Roll No.

: Test Date: 09/02/2014

Centre Code: Test Booklet Code A

TEST No. 7
PAPER - I

AK A S H TE
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JEE (Main) 2014
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INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE

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1. Read each question carefully. 9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over,
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2. It is mandatory to use Black Ball point PEN to darken the
appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
answer sheet.
6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other
material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should
ensure that the test paper contains all pages and no page
is missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator,
candidate should check that Roll No., Centre Code and
Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly.
the answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
10. There are three parts in the question paper A, B and C
consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each
question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct
response.
11. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum
marks are 360.
12. One fourth (¼) marks will be deducted for indicating
incorrect response of each question. No deduction from
the total score will be made if no response is indicated for
any question in the answer sheet.
13. Pattern of the questions are as under:
Section – I : Straight Objective Type Questions
Section – II : Assertion – Reason Type Questions
 Test No. 7
Paper I

TOPICS OF THE TEST

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Ray Optics and Optical Instruments, Wave Optics, Dual Nature of Radiation
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Physics and Matter, Atoms, Nuclei, Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices

and Simple Circuits, Communication Systems, Units & Measurements
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Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids, Amines, Biomolecules,

Chemistry Polymers, Chemistry in Everyday Life

Differential Equations, Vector Algebra, 3-D Geometry (XI & XII), Probability
Mathematics (XI & XII), Statistics
Test - 7 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

Time : 3 Hrs. MM : 360

TEST - 7 (Paper-1)

PART - A (PHYSICS)

(1) 30 cm above (2) 15 cm above

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type Questions (3) 120 cm above (4) 7.5 cm below

This section contains 25 multiple choice questions 4. A plano convex lens fits exactly into a plano
numbered 1 to 25. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. each other. If the lenses are made of different
materials of refractive indices 1 and 2 and R is the
Choose the correct answer : radius of curvature of the curved surface of the
1. A slab of thickness 10 cm is kept on x-y plane lenses, then focal length of the combination is
(z = 0) and its refractive index varies as R 2R
⎡ z ⎤ (1)    (2)   
  1.63 ⎢1  ⎥ where z is in cm. If it is viewed 1 2 2 1
⎣ 20 ⎦
R R
(3) 2(   ) (4) 2  (   )

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from top, its apparant thickness will be (in cm) 1 2 1 2

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⎛ 3 1.63 ⎞ 5. A ray incident at a point at an angle of incidence of
⎜ Given ln 2  4 ⎟
⎝ ⎠
(1) 5 (2) 6
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and refracted at the farther surface of the sphere. The
angle between the reflected and refracted rays at
(3) 4 (4) 3
this surface is
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2. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror along a
line represented by iˆ  jˆ  kˆ . The possible vector (1) 50° (2) 90°
orientation parallel to the plane of the mirror to get (3) 60° (4) 40°
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the light retraced is 6. A spherical glass bulb of diameter d is filled with

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(1) i – j – k (2) 2i + j – 2k
⎛ 4⎞
water ⎜   ⎟ . The bulb is viewed along its
(3) iˆ  jˆ  kˆ
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(4) 2iˆ  4 jˆ  2kˆ ⎝ 3⎠

3. A concave mirror of radius of curvature 80 cm is horizontal diameter. What is the apparent diameter?
placed at the bottom of a tank containing water upto (Neglect the thickness of glass)
a height 20 cm. The mirror faces upwards with its
axis vertical. Solar light falls normally on the surface 3d
(1) 2d (2)
of water and the image of the sun is formed. if 2
4
  , then with the observer in air the distance of d 7d
3 (3) (4)
image from the surface of water is 2 4
Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 7 (Paper-I)

7. A point object is moving on the principal axis of a 10. Two wavelengths are used in YDSE. If one is 430 nm
concave mirror of focal length 24 cm towards it. and the fourth order bright fringe coincides with the
When it is at a distance of 60 cm from the mirror, sixth order bright fringe of the other, then the other
velocity is 9 cm/s. What is the velocity of the image wavelength is nearly
at that instant? (1) 580 nm (2) 645 nm
(1) 5 cm/s towards mirror (3) 747 nm (4) 287 nm
(2) 4 cm/s towards mirror 11. Figure shows two coherent microwave sources S1
(3) 4 cm/s away from mirror and S2 emitting waves of wavelength  and separated
by a distance 3. The minimum non-zero value of y
(4) 9 cm/s away from mirror
for point P to be an intensity maximum is (D>>)
8. The K line has a wavelength  for an element with
atomic number Z = 19. The K line will have a

wavelength for an element with atomic number Z = P
4
(1) 38 (2) 10 y
(3) 11 (4) 37 3
9. Plane parallel wavefronts encounter the interface S1 S2

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between one medium and another, as shown below D
(lines represent crest). The wave speed is different in

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the two media. Choose the correct option

Interface
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5
(3) D (4) 2 2 D
2
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12. In a YDSE the separation between the slits is 1 mm

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and the screen is at a distance of 2 m from the

Medium-1 Medium-2 plane of the slits. The wavelength missing on the
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screen at a point directly in front of one of the

(1) The distance between wavefronts remains slits is
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unchanged but the direction of wavefront

(1) 417 nm (2) 500 nm
changes
(3) 523 nm (4) 600 nm
(2) The distance between wavefronts and the
direction of wavefront both remain unchanged 13. A ° meson at rest decays into two photons. If rest
mass of ° meson is 135 MeV/c2, the wavelength
(3) The distance between wavefronts and the
(in fm) of each photon is
direction of wavefront both changes
(1) 36.74 (2) 18.37
(4) The distance between wavefronts changes but
the direction of wavefront remains unchanged (3) 9.18 (4) 15
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Test - 7 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

14. A source emits e.m. waves of wavelength 2 m and 17. In the following radioactive decay C is stable
intensity I0. One beam reaches the observer directly nucleus. Then
while other beam reaches after reflection from water 1 2
surface travelling an additional distance of 5 m and A B C
4 time t = 0 N0 0 0
with intensity reduced to as compared to the
9 N1
time t N2 N3
direct beam. The resultant intensity observed will be
(1) Number of nuclei of B will first increases and
4 5
(1) I0 (2) I0 then decreases
9 3
(2) Rate of decay of A will first increase and then
25 13
(3) I0 (4) I0 decrease
9 9
15. Suppose the price of a radioactive substance is (3) If 2 > 1 then activity of B will always be higher
directly proportional to the activity of radioactive than activity of A
sample. If initial price of radioactive sample (t1/2 = 6 (4) If 1 >> 2 then number of nuclei of C will
months) is Rs 4096, then price of radioactive sample always be less than number of nuclei of B
after 5 years will be
18. A proton moving with a speed u directly towards an
(1) Rs 4 (2) Rs 8 -particle (He nucleus) which, when the two particles

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(3) Rs 16 (4) Rs 4096 were very far apart from one another, was initially at
rest. What is the separation of the particles at their

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16. The intensity of X-rays from a coolidge tube is
point of closest approach? (Assume m = 4 mP)
plotted against wavelength  as shown in figure. The al
minimum wavelength found is C and wavelength of e2
K  line is  K . As the accelerating voltage is (1) r 
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0mP u 2
increased
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e2
(2) r 
40mP u 2
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5e2
(3) r 
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40mP u 2
5e 2
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(4) r 
80mP u 2

C K 19. If work function of a metal is 3 eV and wavelength of

subjected radiation to the metal is 275 nm. Then the
(1) K – C increases
de-Broglie's wavelength (in Å) of photoelectrons emitted
(2) K – C decreases by the metal is nearly (Given hc = 1240 eV – nm)
(3) K increases (1) 1.5 (2) 1
(4) C increases (3) 10 (4) 100
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 7 (Paper-I)

20. In the diagram below, light is incident on the interface 24. A terrestrial telescope has an objective of focal length
between 1 and 2 at the critical angle, and is totally 180 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5 cm. The
reflected. The light is then also totally reflected at the erecting lens has a focal length of 3.5 cm. The
interface between media 1 and 3, after which it travels separation between objective and eyepiece in normal
in the direction opposite to the initial direction. The adjustment is
two interfaces are best perpendicular. The refractive
(1) 167 cm (2) 179 cm
indices are best related as
(3) 199 cm (4) 213 cm
Medium-1
n1 25. Plane microwaves are incident on a long slit having
Medium-2 a width of 5.0 cm. The wavelength of the microwaves
if the first diffraction minimum is formed at  = 30°
n2
is
(1) 2.5 cm (2) 0.25 cm
(3) 25 cm (4) 1.25 cm
Medium-3 n3
(1) n1 < n2 < n3 SECTION - II
(2) n12 + n32  n22 Assertion – Reason Type Questions

(3) n12 – n22  n32 Directions : Questions number 26 to 30 are Assertion-

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Reason type questions. Each of these questions
(4) n12 + n22  n32 contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and

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21. The first excitation potential for H-atom is Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
(1) 13.6 V
(3) 3.4 V
(2) 10.2 V
(4) 12.27 V
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four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.

26. Statement-1 : A person standing on the edge of a

22. A transistor is used in common emitter mode in an
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swimming pool is observed shorter than his usual
amplifier circuit. When a signal of 20 mV is added
length as observed by someone from inside water.
to the base emitter voltage, the base current
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changes by 20 A and the collector current changes and

by 2 mA. The load resistance is 5 k. The value of
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Statement-2 : A ray bends towards the normal as it

trans ductance is enters from rarer medium to denser medium.
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(1) 10 –1 (2) 1 –1 (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

(3) 0.1 –1 (4) 0.01 –1 Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
23. A TV transmission tower at a particular station has
a height 160 m. By how much the height of tower be (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
increased to double its coverage range? Given radius Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
of earth = 6400 km. Statement-1
(1) 320 m (2) 160 m (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(3) 480 m (4) 640 m (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
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Test - 7 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

27. Statement-1 : The kinetic energy of emitted 
particles is not equal to the Q value of  emission
nuclear reaction.
and
Statement-2 : The daughter nucleus recoils to
conserve the linear momentum when -particle is
emitted in -decay.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
29. Statement-1 : Soft and hard X-rays differ in
frequency as well as velocity.
and
Statement-2 : The penetrating power of hard X-rays
is more than the penetrating power of soft X-rays.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

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30. Statement-1 : If the frequency of incident light on a
28. Statement-1 : A small metallic ball is suspended in

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a uniform electric field with an insulated thread. If photosensitive surface is doubled, the maximum KE
high energy X-ray beam fall on the ball, ball will be
deflected along the direction of electric field.
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and
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Statement-2 : If the distance of point source from the
Statement-2 : X-ray emits photoelectron from an surface is doubled, then photocurrent becomes one
isolated metallic surface, leaving it positively
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fourth of the original current.

charged.
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(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
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Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

Statement-1
Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1 Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 7 (Paper-I)

PART - B (CHEMISTRY)
appropriate
SECTION - I 34.
O + H2NCH3 pH
A+B
Straight Objective Type Questions H
Which of the following is true for (A) and (B)?
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 31 to 55. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (1) A is major product and syn oriented
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (2) B is minor product and syn oriented
(3) A is major product and anti oriented
CHO (4) No such orientations are alloted to (A) and (B)
O
Conc. H dil OH–
31. mixture of product. What is the
OH– 35. H  A (major product)
O
equivalent mass of benzaldehyde in this reaction? Which is true about (A)?
(1) 106 g (2) 212 g (1) A has acidic proton and loss of it can form
aromatic compound
(3) 53 g (4) Infinite
(2) A does not have any acidic proton
32. Rate of nucleophilic addition reaction is maximum

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(3) A on ozonolysis forms di carbonyl compound
among the following for

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(4) A has 4 bonds in its structure
O

(1)
O
(2)
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36. Two compounds (X) and (Y) isomers of each other
are put up into following test as
X Y
DNP test – Positive Positive
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O O
Fehling test – Positive Negative
(3) (4) Tollen's test – Positive Positive
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CH3
Iodoform test – Negative Negative
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If general formula of (X) and (Y) is C8H8O and (Y)

I2
33. CH3CHO product. In product formation after Clemenson reduction can only forms one
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NaOH
electrophilic substituted product then which of the
which of the following has highest rate of the following is true for (X) and (Y)?
reaction?
(1) (X) on oxidation with KMnO4 forms benzoic acid
(1) First iodination derivative
(2) (Y) on oxidation with KMnO4 forms terphthalic
(2) Second iodination
acid
(3) Third iodination (3) (X) on reduction with LAH forms phenol derivative
(4) All have identical rate (4) (Y) on reduction with LAH forms phenol derivative
Space for Rough Work

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Test - 7 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

Br
41. Towards neucleophilic substitution reaction which of
(i) Mg/Dry ether the following produces product with highest rate?
37. A (major product)
(ii) H2O
O O
H (1) (2)
O
OH Cl

O O O
(3) (4)
(1) O O
OH
O
(2) Polyalcohol
O dil
42. A
H (CH2)5 (CH2)4 H2SO4 (major product)
CH3
(3)
O OH
(A) does not give which of the following test?
(4) Polyaldehyde
(1) Effervescence with NaHCO3
O O (2) Tollen's test
38. , the IUPAC naming of the given (3) Victor Mayer test
H
compound is (4) Evolution of H2 on adding Na

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(1) 5 - ketopentan - 2 - one 43. Which of the following compound on complete

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hydrolysis form benzoic acid as one of the products?
(2) 4 - ketopentan -1-al
(3) 4 - formylbutan - 2 - one
(4) 4 - carbonylpentan - 1 - al
n al CONH2 CN

(1) (2)
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39. Which of the following compound is more acidic than
benzoic acid?
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(1) Formic acid (2) Tolulic acid O

O
(3) Ethanoic acid (4) Propanoic acid C C=O
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40. Which among the following has highest rate of (3) (4) All of these
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decarboxylation?

O
H O CH3 44. In which of the following case Gabriel phthalimide
(1) (2) OH synthesis has fastest rate?
O OH O
(1) CH3Br (2) Br
O O
H
(3) OH (4) (3) Br (4) Br
O OH
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 7 (Paper-I)

45. Which of the following compound with Hinsberg 50. Which of the following is an example of
reagent make soluble compound in KOH (aq)? homopolymerisation?

N (1) Nylon - 6, 6 (2) Nylon - 2, 6

(1) NH2 (2)
H (3) Nylon - 6 (4) Dacron
+ 51. If lysine is put in pH = 1 solution then which of the
N N
(3) (4) X– following is present in solution?
+
46. Which of the following combination is most (1) H3N – CH – COOH
favourable for azo dye test? CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – NH2
+
(1) O2N , OH N N (2) H2N – CH – COOH

CH2 – CH2 CH2 – CH2

+ NH3
(2) NH2 , HO N N
+

+
+ (3) H3N – CH – COO
–

(3) H2N , N N

+
CH2 – CH2 CH2 CH2 NH3
CH3

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+ +
(4) N , O2N N N (4) H3N – CH – COOH

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+
CH3 CH2 – CH2 CH2 – CH2 NH3
47. Which of the following is equivalently basic as KOH,
in water?
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52. Which of the following amino acid is not a non-
essential amino acid?
(1) CH3NH2 (2) (CH3)2 NH
(1) Arginine (2) Leucine
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 –
(3) Glycine (4) Lysine
(3) (CH3)3N (4)  CH3 4 NOH
53. If glucose and galactose are used to produce
48. Which of the following give Tollen's reagent test?
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disaccharide then which of the following glycosidic

linkage form non reducing sugar?
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(1) NH2 (2) NHOH (1) C1 – C4 (2) C1 – C1

(3) C1 – C6 (4) C2 – C1
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(3) NO (4) NO2 54. Minimum number of carbon atoms present in a

carbohydrate is
49. Dacron is an example of (1) 5 (2) 3
(1) Step growth polymer (3) 4 (4) 6
(2) Copolymer 55. Aspartame is an example of
(3) Condensation polymer (1) Sweetener (2) Analgesic
(4) All of these (3) Soap (4) Antipyretic
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Test - 7 (Paper-I)
SECTION - II
Assertion – Reason Type Questions
Directions : Questions number 56 to 60 are Assertion-
Reason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.
56. Statement-1 : On strong heating HCOOH fumes into
air completely without any residue.
and
Statement-2 : HCOOH is a monoprotic acid.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
57. Statement-1 : Secondary & Tertiary structure of
protein represent the biologically active form of
protein.
and
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Statement-2 : Primary structure of protein only
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predict the sequencing of amino acids in the
formation of polypeptide.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
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Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
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Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Ed
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
58. Statement-1 : DiBAL – H is used to produce imine
from nitrile.
and
Statement-2 : Hydrolysis of imine produces
aldehyde.
Space for Rough Work
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
59. Statement-1 : In water CH3NH2 is more basic than
(CH3)3 N.
and

Statement-2 : CH3 NH3 due to less steric
hinderence of methyl group cause better H-bonding
with H2O.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
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(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
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Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
60. Statement-1 : Teflon is used in non stick
coating.
and
Statement-2 : Teflon is an addition polymer.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 7 (Paper-I)

PART - C (MATHEMATICS)
 
SECTION - I 65. Given A  iˆ  2 jˆ  3kˆ, B  iˆ  2 jˆ  kˆ and
Straight Objective Type Questions    
C  3iˆ  jˆ . D is normal to both A and B . The
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 61 to 85. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),   a
angle between of C and D is cos1 . Then a
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 30
61. The means of five observations is 4 and their is
variance is 5.2. If three of the observations are 1, 2 (1) –3 (2) –4
and 6, then the other two are (3) –1 (4) –2
(1) 2 and 9 (2) 3 and 8 66. A line segment has length 63 and direction ratios
(3) 4 and 7 (4) 5 and 6 〈3,  2, 6〉 . If the line makes an obtuse angle with
62. Sri Lanka cricket captain lost the toss of a coin 13 x-axis, then the components of the vector are
times out of 14. The chance of this happening was (1) 27, –18, 54 (2) 27, 18, 54
1 (3) –27, 18, –54 (4) 27, –18, –54
(1) 7/213 (2)
213    ^ 
( p iˆ)2  ( p jˆ)2  ( p  k )2 , where | p | 4 , is equal

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67.
(3) 13/214 (4) 13/213
to

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63. A determinant is chosen at random from the set of
(1) 16 (2) 32
all determinant of order 2 with elements 0, 1 or 2.
Find the probability that the value of determinant
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chosen is zero   
68. If a is parallel to b c then
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35 31
(1) (2)         
81 81
(a  b ).(a  c )  (a  b ).(a  (b  c )) is equal to
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32 50
(3) (4)      
81 81 (1) | a | 2(b . c ) (2) | b | 2(a . c )
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64. A square is given in the co-ordinate system with

     
vertices (–100, –100), (–100, 100), (100, 100) and
Ed

(3) | c | 2(a . b ) (4) 2 | a |( b . c )

(100, –100). A point inside or lying on the square is
selected with integral co-ordinates say (x, y). The 69. If a number is selected out of the {15, 115, 215, 315,
..... 1515}. The probability that it is a divisor of 100!
a
probability that x.y is a number ending with 3 is , is
b
where a and b are co-primes, then a + b is 2 9
(1) (2)
3 16
(1) 40501 (2) 40401
5
(3) 40601 (4) 41201 (3) 1 (4)
8
Space for Rough Work

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Test - 7 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014
   
70. |   |2  |   |2 is equal to 75. If 3f ( x )  f '( x ) and f (0)  4 then f (2) equals
 (1) 4.e4 (2) 3.e6
(1) 4   (2) 0
(3) 2.e4 (4) 4.e6
   
(3) –4  .  (4) 2  .      
76. The vectors such that A . X  2 and A  X  B
71. The differential equation f ( x )dy  y f '( x )  y  dx is  
where A and B are non zero perpendicular vectors.
changed in the form d ( x, y )  0 , then ( x, y ) is 
Then X is
     
f (x ) f (x) 2A  A  B A  AB
(1) y (2) x  
2 y (1) (2)
| A |2 | A |2
f (x ) f (x)      
(3) x (4) A  2A  B A  2( A  B )
y y (3)  (4) 
2 | A |2 | A |2
72. The solution of the equation
77. The equation of the family of curves which intersects
⎡ sin x y ⎤
y '  cot x ⎢  ⎥ given y = 1 when x   is the hyperbola xy  4 orthogonally is
⎣ y 2⎦ 2
x3 x3
(1) y = c (2) y = c
(1) y2 = sin x (2) y2 = 2 sin x 8 4

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(3) x2 = sin y (4) x2 = 2 sin y
x3 x3

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73. Order and degree of the differential equation (3) y = c (4) y = c
12 16
satisfying 1  x 2  1  y 2  a( x  y ) is
n al
78. If a variable takes discrete values x + 4,
(1) 1 and 1 (2) 1 and 2 7 5 1 1
x  , x  , x  3, x  2, x  , x  , x  5 (x > 0),
2 2 2 2
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(3) 2 and 1 (4) 1 and not defined
74. The general solution of the differential equation then the mean deviation about median is
o

dy ⎛xy⎞ ⎛xy ⎞ 5 5
 sin ⎜ ⎟  sin ⎜ ⎟ is (1) (2)
dx ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ 2 4
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y (3) 2 (4) 3
(1) log tan  c  2 sin x
Ed

2 79. If A and B are two independent events such that

y x 2 1
(2) log tan  c  2sin P ( A  B)  and P ( A  B )  , then P(B) is
4 2 15 6
⎛y ⎞ 1 1
(3) log tan ⎜  ⎟  c  2 sin x (1) (2)
⎝ 2 4⎠ 5 6
⎛ y ⎞ x 2 5
(4) log tan ⎜  ⎟  c  2sin (3) (4)
⎝ 4 4⎠ 4 5 6
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 7 (Paper-I)

80. If one natural number is selected at random from 84. Consider the points A(5, –1, 1), B(7, –4, 7),
1 to 100. The probability that their sum of digits is C(1, –6, 10) and D(–1, –3, 4). Then ABCD is
prime is (1) A square (2) A rhombus
33 35 (3) A rectangle (4) Not a plane figure
(1) (2)
100 100
   
L1 L1 L1 L2
37 38 85. is equal to
(3) (4)
100 100
   

    L1 L2 L2  L2
81. The vectors c, a  xiˆ  yjˆ  zkˆ and b  j are such
      
that a, c and b form a right handed system then (1) | L1 L2 |2 (2) | L1 L2 |

c can be
   
 (3) (L . L )2 (4) L1 . L2
(1) ziˆ  xkˆ (2) o 1 2

(3) yjˆ (4) ziˆ  ykˆ SECTION - II

Assertion – Reason Type Questions
  
Directions : Questions number 86 to 90 are Assertion-

n
82. If | a | =1 where a is a position vector. If a vector a
Reason type questions. Each of these questions
is selected at random. Find the probability that

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contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and

x  0, y  0, z  0 (where a = xiˆ  yjˆ  zkˆ ) Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has

1 1
n al
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.
(1) (2)
2 4 86. Statement-1 : The differential equation of all circles
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in a plane must be of order 3.

1 1
(3) (4) and
o

8 16
Statement-2 : If three points are non-collinear and lie
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in a plane, then only one circle always pass through

⎛ 13 ⎞
83. The equation of the curve passing through ⎜ ,1⎟ these points.
⎝ 3 ⎠
Ed

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

dx
the differential equation  y  2 is
dy
(1) 3y3 + 29y + 6xy = 6
(2) 3y3 + 29y – 6xy = 6
(3) 3y3 + 29y + 6xy + 6 = 0
(4) 3y3 – 29y – 6xy – 6 = 0
1 Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
y Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
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Test - 7 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

87. Statement-1 : If A & B are exhaustive events 89. Statement-1 : From the point P (1, 1,1), the normal
drawn to planes yz and zx are PA, PB, then the
1 1 1 1 equation of plane OAB is x + y –z = 0.
and P ( A )  , P (B )  ⇒ P ( A  B )    1 .
2 2 2 2 and
and Statement-2 : From the point P (a, b, c) where at
Statement-2 : If A & B are exhaustive events least two of a, b, c are non zero, the normals drawn
to planes yz and zx are PA, PB, then the equation
P(A  B) = P(A) + P(B). of plane OAB is bcx + acy – abz =0.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1 Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1 Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
 
90. Statement-1 : If A and B are independent events
88. Statement-1 : If | a | = 1 then a will always represent

n
then P ( A  B )  P ( A / B ).P (B / A ) .
a circle.

.i
and
and
Statement-2 : x2 + y2 = 1 is the equation of a circle.
n al Statement-2 : If A and B are independent events
then P ( A  B )  P( A)  P (B ) .
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
ur
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
o

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
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Statement-1 Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
Ed

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

  

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Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2014

TEST - 6 (Paper-I)

ANSWERS
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
1. (4) 31. (1) 61. (2)
2. (1) 32. (3) 62. (2)
3. (2) 33. (2) 63. (3)
4. (2) 34. (4) 64. (4)
5. (1) 35. (3) 65. (3)
6. (3) 36. (2) 66. (1)

n
7. (4) 37. (3) 67. (3)

.i
8. (3) 38. (3) 68. (2)
9.
10.
(2)
(4)
n 39.
40.
al
(3)
(1)
69.
70.
(1)
(3)
11. (3) 41. (2) 71. (2)
ur

12. (3) 42. (4) 72. (3)

13. (3) 43. (1) 73. (2)
o

14. (1) 44. (3) 74. (4)

uj

15. (2) 45. (2) 75. (4)

Ed

16. (1) 46. (3) 76. (2)

17. (1) 47. (4) 77. (3)
18. (4) 48. (4) 78. (4)
19. (1) 49. (3) 79. (3)
20. (1) 50. (2) 80. (2)
21. (1) 51. (3) 81. (3)
22. (2) 52. (2) 82. (3)
23. (1) 53. (1) 83. (4)
24. (3) 54. (4) 84. (4)
25. (1) 55. (2) 85. (2)
26. (2) 56. (2) 86. (1)
27. (4) 57. (4) 87. (1)
28. (2) 58. (3) 88. (3)
29. (1) 59. (4) 89. (4)
30. (2) 60. (3) 90. (3)

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