg.fs 114. A double-acting reciprocating pump having

 = 8.33  106
m2 piston area 0.1 m2 has a stroke 0.30 m long.
10 2
The pump is discharging 2.4 m3 of water per
= 8.33  10 kgfs / cm minute at 45 rpm through a height of 10 m.
The slip of the pump and power required to
drive the pump will be nearly
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
(a) 0.005 m3/s and 4.8 kW 116. Which one of the following points should be
(b) 0.003 m3/s and 4.8 kW kept in mind while selecting the site for a rain
gauge station?
(c) 0.005 m3/s and 4.4 kW
(a) The site where a rain gauge is set up
(d) 0.003 m3/s and 4.4 kW should be close to a meteorological
Ans. (c) observatory.
Sol. Given, (b) The rain gauge should be on the top of a
Piston Area, A = 0.1m2 hill.
Stroke length, L = 0.3m (c) A fence, if erected to protect the rain

gauge from cattle etc. should be located
R
Actual discharge, Qact = 2.4m3/min within twice of the height of the fence.
= 0.04m3/s (d) The distance between the rain gauge and
the nearest object should be atleast twice
TE
Speed, N = 45rpm
the height of the object.
H = 10m
Ans. (d)
2ALN
Qth =
60 117. Which of the following statements relates to a
2  0.1 0.3  45
retarding reservoir?
AS
= 1. There are no gates at the outlets and
60
hence the possibility of human error in
= 0.045m3/s
reservoir operation is eliminated.
 Slip = Qth – Qact
2. The high cost of gate installation and also
= 0.045 – 0.04 its operation is saved.
= 0.005m3/s 3. An automatic regulation may cause
M
coincidence of f loor crest f arther

Theoretical power required = gQ th .H
downstream where two or more channels
= 9.81 × 0.045 × 10 taking off from retarding reservoirs join
= 4.4kW together.
S
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only

115. In intensity-duration analysis of Sherman, the
intensity of rainfall i is represented as (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (a)
IE
n
bn a
(a) (b) n 118. The coefficient of transmissibility T for a
(t  a) (t  b)
confined aquifer can be determined by a
n a
(a  t) pumping-out test together with other relevant
(c) (d)
b (t  b)n observations. The applicable formula is (where
Ans. (d) Q = Discharge, and S = Difference in
drawdowns in two wells)
Sol. Sherman equation is given as :
Q Q
a (a) (b)
i=  n 2.72S 1.72 S
t  b
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
1. Broken-brick aggregate is obtained by

Q Q
(c) S (d) S crushing waste bricker, and it has a
2.72 2.72
density varying between 1000 kg/m3 –
Ans. (a) 1200 kg/m2.
2. Such aggregate is usable in concrete for
119. The volume of water below the minimum pool
foundation in light buildings, floorings and
level in a reservoir is known as
walkways.
(a) Useful storage
3. Such aggregate may also be used in light
RR
(b) Surcharge storage weight reinforced concrete floors.
(c) Dead storage (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Bank storage
TEE
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c) Ans. (b)
120. Depending upon the source from which the Sol.
T
water is drawn, flow irrigation can be sub-
divided into
 Broken–brick aggregate is obtained by
crushing waste brick and has a density
ASS
1. River canal irrigation varying between 1600 – 2000 kg/m3
2. Reservoir or tank irrigation  It is used in concrete in light-weight
reinforced concrete floors.
MA
3. Combined storage and lift irrigation

 It is used in concrete for foundation in
4. Combined storage and diversion irrigation
light building flooring and walkways.
Which of the above designations are relevant?
S M
122. In handling air-entraining admixtures the

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only beneficial amount of entrained air depends
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only upon certain factors like
Ans. (b) 1. Type and quantity of air-entraining agent
2. Water-cement ratio of the mix
IEIES
Sol. Flow irrigation system can be further classified

on the basis of source of water from which 3. Strength of aggregates
the flow irrigation canal take off.
4. Extent of compaction of concrete
(a) Direct irrigation system or river canal
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
irrigation  weir or barrage
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) Storage irrigation system eg reservoir or
tank irrigation. Ans. (b)
(c) Combined storage and diversion irrigation Sol. The beneficial amount of entrained air
 Dam or river and a diversion weir or depends on
barrage or the river at a suitable place on (i) Type and quantity of air entraining agent
the down stream of dam to divert water
(ii) Water cement ratio of mix
into the canal.
(iii) Mixing time
121. Which of the following statements are wholly
(iv) extent of compaction of concrete
correct regarding broken-brick aggregate
useable in concrete? (v) Type of cement
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
123. Which one of the following statements is not free lime in cement in presence of water,
correct with respect to fly ash? improve durability of concrete at later stage,
(a) As part replacement of cement in the but doesn’t contribute to early age strength of
range of 15%-30%, fly ash reduces the composite cement.
strength in the initial period, but once the
125. Hydration of which compound is responsible
Pozzolanic process sets in, higher
for increase in strength of cement in later age?
strength can be obtained.
(a) Tri-calcium Aluminate (C3A)
(b) Fly ash as a part replacement of sand
has a beneficial effect on strength even (b) Tetra-calcium Aluminoferrite (C4AF)
at early age. (c) Tri-calcium Silicate (C3S)
R
(c) Fly ash as a part replacement of sand is (d) Di-calcium Silicate (C2S)
economical.
Ans. (d)
(d) A simultaneous replacement of cement
TE
Sol. C2S hydrates and hardens slowly and takes a
and fine aggregates enables the strength
long time to add to the strength. Generally,
at a specif ied age to be equalled
after one year contribution to the strength and
depending upon the water content.
hardness of cement is predominately due to
Ans. (c) C2S.
Sol. Flyash is costlier than sand. Hence using this
AS
126. The creep strain of cement attains its terminal
in the place of sand will not be economical.
values by
Flyash will only contribute to strength only
(a) 1 year (b) 2 years
when the pozzolanic reaction sets in.
(c) 5 years (d) 6 months
124. Which one of the following statements is not
Ans. (c)
correct with respect to the properties of
M
cement? Sol. Creep is a time dependent phenomenon and

creep strain decreases with time. Although it
(a) Highly reactive Pozzolanas enhance the
doesn’t stop for a long period, but creep strain
early age strength of the composite
at 5-years are taken as terminal values.
cement
127. Which of the following methods will help in
S
(b) Pozzolanic activity refines pore structure

which decreases electrolytic resistance of reducing segregation in concrete?
concrete. 1. Not using vibrator to spread the concrete
IE
(c) The expansion due to alkali-silica reaction 2. Reducing the continued vibration
can be controlled by replacement of as
3. Improving the cohesion of a lean dry mix
high as 60% of OPC with high-calcium
through addition of a further small quantity
Pozzolana.
of water.
(d) Such high amounts of replacement
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
cements result in higher accelerated
carbonation depths compared to pure use (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
of OPC only. Ans. (d)
Ans. (a) Sol. Segregation can be reduced by preventing
Sol. Pozzolanas don’t have any cementitious over-vibration, using good design mixes,
properties as such. But when they react with avoiding dropping concrete from heights,
avoiding excess water etc.
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
But vibration is an excellent method for

 V  (1   )
compaction so it shouldn’t be avoided. (a)  
 2nL  (1  2)(1  )
128. On an average, in a 125 mm slump, the
concrete may lose about (in first one hour)  V  (1  )
(b)  
(a) 15 mm of slump (b) 25 mm of slump  2nL  (1  2)(1  )
(c) 40 mm of slump (d) 50 mm of slump
 V2  (1   )
Ans. (d) (c)  
RR
 2nL  (1  2)(1  )
Sol. The loss of workability varies with the type of
cement, the concrete mix proportions, the 2
 V2  (1   )
initial workability and the temperature of the (d)  
TEE
concrete.  2nL  (1  2)(1  )
On an average a 125 mm slump concrete where
may lose about 50 mm slump in the 1st one
129.
hour. T
Permeability in concrete is studied towards
V is pulse velocity, in mm/s,
n is resonant frequency of longitudinal
ASS
vibration, in Hz,
providing for, or guarding against, which of L is distance between transducers, in mm.
the following features?
Ans. (*)
MA
1. The penetration by materials in solution

may adversely affect the durability of 2
 2nl   (1  )(1  2)
concrete; moreover, aggressive liquids Sol.  
 V  1 
‘attack’ the concrete.
S M
[IS 13311(part-I : 1992)]

2. In case of reinforced concrete, ingress of
2
moisture and air will result in corrosion of v  1 
steel leading to an increase in volume of
   
 2nl  (1  )(1  2)
steel, resulting in cracking and spelling of
IEIES
the concrete cover. 131. W hich one of the f ollowing methods/

3. The moisture penetration depends on techniques will be used for placing of concrete
permeability and if the concrete can in dewatered ‘Caissons or Coffer’ dams?
become saturated with water it is less (a) Tremie method
vulnerable to frost action. (b) Placing in bags
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) Prepacked concrete
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only (d) In-the-dry practice
Ans. (b) Ans. (d)
Sol. In permeable conctete, ingress of water leads Sol. The placing of concrete in dewatered caissons
concrete susceptible to chemical attack, frost or coffer dams follows the normal in-the-dry-
action, rusting of steel reinforcements. practice
If pores are saturated with water, the concrete
will be more vulnerable to frost action. 132. The minimum cement content (kg/m3) for a
pre-specified strength of concrete (using
130. Poisson’s ratio of concrete µ can be standard notations) premised on ‘free water-
determined using the formula cement ratio’ will be as
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
(a) 5 mm and 120 MN/m2

C W
(a) 1  1000S  1000 (b) 9 mm and 120 MN/m2
C
(c) 5 mm and 150 MN/m2
Water content (d) 9 mm and 150 MN/m2
(b)
Water Cement ratio
Ans. (b)
(c) Water content × Water cement ratio Sol. Free expansion = T
100F = 15000 mm × 12 × 10–6 × (65 – 15)

(d)
CF = 9 mm
R
Ans. (b) Temperature stress = ET
Sol. The minimum cement content for a pre- = 200 × 109 N/m2 × 12 × 10–6 × 50
TE
specified strength of concrete premised on
= 1.2 × 108 N/m2
“free-water-cement ratio” will be as
= 120 MN/m2.
Water content
Water cement ratio 135. A bar of uniform rectangular section of area A
is subjected to an axial tensile load P; its
133. A bar specimen of 36 mm diameter is Young’s modulus is E and its Poisson’s ratio
AS
subjected to a pull of 90 kN during a tension 1
is . Its volumetric strain, ev is
test. The extension on a gauge length of 200 m
mm is measured to be 0.089 mm and the
P  3 P  2
change in diameter to be 0.0046 mm. The (a) 1   (b) 1  
AE  m  AE  m 
Poisson’s ratio will be
(a) 0.287 (b) 0.265 P  2 P  1 
M
(c) 1   (d) 1  
AE  m  AE  2m 
(c) 0.253 (d) 0.241
Ans. (c)
Ans. (a)
Sol.
lateral strain
Sol. µ=  A
S
longitudinal strain
P P
1
 0.0046  E, µ 
IE
 m

 36 
= = 0.287 ( x   y  z )(1  2µ)
 0.089  Volumetric strain (eV) =
 200  E
 
P
x =
134. A steel rod 15 m long is at a temperature of A
15°C. The values of  = 12 × 10–6/°C and E y = 0
= 200 GN/m 2 are adopted. W hen the
temperature is raised to 65°C, what is the z = 0
free expansion of the length; and if this
P  2
expansion of the rod is fully prevented, what  eV = AE 1  m 
is the temperature stress produced?  
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
136. The normal stresses on two mutually Ans. (d)

perpendicular planes are 140 N/mm2 (Tensile) Sol.
and 70 N/mm2 (Tensile). If the maximum shear
60
stress is 45 N/mm2, the shear stress on these
planes will be nearly

(a) 20.9 N/mm2 (b) 24.6 N/mm2
(c) 28.3 N/mm2 (d) 32.0 N/mm2
Ans. (c) 
RR
120
Sol.
70 = y
TEE
xy
2
 x  y   x  y  2
T xy
140 = x
1/2 =
2
= 90  (30)2  (30)2
 
 2
  xy

 
ASS
= 90  2  30
MA
= 90 ± 42.426
2 = 132.426, 47.574
   y 
max =   x 2
   xy
 2 Both principal stress are tensile.
S M
 
2 138. At a point in a material, the stresses acting
 140  70  2
on two planes at right angles to each other
45 =     xy
 2  are :
(45)2  (35)2 = xy = 28.284 N/mm2  z = 120 MPa and  y = –200 MPa and  zy
IEIES
= –80 MPa.
137. The normal stresses on the two mutually
perpendicular planes at a point are 120 MPa The maximum shear stress on the element
(Tensile) and 60 MPa (Tensile). If the shear will be nearly
stress across these planes is 30 MPa, the (a) 142 MPa (b) 155 MPa
principal stresses will be nearly
(c) 167 MPa (d) 179 MPa
(a) 124 MPa (Tensile) and 24 MPa
Ans. (d)
(Compressive)
2
(b) 132 MPa (Tensile) and 24 MPa   y  z  2
(Compressive) Sol. max =    ( yz )
 2 
(c) 124 MPa (Tensile) and 48 MPa (Tensile)
2
(d) 132 MPa (Tensile) and 48 MPa (Tensile)  320  2
=  2   (80)
 
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
2
= (160)2  (80)2 =   70  2  10 3 
= 80  5 = 72.11 MPa
= 178.885 MPa 140. The change in shearing force between two
points on the beam is equal to the area of
139. The principal stresses in the wall of a container
are 40 MN/mm2 and 80 MN/mm2. The normal (a) Loading diagram between the two points
makes an angle of 30° with a direction of (b) Shear force diagram between the two
maximum principal stress. The resultant points
stresses (in magnitude) in the plane will be
(c) Bending moment diagram between the
R
nearly
two points
2
40 MN/mm (d) M/EI diagram between the two points
TE
Ans. (a)
141. W hich one of the following statements

30°
2 2
80 MN/mm 80 MN/mm specifies shear flow?
30°
(a) Flow of shear force along the beam
(b) It is the product of the shear stress at any
AS
level and the corresponding width b (of
the section)
2
40 MN/mm
(c) Unbalanced force on any side of given
(a) 84 MN/m2 (b) 72 MN/m2 section divided by area of section
(c) 64 MN/m2 (d) 58 MN/m2 (d) The deformation at any level due to
M
Ans. (b) sudden variation in shear stress

Sol. Ans. (b)
Normal to the plane
142. Which one of the following statements is

S
(60+Rcos60°, Rsin60°)
( ) correct for the rotating shafts transmitting
60°
power?
(40, 0) (60, 0) (80, 0)
(a) Lower the frequency of shaft lower will be
IE
the torque
(b) Higher the frequency of shaft lower will
80  40 be the torque
R =  20MN mm2
2
(c) Frequency of the shaft does not influence
 = 60  20 cos 60  the torque
= 70MPa (d) Higher the frequency of shaft higher will
be the torque
3
 = 20  10 3 Ans. (b)
2
Sol.
 Resultant Stress = r   2  2
T = Power = T  2f
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
Power G = 8.16 × 104 N/mm2

T =
2f P Gd4
Stress of spring = 
As, f , T   64R3n
143. The maximum shear stress induced in a solid 8.16  10 4 N/mm2  (10)4 mm4
circular shaft of diameter 15 cm, when the =
64(50mm)3  15
shaft transmits 150 kW power at 180 rpm, will
be = 6.8 N/mm
RR
(a) 16 N/mm2 (b) 14 N/mm2 145. The shear force diagram of a beam is shown
(c) 12 N/mm2 (d) 10 N/mm2 in the figure
TEE
Ans. (c)
Sol.
+ 800N + 1000N
T
Max shear stress =
Tr
J

Td 2 16T

 4 d3
32
d
800N – –
1200N
ASS
P
T =
 The total of the vertically downward loads on
the beam is
MA
16P
max = (a) 2600 N (b) 2000 N
d3 
16  150  10 3 (c) 2400 N (d) 2800 N
S M
= Ans. (d)
3 180  2
  0.15  
60 Sol.
= 12  10 6 N m 2 800 N 2000 N 1000 N
= 12N mm 2
IEIES
144. A closely coiled helical spring made of 10 mm

diameter steel wire has 15 coils of 100 mm 1600 N 2200 N
mean diameter. The spring is subjected to an Total  Force = 3800 N
axial load of 100 N. For a modulus of rigidity
of 8.16 × 104 N/mm2, the stiffness of the spring 146. A beam of triangular cross-section is subjected
will be nearly to a shear force of 50 kN. The base width of
(a) 5.9 N/mm (b) 6.8 N/mm the section is 250 mm and the height is 200
mm. The beam is placed with its base
(c) 7.7 N/mm (d) 8.8 N/mm
horizontal. The shear stress at neutral axis
Ans. (b) will be nearly
Sol. d = 10 mm (a) 2.2 N/mm2 (b) 2.7 N/mm2
n= 1 (c) 3.2 N/mm2 (d) 3.7 N/mm2
D = 100 mm
P = 100 N
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
Ans. (b) 2
w  2000 
Sol.  28
150  2
250 mm 8  100
6
N
w  21 N/mm
A
200 mm 3 Vmax
max =   2N mm2
2 bd
 w  2000 
3  2

2
4 = 
R
N.A. = av 2 100  150
3
w  20 N/mm
 50  103 N  4
  w should be min of the w from the above two
=  1  250  20  3
TE
criteria.
2 
= 2.67 MPa  w max = 20 KN.m
147. A timber beam, 100 mm wide and 150 mm 148. A 1.5 m long column has a circular cross-
deep, supports a UDL over a span of 2 m. If section of 50 mm diameter. Consider
AS
the safe stresses are not to exceed 28 MPa Rankine’s formula with values of f d = 560 N/
in bending and 2 MPa in shear, the maximum 1
load that the beam can support is mm2,   for pinned ends and factor of
1600
(a) 16 kN/m (b) 20 kN/m safety of 3. If one end of the column is fixed
(c) 24 kN/m (d) 28 kN/m and the other end is free, the safe load will be
Ans. (b) (a) 9948 N (b) 9906 N
M
Sol. (c) 9864 N (d) 9822 N

w KN/m Ans. (b)
l = 2m fC A F.O.S.
Sol. P=
S
b=100 mm
1  a 2
fC A F.O.S.
d = 150 mm - = 2
IE
 l 
1   
 rmin 
wl 2
Mmax = 1
8  for pinned end =
1600
wl
Vmax =   for one end fixed other free = 4
2
Mmax    2 
max =  28N mm2 560  4 50  3
bd2 P= 2
6 4  1.5  1000 
1
1600  50 4 
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Detailed Solution
Civil Engineering
Imin d4 d 150. The maximum shear stress across a circular

rmm =   section is
A d2 4
64 
4
4
= 9905.92 N (a)   Average shear stress
3
149. A continuous beam with uniform flexural rigidity
is shown in the figure. 3
(b)   Average shear stress
 2
RR
40 kN
A C
5
B (c)   Average shear stress
4
TEE
2m 2m 6m
9
The moment at B is (d)   Average shear stress
5
(a) 18 kNm
(c) 14 kNm T (b) 16 kNm
(d) 12 kNm
Ans. (a)
ASS
Ans. (d)
Sol.
40 KN
MA
A B C
2m 2m 6m
S M
EI = Constant
Joint Member Member Stiffness DF
3EI 9EI 9
B BA   0.6
4 12 15
3EI 6EI 6
IEIES
BC   0.4
6 12 15
A B C
0.6 0.4
40  4 40  4
0 0
8 8
40  4 40  2
8 8
0 30 0 0
–18 –12
0 12 –12 0
MBA = 12 KNm
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Detailed Solution

1. Which of the following statements are correct Sol.

Sol. 80 200 200 80

BM below 150 kN is 196 × 4.9 – 70 ×1

(a) 1270 m (b) 1330 m 6. A three-hinged arch has a span of 30 m and

W 5 bending and torsion which occurs in flexible

 Max. tension = Tmax = V 2  H2

8. A propped cantilever beam of span l and

12. Which of the following assumptions are correct

3. Any form of local buckling is prevented.

(i) Compression flange of beam is restrained

will be no stress in the web members, uniform

than the lower chord members due to their

L/2 L/2 L/3

W W/8 will be nearly

18. Consider a triangular section with base b and  26.6 N/mm2

 2400 × 103 = 9.8 Ag + 5.561 Ag =  EI

footing will be nearly  

 Section needs to be designed as a over

cbc (C) modulus of elasticity will have low creep and

 3 columns lying on the side of application of

Also, biaxial bending will be there in the corner

1. The water-cement ratio and proportion of

Dry density of soil = 15 kN/m3

Area of plot = 1000 m2

(a) 16.8 % (b) 17.7 %

percolation = 10% foundation.

Milli - equivalent to 3m, when water passes over such a weir,

 an expansion transition for a canal by Mitra’s

(a) 13.1 (b) 14.3 Width of canal = 15 m

SAR = 14.34 Sol. According to Mitra, channel at any section, at

suffering from this disease may vomit, their

4  105  (10.32  102 ) Permissible value of compressible stress

q = 4.872 × 10–6 m3/s

The chlorine demand of water would be nearly

Ans. (c) = 1125m2

40. The demand of water is 150 litres/head/day

(a) Zone of recovery (c) Hydrogen sulphide

(c) Zone of degradation Ans. (d)

(d) Zone of clear water Sol. Methane is the principal by-product of

45. Consider the following statements with

Saturation with domestic water when it has higher BOD.

D.O 2. The industrial waste water can be mixed

And industrial waste compatible with domestic

concentration of KOH 415

when Moles of sulphur converting into

49. The property of clays by virtue of which they 35 22

Sol. The property of soil due to which loss of 35

Sol. Vd = dry volume of soil

w1 – w2 = change in water content

B boiling. For the sand, n = 45% and GB = 2.65.

n 0.45 0.45  Cu = 170.38 × (0.11 + 0.0037 × 30)

55. The vertical stress at any point at a radial

(taking the relevant Nc as 5.14) Sol. Seondary compression is caused by creep,

compression of organic matter etc.

58. A raft foundation 10m wide and 12m long is

16kN/m 3. the ground surface carries a

k,  depend upon the pile material.

60. An excavation is made with a vertical face in

59. The skin frictional resistance of a pile driven Ans. (b)

(d) Total stress analysis It falls under classification based on purpose

(a) Reconnaissance survey  tan (90  ) = cot 

Horizontal line of sight