Module 13

Module 13.
13.01a. Theory of Flight - Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls.
Question Number. 1. Flaps at landing position.

Option A. decrease landing speed.
Option B. decrease take off and landing speeds.
Option C. decrease take off speed.
Correct Answer is. decrease landing speed.
Explanation. Although an aircraft will take-off with flaps at landing position, this is not normal.
Question Number. 2. As a subsonic aircraft speeds-up, its Centre of Pressure.

Option A. moves aft.
Option B. moves forward.
Option C. is unaffected.
Correct Answer is. moves aft.
Explanation. Assuming that the aircraft is to remain at constant altitude, it must reduce its angle of attack as it speeds-up.
This alone will move the CofP rearwards, in accordance with the sub-sonic angle of attack change theory.
Question Number. 3. Lowering of the flaps.

Option A. increases drag.
Option B. increases lift.
Option C. increases drag and lift.
Correct Answer is. increases drag and lift.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician General Textbook. Page 1-17.
Question Number. 4. Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are associated with.
Option A. rudder.
Option B. elevators.
Option C. ailerons.
Correct Answer is. ailerons.
Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 51. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-12.
Question Number. 5. What do ruddervators do?.

Option A. Control yaw and roll.
Option B. Control pitch and yaw.
Option C. Control pitch and roll.
Correct Answer is. Control pitch and yaw.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician General Textbook. Page 1-16 fig 1-36.
Question Number. 6. What controls pitch and roll on a delta wing aircraft?.
Option A. Ailerons.
Option B. Elevons.
Option C. Elevators.
Correct Answer is. Elevons.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician General Textbook. Page 1-17.
Question Number. 7. What does a trim tab do?.

Option A. Allows the CofG to be outside the normal limit.
Option B. Provides finer control movements by the pilot.
Option C. Eases control loading for pilot.
Correct Answer is. Eases control loading for pilot.
Explanation. A&P General Textbook Pg 2-35.
Question Number. 8. How does a balance tab move?.

Option A. In the same direction a small amount.
Option B. In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to.
Option C. In the same direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to.
Correct Answer is. In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to.
Question Number. 9. If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you position the trim tab on the rudder?.
Option A. To the centre.
Option B. To the left.
Option C. To the right.
Correct Answer is. To the left.
Explanation. Automatic flight control, Pallett, 4th Edition Page 43.
Question Number. 10. If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would you move the left aileron trim tab?.
Option A. Down.
Option B. Up.
Option C. Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation.
Correct Answer is. Up.
Explanation. Automatic flight control, Pallett, 4th Edition Page 43.
Question Number. 11. When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the wing for?.
Option A. To re-energise the boundary layer.
Option B. To increase the lift.
Option C. To allow the flap to retract into it when it retracts.
Correct Answer is. To re-energise the boundary layer.
Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 50. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-32.
Question Number. 12. With respect to differential aileron control, which of the following is true?.
Option A. The up going and down going ailerons both deflect to the same angle.
Option B. The up going Aileron moves through a smaller angle than the down going aileron.
Option C. The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron.
Correct Answer is. The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron.
Explanation. Mechanics of Flight, Kermode, Page 301. The down going aileron moves less, to reduce the induced drag which
causes adverse aileron yaw.
Question Number. 13. The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical aerofoil section and will therefore provide a side-load.
Option A. only when the rudder is moved.
Option B. if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement.
Option C. only if a suitable angle of attack develops due to yaw.
Correct Answer is. if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement.
Explanation. Rudder deflection or yaw.
Question Number. 14. An aircraft left wing is flying low. The aileron trimmer control to the left aileron trim tab in the
cockpit would be.
Option A. moved up causing the left aileron to move up.
Option B. moved up causing the left aileron to move down.
Option C. moved down causing the left aileron to move down.
Correct Answer is. moved up causing the left aileron to move down.
Explanation. Down aileron required - which requires up trim.
Question Number. 15. An elevator tab moves down.

Option A. to make the nose go down.
Option B. to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy.
Option C. to counteract for the aircraft flying tail heavy.
Correct Answer is. to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy.
Explanation. Elevator tab DOWN, elevator UP, aircraft nose UP.
Question Number. 16. The stall margin is controlled by.

Option A. speed bug cursor.
Option B. E.P.R limits.
Option C. angle of attack and flap position.
Correct Answer is. angle of attack and flap position.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Page 143/4.
Question Number. 17. Other than spoilers, where are speed brakes located?.
Option A. Under the Fuselage.
Option B. Either side of the Fuselage.
Option C. On the wing.
Correct Answer is. Either side of the Fuselage.
Explanation. Reference BAe 146 etc.
Question Number. 18. With a trailing edge flap being lowered, due to rising gusts, what will happen to the angle of
attack?.
Option A. Tend to decrease.
Option B. Stay the same.
Option C. Tend to increase.
Correct Answer is. Tend to increase.
Explanation. Assuming that 'rising gust' means it has a vertical component.
Question Number. 19. A device used do dump lift from an aircraft is.
Option A. leading edge flaps.
Option B. trailing edge flaps.
Option C. spoiler.
Correct Answer is. spoiler.
Explanation. Spoilers are sometimes called 'lift dumps'.
Question Number. 20. The purpose of a slot in a wing is to.

Option A. provide housing for the slat.
Option B. speed up the airflow and increase lift.
Option C. act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer.
Correct Answer is. act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer.
Explanation. A slot is to act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer.
Question Number. 21. Large flap deployment.

Option A. causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing upper surface.
Option B. causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface.
Option C. has no effect on spanwise flow.
Correct Answer is. causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface.
Explanation. Flaps increase the pressure differential between top and bottom surfaces, increase tip vortices and spanwise flow.
Question Number. 22. Which part of the wing of a swept-wing aircraft stalls first?.
Option A. Tip stalls first.
Option B. Both stall together.
Option C. Root stalls first.
Correct Answer is. Tip stalls first.
Explanation. The tip of a swept wing stalls first.
Question Number. 23. During flight, an aircraft is yawing to the right. The aircraft would have a tendency to fly.
Option A. right wing low.
Option B. left wing low.
Option C. nose up.
Correct Answer is. right wing low.
Explanation. The leading wing (left wing) has increased lift, causing it to rise.
Question Number. 24. In the reversed camber horizontal stabilizer.

Option A. there is an increased tail plane up-force.
Option B. the elevator causes tail down movement i.e. increased tail plane down force.
Option C. there is an increased tailplane down-force.
Correct Answer is. there is an increased tailplane down-force.
Explanation. The lower cambered surface produces a down-force on the tail.
Question Number. 25. When the trailing edge flap is extended.

Option A. CP moves rearward.
Option B. the CP moves forward but the CG does not change.
Option C. the CP moves forward and the pitching moment changes to nose up.
Correct Answer is. CP moves rearward.
Explanation. CP moves rearwards when the flap is extended.
Question Number. 26. With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling will.
Option A. rise.
Option B. not be affected.
Option C. lower.
Correct Answer is. rise.
Explanation. As ambient temperature drops, density increases and aircraft performance increases.
Question Number. 27. What type of flap is this?.

Option A. Split flap.
Option B. Plain flap.
Option C. Fowler flap.
Correct Answer is. Split flap.
Explanation. Split flap.
Question Number. 28. Servo tabs.

Option A. enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral.
Option B. move in such a way as to help move the control surface.
Option C. provide artificial feel.
Correct Answer is. move in such a way as to help move the control surface.
Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page.1-29.
Question Number. 29. Spring Tabs.

Option A. provide artificial feel.
Option B. enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral.
Option C. move in such a way as to help move the control surface.
Correct Answer is. move in such a way as to help move the control surface.
Question Number. 30. Extending a leading edge slat will have what effect on the angle of attack of a wing?.
Option A. Increase the angle of attack.
Option B. Decrease the angle of attack.
Option C. No effect on angle of attack.
Correct Answer is. Decrease the angle of attack.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are.
Option A. installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root.
Option B. installed on the wing leading edge at the wing tip.
Option C. installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root.
Correct Answer is. installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. Krueger flaps make up part of the.

Option A. wing lower surface leading edge.
Option B. wing lower surface trailing edge.
Option C. wing upper surface leading edge.
Correct Answer is. wing lower surface leading edge.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 1-37. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 53 fig 1.37 (Note: lower
surface when retracted, upper surface when extended.).
Question Number. 33. In a turn, wing spoilers may be deployed.

Option A. to assist the up going aileron.
Option B. in unison with both the up going and down going ailerons.
Option C. to act as an airbrake, interacting with the ailerons.
Correct Answer is. to assist the up going aileron.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 34. Dutch role is movement in.

Option A. yaw and pitch.
Option B. yaw and roll.
Option C. pitch and roll.
Correct Answer is. yaw and roll.
Explanation. Avionic Fundamentals Jeppesen page 291.
Question Number. 35. What is the main purpose of a frize aileron?.

Option A. Increase drag on the up going wing.
Option B. Decrease drag on the up going wing.
Option C. Help pilot overcome aerodynamic loads.
Correct Answer is. Decrease drag on the up going wing.
Explanation. The Frise aileron increases drag on the up-going aileron, which is on the downgoing wing. And Vise versa on the
other aileron.
Question Number. 36. Flap asymmetry causes the aircraft to.

Option A. nose down.
Option B. go one wing down.
Option C. nose up.
Correct Answer is. go one wing down.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 37. If an aircraft moves in yaw, what axis is it moving about?.
Option A. Longitudinal.
Option B. Lateral.
Option C. Normal.
Correct Answer is. Normal.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 38. If an aircraft is aerodynamically stable.

Option A. aircraft returns to trimmed attitude.
Option B. CofP moves back.
Option C. aircraft becomes too sensitive.
Correct Answer is. aircraft returns to trimmed attitude.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 39. What are ground spoilers used for?.

Option A. To assist the aircraft coming to a stop.
Option B. To slow the aircraft.
Option C. To dump lift.
Correct Answer is. To dump lift.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. Mass balance weights are used to.

Option A. balance the trailing edge of flying control surfaces.
Option B. counteract flutter on control surfaces.
Option C. balance the tabs.
Correct Answer is. counteract flutter on control surfaces.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 41. What is a slot used for?.

Option A. Increased angle of attack during approach.
Option B. Increase the speed of the airflow.
Option C. To reinforce the boundary layer.
Correct Answer is. To reinforce the boundary layer.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 53.
Question Number. 42. Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line and.
Option A. horizontal axis.
Option B. relative air flow.
Option C. tip path plane.
Correct Answer is. relative air flow.
Question Number. 43. A high lift device is used for.
Option A. take-off only.
Option B. take-off and landing.
Option C. landing only.
Correct Answer is. take-off and landing.
Question Number. 44. How is a spoiler interconnected to other flight control systems?.
Option A. Spoiler to elevator.
Option B. Spoiler to aileron.
Option C. Spoiler to flap.
Correct Answer is. Spoiler to aileron.
Question Number. 45. What is aileron droop?.

Option A. The droop of ailerons with no hydraulics on.
Option B. The leading edge of both ailerons presented to the airflow.
Option C. One aileron lowered.
Correct Answer is. The droop of ailerons with no hydraulics on.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 46. Earths atmosphere is.

Option A. 3/5 oxygen, 2/5 nitrogen.
Option B. 4/5 oxygen, 1/5 nitrogen.
Option C. 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen.
Correct Answer is. 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 47. An anti-balance tab is used.

Option A. to relieve stick loads.
Option B. for trimming the aircraft.
Option C. to give more feel to the controls.
Correct Answer is. to give more feel to the controls.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 1-29.
Question Number. 48. The fin helps to give.

Option A. directional stability about the normal axis.
Option B. directional stability about the longitudinal axis.
Option C. longitudinal stability about the normal axis.
Correct Answer is. directional stability about the normal axis.
Question Number. 49. If an aircraft moves in roll, it is moving about the.

Option A. longitudinal axis.
Option B. normal axis.
Option C. lateral axis.
Correct Answer is. longitudinal axis.
Explanation. Mechanics of flight by A.C. Kermode page 241.
Question Number. 50. What effect does lowering the flaps for take-off have?.
Option A. Increases lift & reduces drag.
Option B. Increases lift and drag.
Option C. Increase lift only.
Correct Answer is. Increases lift and drag.
Explanation. Avionics Fundamentals. Jeppesen Page 244.
Question Number. 51. What effect does lowering flaps for takeoff have?.
Option A. Reduces takeoff speeds only.
Option B. Reduces landing speeds only.
Option C. Reduces takeoff and landing speeds.
Correct Answer is. Reduces takeoff speeds only.
Question Number. 52. When the flaps are lowered.

Option A. the lift vector moves rearward.
Option B. there is no effect on the lift vector.
Option C. the lift vector moves forward.
Correct Answer is. the lift vector moves rearward.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page 51.
Question Number. 53. At take-off, if the flaps are lowered there is a.

Option A. large increase in lift and drag.
Option B. large increase in lift and small increase in drag.
Option C. small increase in lift and drag.
Correct Answer is. large increase in lift and drag.
Question Number. 54. Wing spoilers be used.

Option A. to assist the respective down going aileron in a turn.
Option B. as ground spoilers on landing.
Option C. to assist the elevators.
Correct Answer is. as ground spoilers on landing.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control. Pallett page 55. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook by Jeppesen. 1-14.
Question Number. 55. Differential aileron control will.

Option A. cause a nose down moment.
Option B. prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input.
Option C. cause a nose up moment.
Correct Answer is. prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 56. Dutch Roll affects.
Option A. pitch and yaw simultaneously.
Option B. yaw and roll simultaneously.
Option C. pitch and roll simultaneously.
Correct Answer is. yaw and roll simultaneously.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control. Pallett page 26.
Question Number. 57. Which of the following are primary control surfaces?.
Option A. Elevators, ailerons, rudder.
Option B. Roll spoilers, elevators, tabs.
Option C. Elevators, roll spoilers, tabs.
Correct Answer is. Elevators, ailerons, rudder.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 58. A split flap.

Option A. forms part of the trailing edge's lower surface when retracted.
Option B. forms part of the leading edge's lower surface when retracted.
Option C. forms part of the trailing edge's upper surface when retracted.
Correct Answer is. forms part of the trailing edge's lower surface when retracted.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Page1-30 /31.
Question Number. 59. An anti-servo tab.

Option A. assists the pilot to move the controls back to neutral.
Option B. moves in the opposite direction to the control surface to assist the pilot.
Option C. moves in the same direction as the control surface to assist the pilot.
Correct Answer is. assists the pilot to move the controls back to neutral.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 60. Slats.

Option A. keep the boundary layer from separating for longer.
Option B. increase the overall surface area and lift effect of wing.
Option C. act as an air brake.
Correct Answer is. keep the boundary layer from separating for longer.
Explanation. Jeppesen A & P technician airframe textbook page 1-32.
Question Number. 61. Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight.
Option A. nose should be lowered, reducing AOA.
Option B. nose should be raised, increasing AOA.
Option C. nose should remain in the same position, maintaining same AOA.
Correct Answer is. nose should be lowered, reducing AOA.
Explanation. The main purpose of flaps is to increase lift so that the pilot can lower the nose, increase decent angle and get a
better view of the runway.
Question Number. 62. Flight spoilers.

Option A. can be deployed on the down going wing in a turn to increase lift on that wing.
Option B. can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent without reduction of airspeed.
Option C. can be used with differential ailerons to reduce adverse yaw in a turn.
Correct Answer is. can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent without reduction of airspeed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 63. If the aircraft is flying nose heavy, which direction would you move the elevator trim tab?.
Option A. Up to move elevator down.
Option B. Up to move elevator up.
Option C. Down to move elevator up.
Correct Answer is. Down to move elevator up.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 64. Wing tip vortices are strongest when.

Option A. flying high speed straight and level flight.
Option B. flying into a headwind.
Option C. flying slowly at high angles of attack.
Correct Answer is. flying slowly at high angles of attack.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 65. Aerodynamic balance.

Option A. will reduce aerodynamic loading.
Option B. will cause CP to move forward of hinge and cause overbalance.
Option C. will cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause instability.
Correct Answer is. will reduce aerodynamic loading.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 66. A balance tab.

Option A. effectively increases the area of the control surface.
Option B. assists the pilot to move the controls.
Option C. is used to trim the appropriate axis of the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. assists the pilot to move the controls.
Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Technician Textbook pg 1-29.
Question Number. 67. Elevons combine the functions of both.

Option A. rudder and elevator.
Option B. elevator and aileron.
Option C. rudder and aileron.
Correct Answer is. elevator and aileron.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-16 Fig 1-36.
Question Number. 68. Flutter can be reduced by using.

Option A. a horn balance.
Option B. mass balancing.
Option C. servo tabs.
Correct Answer is. mass balancing.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 69. An elevator provides control about the.
Option B. lateral axis.
Option C. horizontal stabilizer.
Correct Answer is. lateral axis.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 70. The outboard ailerons on some large aircraft.

Option A. are isolated at high speeds.
Option B. are isolated to improve sensitivity.
Option C. are isolated at low speeds.
Correct Answer is. are isolated at high speeds.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 71. Which wing increases drag when the ailerons are moved?.
Option A. Both wings increase drag but the wing with the up-going aileron increases more.
Option B. Both wings have an equal increase in drag.
Option C. Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going aileron increases more.
Correct Answer is. Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going aileron increases more.
Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-26.
Question Number. 72. Which flap will increase wing area and camber?.
Option A. Slot.
Option B. Split.
Option C. Fowler.
Correct Answer is. Fowler.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 20.
Question Number. 73. Wing loading of an aircraft.

Option A. varies with dynamic loading due to air currents.
Option B. is independent of altitude.
Option C. decreases with density.
Correct Answer is. is independent of altitude.
Explanation. Wing loading = aircraft weight/wing area.
Question Number. 74. An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle of attack is.
Option A. high.
Option B. high or low.
Option C. low.
Correct Answer is. high.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 75. On aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused by.
Option A. left spoilers extending, right spoilers remaining retracted.
Option B. right spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining retracted.
Option C. left and right spoilers extending.
Correct Answer is. right spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining retracted.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 76. A split flap increases lift by increasing.

Option A. the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion.
Option B. the surface area.
Option C. the camber of the top surface.
Correct Answer is. the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion.
Question Number. 77. When the trailing edge flaps are lowered, the aircraft will.
Option A. pitch nose up.
Option B. pitch nose down.
Option C. sink.
Correct Answer is. pitch nose down.
Explanation. Due to the centre of pressure moving.
Question Number. 78. In aileron control.
Option A. the up going aileron moves further than down going aileron.
Option B. the down going aileron moves further than up going aileron.
Option C. it is assisted by the rudder.
Correct Answer is. the up going aileron moves further than down going aileron.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 79. The aircraft is controlled about the lateral axis by the.
Option A. ailerons.
Option B. elevator.
Option C. rudder.
Correct Answer is. elevator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 80. The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by the.
Option A. ailerons.
Option B. elevator.
Option C. rudder.
Correct Answer is. rudder.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 81. Dutch roll is.

Option A. a combined yawing and rolling motion.
Option B. primarily a pitching instability.
Option C. a type of slow roll.
Correct Answer is. a combined yawing and rolling motion.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 82. The aircraft is controlled about the longitudinal axis by the.
Option A. ailerons.
Option B. elevator.
Option C. rudder.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 83. Ruddervators when moved, will move.

Option A. opposite to each other only.
Option B. together only.
Option C. either opposite each other or together, depending on the selection.
Correct Answer is. either opposite each other or together, depending on the selection
Question Number. 84. As a consequence of the C of G being close to its aft limit.
Option A. the stick forces will be high in fore and aft pitch, due to the high longitudinal stability.
Option B. the stick forces to manoeuvre longitudinally will be low due to the low stability.
Option C. the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high.
Correct Answer is. the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 85. What is the term used for the amount of water in the atmosphere?.
Option A. Relative humidity.
Option B. Absolute humidity.
Option C. Dew point.
Correct Answer is. Absolute humidity.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 86. An anti-balance tab is moved.

Option A. via a fixed linkage.
Option B. hydraulically.
Option C. when the C.G. changes.
Correct Answer is. via a fixed linkage.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 87. A servo tab is operated.

Option A. directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces.
Option B. automatically, and moves in the same direction as the main control surfaces.
Option C. by a trim wheel and moves in the opposite direction to the main control surfaces when moved.
Correct Answer is. directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces.
Question Number. 88. On an aircraft with an all-moving tailplane, pitch up is caused by.
Option A. decreasing tailplane incidence.
Option B. up movement of the elevator trim tab.
Option C. increasing tailplane incidence.
Correct Answer is. decreasing tailplane incidence.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 89. When checking full range of control surface movement, they must be positioned by.
Option A. moving them by hand directly until against the primary stops.
Option B. moving them by hand directly until against the secondary stops.
Option C. operating the control cabin controls until the system is against the primary stops.
Correct Answer is. operating the control cabin controls until the system is against the primary stops.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 90. An excess of aerodynamic balance would move the control surface centre of pressure.
Option A. rearwards, resulting in too much assistance.
Option B. rearwards, resulting in loss of assistance.
Option C. forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance.
Correct Answer is. forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 91. A flying control mass balance weight.
Option A. keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible.
Option B. tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line.
Option C. ensures that the C of G always acts to aid the pilot thus relieving control column load.
Correct Answer is. tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 92. The type of flap which extends rearwards when lowered is called a.
Option A. plain flap.
Option B. split flap.
Option C. Fowler flap.
Correct Answer is. Fowler flap.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 93. Which of the following trailing edge flaps give an increase in wing area?.
Option A. Split flap.
Option B. Fowler flap.
Option C. Slotted flap.
Correct Answer is. Fowler flap.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 94. Which of the following is not a primary flying control?.
Option A. Elevator.
Option B. Tailplane.
Option C. Rudder.
Correct Answer is. Tailplane.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 95. A leading edge slat is a device for.

Option A. increasing the stalling angle of the wing.
Option B. decreasing the stalling angle of the wing.
Option C. decreasing wing drag.
Correct Answer is. increasing the stalling angle of the wing.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 96. A Krueger flap is.

Option A. a flap which extends rearwards but does not lower.
Option B. a leading edge flap which hinges forward.
Option C. a leading edge slat which extends forward.
Correct Answer is. a leading edge flap which hinges forward.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 97. A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving automatically in the opposite
direction to the control surface is called a.
Option A. servo tab.
Option B. geared balance tab.
Option C. trim tab.
Correct Answer is. geared balance tab.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 98. What is attached to the rear of the vertical stabilizer?.
Option A. Elevator.
Option B. Aileron.
Option C. Rudder.
Correct Answer is. Rudder.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 99. What is fitted on the aircraft to enable the pilot to reduce his speed rapidly in event of severe
turbulence, or speed tending to rise above the Never Exceed Limit?.
Option A. Lift dumpers.
Option B. Air brakes.
Option C. Wheel brakes.
Correct Answer is. Air brakes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 100. When spoilers are used asymmetrically, they combine with.
Option A. ailerons.
Option B. rudder.
Option C. elevators.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 101. "What is used to correct any tendency of the aircraft to move
towards an undesirable flight attitude?."
Option A. Trim tabs.
Option B. Spring tabs.
Option C. Balance tabs.
Correct Answer is. Trim tabs.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 102. The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is slower moving, in relation to the rest of the
airflow, is known as.
Option A. none of the above are correct.
Option B. camber layer.
Option C. boundary layer.
Correct Answer is. boundary layer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 103. A control surface which forms a slot when deployed is called a.
Option A. slat.
Option B. slot.
Option C. flap.
Correct Answer is. slat.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 104. Asymmetric flaps will cause.

Option A. the aircraft to descend.
Option B. the aircraft to ascend.
Option C. one wing to rise.
Correct Answer is. one wing to rise.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 105. When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an aerofoil decreases, what takes place?.
Option A. Pressure decreases, lift increases.

Option B. Pressure increases, lift decreases.
Option C. Pressure increases, lift increases.
Correct Answer is. Pressure increases, lift decreases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 106. What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin friction?.
Option A. Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior.
Option B. Aspect ratio.
Option C. Fineness ratio.
Correct Answer is. Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 107. Changes in aircraft weight.

Option A. cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change.
Option B. will not affect total drag since it is dependant only upon speed.
Option C. will only affect total drag if the lift is kept constant.
Correct Answer is. cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 108. When an aircraft stalls.
Option A. lift increases and drag decreases.
Option B. lift and drag increase.
Option C. lift decreases and drag increases.
Correct Answer is. lift decreases and drag increases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 109. Spoiler panels are positioned so that when deployed.
Option A. roll will not occur.
Option B. pitch trim is not affected.
Option C. no yaw takes place.
Correct Answer is. pitch trim is not affected.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 110. The aircraft stalling speed will.

Option A. only change if the MTWA were changed.
Option B. be unaffected by aircraft weight changes since it is dependant upon the angle of attack.
Option C. increase with an increase in weight.
Correct Answer is. increase with an increase in weight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 111. In a bank and turn.

Option A. extra lift is not required if thrust is increased.
Option B. extra lift is not required.
Option C. extra lift is required.
Correct Answer is. extra lift is required.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 112. The method employed to mass balance control surfaces is to.
Option A. fit bias strips to the trailing edge of the surfaces.
Option B. attach weights forward of the hinge line.
Option C. allow the leading edge of the surface to project into the airflow.
Correct Answer is. attach weights forward of the hinge line.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 113. Control surface flutter may be caused by.

Option A. excessive play in trim tab attachments.
Option B. high static friction in trim tab control tabs.
Option C. incorrect angular movement of trim tabs.
Correct Answer is. excessive play in trim tab attachments.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 114. A differential aileron control system results in.

Option A. aileron drag being reduced on the inner wing in a turn.
Option B. aileron drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn.
Option C. aileron drag being compensated by small rudder movements.
Correct Answer is. aileron drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 115. The primary function of a flap is.

Option A. to trim the aircraft longitudinally.
Option B. to alter the position of the centre of gravity.
Option C. to alter the lift of an aerofoil.
Correct Answer is. to alter the lift of an aerofoil.
Question Number. 116. The angle of attack at which stall occurs.

Option A. can be varied by using flaps and slats.
Option B. depends on the weight of the aircraft.
Option C. cannot be varied, it is always constant.
Correct Answer is. can be varied by using flaps and slats.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 117. The stalling speed of an aircraft.

Option A. is increased when it is heavier.
Option B. does not change.
Option C. is increased when it is lighter.
Correct Answer is. is increased when it is heavier.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 118. A wing flap which has dropped or partially extended on one wing in flight will lead to.
Option A. a fixed banked attitude which would be corrected by use of the rudder.
Option B. a pitching moment which would be corrected by used of the elevators.
Option C. a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by use of the ailerons.
Correct Answer is. a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by use of the ailerons.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 119. With an increase in the amount of flap deployment, the stalling angle of a wing.
Option A. remains the same.
Option B. increases.
Option C. decreases.
Correct Answer is. decreases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 120. Aerodynamic balance of a control surface may be achieved.

Option A. by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge line.
Option B. by weights added to the control surface aft of the hinge line.
Option C. by a trimming strip at the trailing edge of the surface.
Correct Answer is. by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge line.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 24 Para 7.
Question Number. 121. A control surface is provided with aerodynamic balancing to.
Option A. assist the pilot in moving the control.
Option B. increase stability.
Option C. decrease the drag when the control is deflected.
Correct Answer is. assist the pilot in moving the control.
Question Number. 122. Downward displacement of an aileron.

Option A. increases the angle at which its wing stalls.
Option B. decreases the angle at which its wing will stall.
Option C. has no effect on its wing stalling angle, it only affects the stalling speed on that wing.
Correct Answer is. decreases the angle at which its wing will stall.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 123. Due to the tailplane angle of attack change, the flap-induced downwash on the tailplane.
Option A. will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch.
Option B. "may cause a nose-down or nose-up pitch depending upon the initial tailplane load
."
Option C. will tend to cause an aircraft nose down pitch.
Correct Answer is. will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 124. Due to the change in lift coefficient accompanying extension of the flaps, to maintain the lift
constant it would be necessary to.
Option A. raise the nose.
Option B. lower the nose.
Option C. keep the pitch attitude constant.
Correct Answer is. lower the nose.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 125. The extension to the rudder (shaded portion shown on the diagram), is provided to.
Option A. make the pilot aware of the aerodynamic forces encountered when moving the control.
Option B. provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the rudder.
Option C. prevent control surface flutter.
Correct Answer is. provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the rudder.
Question Number. 126. A differential aileron control is one which gives.

Option A. the down-going aileron more travel than the up-going one.
Option B. equal aileron travel in each direction, but variable for stick movement.
Option C. a larger aileron up travel than down.
Correct Answer is. a larger aileron up travel than down.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 127. Which leading edge device improves the laminar flow over the wing?.
Option A. Flap and slat.
Option B. Slat.
Option C. Flap.
Correct Answer is. Slat.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 128. The balance tab is an auxiliary surface fitted to a main control surface.
Option A. operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls.
Option B. operated independently at which point in the length of cable the tensiometer is applied.
Option C. operating automatically to provide feel to the controls.
Correct Answer is. operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 129. Aerodynamic balancing of flight controls is achieved by.
Option A. placing a weight ahead of the hinge point.
Option B. placing a weight in the leading edge of the control surface.
Option C. providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point.
Correct Answer is. providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point.
Explanation. A.L/3-24 para 4.2.
Question Number. 130. Aerodynamic balance is used to.

Option A. reduce the control load to zero.
Option B. make the flying controls easier to move.
Option C. prevent flutter of the flying controls.
Correct Answer is. make the flying controls easier to move.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 131. A horn balance is.

Option A. a rod projecting forward from the control surface with a weight on the end.
Option B. a rod projecting upward from the main control surface to which the control cables are attached.
Option C. a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line.
Correct Answer is. a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line.
Question Number. 132. A control surface is mass balanced by.

Option A. the attachment of weights acting on the hinge line.
Option B. fitting a balance tab.
Option C. the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line.
Correct Answer is. the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 133. The purpose of anti-balance tabs is to.
Option A. relieve stick loads.
Option B. trim the aircraft.
Option C. give more feel to the control column.
Correct Answer is. give more feel to the control column.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 134. You have adjusted the elevator trim tab to correct for nose heavy. What was the direction of travel
of the trim tab?.
Option A. The elevator trim tab has moved down.
Option B. The elevator trim tab has moved up.
Option C. The port elevator tab has moved up and starboard moved down.
Correct Answer is. The elevator trim tab has moved down.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 135. The tropopause exists at about.

Option A. 18,000 feet.
Option B. 30,000 feet.
Option C. 36,000 feet.
Correct Answer is. 36,000 feet.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 136. Induced drag curve characteristics of a slender delta wing are such that there is.
Option A. an increase in gradient with wing speed.
Option B. no change in gradient with wing speed.
Option C. decrease in gradient with wing speed.
Correct Answer is. decrease in gradient with wing speed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 137. If an aircraft is yawing left, the trim tab on the rudder would be positioned.
Option A. to the right, moving the rudder left.
Option B. to the centre.
Option C. to the left, moving the rudder right.
Correct Answer is. to the left, moving the rudder right.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 138. Instability giving roll and yaw.

Option A. is dutch roll.
Option B. is longitudinal stability.
Option C. is lateral stability.
Correct Answer is. is dutch roll.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 139. Vortex generators are fitted to.

Option A. move transition point rearwards.
Option B. move transition point forwards.
Option C. advance the onset of flow separation.
Correct Answer is. move transition point forwards.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 140. Leading edge flaps.

Option A. increase stalling angle of the wing.
Option B. decrease stalling angle of the wing.
Option C. do not change the stalling angle.
Correct Answer is. increase stalling angle of the wing.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 141. Krueger flaps are on.

Option A. the leading edge.
Option B. either the leading or training edge.
Option C. the trailing edge.
Correct Answer is. the leading edge.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 142. Sweepback will.

Option A. decrease lateral stability.
Option B. not affect lateral stability.
Option C. increase lateral stability.
Correct Answer is. increase lateral stability.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 143. A plain flap.

Option A. does not increase the wing area on deployment.
Option B. is attached to the leading edge of the wing.
Option C. forms part of lower trailing edge.
Correct Answer is. does not increase the wing area on deployment.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 144. A split flap, when deployed.

Option A. is used only on high speed aircraft.
Option B. increases lift without a corresponding increase in drag.
Option C. increases drag with little lift coefficient increase, from intermediate to fully down.
Correct Answer is. increases drag with little lift coefficient increase, from intermediate to fully down.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 145. A flying control mass balance weight.

Option A. keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible.
Option B. tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line.
Option C. tends to move the control surface C of G forward of the hinge line.
Correct Answer is. tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 146. An elevator controls the aircraft motion in.

Option A. yaw.
Option B. roll.
Option C. pitch.
Correct Answer is. pitch.
Explanation. NIL.
13.01b. Theory of Flight - High Speed Flight.
Question Number. 1. Air above Mach 0.7 is.

Option A. compressible only when above the speed of sound.
Option B. incompressible.
Option C. compressible.
Correct Answer is. compressible.
Explanation. Aircraft Flight Barnard and Philpot, Second Edition Page123. Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode 10th Edition Page
385.
Question Number. 2. Supersonic air passing through a divergent duct causes the.
Option A. pressure to increase, velocity to increase.
Option B. pressure to increase, velocity to decrease.
Option C. pressure to decrease, velocity to increase.
Correct Answer is. pressure to decrease, velocity to increase.
Explanation. Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode 10th Edition Page 340.
Question Number. 3. An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed. Its Mach. No. will.
Option A. not change.

Option B. decrease.
Option C. increase.
Correct Answer is. decrease.
Explanation. Speed of sound INCREASES with DECREASING altitude, so mach number will decrease.
Question Number. 4. A nose down change of trim (tuck-under) occurs due to shock induced.
Option A. tip stall on a delta wing aircraft.
Option B. root stall on a delta wing aircraft.
Option C. tip stall on a straight wing aircraft.
Correct Answer is. root stall on a delta wing aircraft.
Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 45.
Question Number. 5. A symmetrical aerofoil is accelerating through Mach 1 with an angle of attack of 0°. A shock wave
will form.
Option A. on the upper and lower surface and will move aft until the point of maximum camber.
Option B. on the upper and lower surface and will move aft.
Option C. on the upper surface only and move aft.
Correct Answer is. on the upper and lower surface and will move aft.
Explanation. Shockwaves form on upper and lower surfaces BEGINNING at point of max curvature, gradually moving back.
Question Number. 6. Shock stall.

Option A. occurs at high speeds.
Option B. is a flap down stall and occurs at high speeds.
Option C. occurs at low speeds.
Correct Answer is. occurs at high speeds.
Explanation. Shock stall (or shock induced stall) is caused by the formation of shock waves in the transonic speed range.
Question Number. 7. As you approach supersonic speed.

Option A. thrust is reduced.
Option B. total drag is increased.
Option C. lift is reduced.
Correct Answer is. total drag is increased.
Explanation. An additional drag - wave drag - is added to the total drag.
Question Number. 8. Mach trim in some aircraft assists.

Option A. lateral stability.
Option B. vertical stability.
Option C. longitudinal stability.
Correct Answer is. longitudinal stability.
Explanation. Mach trim is used to correct the longitudinal trim upset during the transonic speed range.
Question Number. 9. Before an aircraft reaches critical mach.

Option A. the nose pitches up because the CP moves Forward.
Option B. the aircraft buffets because the CP moves to the shock wave.
Option C. the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear.
Correct Answer is. the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear.
Explanation. Mechanics of Flight 10th edition Barnard and Philpott Pg 341.
Question Number. 10. On a standard day, at which altitude will the speed of sound be the greatest?.
Option C. Sea level.
Correct Answer is. Sea level.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. Which of the following will increase the Critical Mach Number of an aerofoil?.
Option A. Using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back.
Option B. Decreasing the fineness ratio of the wings.
Option C. Increasing the aspect ratio of the wings.
Correct Answer is. Using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. As an aircraft accelerates through the transonic region, the centre of pressure tends to.
Option A. turn into a shock wave.
Option B. move rearward.
Option C. move forward.
Correct Answer is. move rearward.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. Supersonic air going through an incipient shock wave will decrease its speed and.
Option A. decrease temperature and increase density.
Option B. increase temperature and decrease density.
Option C. increase temperature and increase density.
Correct Answer is. increase temperature and increase density.
Explanation. Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode 10th Edition Page 326 fig 11.4.
Question Number. 14. An increase in mach number will cause the.

Option A. CofP to move rearwards giving more downwash on the tail plane.
Option B. CofP to move forwards giving less downwash on the tail plane.
Option C. CofP to move rearwards giving less downwash on the tail plane.
Correct Answer is. CofP to move rearwards giving less downwash on the tail plane.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett. Page 50.
Question Number. 15. At speeds above Mach 1, shockwaves will form above and below the wing.
Option A. at the trailing edge.
Option B. at both the leading edge and the trailing edge.
Option C. at the leading edge.
Correct Answer is. at both the leading edge and the trailing edge.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. Above the critical mach number, the drag coefficient.
Option A. increases.
Option B. remains the same.
Correct Answer is. increases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. Mach trim counters.

Option A. longitudinal instability.
Option B. vertical instability.
Option C. lateral instability.
Correct Answer is. longitudinal instability.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett page 231 and 50.
Question Number. 18. At high Mach Numbers above Mach 2.2, some aircraft metals.
Option A. such as aluminium, become brittle.
Option B. lose their strength due to the kinetic heating effect.
Option C. will shrink due to the extreme pressures involved.
Correct Answer is. lose their strength due to the kinetic heating effect.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. Mach trim operates.

Option A. along the longitudinal axis.
Option B. along the lateral axis.
Option C. to reduce Dutch roll.
Correct Answer is. along the longitudinal axis.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. To increase critical mach number.

Option A. the wings are swept.
Option B. elevons are fitted.
Option C. tailerons are fitted.
Correct Answer is. the wings are swept.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. When approaching the speed of sound the.

Option A. pressure above the wing exceeds the pressure below the wing in places.
Option B. pressure above the wing can never exceed the pressure below the wing.
Option C. pressure above the wing equals the pressure below the wing.
Correct Answer is. pressure above the wing exceeds the pressure below the wing in places.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. Airspeeds above the speed of sound, but not exceeding 4 times the speed of sound are.
Option A. supersonic.
Option B. hypersonic.
Option C. hyposonic.
Correct Answer is. supersonic.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. An aircraft experiences a large loss of lift and a big increase in drag in straight and level flight,
what would be the most probable cause?.
Option A. Atmospheric conditions.
Option B. Aircraft reached its critical mach number.
Option C. Severe head winds.
Correct Answer is. Aircraft reached its critical mach number.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. A Mach Trimmer is a device which.

Option A. prevents the aircraft from exceeding its critical Mach No.
Option B. automatically compensates for trim changes in the transonic region.
Option C. switches out trim control to prevent damage in the transonic speed range.
Correct Answer is. automatically compensates for trim changes in the transonic region.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. Mach trim usually operates between.

Option A. 0.9 mach and 0.99 mach.
Option B. 0.7 and 0.8 mach.
Option C. 0.6 mach 0.7 mach.
Correct Answer is. 0.7 and 0.8 mach.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. Mach trimming is initiated by an input signal from the.
Option A. IRS.
Option B. vertical gyro.
Option C. CADC.
Correct Answer is. vertical gyro.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. Mach trim prevents.

Option A. the nose dropping in a low speed turn.
Option B. the nose dropping at high speed.
Option C. the nose lifting at high speed.
Correct Answer is. the nose dropping at high speed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. Critical Mach No. may be increased by.
Option A. using a higher thickness/chord ratio wing.
Option B. sweeping back the wing.
Option C. using more powerful engines.
Correct Answer is. sweeping back the wing.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. Airflow either side of a normal shock wave is.
Option A. sonic upstream and downstream.
Option B. sonic upstream, subsonic downstream.
Option C. subsonic upstream, sonic downstream.
Correct Answer is. sonic upstream, subsonic downstream.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. Mach Number is defined as.

Option A. speed of sound at sea level divided by local speed of sound.
Option B. IAS divided by the local speed of sound.
Option C. True Air Speed divided by local speed of sound.
Correct Answer is. True Air Speed divided by local speed of sound.
Question Number. 31. The reason for sharp leading edged wings on high speed aircraft is to.
Option A. enable the shockwave to be accurately positioned.
Option B. decrease wave drag.
Option C. decrease boundary layer.
Correct Answer is. enable the shockwave to be accurately positioned.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. Critical Mach Number is defined as.

Option A. that number at which the airflow becomes supersonic.
Option B. that free-stream Mach Number at which some part of the airflow over the aircraft becomes sonic.
Option C. the minimum mach number at which the aircraft can go supersonic.
Correct Answer is. that free-stream Mach Number at which some part of the airflow over the aircraft becomes sonic.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. The transonic region is a region of.

Option A. all subsonic.
Option B. all supersonic.
Option C. mixed airflow.
Correct Answer is. mixed airflow.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 34. Immediately downstream of an oblique shockwave is always.

Option A. supersonic.
Option B. the same as upstream.
Option C. subsonic.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 35. Wave drag.

Option A. increases in the supersonic region.
Option B. increases at the low speed stall.
Option C. increases in the transonic region.
Correct Answer is. increases in the transonic region.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 36. For increased Mcrit.

Option A. decrease thickness/chord ratio.
Option B. decrease sweepback.
Option C. decrease true airspeed.
Correct Answer is. decrease thickness/chord ratio.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 37. Symptoms of shock stall are.

Option A. decrease in speed, buffet and movement of the centre of pressure.
Option B. buffet, loss of control, and instability.
Option C. compressibility effects, buffet and loss of control.
Correct Answer is. buffet, loss of control, and instability.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 38. Sweepback increases Mcrit by.

Option A. decreasing the amount of airflow over the lowest point on the aerofoil section.
Option B. decreasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil section.
Option C. increasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil section.
Correct Answer is. decreasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil section.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 39. Mach number is.

Option A. the ratio of the aircrafts True Air Speed to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions.
Option B. the ratio of the aircrafts I.A.S to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions.
Option C. the ratio of the aircrafts True Air Speed to the speed of sound at sea level.
Correct Answer is. the ratio of the aircrafts True Air Speed to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 19.
Question Number. 40. The critical Mach number is.

Option A. the Mach No. when a shock wave forms at the leading edge.
Option B. the Mach No. when the aircraft reaches the speed of sound.
Option C. the aircraft Mach. No. when the airflow reaches the speed of sound at some point on the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. the aircraft Mach. No. when the airflow reaches the speed of sound at some point on the aircraft.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 41. Above the Critical Mach No. the drag coefficient will.
Option A. remain the same.
Option B. start to increase.
Option C. start to decrease.
Correct Answer is. start to increase.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 42. A wing of low thickness/chord ratio, the Critical Mach No. will be.
Option A. lower than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio.
Option B. higher than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio.
Option C. the same as a wing of high thickness/chord ratio.
Correct Answer is. higher than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 43. An aeroplane flying above the Critical Mach No. will usually experience.
Option A. a nose up pitch.
Option B. an oscillation in pitch.
Option C. a nose down pitch
Correct Answer is. a nose down pitch.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 44. Tuck-under can be counteracted by.

Option A. mach trim.
Option B. aileron reversal.
Option C. trim tabs.
Correct Answer is. mach trim.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 45. What causes tuckunder?.

Option A. Flap back effect.
Option B. Shock stall.
Option C. Aileron reversal.
Correct Answer is. Shock stall.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 46. When does a shock stall occur?.

Option A. When the aircraft forward speed is above Mach One.
Option B. At the critical Mach number of the aeroplane.
Option C. When the aircraft reaches speed of sound in a dive.
Correct Answer is. At the critical Mach number of the aeroplane.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 47. With an increase in altitude under I.S.A. conditions, the temperature in the troposphere.
Option A. increases.
Option B. remains constant.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 48. Air either side of an oblique shockwave is generally.

Option A. sonic.
Option B. supersonic.
Option C. subsonic.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 49. Downstream of a normal shock wave.

Option A. pressure decreases temperature increases.
Option B. pressure and temperature increase.
Option C. pressure and temperature decrease.
Correct Answer is. pressure and temperature increase.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 50. Speed of sound varies with.

Option A. altitude.
Option B. temperature.
Option C. pressure.
Correct Answer is. temperature.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 51. Immediately downstream of a normal shockwave, air is always.

Option A. subsonic.
Option B. supersonic.
Option C. the same as upstream.
Correct Answer is. subsonic.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 52. Increased sweepback.

Option A. improves tip stall characteristics.
Option B. raises Mcrit.
Option C. decreases stability.
Correct Answer is. raises Mcrit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 53. Aerodynamic heating.

Option A. increases as a function of airspeed.
Option B. increases with skin friction.
Option C. decreases with altitude.
Correct Answer is. increases as a function of airspeed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 54. To overcome ineffective control surface problems in the transonic region.
Option A. an all moving tailplane may be used.
Option B. hydraulic powered elevators may be used.
Option C. Frise ailerons may be used.
Correct Answer is. an all moving tailplane may be used.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 55. An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed, its Mach. No. will.

Option B. increase.
Option C. decrease.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 56. To counter the effect of a shift of centre of pressure as an aircraft flies through the transonic
region, fuel is pumped.
Option A. forwards.
Option B. backwards.
Option C. sideways.
Correct Answer is. backwards.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 57. An aircraft flying above the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed, its Mach. No. will.

Option B. decrease.
Option C. increase.
Correct Answer is. remain the same.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 58. The velocity of sound with an increase in altitude will.
Option A. remain constant.
Option B. increase.
Option C. decrease.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 19.
Question Number. 59. Mach number equals the ratio of.

Option A. altitude to airspeed.
Option B. sonic speed to indicated airspeed.
Option C. true airspeed to local sonic speed.
Correct Answer is. true airspeed to local sonic speed.
Question Number. 60. Tuck-under is caused by.

Option A. tip stall on a straight wing aircraft.
Option B. tip stall on a swept wing aircraft.
Option C. root stall on a swept wing aircraft.
Correct Answer is. root stall on a swept wing aircraft.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 61. The purpose of sweepback on an aerofoil is to.

Option A. decrease drag.
Option B. decrease Mcrit.
Option C. increase Mcrit.
Correct Answer is. increase Mcrit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 62. As the airspeed over a cambered wing is increased, a shock wave will appear initially.
Option A. at the leading edge.
Option B. at the trailing edge.
Option C. near the point of maximum curvature.
Correct Answer is. near the point of maximum curvature.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 63. In the transonic speed range.

Option A. the position of the wing centre of pressure remains constant.
Option B. the centre of pressure movement may become oscillatory.
Option C. the centre of pressure initially moves forward, then back.
Correct Answer is. the centre of pressure movement may become oscillatory. OR the centre of pressure initially moves
forward, then back.
Explanation. NIL.
13.01c. Theory of Flight - Rotary Wing Aerodynamics.
Question Number. 1. The angle of attack of a blade is the.

Option A. angle between the spin axis and relative air flow.
Option B. angle between the chord line and plane of rotation.
Option C. angle between the chord line and relative airflow.
Correct Answer is. angle between the chord line and relative airflow.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. On a helicopter, what is blade dragging?.

Option A. Movement of each blade vertically about their lateral hinges.
Option B. Contact of the blade tips on the ground.
Option C. Movement of each blade horizontally about their vertical hinge.
Correct Answer is. Movement of each blade horizontally about their vertical hinge.
Question Number. 3. Lift generated by a blade is proportional to the.
Option A. relative airflow and the pitch.
Option B. aircraft airspeed and angle of attack.
Option C. relative airflow and the angle of attack.
Correct Answer is. aircraft airspeed and angle of attack.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. What effect does the ground have on a helicopter?.

Option A. No effect.
Option B. Increases lift.
Option C. Increases thrust.
Correct Answer is. Increases lift.
Explanation. A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Pg 1-58.
Question Number. 5. What damps vibrations on a helicopter?.

Option A. Swashplate.
Option B. Scissor levers.
Option C. Bifilar damper.
Correct Answer is. Bifilar damper.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. What design factors govern RPM of a helicopter rotor?.

Option A. Weight of blade.
Option B. Fineness ratio.
Option C. Engine and gearbox.
Correct Answer is. Weight of blade.
Explanation. A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Pg 1-54. http://www.tpub.com/content/hseries/TM-1-1520-265-
23/css/TM-1-1520-265-23_104.htm
Question Number. 7. Relative velocity of a helicopter rotor.
Option A. increases at forward travelling blade.
Option B. is equal for all blades.
Option C. increases at retreating blade.
Correct Answer is. increases at forward travelling blade.
Question Number. 8. When O.A.T increases, what happens to an helicopter operating ceiling?.
Option A. Decrease.
Option B. Increase.
Option C. No effect.
Correct Answer is. Decrease.
Explanation. As temperature increases, density decreases and aircraft performance decreases.
Question Number. 9. With the helicopter in forward flight, parasitic drag will cause the helicopter to.
Option A. pitch nose down with an increase in forward airspeed.
Option B. pitch nose down with a decrease in forward airspeed.
Option C. pitch nose up with an increase in forward in airspeed.
Correct Answer is. pitch nose down with an increase in forward airspeed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. When a blade moves about the flapping hinge.
Option A. the pitch angle of the blade always reduces.
Option B. the drag forces on the blade change.
Option C. the drag forces on the blade change and the angle of attack (AOA) changes.
Correct Answer is. the drag forces on the blade change and the angle of attack (AOA) changes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. To maintain the position of the helicopter with a decrease in air density, the pilot must increase.
Option A. main rotor RPM.

Option B. cyclic pitch.
Option C. collective pitch.
Correct Answer is. collective pitch.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. The forces which govern the coning angle are.
Option A. lift and centrifugal force.
Option B. thrust and centrifugal force.
Option C. lift and thrust.
Correct Answer is. lift and centrifugal force.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. As a helicopter accelerates in level forward flight above approximately 15 knots, it will be
necessary to:.
Option A. reduce power because of the additional lift due to translational flight.
Option B. increase power because rotor RPM is increasing.
Option C. reduce power because rotor profile drag is reduced.
Correct Answer is. reduce power because of the additional lift due to translational flight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. Assuming the phase lag of a rotor blade is 90 degree and the control advance angle is 15 degrees,
then the pitch operating arm must be at the highest point of the swash plate:.
Option A. 90 degree ahead of the highest flapping position.
Option B. 75 degree ahead of the highest flapping position.
Option C. 105 degree ahead of the highest flapping position.
Correct Answer is. 75 degree ahead of the highest flapping position.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. A helicopter is hovering and the pilot applies right pedal.Assuming the main rotor rotates anti
clockwise viewed from above, the helicopter will.
Option A. descend, unless the pilot inches the throttle open.
Option B. ascend, unless the pilot decreases rotor RPM.
Option C. descend, unless the pilot applies more collective pitch.
Correct Answer is. descend, unless the pilot inches the throttle open.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. A helicopter has a main rotor which rotates anti-clockwise viewed from above, and is fitted with an
anti-torque tail rotor. It will tend to drift sideways to.
Option A. port, if the tail rotor is mounted on the left side of the aircraft.
Option B. starboard, whichever way the tail rotor is fitted.
Option C. port, if the tail rotor is mounted on the right side of the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. starboard, whichever way the tail rotor is fitted.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. As the rotor head is tilted to travel forward, what happens to the rearward travelling blade's pitch
angle?.
Option A. Increases.
Option B. Decreases.
Option C. No change.
Correct Answer is. Increases.
Question Number. 18. The tail rotor.

Option A. produces a force opposing torque reaction.
Option B. produces a force in the same direction as torque reaction.
Option C. is not subject to dissymmetry of lift.
Correct Answer is. produces a force opposing torque reaction.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. With the tail rotor pedals in neutral, the tail rotor blade pitch will be.
Option A. positive.
Option B. negative.
Option C. neutral.
Correct Answer is. positive.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. The main rotor drive shaft is tilted laterally on some helicopters to correct tail rotor.
Option A. drift.
Option B. torque.
Option C. roll.
Correct Answer is. drift.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. Certain helicopters tend to tilt laterally when landing. This problem can be overcome by placing the
tail rotor thrust.
Option A. below the line of the main rotor hub.
Option B. above the line of the main rotor hub.
Option C. in line with the main rotor hub.
Correct Answer is. in line with the main rotor hub.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. Ground cushion effect is produced by.

Option A. recirculating air giving additional lift.
Option B. increased pressure under the main rotor disc.
Option C. increase in density above the fuselage.
Correct Answer is. increased pressure under the main rotor disc.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. A helicopter hovering near a tall building will.

Option A. drift away from it.
Option B. be unaffected by it.
Option C. drift towards it.
Correct Answer is. drift towards it.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. Drooping of helicopter blades is compensated by.

Option A. flapping.
Option B. dragging.
Option C. centrifugal force.
Correct Answer is. centrifugal force.
Explanation. Centrifugal force counteracts the droop of helicopter blades at low RPM.
Question Number. 25. During decent with power-on, on a helicopter.

Option A. lift, weight and thrust are acting on the helicopter.
Option B. lift, drag and thrust are acting on the helicopter.
Option C. lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting on the helicopter.
Correct Answer is. lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting on the helicopter.
Explanation. All four forces act on the helicopter.
Question Number. 26. A helicopter hovering 2m above the ground subject to a strong cross wind will.
Option A. lose lift due to the removal of the ground cushion effect.
Option B. increase lift due to ground cushion effect.
Option C. lose lift due to recirculation.
Correct Answer is. lose lift due to recirculation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling will.
Option A. lower.
Option B. rise.
Option C. not be affected.
Correct Answer is. rise.
Explanation. As ambient temperature drops, density increases and aircraft performance increases.
Question Number. 28. During an autorotative descent, rotor RPM will be.
Option A. higher than in powered flight.
Option B. lower than in powered flight.
Option C. substantially the same as in powered flight.
Correct Answer is. higher than in powered flight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. Helicopter blades are.

Option A. symmetrical.
Option B. highly cambered.
Option C. reverse cambered.
Correct Answer is. symmetrical.
Explanation. Helicopter blades are usually symmetrical section.
Question Number. 30. Autorotative force is the.

Option A. component of the total reaction which acts forward in the plane of rotation in opposition to drag.
Option B. force required to turn in a hover.
Option C. force the pilot must apply to the collective lever to obtain a controlled descent.
Correct Answer is. component of the total reaction which acts forward in the plane of rotation in opposition to drag.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. Autorotation.

Option A. leaves the aircraft with no directional control.
Option B. results in a loss of power.
Option C. is the production of lift from freely rotating rotor blades.
Correct Answer is. is the production of lift from freely rotating rotor blades.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. If the main rotor of a helicopter rotates in an anti-clockwise direction when viewed from above, and
a hovering left turn is required, the following movements of the controls are selected:.
Option A. Rudder pedal to the left, and decrease throttle.
Option B. Rudder pedal to the left, and increase throttle.
Option C. Rudder pedal to the right, and increase throttle.
Correct Answer is. Rudder pedal to the left, and decrease throttle.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. Helicopter derives its lift from.

Option A. air is pushed downward.
Option B. rotor acts as a airscrew.
Option C. the blade of the helicopter creates a low pressure above it.
Correct Answer is. the blade of the helicopter creates a low pressure above it.
Explanation. All three are correct, but an aerodynamicist would choose a 'creates a low pressure above it'.
Question Number. 34. A two bladed helicopter rotor on a central gimbal is called.
Option A. semi rigid rotor.
Option B. fully articulated rotor.
Option C. rigid rotor.
Correct Answer is. semi rigid rotor.
Question Number. 35. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, viewed from above where, would a pitch input be
fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards, (90 degrees to what)?.
Option A. In front of the lateral axis.
Option B. Left of the longitudinal axis.
Option C. Right of the longitudinal axis.
Correct Answer is. Right of the longitudinal axis.
Explanation. Due to precession of the rotor disc, the input to tilt the disc backwards must be placed 90 degrees before, in
direction of motion of the disc.
Question Number. 36. On a helicopter, what is vortex ring state?.

Option A. Tip vortex build-up during hover.
Option B. Tip vortex interference at high forward speed.
Option C. Ground vortex interference when hovering close to the ground.
Correct Answer is. Tip vortex build-up during hover.
Explanation. During hover, the tip vortex of one blade adds to the tip vortices of the preceding blades, producing a large
vortex ring and a very inefficient helicopter.
Question Number. 37. Climbs with forward speed require less power than vertical climbs, because of.
Option A. translational lift.
Option B. increased inertia.
Option C. forward momentum.
Correct Answer is. translational lift.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 38. Translational flight is.

Option A. achieved by raising or lowering the collective lever.
Option B. when the helicopter changes from one steady flight condition to another.
Option C. achieved by tilting the rotor disc in the direction of flight.
Correct Answer is. achieved by tilting the rotor disc in the direction of flight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 39. The best design of a rotor blade is where the CofP.
Option A. moves freely along the length of the blade.
Option B. does not move.
Option C. is insignificant.
Correct Answer is. does not move.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. When the cyclic stick is eased forward in the hover position.
Option A. altitude is increased.
Option B. forward thrust is decreased.
Option C. vertical lift is reduced.
Correct Answer is. vertical lift is reduced.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 41. The rotor cone is formed by.

Option A. blade alignment.
Option B. centrifugal force and lift.
Option C. centrifugal force only.
Correct Answer is. centrifugal force and lift.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 42. Tracking is carried out to_____________the main rotor blade tip path.
Option A. restore.
Option B. align.
Option C. balance.
Correct Answer is. align.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 43. The advancing blade of a helicopter is the one moving.
Option A. one moving forward into relative airflow.
Option B. highest blade.
Option C. one moving in direction of relative air flow.
Correct Answer is. one moving forward into relative airflow.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 44. Lift is generated by.

Option A. down-wash below the blade.
Option B. high pressure above the blade.
Option C. low pressure above the blade.
Correct Answer is. low pressure above the blade.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 45. Static stability of a helicopter is.
Option A. the stability of the helicopter when hovering.
Option B. the tendency move back toward neutral after disturbance.
Option C. the tendency to oscillate until the neutral is achieved.
Correct Answer is. the tendency move back toward neutral after disturbance.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 46. Forward velocity causes the advancing blade to.
Option A. flap down to increase lift.
Option B. give increased lift due to blade flapping.
Option C. flap up to reduce lift.
Correct Answer is. flap up to reduce lift.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 47. When moving from the hover to forward flight it is necessary to.
Option A. increase the engine power.
Option B. decrease the engine power.
Option C. maintain constant engine power.
Correct Answer is. increase the engine power.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 48. After a change in collective pitch the Rotor RPM will rise and fall. This is called.
Option A. static droop.
Option B. transient droop.
Option C. under swing.
Correct Answer is. transient droop.
Explanation. The Helicopter and How it Flies by John Fay Page 20/21. The initial total fall in rotor RPM is called transient droop.
The change in stabilised RPM is referred to as static droop. The RPM difference between transient droop and static droop is
called the underswing.
Question Number. 49. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade, the blade will be at maximum flap at.
Option A. 90°.
Option B. 0°.
Option C. 180°.
Correct Answer is. 90°.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 50. The rotor disc is.

Option A. the ground cushion.
Option B. the distance between tip to tip.
Option C. the rotor head hub.
Correct Answer is. the distance between tip to tip.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 59/60 fig 1.42.
Question Number. 51. The maximum forward speed of a helicopter is limited by.
Option A. retreating blade stall and the forward speed of the advancing blade.
Option B. engine power.
Option C. the shape of the fuselage.
Correct Answer is. retreating blade stall and the forward speed of the advancing blade.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 52. What principle does the delta 3 hinge use?.
Option A. Triangular pitch change lever.
Option B. Flapping actuators.
Option C. Offset hinges.
Correct Answer is. Offset hinges.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 53. As the angle of attack of a rotor blade increases, it affects the.
Option A. flapping forces.
Option B. dragging and the flapping forces.
Option C. dragging forces.
Correct Answer is. dragging and the flapping forces.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 54. With an increase in its angle of attack, the drag acting on a rotor blade.
Option A. decreases.
Option C. remains constant.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 55. Forces on a helicopter, in a power-on descent are.

Option A. lift, drag, thrust, weight.
Option B. lift, drag, thrust.
Option C. weight, drag, lift.
Correct Answer is. lift, drag, thrust, weight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 56. The bell stability augmentation system is based on.
Option A. flapping hinges.
Option B. offset hinges.
Option C. gyroscopic forces.
Correct Answer is. gyroscopic forces.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 57. During forward flight the advancing blade will.
Option A. flap down.
Option B. flap up.
Option C. lag.
Correct Answer is. flap up.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 58. What is the advancing blade on a helicopter doing?.
Option A. Going to the highest point.
Option B. Increasing in lift.
Option C. Increasing in drag.
Correct Answer is. Increasing in lift.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 59. What is the swash plate on a helicopter used for?.
Option A. Control of the pitch of the rotor blades.
Option B. Control of the speed of the rotor blades.
Option C. Control of the flap of the rotor blades.
Correct Answer is. Control of the pitch of the rotor blades.
Question Number. 60. Upwash on a helicopter would result in.

Option A. decrease in lift.
Option B. increase in lift without an increase in power.
Option C. decrease in speed.
Correct Answer is. increase in lift without an increase in power.
Explanation. Upwash increases angle of attack.
Question Number. 61. After a roll to the left of a statically unstable helicopter, the helicopter would.
Option A. continue to roll further.
Option B. remain at the position that it had rolled to.
Option C. roll back to the horizontal.
Correct Answer is. continue to roll further.
Question Number. 62. The difference between transient droop and static droop is.
Option A. overswing.
Option B. underswing.
Option C. a hole in one.
Correct Answer is. underswing.
Explanation. The Helicopter history, piloting and how it flies John Fay ISBN81-70002-030-1 Page No 21".
Question Number. 63. What happens to a helicopter in autorotative flight?.

Option A. The rotor goes in the normal direction of rotation.
Option B. The rotor goes the opposite direction to the normal direction of rotation.
Option C. The cabin goes in the direction of rotation.
Correct Answer is. The rotor goes in the normal direction of rotation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 64. The RPM of the rotor blades is constant, within small limits to.
Option A. prevent blades over-speeding.
Option B. prevent blades folding up during flight.
Option C. reduce torque loading.
Correct Answer is. prevent blades folding up during flight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 65. To maintain the position of the helicopter, when hovering with a decrease in air density, the pilot
must.
Option A. increase the collective pitch.
Option B. increase rotor RPM.
Option C. increase the cyclic pitch.
Correct Answer is. increase the collective pitch.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 66. Relative airflow over a helicopter blade.

Option A. increases at the tip.
Option B. is unaffected by blade position.
Option C. increases at the root.
Correct Answer is. increases at the tip.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 67. An helicopter fin helps to give.

Option A. longitudinal stability about the normal axis.
Option B. directional stability about the normal axis.
Option C. directional stability about the longitudinal axis.
Correct Answer is. directional stability about the normal axis.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 68. After a roll to the left of a statically stable helicopter, the helicopter would.
Option A. continue to roll.
Option B. come back to level flight.
Option C. increases roll.
Correct Answer is. come back to level flight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 69. Solidity of the rotor is the ratio of the.

Option A. blade area to disc area.
Option B. all up weight to blade area.
Option C. all up weight to disc area.
Correct Answer is. blade area to disc area.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 70. Which direction is the air flowing through the main rotor during autorotation?.
Option A. Upwards.
Option B. Parallel to the rotor chord line.
Option C. Downwards.
Correct Answer is. Upwards.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 71. The purpose of an off-set vertical stabilizer is to.
Option A. provide stability during vertical flight.
Option B. relieve some of the load on the tail rotor during forward flight.
Option C. provide lift during forward flight.
Correct Answer is. relieve some of the load on the tail rotor during forward flight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 72. The purpose of the horizontal stabilizer is to.

Option A. maintain the aircraft in as near a horizontal attitude as possible, during forward flight.
Option B. to reduce rotor head loads during translational flight.
Option C. to stabilize the aircraft in the hover.
Correct Answer is. maintain the aircraft in as near a horizontal attitude as possible, during forward flight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 73. During autorotation, the rudder pedals.

Option A. would need to be backed off due to the loss of torque.
Option B. would have no effect on directional control.
Option C. would need to be advanced to counteract the increased torque.
Correct Answer is. would need to be backed off due to the loss of torque.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 74. In forward flight, the advancing blade would be expected to.
Option A. lag.
Option B. increase pitch.
Option C. flap up.
Correct Answer is. flap up.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 75. When the helicopter moves from the hover to translational flight, the lift vector will.
Option A. remain vertical.
Option B. move forward.
Option C. move aft.
Correct Answer is. move forward.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 76. If the blade angle of attack increases.

Option A. lift increases only.
Option B. lift and drag increases.
Option C. drag increases only.
Correct Answer is. lift and drag increases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 77. When a blade is flapping up.

Option A. pitch will increase.
Option B. pitch will decrease.
Option C. lift and drag both increase.
Correct Answer is. pitch will decrease.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 78. Vortex ring start requires.

Option A. retreating blade stall.
Option B. advancing blade stall.
Option C. power on descent.
Correct Answer is. power on descent.
Explanation. The helicopter and how it flies Page 117 by John Fay.
Question Number. 79. Rotor tip vortices are strongest when.

Option A. hovering with high weight.
Option B. flying high speed in straight and level flight.
Option C. flying into a headwind.
Correct Answer is. hovering with high weight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 80. Tail rotor effects the helicopter in.

Option A. pitch and roll.
Option B. vertical axis.
Option C. horizontal axis.
Correct Answer is. vertical axis.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 81. A blade of a Helicopter Main Rotor is.

Option A. highly cambered.
Option B. reverse cambered.
Option C. symmetrically cambered.
Correct Answer is. symmetrically cambered.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 82. Helicopter rotor blades produce lift by.

Option A. moving a small mass of air downwards slowly.
Option B. moving a large mass of air downwards quickly.
Option C. creating a lower pressure above the blade than below.
Correct Answer is. creating a lower pressure above the blade than below.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 83. With an increase in forward velocity of a helicopter, the increase in parasitic drag will cause the
fuselage attitude to.
Option A. pitch down.
Option B. remain level.
Option C. pitch up.
Correct Answer is. pitch down.
Explanation. The amount of parasitic drag increases with increasing airspeed, so that the thrust/parasite drag (nose down)
couple becomes stronger.
Question Number. 84. On a helicopter, rotor disc lift happens.

Option A. 180° later.
Option B. 90° later.
Option C. immediately.
Correct Answer is. immediately.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 85. During an autorotative decent, rotor RPM will be.
Option A. higher than in powered flight.
Option B. approximately the same as in powered flight.
Option C. lower than in powered flight.
Correct Answer is. higher than in powered flight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 86. Lift in a helicopter is a result of.

Option A. pitch * square root of speed.
Option B. angle of attack * velocity squared.
Option C. angle of attack * velocity squared and forward speed.
Correct Answer is. angle of attack * velocity squared.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 87. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade the blade will be at maximum flap at.
Option A. 180°.
Option B. 90°.
Option C. 0°.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 88. When the rotor blade increases its angle of attack, the centre of pressure.
Option A. does not move.
Option B. moves rearwards.
Option C. moves forward.
Correct Answer is. does not move.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 89. Autorotative force attempts to pull the rotor blade.
Option A. in the direction of normal rotation.
Option B. both in and against the direction of normal rotation.
Option C. against the direction of normal rotation.
Correct Answer is. in the direction of normal rotation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 90. The ground effect is effective up to a height equalling.

Option A. twice the diameter of the rotor disc.
Option B. the length of the fuselage.
Option C. the diameter of the rotor disc.
Correct Answer is. the diameter of the rotor disc.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 91. Movement of the collective control will.

Option A. increase the pitch of the main rotor blades.
Option B. increase the pitch of the tail rotor.
Option C. tilt the disc and increase engine power.
Correct Answer is. increase the pitch of the main rotor blades.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 92. Rotor blade sailing is a problem at.

Option A. low rotor RPM at engine shut down.
Option B. normal rotor RPM in gusty conditions.
Option C. high rotor RPM at engine start up.
Correct Answer is. low rotor RPM at engine shut down.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 93. The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is slower moving, in relation to the rest of the
airflow, is known as.
Option A. camber layer.
Option B. boundary layer.
Option C. none of the above are correct.
Correct Answer is. boundary layer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 94. During helicopter forward flight the retreating blade will tend to.
Option A. flap down.
Option B. no change.
Option C. flap up.
Correct Answer is. flap down.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 95. When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an aerofoil decreases, what takes place?.
Option A. Pressure increases, lift decreases.

Option B. Pressure decreases, lift increases.
Option C. Pressure increases, lift increases.
Correct Answer is. Pressure increases, lift decreases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 96. What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin friction?.
Option A. Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior.
Option B. Fineness ratio.
Option C. Aspect ratio.
Correct Answer is. Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 97. Changes in aircraft weight.

Option A. will only affect total drag if the lift is kept constant.
Option B. will not affect total drag since it is dependant only upon speed.
Option C. cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change.
Correct Answer is. cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 98. When an aerofoil stalls.

Option A. lift and drag increase.
Option B. lift decreases and drag increases.
Option C. lift increases and drag decreases.
Correct Answer is. lift decreases and drag increases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 99. When a helicopter rotor disc is tilted forward, what happens to the pitch of the retreating blade?.
Option A. Increases.
Option B. Remains constant.
Option C. Decreases.
Correct Answer is. Increases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 100. Airflow through the main rotor disc in autorotation is.
Option A. always down through the rotor disc.
Option B. always up through the rotor disc.
Option C. may be either up or down.
Correct Answer is. always up through the rotor disc.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 101. The blade stalling speed will.

Option A. only change if the MTWA were changed.
Option B. increase with an increase in helicopter weight.
Option C. be unaffected by helicopter weight changes since it is dependant upon the angle of attack.
Correct Answer is. increase with an increase in helicopter weight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 102. Ground effect will be most apparent when.

Option A. taxiing in the hover.
Option B. hovering close to the ground.
Option C. taxiing on the ground.
Correct Answer is. hovering close to the ground.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 103. When entering into a stable autorotative state, the main rotor RPM will initially.
Option A. increase.
Option B. decrease.
Option C. be unaffected.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 104. The stalling speed of an helicopter blade.

Option A. is increased when the helicopter is heavier.
Option B. is increased when the helicopter is lighter.
Option C. does not change.
Correct Answer is. is increased when the helicopter is heavier.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 105. Helicopters in forward flight are usually.
Option A. directionally stable.
Option B. laterally stable.
Option C. longitudinally stable.
Correct Answer is. directionally stable.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 106. Stability of a helicopter is its.

Option A. ability to hover at a fixed point above the ground.
Option B. ability to move in all 3 axis where and when required.
Option C. ability to return to original attitude after displacement.
Correct Answer is. ability to return to original attitude after displacement.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 107. In forward flight the relative air velocity at each blade.
Option A. is greatest for the retreating blade.
Option B. is equal at all blades due to compensation.
Option C. is greatest for the advancing blade.
Correct Answer is. is greatest for the advancing blade.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 108. What forces are acting on the helicopter during descent?.
Option A. Lift only.
Option B. Lift and weight.
Option C. Weight only.
Correct Answer is. Lift and weight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 109. The ground cushion effect is apparent.

Option A. in the hover only.
Option B. in the hover and at low translational flight close to the ground.
Option C. on the ground only.
Correct Answer is. in the hover and at low translational flight close to the ground.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 110. If the angle of attack is increased on a main rotor blade.
Option A. there is no change in drag.
Option B. there is an increase in drag.
Option C. there is a reduction in drag.
Correct Answer is. there is an increase in drag.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 111. A helicopter main rotor blade may be tapered from root to tip to.
Option A. equalise lift along the blade.
Option B. reduce induced drag.
Option C. reduce the blade weight.
Correct Answer is. equalise lift along the blade.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 112. A helicopter main rotor blade is twisted from root to tip to.
Option A. permit the blade to straighten under aerodynamic load.
Option B. equalise lift along the blade.
Option C. give the blade additional strength.
Correct Answer is. equalise lift along the blade.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 113. Translational drift is.

Option A. the tendency for the aircraft to drift laterally.
Option B. the tendency for the aircraft to turn to port.
Option C. the tendency for the aircraft to pitch nose up.
Correct Answer is. the tendency for the aircraft to drift laterally.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 114. The choice of aerofoil section for a rotor blade is such that.
Option A. it has a stable centre of pressure.
Option B. the CofP moves very slowly.
Option C. the CofP moves rapidly in response to pitch changes.
Correct Answer is. it has a stable centre of pressure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 115. When the rotor blade is flapping up, the angle of attack.
Option A. remains the same as the pitch angle.
Option B. is less than the pitch angle.
Option C. is greater than the pitch angle.
Correct Answer is. is less than the pitch angle.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 116. When the rotor blade is flapping down, the pitch angle.
Option A. is less than the angle of attack.
Option B. remains the same.
Option C. is greater than the angle of attack.
Correct Answer is. is less than the angle of attack.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 117. The tropopause exists at about.

Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 118. The rotor blades operate at the best Lift/Drag ratio when their.
Option A. angle of attack is 0 degrees.
Option B. pitch angles closely approach the stall angle.
Option C. angle of attack is about +3 degrees.
Correct Answer is. angle of attack is about +3 degrees.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 119. The centre of pressure of an aerofoil is that point on the cord line.
Option A. which moves most, with changes in angle of attack, if the section is symmetrical.
Option B. at which the highest pressure is said to act.
Option C. at which the lift forces resultant is said to act.
Correct Answer is. at which the lift forces resultant is said to act.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 120. The main rotor assembly of a helicopter provides.

Option A. both lift and horizontal thrust.
Option B. lift, a component of which is horizontal so thrust is obtained.
Option C. lift, but an unbalanced component in the direction of flight moves the aircraft forward.
Correct Answer is. lift, a component of which is horizontal so thrust is obtained.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 121. An advantage of the symmetrical section blades used on helicopters is that.
Option A. the movement of the centre of pressure with changes of the angle of attack is greater than that of a fixed wing.
Option B. the centre of pressure moves forward with changes in angle of attack.
Option C. the position of the feather axis and the centre of pressure and centre of gravity coincide, providing stability.
Correct Answer is. the position of the feather axis and the centre of pressure and centre of gravity coincide, providing
stability.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 122. Which part of the rotor disc produces the most lift during forward flight?.
Option A. The mid-span portion.
Option B. The front portion.
Option C. The rear portion.
Correct Answer is. The front portion.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 123. The aerofoil shape of a main rotor blade is symmetrical in order to make the blade have.
Option A. the highest possible lift co-efficient when hovering.
Option B. the best possible autorotative characteristics.
Option C. a relatively stable centre of pressure position with changes in angle of attack.
Correct Answer is. a relatively stable centre of pressure position with changes in angle of attack.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 124. Aspect ratio is the ratio of the.

Option A. disc diameter to the chord.
Option B. blade chord to the disc area.
Option C. blade span to the chord.
Correct Answer is. blade span to the chord.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 125. Disc loading is defined as the.

Option A. ratio of gross weight to disc area.
Option B. ratio of blade area to disc area.
Option C. ratio of gross weight to total blade area.
Correct Answer is. ratio of gross weight to disc area.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 126. A helicopter has a main rotor which rotates anticlockwise viewed from above. What happens if a
loss of anti-torque device at cruise speed in flight?.
Option A. Nose pitches up slightly + yaw to right.
Option B. Nose pitches up slightly + yaw to left.
Option C. No appreciable change.
Correct Answer is. Nose pitches up slightly + yaw to right.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 127. Over pitch causes.

Option A. an increase in RPM.
Option B. a reduction in RPM.
Option C. blades to cone up.
Correct Answer is. blades to cone up.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 128. A shrouded tail rotor.

Option A. reduces need for cyclic feathering.
Option B. gives control in pitch and yaw.
Option C. has increased airflow so yaw can be controlled by the rudder.
Correct Answer is. reduces need for cyclic feathering.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 129. In a helicopter with its main rotor turning anti-clockwise, which way does the aircraft tend to drift?.
Option A. Port if tail rotor is mounted on the right.

Option B. Starboard, irrespective of which side the tail rotor is mounted on.
Option C. Port if tail rotor is mounted on the left.
Correct Answer is. Starboard, irrespective of which side the tail rotor is mounted on.
Explanation. NIL.
13.02a. Structures - General Concepts.
Question Number. 1. If you add an aerial, to strengthen the airframe you add.
Option A. an intercostal.
Option B. external doubler.
Option C. an internal doubler.
Correct Answer is. an internal doubler.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin Page330.
Question Number. 2. Blowout panels are fitted to floors of pressurised aircraft to.
Option A. provide access for pressurising the aircraft.
Option B. provide venting should a differential pressure build up across the floor.
Option C. provide access for pressurising the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. provide venting should a differential pressure build up across the floor.
Explanation. Example DC10 Cargo door disaster. Cargo compartment depressurised, cabin pressure caused floor to collapse.
Blowout panels made compulsory thereafter.
Question Number. 3. When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between component and earth is.
Option A. 1/50 ohms.
Option B. 50 milliohms.
Option C. 0.005ohms.
Correct Answer is. 50 milliohms.
Explanation. CAIPs E.E.L/1-6 3.8.
Question Number. 4. What kind of seal is used on firewall bulkheads?.

Option A. None is required.
Option B. Soft rubber.
Option C. Fire-proof grommets.
Correct Answer is. Fire-proof grommets.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters?.

Option A. To provide a balance for CofG.
Option B. To provide vibration damping to the tail rotor.
Option C. To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor.
Correct Answer is. To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor.
Explanation. The tail cone holds the stabilizers and tail rotors.
Question Number. 6. Tension is the stress of.
Option A. elongating or stretch.
Option B. twisting.
Option C. crush or compression.
Correct Answer is. elongating or stretch.
Explanation. Tension is the stress of elongation or stretch.
Question Number. 7. Prior to aluminium alloy bonding, we use.

Option A. acid etch.
Option B. solvent etch.
Option C. alkaline etch.
Correct Answer is. acid etch.
Explanation. Phosphoric acid and chromic acid wash.
Question Number. 8. The purpose of a primer is to.

Option A. provide flexible surface for the top coat.
Option B. provide shiny surface for the topcoat.
Option C. help bonding of the topcoat.
Correct Answer is. help bonding of the topcoat.
Explanation. CAIPs B.L/6-20 PAra.2.1.
Question Number. 9. Acrylic windows must be able to flex in-situ because they have.
Option A. slight shrinkage due to age.
Option B. larger coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure.
Option C. smaller coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure.
Correct Answer is. larger coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure.
Explanation. Acrylic has a thermal expansion approximately 8x that of aluminium alloy.
Question Number. 10. A cargo bay must have signs stating.

Option A. maximum loadings.
Option B. maximum dimensions.
Option C. no hazardous cargo.
Correct Answer is. maximum loadings.
Explanation. Usually, pallet size is fixed, but the weight is critical.
Question Number. 11. A vertical structural member forming part or full walls are.
Option A. longerons.
Option B. frame.
Option C. bulkheads.
Correct Answer is. bulkheads.
Explanation. Bulkheads are vertical structural members forming lateral walls in the fuselage.
Question Number. 12. Composite materials are bonded by.

Option A. copper wire.
Option B. aluminium wire.
Option C. special paint.
Correct Answer is. special paint.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3.4.4.
Question Number. 13. The normal axis of a helicopter passes through.

Option A. a line parallel to rotor axis.
Option B. the centre of rotor disc.
Option C. through the centre of intersection of longitudinal and lateral axis.
Correct Answer is. through the centre of intersection of longitudinal and lateral axis.
Explanation. The normal axis is 90 degrees to both the lateral and longitudinal axis. It does not necessarily go through the
centre of the rotor disc, and the rotor shaft is not necessarily vertical.
Question Number. 14. In semi-monocoque construction, compression loads are taken by.
Option A. frames.
Option B. bulkheads.
Option C. stringers.
Correct Answer is. stringers.
Explanation. C.A.I.P A.L/7-2 para 2.6 (last sentence).
Question Number. 15. What force is an I-Beam subjected to?.

Option A. Shear.
Option B. Bending.
Option C. Tension.
Correct Answer is. Bending.
Explanation. An I beam is subject to Bending, although different parts of it are subject to tension (upper boom) and shear (the
web).
Question Number. 16. Why is a wire H.F antenna covered in polythene?.

Option A. To prevent corrosion.
Option B. To prevent corrosion.
Option C. To provide lightning protection.
Correct Answer is. To prevent corrosion.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell Page 30.
Question Number. 17. What opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure?.

Option A. Stringers.
Option B. Frames.
Option C. Bulkheads.
Correct Answer is. Stringers.
Explanation. CAIPs A.L/7.2 para 3.3.
Question Number. 18. Damage tolerant design.

Option A. allows for damage to structure by distributing loads to other structure.
Option B. allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired between scheduled maintenance.
Option C. is applied only to secondary structure.
Correct Answer is. allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired between scheduled maintenance.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. Which area of the aircraft is subject to hoop stress?.
Option A. Pressure cabin.
Option B. Wings.
Option C. Control surfaces.
Correct Answer is. Pressure cabin.
Explanation. CAIPs A.L/7-2 2.7.
Question Number. 20. In a monocoque structure, which component carries the majority of the loads?.
Option A. Skin.
Option B. Longerons.
Option C. Stringers.
Correct Answer is. Skin.
Explanation. A&P Mechanic Handbook Page 25-28.
Question Number. 21. The ground cable must be.

Option A. single strand copper wire 0.5 in. cross sectional area.
Option B. single strand 18 A.W.G.
Option C. copper stranded 0.5 in. cross sectional area.
Correct Answer is. single strand copper wire 0.5 in. cross sectional area.
Explanation. CAIPs E.E.L/1-6 3.3.1 a (i).
Question Number. 22. Paint remover substances.

Option A. are not damaging to any aircraft parts.
Option B. are damaging to some aircraft parts.
Option C. should only be used once.
Correct Answer is. are damaging to some aircraft parts.
Explanation. CAIPs B.L/6-20 11.1.
Question Number. 23. How is the radome protected from lightning strike?.
Option A. Special paint.
Option B. Diverter strips.
Option C. Special grease on the hinges.
Correct Answer is. Diverter strips.
Explanation. CAIPs R.L/2-5 3.4.2.
Question Number. 24. The normal axis on a helicopter is.

Option A. straight down the rotor head.
Option B. at 90° to the rotor head.
Option C. at 90° to the C of G.
Correct Answer is. straight down the rotor head.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. Battery trays are.

Option A. absorbent to soak up electrolyte.
Option B. metal for earthing purposes.
Option C. metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint.
Correct Answer is. metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Pallett Page 24.
Question Number. 26. The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurised aircraft is.
Option A. to provide external streamlining.
Option B. to prevent corrosion.
Option C. to seal the cabin.
Correct Answer is. to seal the cabin.
Explanation. C.A.I.P A.L/7-2 para. 3.7 and http://www.tpub.com/content/aviation/14022/css/14022_156.htm.
Question Number. 27. What is the diagonal part of the landing gear called?.
Option A. Drag Strut.
Option B. Drag Wire.
Option C. Shock Absorber.
Correct Answer is. Drag Strut.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.tda-i.com/p3DragStrutSpectra.html
Question Number. 28. What is the major vertical component of an airframe that is a load bearing part of the structure
that can be used as walls or partial walls?.
Option A. Stringer.
Option B. Bulkhead.
Option C. Frame.
Correct Answer is. Bulkhead.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. Semi-monocoque construction.

Option A. utilizes the safe-life design concept.
Option B. is used only for the fuselage.
Option C. offers good damage resistance.
Correct Answer is. offers good damage resistance.
Explanation. Jepessen A & P Technician Airframe textbook page 1-3.
Question Number. 30. When installing an aerial, added support is needed for the structure. This is achieved by fitting.
Option A. webs.
Option B. an inner plate.
Option C. an outer Plate.
Correct Answer is. an inner plate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. A bonded waffle doubler, as well as acting as a skin strengthener, also acts as a.
Option A. jury strut.
Option B. tear stopper.
Option C. shear tie.
Correct Answer is. tear stopper.
Explanation. CAIPs A.L/7-2 (crack stopper band figure.4).
Question Number. 32. Why is a joggle joint used?.

Option A. Smooth contour of surface.
Option B. Added strength.
Option C. So countersunk rivets do not need to be used.
Correct Answer is. Smooth contour of surface.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. Battery trays are.

Option A. absorbent to soak up electrolyte.
Option B. metal for earthing purposes.
Option C. metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint.
Correct Answer is. metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Pallett. Page 24.
Question Number. 34. Dissimilar metal fusion bonding is best for.

Option A. high strength high ductility.
Option B. low strength high toughness.
Option C. high strength high toughness.
Correct Answer is. high strength high ductility.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.user.lasercom.net/normajean/normajean/newpage1.htm
Question Number. 35. The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft are.
Option A. 20°C to 30°C and humidity below 70%.
Option B. 15°C to 25°C and humidity above 60%.
Option C. 15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%.
Correct Answer is. 15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%.
Explanation. B.L/6-20 5.
Question Number. 36. Slats, when stowed, make up part of the wing.
Option A. leading edge upper surface.
Option B. leading edge lower surface.
Option C. trailing edge.
Correct Answer is. leading edge upper surface.
Explanation. Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode Pages 117 and 118.
Question Number. 37. A plain flap.

Option A. when deployed increases the camber of the wing.
Option B. when stowed makes up part of the wing trailing edge lower surface.
Option C. when stowed makes up part of the wing trailing edge upper surface.
Correct Answer is. when deployed increases the camber of the wing.
Explanation. Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode Page 116.
Question Number. 38. What are the types of true bonded joints?.
Option A. Mechanical and cemented.
Option B. Cemented and specific.
Option C. Mechanical and specific.
Correct Answer is. Mechanical and specific.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 39. What governs the ultimate fatigue life of an aircraft?.
Option A. Landings.
Option B. Flying Hours.
Option C. Pressure Cycles.
Correct Answer is. Flying Hours.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. With regard to extraneous spilt fluids.

Option A. they should only be cleaned up if they are on the external surface of the aircraft.
Option B. they may be harmful to the aircraft structure.
Option C. they can be ignored, they provide extra protection.
Correct Answer is. they may be harmful to the aircraft structure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 41. The main forces on an aircraft structure are.

Option A. tension, compression, twisting and shear.
Option B. tension, compression, torsion and strain.
Option C. tension, compression, torsion and shear.
Correct Answer is. tension, compression, torsion and shear.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 42. The life of the structure is counted by.

Option A. flying hours.
Option B. pressurization cycle.
Option C. landings.
Correct Answer is. pressurization cycle.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 43. What is a fairlead?.

Option A. A guide for control cables running through bulkheads etc.
Option B. A guard to prevent control cables coming off pulleys.
Option C. An extension to a control cable.
Correct Answer is. A guide for control cables running through bulkheads etc.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 44. A semi-monocoque structure is one which has.

Option A. a tubular internal structure fabric covered.
Option B. an external load bearing skin with no internal load bearing structure.
Option C. an external load bearing skin with internal load bearing structure.
Correct Answer is. an external load bearing skin with internal load bearing structure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 45. A member designed to take mainly compressive loads is called a.
Option A. beam.
Option B. strut.
Option C. tie.
Correct Answer is. strut.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 46. Longitudinal members in a semi-monocoque fuselage supporting the skin between longerons are
called.
Option A. ribs.
Option B. stringers.
Option C. frames.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 47. A modern large transport aircraft fuselage would be normally constructed from.
Option A. semi monocoque structure.
Option B. warren truss structure.
Option C. geodetic structure.
Correct Answer is. semi monocoque structure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 48. Panels that are attached to the aircraft by quick release fasteners are:.
Option A. secondary structure.
Option B. tertiary structure.
Option C. primary structure.
Correct Answer is. tertiary structure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 49. An extruded or rolled aluminium sheet channel section that runs normally the length of the
fuselage is known as.
Option A. intercostal.
Option B. stringer.
Option C. cleat.
Correct Answer is. stringer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 50. Cantilever construction is structure supported at.

Option A. each end.
Option B. one end only.
Option C. each end and in the centre.
Correct Answer is. one end only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 51. A fuselage construction where the skin carries all of the loads is known as.
Option A. semi-monocoque.
Option B. monocoque.
Option C. semi-stressed.
Correct Answer is. monocoque.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 52. A member taking a compression load is called a.

Option A. beam.
Option B. strut.
Option C. cable.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 53. Skin panels may be strengthened by.

Option A. stringers.
Option B. cleats.
Option C. struts.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 54. What is the normal form of construction of a spar?.

Option A. Two webs separated by a boom.
Option B. One boom mounted under a web.
Option C. Two booms separated by a web.
Correct Answer is. Two booms separated by a web.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 55. A crack stopper is fitted.

Option A. after a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation.
Option B. before a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation.
Option C. before a crack starts, to prevent its initiation.
Correct Answer is. before a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 56. Which of the following should be accomplished before jacking an aircraft?.
Option A. Install critical stress panels or plates.
Option B. Remove all optional equipment.
Option C. Determine the fuel tanks are empty.
Correct Answer is. Install critical stress panels or plates.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 57. Stringers are used in which of the following types of aircraft fuselage construction?.
Option A. Truss type.
Option B. Semi-monocoque.
Option C. Monocoque.
Correct Answer is. Semi-monocoque.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 58. What load is a tie rod designed to accept?.

Option A. Tensile.
Option B. Bending.
Option C. Torsion.
Correct Answer is. Tensile.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 59. If a colour is used to identify primary structure, it will be.
Option A. green.
Option B. yellow.
Option C. red.
Correct Answer is. red.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 60. Which of the following is primary structure?.

Option A. Frame.
Option B. Skin.
Option C. Stringer.
Correct Answer is. Skin.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 61. One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it.
Option A. is easier to manufacture.
Option B. shares the loads.
Option C. takes all the loads in the skin.
Correct Answer is. shares the loads.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 62. In a fully monocoque fuselage, all the loads are carried by the.
Option B. skin.
Option C. frames.
Correct Answer is. skin.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 63. Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary structures?.
Option A. These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft.
Option B. These parts of the airframe are highly stressed and if damaged may cause failure of the aircraft and loss of life.
Option C. These are lightly stressed parts such as fairings, wheel shields and minor component brackets etc.
Correct Answer is. These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 64. Structure with built?in redundancy is called.

Option A. double safe.
Option B. safe life.
Option C. failsafe.
Correct Answer is. failsafe.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 65. Stress.

Option A. is the deformation of a material caused by applied load.
Option B. is the load per unit area acting on a material.
Option C. is the property of a material to resist fracture.
Correct Answer is. is the load per unit area acting on a material.
Explanation. A.L/7-2 2.2.
Question Number. 66. A piece of structure which must be replaced at a specified number of cycles, flying hours or years,
regardless of its physical condition is what type of item?.
Option A. Condition monitored.
Option B. Fail-safe.
Option C. Safe-life.
Correct Answer is. Safe-life.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 67. If you are unable to identify a structure 'classification' as either Primary or Secondary, what action
should you adopt?.
Option A. Paint it red and stamp it as tertiary.
Option B. Grade it as secondary.
Option C. Upgrade it to primary.
Correct Answer is. Upgrade it to primary.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 68. Intercostals are.

Option A. longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames.
Option B. compression ribs in cantilever wings.
Option C. vertical struts joining the upper and lower wings of a biplane.
Correct Answer is. longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 69. Safe-life is.

Option A. the minimum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs.
Option B. the sharing of loads between adjacent members.
Option C. the maximum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs.
Correct Answer is. the maximum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 70. Bending stresses are a combination of.

Option A. tension and shear stresses.
Option B. tension and compression stresses.
Option C. torsional and compression stresses.
Correct Answer is. tension and compression stresses.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 71. Joints that are designed to stop the propagation of cracks are known as.
Option A. crack limiting joints.
Option B. secondary joints.
Option C. failsafe joints.
Correct Answer is. failsafe joints.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 72. The Airworthiness Notice that refers to structural surveys is.
Option A. Notice 89.
Option B. Notice 79.
Option C. Notice 65.
Correct Answer is. Notice 89.
Explanation. These AWNs are now transferred to CAP747.
Question Number. 73. Structural survey inspections are normally called up by the.
Option A. maintenance engineer.
Option B. manufacturer.
Option C. operator.
Correct Answer is. manufacturer.
Explanation. A.W.N 89.
Question Number. 74. If an aircraft has alkaline batteries, the battery compartment drain pipes will be.
Option A. aluminium alloy.
Option B. plastic.
Option C. stainless steel.
Correct Answer is. stainless steel.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 75. An overweight landing is one in which the aircraft has.
Option A. too much kinetic energy on landing.
Option B. a missed placed centre of gravity on landing.
Option C. an excessive fuel load on take-off.
Correct Answer is. too much kinetic energy on landing.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 76. Symmetry checks should be carried out.

Option A. in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks.
Option B. on the ramp with the aircraft on its wheels.
Option C. in the hangar with the aircraft on its wheels.
Correct Answer is. in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-5 para 2.
Question Number. 77. A structural member intended to resist compression is a.

Option A. strut.
Option B. tie.
Option C. web.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 78. An aircraft structure, having multiple load paths, is known as a.
Option A. fail-safe design.
Option B. safe-life design.
Option C. monocoque design.
Correct Answer is. fail-safe design.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 79. When an item is cocooned, the visual indicator will indicate.
Option A. humidity.
Option B. toxic gases.
Option C. temperature.
Correct Answer is. humidity.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 80. Wrinkling of the skin on the upper surface of the fuselage indicates.
Option A. shedding.
Option B. sagging.
Option C. hogging.
Correct Answer is. sagging.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 81. If a redundant structure faILS it becomes.

Option A. safe-life.
Option B. fatigued.
Option C. failsafe.
Correct Answer is. failsafe.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 82. A redundant structure is.

Option A. a safe-life structure.
Option B. a failsafe structure.
Option C. on-condition structure.
Correct Answer is. a failsafe structure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 83. The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is.
Option A. 1 in 200.
Option B. 1 in 600.
Option C. 1 in 400.
Correct Answer is. 1 in 600.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 p13.
Question Number. 84. Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by.

Option B. stringers.
Option C. bulkheads.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 85. Which loads do longerons resist?.

Option A. Bending, compression, tensile and torsion.
Option B. Torsional only.
Option C. Bending, compression and tensile.
Correct Answer is. Bending, compression and tensile.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 86. What are the four stresses to be considered when building an aircraft?.
Option A. Compression, Tension, Torsion, Stress.
Option B. Compression, Torsion, Stress, Strain.
Option C. Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear.
Correct Answer is. Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 87. A structure that has a high designed reserve strength would be classified as.
Option A. secondary.
Option B. primary.
Option C. tertiary.
Correct Answer is. primary.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 88. An example of primary stress is.
Option A. bending.
Option B. shear.
Option C. tension.
Correct Answer is. tension.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 89. Airworthiness requirements for large aircraft are found in.
Option A. JAR 25.
Option B. ANO 25.
Option C. CS 25.
Correct Answer is. CS 25.
Explanation. JAR 25 is replaced by EASA Certification Specification CS 25.
Question Number. 90. An Anthropomorphic Test Dummy (ATD) is strapped into a large aircraft forward facing seat. It is
put through a series of crash tests. This is to.
Option A. to determine whether or not the ATD's head comes into contact with any structure or seat, and if so to measure
the force applied to the head in line with a specific Head Injury Criterion (HIC).
Option B. test the aircraft structure and seating mount points for structural integrity.
Option C. to measure the amount of force applied to the abdomen of the ATD to ensure it is not above 236 kg.
Correct Answer is. to determine whether or not the ATD's head comes into contact with any structure or seat, and if so to
measure the force applied to the head in line with a specific Head Injury Criterion (HIC).
Explanation. JAr25.562 (b) para 5.
13.02b. Structures - General Concepts.
Question Number. 1. What preventative maintenance can be carried out in case of H.I.R.F?.
Option A. Shielding of all sensitive equipment.
Option B. Bonding and insulation tests.
Option C. Check of aircraft structure.
Correct Answer is. Shielding of all sensitive equipment.
Explanation. The exact definition of H.I.R.F does not include electrostatic discharge (ESD). But only interference from outside
sources. Understanding H.I.R.F By Gerald L. Fuller.
Question Number. 2. Zone 320 under the ATA system is.

Option A. vertical stabiliser.
Option B. horizontal stabiliser.
Option C. central fuselage.
Correct Answer is. vertical stabiliser.
Explanation. Aircraft Maintenance and Repair Kroes/Watkins/Delp Page 22.
Question Number. 3. Weather radar domes are protected from lightning strikes by.
Option A. special conducting or non-conducting grease.
Option B. the use of special conductive paint.
Option C. bonding strips.
Correct Answer is. bonding strips.
Question Number. 4. How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft prevented during a lightning strike?.
Option A. Bonding Strip.
Option B. Special paint.
Option C. Earthing Strap.
Correct Answer is. Bonding Strip.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 343.
Question Number. 5. The total static resistance along the length of an aircraft is.
Option A. 1 ohms.
Option B. 50 milliohms.
Option C. 1M - 100,000 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 50 milliohms.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Table 1.
Question Number. 6. In the ATA zoning where is section 100 in on an aircraft.

Option A. in the undercarriage bay including the doors.
Option B. at the rear of the fuselage behind the bulkhead.
Option C. at the lower section of the cabin up to the pressure bulkhead.
Correct Answer is. at the lower section of the cabin up to the pressure bulkhead.
Explanation. Zone 100 is the lower part of the fuselage (below floor) up to rear pressure bulkhead.
Question Number. 7. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on H.I.R.F installations?.
Option A. Insulation testing.
Option B. CMC fault indications.
Option C. Visual inspections.
Correct Answer is. Visual inspections.
Explanation. The exact definition of H.I.R.F does not include electrostatic discharge (ESD). But only interference from outside
Question Number. 8. A Glass Reinforced Plastic surface on an aircraft, to reduce the risk of high potential differences
would be.
Option A. painted in a non-conductive paint.
Option B. painted in a conductive paint.
Option C. bonded to the primary structure.
Correct Answer is. painted in a conductive paint.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Para.3.4.4.
Question Number. 9. A Fuselage Station is a.

Option A. lateral point on aircraft wing.
Option B. longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage.
Option C. lateral point on aircraft fuse.
Correct Answer is. longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage.
Explanation. Fuselage Stations are longitudinal measurements on the fuselage.
Question Number. 10. When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected together the output reading is.
Option A. zero.
Option B. full scale deflection.
Option C. centre scale.
Correct Answer is. zero.
Explanation. CAIPs E.E.L/1-6 Para.3.10.2.
Question Number. 11. Composite materials are bonded by.

Option A. copper wire.
Option B. special paint.
Option C. aluminium wire.
Correct Answer is. special paint.
Question Number. 12. ATA Zone 100 is.

Option A. left-hand wing.
Option B. lower fuselage.
Option C. upper fuselage.
Correct Answer is. lower fuselage.
Explanation. ATA Zone 100 is lower fuselage (below floor).
Question Number. 13. Zone 500 indicates as per ATA 100 is the.
Option A. right wing.
Option B. left wing.
Option C. door.
Correct Answer is. left wing.
Explanation. Zone 500 is the left wing.
Question Number. 14. If you momentarily short the two spikes of bonding tester.
Option A. tester reads full scale.
Option B. tester would be zero centred.
Option C. tester reads zero.
Correct Answer is. tester reads full scale.
Explanation. CAIPs E.E.L/1-6 Para.3.10.2 and CAAIP's Leaflet 9-1, para. 3.10.2.
Question Number. 15. For bonding, the two ends of a rubber pipe are joined by.
Option A. a thick metallic bonding strip.
Option B. a corrugated bonding jumper.
Option C. a wire attached by terminal legs at both ends.
Correct Answer is. a corrugated bonding jumper.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Para.3.6.1.
Question Number. 16. What is the minimum resistance between all isolated electrostatic conducting parts which may be
subjected to appreciable charge and main earth system?.
Option A. 0.5 ohm.
Option B. 1 ohm.
Option C. 0.5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq.feet. surface area which ever is less.
Correct Answer is. 0.5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq.feet. surface area which ever is less.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Table 1.
Question Number. 17. A radome is protected from static electricity build-up by.
Option A. special conductive grease.
Option B. conductive paint.
Option C. bonding strips.
Correct Answer is. conductive paint.
Explanation. CAIPs R.L/2-5 Para 3.5.
Question Number. 18. With a bonding meter.

Option A. the short lead to the aircraft airframe and long lead to the item.
Option B. it does not matter which lead goes where.
Option C. the long lead is attached to the aircraft airframe and short lead to item.
Correct Answer is. the long lead is attached to the aircraft airframe and short lead to item.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. Fibreglass parts are protected from lightning strikes and dangerous voltages by.
Option A. conductive paint.
Option B. non conductive paint.
Option C. earth primary conductors.
Correct Answer is. earth primary conductors.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 para 3.4.
Question Number. 20. The ground cable must be.

Option A. single strand 18 A.W.G.
Option B. copper stranded 0.5 in. cross sectional area.
Option C. single strand copper wire 0.5 in. cross sectional area.
Correct Answer is. single strand copper wire 0.5 in. cross sectional area.
Explanation. CAIPs E.E.L/1-6 3.3.1 a (i).
Question Number. 21. Where on the aircraft is FS245, RWS45?.

Option A. 245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing.
Option B. 245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing.
Option C. 245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the tip of the right wing.
Correct Answer is. 245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing.
Explanation. CAIPs A.L/7-2 fig 15.
Question Number. 22. How is the radome protected from lightning strike?.
Option A. Special grease on the hinges.
Option B. Diverter strips.
Option C. Special paint.
Correct Answer is. Diverter strips.
Question Number. 23. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on H.I.R.F installations?.
Option A. Visual inspections.
Option B. Insulation testing.
Option C. CMC fault indications.
Correct Answer is. Visual inspections.
Explanation. The exact definition of H.I.R.F does not include electrostatc discharge (ESD). But only interference from outside
Question Number. 24. If a bonding lead is found to be broken and a spare is unavailable, you must.
Option A. splice the broken lead.
Option B. replace with a self manufactured cable of the same type but larger.
Option C. defer the defect until correct spares are available.
Correct Answer is. replace with a self manufactured cable of the same type but larger.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. What is the minimum size cable, which is not likely to carry all the current from a primary
structure?.
Option A. No smaller than 18 A.W.G.
Option B. 0.5inch wide by 26 A.W.G cable.
Option C. 0.25inch wide by 26 A.W.G cable.
Correct Answer is. 0.25inch wide by 26 A.W.G cable.
Question Number. 26. What is the bonding value between parts of a secondary structure?.
Option A. Between 1Megohm and 500,000 ohms.
Option B. 1 ohm.
Option C. 0.5 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 1 ohm.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Page 6 Table 1.
Question Number. 27. When using a bonding tester, you.
Option A. use the 60ft lead for testing different points.
Option B. use the 6ft lead for testing different points.
Option C. use either leads for the testing.
Correct Answer is. use the 6ft lead for testing different points.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. Most radio aerials are.

Option A. not bonded.
Option B. insulated from the fuselage.
Option C. bonded.
Correct Answer is. bonded.
Question Number. 29. Secondary bonding is usually provided with.

Option A. stranded copper 0.25 inch.
Option B. 18 A.W.G.
Option C. single strand 0.25 inch.
Correct Answer is. 18 A.W.G.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3.3.1 (a) (ii).
Question Number. 30. Water Lines (WLs) are measured points on a.

Option A. vertical line.
Option B. wing line.
Option C. horizontal line.
Correct Answer is. vertical line.
Explanation. A.L/7.2 Page 6.2 Fig 15.
Question Number. 31. Where is zone 320 on an aircraft according to the ATA100 system?.
Option A. Fuselage.
Option B. Fin.
Option C. Horizontal Stabilizer.
Correct Answer is. Fin.
Explanation. B757 A.M.M chap 06-30-00.
Question Number. 32. The various parts of the aircraft airframe are maintained at the.
Option A. same potential by.
Option B. earthing.
Option C. bonding.
Correct Answer is. bonding.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. The cross sectional area of a secondary conductor must be not less than.
Option A. 18 SWG for a single wire.
Option B. 22 SWG * 0.25.
Option C. 22 SWG * 0.5.
Correct Answer is. 18 SWG for a single wire.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3.3.1 (ii).
Question Number. 34. Using the following: FS 345, RWS 45, where is this located?.
Option A. 345 inches back from the nose and 45 inches along the right wing.
Option B. 345 inches back from the datum line, 45 inches from the longitudinal centre line of the right wing.
Option C. 345 inches back from the nose, 45 nches from the longitudinal centre line of the right wing.
Correct Answer is. 345 inches back from the datum line, 45 inches from the longitudinal centre line of the right wing.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 35. When carrying out an insulation resistance test of a pitot probe you would expect.
Option A. 1 megohm when cold.
Option B. 5 megohm.
Option C. 3 megohm when hot and when cooled down.
Correct Answer is. 3 megohm when hot and when cooled down.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 36. What are buttock lines?.

Option A. Horizontal measurement lines.
Option B. Measurements from the centre line.
Option C. Vertical measurement lines.
Correct Answer is. Measurements from the centre line.
Explanation. CAIPs A.L/7.2 Page 17 Para 6.2.
Question Number. 37. Aircraft fibreglass panels are protected against lighting strikes, partially by.
Option A. bonding.
Option B. conductive paint.
Option C. non-conductive paint.
Correct Answer is. conductive paint.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 38. When attaching more than one jumper or ground lead terminal to structure with a single fastener.
Option A. install the largest terminal nearest the structure, with the others, to a maximum of four, stacked and fanned in
decreasing size.
Option B. connect the largest terminal nearest the structure with the others, to a total of three, stacked symmetrically in
any order.
Option C. place the smallest terminal nearest the structure, covered by a spacer, with the others, to a maximum of six,
stacked in increasing size.
Correct Answer is. install the largest terminal nearest the structure, with the others, to a maximum of four, stacked and
fanned in decreasing size.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 39. If earthing jumper leads terminate to a connector strain clamp, the expected resistance value when
carrying out a check should be.
Option A. 1.5 milliohms.
Option B. 2.5 milliohms.
Option C. 0.5 milliohms.
Correct Answer is. 0.5 milliohms.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. A panel at STN+88/WL-12 is located 88 units.

Option A. rearward of the aircraft datum and 12 units above the water line datum.
Option B. forward of the aircraft vertical centre and 12 units below the water line datum.
Option C. rearward of the datum and 12 units below the waterline.
Correct Answer is. rearward of the datum and 12 units below the waterline.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 41. Wing stations are measured.

Option A. outboard from the fuselage centreline.
Option B. inboard from the wing upper surface.
Option C. outboard from the wing root.
Correct Answer is. outboard from the fuselage centreline.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 42. Fuselage station numbers are measured from the front of the aircraft in.
Option A. inches.
Option B. feet and inches.
Option C. feet.
Correct Answer is. inches.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 43. Where is Zone 323?.

Option A. Between front and rear spar.
Option B. Tip of vertical stabiliser.
Option C. Between rear spar and trailing edge.
Correct Answer is. Between front and rear spar.
Explanation. Airbus A320 A.M.M 06-20-00-00 shows zone 323 as between the front and rear spar of the vertical stab. Zone
324 is the tip of the vertical stab.
Question Number. 44. The measurement of the fuselage perpendicular to horizontal plane measured in inches from
bottom of the fuselage is.
Option A. water line.
Option B. fuselage station.
Option C. butt line.
Correct Answer is. water line.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 45. What is the water line?.

Option A. A line below which redux bonding can not be used.
Option B. The zero datum from which all lateral locations are measured.
Option C. The datum from which vertical locations refer.
Correct Answer is. The datum from which vertical locations refer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 46. Lateral stations have station zero at the.

Option A. nose.
Option B. centre line.
Option C. left wing tip.
Correct Answer is. centre line.
Explanation. NIL.
13.03. Autoflight (ATA 22).
Question Number. 1. Autopilot servo brake is energised.

Option A. to actuate off.
Option B. to actuate on.
Option C. at the same time as the clutch.
Correct Answer is. to actuate off.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 142.
Question Number. 2. A full operational autopilot system will ensure that.

Option A. the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of a single failure.
Option B. the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected.
Option C. the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is detected.
Correct Answer is. the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of a single failure.
Question Number. 3. During an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by.
Option A. radio altimeters.
Option B. pitch rate gyros.
Option C. vertical accelerometers.
Correct Answer is. radio altimeters.
Question Number. 4. The aircraft decrabbing signal, used during autoland, originates from.
Option A. localiser deviation errors.
Option B. heading errors.
Option C. roll errors.
Correct Answer is. heading errors.
Explanation. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 341.
Question Number. 5. An automatic throttle, engaged in the E.P.R mode, will control.
Option A. the engine throttles to maintain a constant acceleration rate.
Option B. the aircraft altitude to maintain constant engine input pressure.
Option C. the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power setting.
Correct Answer is. the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power setting.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page 286/288.
Question Number. 6. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to continue
the approach to a landing is known as the.
Option A. intercept height.
Option B. alert height.
Option C. decision height.
Correct Answer is. decision height.
Question Number. 7. The International Civil Aviation Organisation weather category 3A is.
Option A. operation down to sixty meters and RVR of 800 meters.
Option B. operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200 meters.
Option C. operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference.
Correct Answer is. operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200 meters.
Question Number. 8. Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by.

Option A. three sets of instruments at the side of the runway.
Option B. information obtained the local Meteorological Office.
Option C. one set of instruments the threshold of the runway.
Correct Answer is. three sets of instruments at the side of the runway.
Question Number. 9. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment which fail operational
control and roll out guidance will have.
Option A. a decision height depending upon the RVR.
Option B. a decision height of about 50 feet.
Option C. no decision height.
Correct Answer is. no decision height.
Question Number. 10. In a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex system will disconnect.
Option A. the failed system and carry on with an autoland.
Option B. the failed system and continue with a manual approach.
Option C. all channels.
Correct Answer is. the failed system and carry on with an autoland.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 81.
Question Number. 11. Stand-off errors on a localiser approach are washed out by.
Option A. integrating course error.
Option B. integrating deviation signal.
Option C. differentiating deviation signal.
Correct Answer is. integrating course error.
Explanation. Jepperson Avionics Fundamentals Page 355.
Question Number. 12. With autothrottle selected in the SPEED MODE, compatible autopilot modes are.
Option A. VOR ARM and HDG HOLD.
Option B. IAS HOLD and ALT ARM.
Option C. V/S and ALT ARM.
Correct Answer is. IAS HOLD and ALT ARM.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, Page 288.
Question Number. 13. Which modes are incompatible?.

Option A. HDG + V/S HOLD.
Option B. GLIDE SLOPE + ALTITUDE HOLD.
Option C. VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD.
Correct Answer is. GLIDE SLOPE + ALTITUDE HOLD.
Explanation. Cannot have GLIDE SLOPE and Alt Hold at same time.
Question Number. 14. To carry out an autopilot check, first.

Option A. switch on NAV receivers.
Option B. ensure all control surfaces are unobstructed.
Option C. switch off all power.
Correct Answer is. ensure all control surfaces are unobstructed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. FAIL PASSIVE means.

Option A. system is duplicated, failure allows aircraft to continue autoland.
Option B. system self monitors, failure does affect system.
Option C. system self monitors, failure does not affect system.
Correct Answer is. system self monitors, failure does affect system.
Question Number. 16. On the approach, the autopilot loses the Localiser signal; the aircraft would.
Option A. increase its drift angle.
Option B. fly parallel to the beam.
Option C. fly a circle.
Correct Answer is. fly parallel to the beam.
Question Number. 17. The Airworthiness requirements for the autopilot / autoland system are laid down in.
Option A. CAIPs.
Option B. JAR A.W.O.
Option C. BCARs.
Correct Answer is. JAR A.W.O.
Explanation. JAR A.W.O. Download a copy at http://www.jaa.nl/section1/jarsec1.html
Question Number. 18. Synchronisation circuits in autopilots ensure.

Option A. that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditions engagement.
Option B. that the trim indicators will read zero prior to engagement.
Option C. that the aircraft will always be returned to straight and level flight when the autopilot is engaged.
Correct Answer is. that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditions engagement.
Question Number. 19. In the F.M.S vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode, the throttles are used for.
Option A. maintaining a computed E.P.R.
Option B. correction minor speed deviations.
Option C. controlling to a maximum thrust.
Correct Answer is. maintaining a computed E.P.R.
Question Number. 20. The Go Around mode is usually initiated by.

Option A. pressing a button on the control wheel.
Option B. making a selection on the mode control panel.
Option C. pressing a button on thrust levers.
Correct Answer is. pressing a button on thrust levers.
Explanation. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 370. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, Page 290.
Question Number. 21. On selection of the Turbulence Mode.

Option A. the gain remains the same but signals are phase advanced.
Option B. the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the airframe.
Option C. the gain is doubled to reduce oscillation.
Correct Answer is. the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the airframe.
Question Number. 22. Co-ordinated autopilot turns are achieved by.

Option A. aileron to rudder crossfeed.
Option B. aileron to elevator crossfeed.
Option C. yaw rate gyro signals.
Correct Answer is. aileron to rudder crossfeed.
Explanation. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals pg 292, figs 20-5 and 20-6.
Question Number. 23. When can the F.M.S be engaged with the autothrottle?.
Option A. Only after take off.
Option B. With either the Flight Director or the Digital Control System (DFCS) engaged.
Option C. Only with the Flight Director selected.
Correct Answer is. Only after take off.
Explanation. Only after take-off.
Question Number. 24. Which is the correct sequence for an autoland?.

Option A. Glideslope capture, altitude hold and flare.
Option B. Localizer capture, glideslope capture, flare and attitude hold.
Option C. Localizer capture, glideslope capture, attitude hold and flare.
Correct Answer is. Localizer capture, glideslope capture, attitude hold and flare.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett 4th Edition Page 176, 284/275.
Question Number. 25. An autopilot P.F.C.U servo brake is.

Option A. energised at the same time as the clutch.
Option B. energised on.
Option C. energised off.
Correct Answer is. energised off.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page 142.
Question Number. 26. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to continue
the approach to a landing is known as the.
Option A. decision height.
Option B. alert height.
Option C. intercept height.
Correct Answer is. decision height.
Explanation. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 204. Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 278.
Question Number. 27. The ICAO weather category 3A is.

Option A. operation down to 60 m and 800 m.
Option B. operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference.
Option C. operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200m.
Correct Answer is. operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200m.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett 4th Edition Page 279.
Question Number. 28. A category 2 facility performance ILS has an intercept height of.
Option A. 60 m.
Option B. 0 m.
Option C. 15 m.
Correct Answer is. 15 m.
Explanation. ICAO Annexe 10 Landing Aid Categories.
Question Number. 29. The facility performance ILS intersect height is the point.
Option A. the localiser and glide path signals cross each other.
Option B. where the aeroplane receives the first glide path signal.
Option C. where the aeroplanes first receives both the localiser and glide path signals.
Correct Answer is. the localiser and glide path signals cross each other.
Explanation. ICAO Annexe 10 Landing Aid Categories.
Question Number. 30. The average risk of autoland should not contribute a rate of fatal accidents per landing greater
than.
Option A. 1 * 10-8.
Option B. 1 * 10-6.
Option C. 1 * 10-7.
Correct Answer is. 1 * 10-7.
Explanation. JAR OPS Download a copy at http://www.jaa.nl/section1/jarsec1.html Automatic Flight Control Pallett 4th Edition
Page 276/7.
Question Number. 31. Before an aeroplane is able to make an automatic landing the.
Option A. ground radio aids must be at CAT III.
Option B. ground radio aids must be at least CAT II.
Option C. ILS system must be working.
Correct Answer is. ILS system must be working.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. For an aeroplane to be certified for automatic landing, an autothrottle system is.
Option A. mandatory.
Option B. a matter of choice for the operator.
Option C. dependent upon the operation of the aeroplane at slow speed.
Correct Answer is. dependent upon the operation of the aeroplane at slow speed.
Explanation. JAR-A.W.O para 123 auto-throttle control.
Question Number. 33. The overshoot or go around mode is initiated.

Option A. automatically.
Option B. by pushing the throttles forward to maximum.
Option C. by a selector on the throttle control panel.
Correct Answer is. by a selector on the throttle control panel.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Circuits. EHJ Pallett Page 277.
Question Number. 34. The aeroplanes autopilot is programmed to leave the glide slope at.
Option A. 300 feet.
Option B. the decrab phase.
Option C. start of flare phase.
Correct Answer is. start of flare phase.
Question Number. 35. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated.

Option A. only when the autopilot is engaged.
Option B. at any time.
Option C. at any time after autoland has been engaged.
Correct Answer is. at any time after autoland has been engaged.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 36. The following modes may be retained when overshoot has been initiated, after the selection of
autoland.
Option A. IAS and steering or heading.
Option B. ILS localiser and I.A.S.
Option C. IAS and glideslope.
Correct Answer is. IAS and steering or heading.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 37. If go-around has been initiated after autoland has been selected, the aeroplane will.
Option A. increase speed and rotate nose up.
Option B. rotate nose up.
Option C. increase speed.
Correct Answer is. increase speed and rotate nose up.
Question Number. 38. VNAV can be selected.

Option A. only if A/T selected.
Option B. alone.
Option C. only if A/P and F/D selected.
Correct Answer is. only if A/T selected.
Explanation. FD not essential.
Question Number. 39. If during autoland, the Localiser signal is lost at 400 ft in final approach.
Option A. the system degrades to CAT II.
Option B. the autoland is continued. a go-around is initiated. Correct Answer is. a go-around is initiated.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40 . The order of autoland approach is. Option A. Localiser, Glide Slope, FLARE,
Attitude HOLD. Option B. Localiser, Glide Slope, Attitude HOLD, FLARE.
Option C. Glide Slope, Localiser, Attitude HOLD, FLARE.
Correct Answer is. Localiser, Glide Slope, Attitude HOLD, FLARE.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 284/5.
Question Number. 41. Purpose of an autoland decrabbing manoeuvre is to.

Option A. assist with localiser tracking.
Option B. assist with glideslope tracking.
Option C. point the aircraft down the runway at touchdown.
Correct Answer is. point the aircraft down the runway at touchdown.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 281, JAR A.W.O.
Question Number. 42. An autoland failure monitoring system must ensure that.
Option A. the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is detected.
Option B. the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected.
Option C. the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of single failure.
Correct Answer is. the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of single failure.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 281, JAR A.W.O.
Question Number. 43. The effective gain of the glide path receiver.
Option A. is increased as the aircraft descends.
Option B. remains constant as the aircraft descends.
Option C. is decreased as the aircraft descends.
Correct Answer is. is decreased as the aircraft descends.
Question Number. 44. During an automatic landing , the aircraft descent rate is sensed by.
Option A. radio altimeters.
Option B. pitch rate gyros.
Option C. vertical accelerometers.
Correct Answer is. radio altimeters.
Question Number. 45. An autopilot with two separate power supplies is.
Option A. fail operational.
Option B. fail passive.
Option C. fail redundant.
Correct Answer is. NIL
Question Number. 46. On touchdown, autopilot.

Option A. drives the throttles forward.
Option B. disconnects after a short time.
Option C. remains engaged ready for Go Around.
Correct Answer is. disconnects after a short time.
Question Number. 47. When will the decision height aural warning sound?.
Option A. At D.H.
Option B. After D.H.
Option C. Before D.H.
Correct Answer is. At D.H.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 48. Automatic steering of the aircraft after touch down is affected by.
Option A. the area navigation system.
Option B. the airfield marker beacon.
Option C. the runway localiser.
Correct Answer is. the runway localiser.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 49. The flare manoeuvre may be controlled by signals from.
Option A. the glide slope receiver.
Option B. the localiser receiver.
Option C. radio altimeter.
Correct Answer is. radio altimeter.
Question Number. 50. A triplex system loses one channel. The system is now,.
Option A. fail passive.
Option B. fail operational.
Option C. fail redundant.
Correct Answer is. fail passive.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 51. With a fail passive system, in the event of failure it will.
Option A. produce a significant out of trim condition.
Option B. ensure the aircraft can still land automatically.
Option C. produce no significant out of trim condition.
Correct Answer is. produce no significant out of trim condition.
Question Number. 52. A triplex system loses one channel, the system becomes a.
Option A. dual-dual system.
Option B. simplex system.
Option C. duplex system.
Correct Answer is. duplex system.
Question Number. 53. The two parameters used for category classification are.
Option A. localiser and glideslope.
Option B. decision height and runway visual range.
Option C. radio height/runway visual range.
Correct Answer is. decision height and runway visual range.
Question Number. 54. What is the controlling factor in the automatic flare mode?.
Option A. Glideslope signal.
Option B. Decision height.
Option C. Radio altimeter.
Correct Answer is. Radio altimeter.
Question Number. 55. CAT-3b allows.

Option A. approach land and runway guidance with taxing visibility in the order of 50 meters.
Option B. approach land and runway guidance with zero DH and RVR.
Option C. approach land and RVR in the order of 50 meters.
Correct Answer is. approach land and RVR in the order of 50 meters.
Question Number. 56. The definition of fail operational is the ability of a system to.
Option A. disconnect but leave the aircraft out of trim.
Option B. disconnect and leave the aircraft in trim.
Option C. continue to control after any first fault.
Correct Answer is. continue to control after any first fault.
Question Number. 57. What is added to the flare computation at touchdown?.

Option A. No signal.
Option B. Nose up bias.
Option C. Nose down bias.
Correct Answer is. Nose down bias.
Question Number. 58. If a fault is detected during an autoland approach the system will totally disconnect if it is a.
Option A. Triplex system.
Option B. Simplex system.
Option C. Duplex system.
Correct Answer is. Duplex system.
Explanation. The minimum requirement for autoland is Duplex, therefore Simplex system cannot be in control in first place.
Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 283.
Question Number. 59. The purpose of the clutch in an autothrottle servo is.
Option A. to allow the pilot to override.
Option B. to limit the range of control movement.
Option C. to protect the servo motor in the event of inadvertent runaway.
Correct Answer is. to allow the pilot to override.
Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control Pg 289.
Question Number. 60. Alert Height is when.

Option A. an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made.
Option B. a decision of whether to land is made.
Option C. an alert of the ground proximity is made.
Correct Answer is. a decision of whether to land is made.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 61. When downgrading an Autoland system what needs to be done?.
Option A. Placards in the cockpit.
Option B. An entry in the log book and cockpit placarding.
Option C. Crew retraining.
Correct Answer is. An entry in the log book and cockpit placarding.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 62. An aircraft will capture the autoland system at.
Option A. 3500 feet.
Option B. 1500 feet.
Option C. 2500 feet.
Correct Answer is. 1500 feet.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 284 fig 10.2.
Question Number. 63. An autopilot interlock circuit is to.

Option A. disconnect the system if a fault appears.
Option B. prevent the system engagement if a fault exists.
Option C. both a & b.
Correct Answer is. prevent the system engagement if a fault exists.
Question Number. 64. During flare mode, autothrottle will.

Option A. retard throttles to idle.
Option B. select reverse thrust.
Option C. disconnect autothrottle.
Correct Answer is. retard throttles to idle.
Question Number. 65. In autopilot, the control column.

Option A. does not move.
Option B. moves in pitch and roll.
Option C. moves in pitch.
Correct Answer is. moves in pitch and roll.
Explanation. A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Pg 12-47 (Parallel system). This is assuming it is a non-fly-by-wire aircraft.
Question Number. 66. If on an ILS approach, Localiser signal is lost.

Option A. aircraft moves in a circle.
Option B. aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway.
Option C. aircraft continues descent with an accumulating drift.
Correct Answer is. aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway.
Question Number. 67. When is autothrottle disengaged?.
Option A. On landing.
Option B. After thrust reverser has deployed beyond 90% so that TO/GA can be selected in case of emergency.
Option C. On selection of thrust reverse.
Correct Answer is. On selection of thrust reverse.
Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control Page 286.
Question Number. 68. In an Autoland, autothrottle is disengaged.

Option A. after reverse thrust is applied.
Option B. after affixed period of the time after landing.
Option C. manually after landing.
Correct Answer is. after reverse thrust is applied.
Question Number. 69. In aircraft with an autopilot and an auto trim, a pitch command input will cause.
Option A. column to move and trim system to move.
Option B. column to move but trim system not to move.
Option C. column will not move and trim system will move.
Correct Answer is. column to move and trim system to move.
Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 12-47 - This is assuming it is a non-fly-by-wire aircraft.
Question Number. 70. What is the error signal used for in a fixed angle approach in Localiser coupling?.
Option A. Course error and Deviation.
Option B. Heading ,Course error and Deviation.
Option C. Heading and Deviation.
Correct Answer is. Course error and Deviation.
Explanation. Jeppesen, Avionics Fundamentals Page 328.
Question Number. 71. During takeoff, if an input to autothrottle fails.

Option A. autothrottle disengages.
Option B. throttle hold is annunciated.
Option C. fail light illuminates.
Correct Answer is. throttle hold is annunciated.
Question Number. 72. In helicopter autopilots, while operating the actuator, the movement of the cockpit control is
prevented by.
Option A. a compressed spring attached to the cockpit control.
Option B. a lock on the cockpit control.
Option C. synchros attached to the control.
Correct Answer is. a compressed spring attached to the cockpit control.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control. EHJ Pallett Page 239.
Question Number. 73. An autopilot computer.

Option A. is the same sensitivity for VOR and ILS.
Option B. is more sensitive to ILS than to VOR.
Option C. is more sensitive to VOR than to ILS.
Correct Answer is. is more sensitive to ILS than to VOR.
Question Number. 74. DH is based on.

Option A. RVR transmitted by A.T.C.
Option B. aircraft characteristics.
Option C. experience of the crew.
Correct Answer is. RVR transmitted by A.T.C.
Question Number. 75. In an autopilot, what controls pitch mode?.

Option A. Localizer.
Option B. VOR.
Option C. Glideslope.
Correct Answer is. Glideslope.
Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 187.
Question Number. 76. Glideslope controls autopilot in.

Option A. yaw.
Option B. roll.
Option C. pitch.
Correct Answer is. pitch.
Question Number. 77. When the bank angle limit is applied to the autopilot , it means.
Option A. the maximum aileron angle that can be commanded.
Option B. the maximum roll angle that can be demanded by the autopilot.
Option C. maximum rudder deflection.
Correct Answer is. the maximum roll angle that can be demanded by the autopilot.
Question Number. 78. Back beam scanning in an M.L.S is at a rate of.

Option A. 20 degrees per millisecond.
Option B. 30 degrees per millisecond.
Option C. 15 degrees per millisecond.
Correct Answer is. 20 degrees per millisecond.
Explanation. 0.02 degrees per microsecoond.
Question Number. 79. A helicopter autopilot uses.

Option A. barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude hold.
Option B. radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold.
Option C. barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold.
Correct Answer is. radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallet Page 250.
Question Number. 80. Which of the following modes does an autopilot go through, in correct sequence?.
Option A. Rollout, attitude, flare.
Option B. Flare, attitude, rollout.
Option C. Attitude, flare, rollout.
Correct Answer is. Attitude, flare, rollout.
Question Number. 81. When can other autopilot modes be selected once Go Around has been selected?.
Option A. When aircraft has reached 5000feet.
Option B. Disengage and reengage the A.F.C.S system.
Option C. When reached a desired altitude.
Correct Answer is. When reached a desired altitude.
Question Number. 82. Once the GLIDE SLOPE has been captured what other pitch modes are available?.
Option A. No other pitch modes are available.
Option B. Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam.
Option C. All are continuously available.
Correct Answer is. No other pitch modes are available.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 83. What is B-RNAV?.

Option A. Indicates true airspeed.
Option B. Ability to store 6 waypoints.
Option C. Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint.
Correct Answer is. Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint.
Explanation. See Module 11 Forum.
Question Number. 84. An Automatic Flight Control System receives inputs from the following ground based transmitters.
Option A. VOR, ILS.

Option B. D.M.E, ILS, A.D.F.
Option C. RA, A.D.F, ILS.
Correct Answer is. VOR, ILS.
Explanation. An A.F.C.S uses VOR and ILS (RA is not ground based).
Question Number. 85. The maximum azimuth coverage by a M.L.S facility is.
Option A. +/-35 degrees.
Option B. +/-40 degrees.
Option C. +/-60 degrees.
Correct Answer is. +/-60 degrees.
Explanation. NIL. http://nweb.pct.edu/homepage/staff/tinman/tinman/avc227327/NAV/mls/sld007.htm but normal is +/-40
degrees.
Question Number. 86. In M.L.S, the 12 bit preamble consists of.

Option A. carrier and 5 bits time reference and 7 bits information.
Option B. 7 bits function and 5 bits time reference and carrier.
Option C. 5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits function.
Correct Answer is. 5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits function.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 87. On localiser approach the radio deviation signal is lost.
Option A. aircraft flies off centre line on pre-set heading.
Option B. the aircraft flies in a circle.
Option C. aircraft flies heading with increasing drift angle.
Correct Answer is. aircraft flies off centre line on pre-set heading.
Question Number. 88. A triplex system loses one channel.

Option A. pilot can continue with autoland.
Option B. pilot must make a full manual approach and land.
Option C. pilot can use auto approach.
Correct Answer is. pilot can continue with autoland.
Question Number. 89. The purpose of a force trim release system in an helicopter is to permit the.
Option A. pilot to move the cyclic stick to obtain desired new attitude without having to maintain the opposing forces of the
artificial feel system forces.
Option B. pilot to move the collective to obtain a power change.
Option C. appropriate cyclic actuator to be over powered.
Correct Answer is. pilot to move the cyclic stick to obtain desired new attitude without having to maintain the opposing forces
of the artificial feel system forces.
Question Number. 90. The mach trim is initiated by.

Option A. a PCU.
Option B. the autopilot motor.
Option C. an electric motor.
Correct Answer is. the autopilot motor.
Question Number. 91. Aileron to rudder crossfeed is applied in autopilot systems to.
Option A. assist the aircraft back to datum after disturbance in yaw.
Option B. prevent slip and skid in yaw.
Option C. prevent aircraft yawing in the opposite direction to the turn.
Correct Answer is. prevent aircraft yawing in the opposite direction to the turn.
Question Number. 92. Stand-off errors on localiser approach are washed out by.
Option A. integrating deviation signals.
Option B. differentiating deviation signals.
Option C. integrating course error signals.
Correct Answer is. integrating course error signals.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 93. An autoland system displays Land 2. Another failure will make the system.
Option A. fail-passive.
Option B. simplex.
Option C. fail-operational.
Correct Answer is. fail-passive.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems 6th Edition Harris Page 139, Automatic Flight Control
Pallett pg 282/3.
Question Number. 94. In an helicopter, Altitude Hold uses a signal from.

Option A. a rad alt or capsule output depend on height.
Option B. a rad alt output.
Option C. the barometric alt capsule.
Correct Answer is. a rad alt or capsule output depend on height.
Question Number. 95. On an autoland, during auto flare it will.

Option A. reverse thrust.
Option B. retard the throttle.
Option C. control throttle for a I.A.S.
Correct Answer is. retard the throttle.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 96. Cat-2 autoland DH limits are.

Option A. below 500 feet but not less than 400 feet.
Option B. below 200 feet but not less than 100 feet.
Option C. below 300 feet and not less than 200 feet.
Correct Answer is. below 200 feet but not less than 100 feet.
Question Number. 97. Cat-1 autoland DH limits are.

Option A. below 200 ft but not less than 100 feet.
Option B. not less than 100 feet.
Option C. not less than 200 feet.
Correct Answer is. not less than 200 feet.
Explanation. ILS Category I (CAT I). An ILS approach procedure that provides for approach to a height above touchdown of
not less than 200 feet and with runway visual range of not less than 1800 feet. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 279.
Question Number. 98. When Go Around is initiated.

Option A. autothrottle disengages at 2000 ft/min rate and wings will level.
Option B. autothrottle remains engaged giving correct Go Around thrust.
Option C. autothrottle remains engaged allowing pilot to control the throttles.
Correct Answer is. autothrottle remains engaged giving correct Go Around thrust.
Question Number. 99. A radio coupled approach is.

Option A. in any order.
Option B. localiser first, followed by glideslope.
Option C. glideslope first, followed by localiser.
Correct Answer is. localiser first, followed by glideslope.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 184-185.
Question Number. 100. The controlling signals in pitch channel in the Flare mode, are.
Option A. integrated pitch and GLIDE SLOPE deviation.
Option B. integrated pitch and radio altitude.
Option C. GLIDE SLOPE deviation and radio altitude.
Correct Answer is. integrated pitch and radio altitude.
Question Number. 101. Aileron signal is fed to the rudder channel.
Option A. for turn coordination.
Option B. for turn command back-up.
Option C. for yaw damping compensation.
Correct Answer is. for turn coordination.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. 4th Edition Page 121/122.
Question Number. 102. Rollout guidance after touch down is by.

Option A. visual indication and rudder control.
Option B. visual indication and nosewheel steering.
Option C. automatic rudder control and nosewheel steering.
Correct Answer is. automatic rudder control and nosewheel steering.
Question Number. 103. During autoland, failure of one channel is detected.

Option A. All channels will disconnect in triplex system.
Option B. All channels will disconnect in dual-dual system.
Option C. All channels will disconnect in duplex system.
Correct Answer is. All channels will disconnect in duplex system.
Question Number. 104. In triplex autoland system, failure of one channel will.
Option A. disconnect all channels.
Option B. disconnect the failure channel and continue autoland approach.
Option C. disconnect the failure channel and continue with a manual approach.
Correct Answer is. disconnect the failure channel and continue autoland approach.
Question Number. 105. During the flair mode, the autothrottle will.
Option A. select reverse thrust.
Option B. disconnect autothrottle.
Option C. retard throttle to idle.
Correct Answer is. retard throttle to idle.
Question Number. 106. Roll-out mode occurs.

Option A. after flare.
Option B. at alert height.
Option C. before flare.
Correct Answer is. after flare.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 284 fig 10.2.
Question Number. 107. High and low signal to voter are.

Option A. removed.
Option B. added.
Option C. averaged.
Correct Answer is. averaged.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 108. Basic monitoring is a function of.

Option A. signal summing.
Option B. voting.
Option C. signal comparison.
Correct Answer is. signal comparison.
Question Number. 109. The aileron/rudder signal is demodulated in the rudder channel amplifier. This means it is.
Option A. DC.
Option B. AC.
Option C. DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of AC input.
Correct Answer is. DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of AC input.
Question Number. 110. A helicopter autopilot uses.

Option A. radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold.
Option B. barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude hold.
Option C. barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold.
Correct Answer is. radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold.
Question Number. 111. On an ILS approach, what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?.
Option A. Radio deviation.
Option B. Height Deviation.
Option C. Course deviation.
Correct Answer is. Radio deviation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 112. Which of the following modes does an autopilot go through, in correct sequence?.
Option A. Attitude, flare, rollout.
Option B. Rollout, attitude, flare.
Option C. Flare, attitude, rollout.
Correct Answer is. Attitude, flare, rollout.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 284 fig 10.2.
Question Number. 113. When can other autopilot modes be selected once Go-Around has been selected?.
Option A. When reached a desired altitude.
Option B. When aircraft has reached 5000feet.
Option C. Disengage and reengage the A.F.C.S system.
Correct Answer is. When reached a desired altitude.
Question Number. 114. Alert Height is when.
Option A. an alert of the position of the aircraft is made.
Option B. an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made.
Option C. a decision of whether to land is made.
Correct Answer is. a decision of whether to land is made.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.iasa.com.au/folders/RoboLander_files/what_the_jar.html
Question Number. 115. Versine is used in which channel?.

Option A. Roll.
Option B. Yaw.
Option C. Pitch.
Correct Answer is. Pitch.
Question Number. 116. On a coupled approach, what happens to the aircraft if it looses the localiser signal?.
Option A. It will fly straight down the original course but will drift.
Option B. It will fly on the heading the aircraft was on.
Option C. It will fly in circles.
Correct Answer is. It will fly straight down the original course but will drift.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 117. During an autopilot controlled turn.

Option A. ailerons, rudder and elevators will move.
Option B. ailerons and rudder will move.
Option C. ailerons, rudder and THS will move.
Correct Answer is. ailerons, rudder and elevators will move.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 118. If an autopilot is fed with radio deviation.

Option A. it will stand off the centre line by a fixed amount.
Option B. it will fly in circles.
Option C. it will fly on the heading the aircraft was on.
Correct Answer is. it will fly in circles.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 119. If a series actuator is fitted in the cyclic control circuit of a helicopter, what effect will an autopilot
input have?.
Option A. The cyclic lever will not move.
Option B. The flight director bars only will move.
Option C. The cyclic lever will move in proportion to the autopilot input.
Correct Answer is. The cyclic lever will not move.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. Pallet Page 280.
Question Number. 120. What is the purpose of the autopilot trim indication?.
Option A. Trim tab position.
Option B. Indicate the voltage activity in the servo amp.
Option C. Control surface position.
Correct Answer is. Indicate the voltage activity in the servo amp.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 121. What is the entry angle of an M.L.S installation?.

Option A. +/-20°.
Option B. +/-42°.
Option C. +/-62°.
Correct Answer is. +/-42°.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 122. What is the glideslope frequency range?.

Option A. 108 - 112 GHertz.
Option B. 329 - 335 Mega Hertz.
Option C. 108 - 112 Mega Hertz.
Correct Answer is. 329 - 335 Mega Hertz.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin. Page 308.
Question Number. 123. An aircraft lands in autoland. After touch down and thrust reversers are deployed. What happens to
autothrottle?.
Option A. Automatically switches off.
Option B. Advances throttles.
Option C. Stays armed for go around in an emergency.
Correct Answer is. Automatically switches off.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle Page 286.
Question Number. 124. The purpose of the autopilot servo-motor torque setting is to.
Option A. protect the servo motor.
Option B. prevent control surface runaway.
Option C. damp the system oscillation.
Correct Answer is. prevent control surface runaway.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle.
Question Number. 125. Which signal would be integrated to get onto localiser centreline?.
Option A. Heading error.
Option B. Course error.
Option C. Radio deviation.
Correct Answer is. Heading error.
Question Number. 126. Cat IIIB landing, up to what phase is Localiser signal used?.
Option A. Flare.
Option B. Touchdown.
Option C. Roll out.
Correct Answer is. Roll out.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 285. CAT IIIa is 'Flare'.
Question Number. 127. Autopilot will operate above what altitude?.
Option A. 750 feet.
Option B. 500 feet.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 128. If the localiser signal is only applied to the A/P roll channel.
Option A. aircraft flies along the runway centre line.
Option B. aircraft flies parallel to the runway centre line.
Option C. aircraft flies in circles.
Correct Answer is. aircraft flies in circles.
Question Number. 129. A radio coupled autopilot in pitch uses.

Option A. VOR.
Option B. glideslope.
Option C. A.D.F.
Correct Answer is. glideslope.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 130. Pitch trimming in autopilot is initiated by.

Option A. continued pitch input.
Option B. pitch of aircraft in cruise.
Option C. C of G movement.
Correct Answer is. continued pitch input.
Explanation. If the elevator is deflected over a long time, the A.F.C.S trims the horizontal stabilizer to eliminate the elevator
deflection load.
Question Number. 131. With power applied to the autopilot but not engaged, the trim indicator will indicate.
Option A. a standby electrical signal in the servo loop.
Option B. that the gyro is out of the null and needs aligning.
Option C. the trim system is out of datum.
Correct Answer is. a standby electrical signal in the servo loop.
Question Number. 132. Control loop gain with an autopilot is usually.

Option A. dependent on aircraft altitude.
Option B. 1.
Option C. chosen as a compromise.
Correct Answer is. dependent on aircraft altitude.
Question Number. 133. MLS azimuth range is.

Option A. +/-30.
Option B. +/-62.
Option C. +/-42.
Correct Answer is. +/-42.
Explanation. plus/minus 40 - 60 degrees.
Question Number. 134. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by.
Option A. feedback from the control surface.
Option B. feedback from the servo motor.
Option C. use of a tachogenerator.
Correct Answer is. use of a tachogenerator.
Explanation. utomatic FliAght Control by E.H.J.Pallett 3rd edition, page-157 (feedback, para 2).
Question Number. 135. In an automatic flight control system, when may the yaw damper be applied?.
Option A. During manual control only.
Option B. During automatic control only.
Option C. During either manual or automatic control.
Correct Answer is. During either manual or automatic control.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 222 - 226.
Question Number. 136. The Time Reference Scanning Beam (TRSB) corresponds to ILS localiser and glidepath. How does it
operate?.
Option A. It operates in the same manner as ILS but utilises higher frequencies.
Option B. Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and
DOWN.
Option C. It operates in conjunction with D.M.E at lower frequencies than ILS.
Correct Answer is. Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP
and DOWN.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 224.
Question Number. 137. In ILS, the glideslope provides.

Option A. distance checks.
Option B. vertical steering.
Option C. lateral steering.
Correct Answer is. vertical steering.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 69.
Question Number. 138. The components of an ILS are:.

Option A. A localizer and the marker beacons.
Option B. A localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons.
Option C. A localizer and a glide slope.
Correct Answer is. A localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons.
Question Number. 139. When carrying out an autoland approach, VNAV is deselected. The aircraft will enter MCP SPD
mode when.
Option A. APP switch is pressed.
Option B. the aircraft receives the first ILS signal.
Option C. the aircraft captures the glideslope.
Correct Answer is. the aircraft captures the glideslope.
Question Number. 140. Airspeed hold is a.

Option A. pitch mode.
Option B. heading mode.
Option C. lateral mode.
Correct Answer is. pitch mode.
Question Number. 141. In an auto trim system, for the trim system to operate.
Option A. operation of the trim controls is required.
Option B. autopilot need not be engaged.
Option C. autopilot must be engaged.
Correct Answer is. autopilot need not be engaged.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page 213 - 218.
Question Number. 142. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page 213 - 218.
Option A. 800m.
Option B. 400m.
Option C. 300m.
Correct Answer is. 400m.
Question Number. 143. In a triplex system, if an ILS receiver faILS before localizer capture.
Option A. it reverts to cat II.
Option B. there is no autoland.
Option C. autoland Continues.
Correct Answer is. autoland Continues.
Explanation. Manual of Avionics 3rd edition Kendal Page120 end of 2nd paragraph.
Question Number. 144. The decision height on the Radio Altimeter system is adjusted by.
Option A. selecting a switch on the control panel.
Option B. moving a bug on the Radio Altitude indication.
Option C. moving a bug on the Barometric altimeter.
Correct Answer is. moving a bug on the Radio Altitude indication.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell page 196.
Question Number. 145. How do the crew select decision height?.

Option A. selecting a switch on the control panel.
Option B. selected on the main altimeter.
Option C. Selected on the radio altimeter display.
Correct Answer is. Selected on the radio altimeter display.
Explanation. Powell Aircraft Radio Systems Powell page 196.
Question Number. 146. What type of signal is used for trigger height trip signals?.
Option A. Switchable DC.
Option B. Switchable AC.
Option C. Variable DC.
Correct Answer is. Switchable DC.
Question Number. 147. The A.F.C.S remains in control:.

Option A. until reverse thrust is selected.
Option B. until disengaged by flight crew.
Option C. until 2 seconds after touchdown.
Correct Answer is. until disengaged by flight crew.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett page 286.
Question Number. 148. How can ambiguity be avoided during the test of a microwave landing system?.
Option A. Note scan cycle start time.
Option B. Reverse the phases.
Option C. TO/FRO.
Correct Answer is. Note scan cycle start time.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems by J Powell page 224.
Question Number. 149. How is automatic angle of attack protection provided?.

Option A. Fast/Slow indication.
Option B. Reduce flap deployment.
Option C. Autothrottle applying more power.
Correct Answer is. Autothrottle applying more power.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 150. The aircraft is programmed to leave the glideslope at.
Option A. the decrab phase.
Option B. 300 feet.
Option C. the start of flare.
Correct Answer is. the start of flare.
Question Number. 151. Rollout guidance by the rudder is effective to about.

Option A. 80 knots.
Option B. 110 knots.
Option C. 30 knots.
Correct Answer is. 80 knots.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 152. Go-around mode can be initiated.

Option A. at any time.
Option B. after glideslope capture.
Option C. below 2000feet.
Correct Answer is. below 2000feet.
Question Number. 153. An integrated autoland system has been selected to Go-around during the autoland phase, the
aircraft will.
Option A. increase speed.
Option B. increase speed and rotate nose up.
Option C. rotate nose up.
Correct Answer is. increase speed and rotate nose up.
Question Number. 154. The integrity of an autopilot must be increased when the aircraft is flying at.
Option A. higher speeds.
Option B. lower speeds.
Option C. approach and landing phases.
Correct Answer is. approach and landing phases.
Question Number. 155. Signals used during the flare are.

Option A. Glide Slope and rad alt.
Option B. Glide Slope and integrated pitch.
Option C. Rad alt and integrated pitch.
Correct Answer is. Rad alt and integrated pitch.
Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control page 285.
Question Number. 156. An autoland is carried out in which sequence?.

Option A. Glide Slope capture, Localiser capture, Attitude hold, Flare.
Option B. Localiser capture, Glide Slope capture, Attitude hold, Flare.
Option C. Localiser capture, Glide Slope capture, Flare, Attitude hold.
Correct Answer is. Localiser capture, Glide Slope capture, Attitude hold, Flare.
Question Number. 157. If a fault is detected during an autoland approach, the system will totally disconnect if it is a.
Option A. duplex system.

Option B. triplex system.
Option C. duA.L/dual system.
Correct Answer is. duplex system.
Question Number. 158. The glideslope signal integrator.

Option A. increases the glide-slope signal.
Option B. decreases the glide-slope signal.
Option C. maintains the glide-slope signal.
Correct Answer is. decreases the glide-slope signal.
Question Number. 159. Glideslope gain programming is based on.

Option A. radio altitude.
Option B. altitude above MSL and radio altitude.
Option C. pressure altitude.
Correct Answer is. radio altitude.
Explanation. Automatic Flight control Pallett page 156.
Question Number. 160. 3 autopilot computers are considered.

Option A. Fail resistant.
Option B. Fail Passive.
Option C. Fail Operable.
Correct Answer is. Fail Operable.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 161. API trim pointers are fed by.
Option A. an R.V.D.T.
Option B. a synchro.
Option C. an L.V.D.T.
Correct Answer is. an L.V.D.T.
Explanation. Table page 201 Art and Science of flying Helicopter Coyle also read page 202 and 203.
Question Number. 162. In autopilot with THS in motion, the.

Option A. elevator is inhibited.
Option B. Auto Trim is inhibited.
Option C. Mach trim is inhibited.
Correct Answer is. Auto Trim is inhibited.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 163. How is the stabiliser automatically controlled in normal manual operation?.
Option A. Mach/Speed Trim.
Option B. Pitch Trim.
Option C. Electric Trim.
Correct Answer is. Mach/Speed Trim.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 164. The glideslope signal integrator.

Option A. increases glideslope signal.
Option B. maintains glideslope signal.
Option C. decreases glideslope signal.
Correct Answer is. decreases glideslope signal.
Question Number. 165. On a Cat 3B landing, the localizer signal is used at which phase?.
Option A. Rollout.
Option B. Flare.
Option C. Touchdown.
Correct Answer is. Rollout.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 166. How can a pilot over-ride the auto-throttle?.

Option A. Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers.
Option B. By deselecting auto-throttle first.
Option C. It is not possible.
Correct Answer is. Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 167. Altitude hold mode, what signal is washed out?.
Option A. Rate of climb.
Option B. Altitude.
Option C. Pitch angle.
Correct Answer is. Pitch angle.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 168. Where is the autothrottle disconnect switch?.

Option A. Within reach of the Captain.
Option B. Within reach of the First Officer.
Option C. Within reach of both pilots.
Correct Answer is. Within reach of both pilots.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 169. Which of the following is correct ?.

Option A. error = demand - feedback.
Option B. feedback = error - demand.
Option C. demand = feedback - error.
Correct Answer is. error = demand - feedback.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 170. The autothrottle system at touchdown will.

Option A. go to idle.
Option B. apply reverse thrust.
Option C. go to idle and disconnect.
Correct Answer is. go to idle and disconnect.
Question Number. 171. During take off with autothrottle engaged, the autothrottle sensor fails, THR CLP is annuciated on
the mode annunciator panel when.
Option A. V2, as determined by the autothrottle computer.
Option B. aircraft leaves ground.
Option C. a predetermined rad alt setting.
Correct Answer is. aircraft leaves ground.
Explanation. THO CLP means throttle clamp, if the speed sensor faILS a back up system operates via WOW see A.F.C.S Pallett
pages 287,288 and Flight Instruments & A.F.C.S Harris page 142,143 the term Thrust HOLD is used in both cases but Throttle
Clamp is a term used in BAE RJ training notes.
Question Number. 172. If radio deviation is fed only to the autopilot roll channel, what will happen?.
Option A. Aircraft will drift from centreline.
Option B. Aircraft will fly in circles.
Option C. Aircraft will fly parallel to centreline.
Correct Answer is. Aircraft will fly in circles.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control EHJ Pallett Page 172.
Question Number. 173. Altitude hold, when engaged, provides a washout input to the.
Option A. vertical gyro.
Option B. roll channel.
Option C. autopilot pitch servo.
Correct Answer is. autopilot pitch servo.
Explanation. During Alt Hold all signals to pitch servo wash out before applied and keep aircraft in same altitude.
Question Number. 174. What is the main operating principle of M.L.S?.

Option A. Time difference between TO and FRO pulse.
Option B. Signal strength (mV) difference between left and right beam.
Option C. Phase shift between Tx and Rx.
Correct Answer is. Time difference between TO and FRO pulse.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 175. When the rotor of an AC tachogenerator is stationary, the rotor has.
Option A. no magnetic field.
Option B. no circulating currents.
Option C. circulating currents.
Correct Answer is. no circulating currents.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 176. An AC tachogenerator stator has.

Option A. two windings 90° apart.
Option B. two windings 180° apart.
Option C. three windings 120° apart.
Correct Answer is. two windings 90° apart.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 177. The sense of a control surface feedback signal will.
Option A. oppose the signal causing the displacement of control surface.
Option B. reverse when the control surface limit is reached.
Option C. displacing assist the signal displacing the servo.
Correct Answer is. oppose the signal causing the displacement of control surface.
Question Number. 178. A servo tachogenerator feedback signal is required to.
Option A. damp out oscillations of a control movement.
Option B. assist the demand applied to servo-motor.
Option C. ensure proportional control movement for a given command signal.
Correct Answer is. ensure proportional control movement for a given command signal.
Question Number. 179. One basic requirement of a synchronizing loop is that it must.
Option A. disengage as soon as hard over is detected.
Option B. be engaged at all times.
Option C. disengage on A/P engagement.
Correct Answer is. be engaged at all times.
Question Number. 180. When the autopilot is disengaged, moving the control column forward will cause the pitch CWS
sensor.
Option A. to produce a significant signal which has pitch down sense.
Option B. to produce only a small pitch down signal.
Option C. to produce a significant signal witch has a pitch up sense.
Correct Answer is. NIL.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 181. To increase the gain of an amplifier it is necessary to.

Option A. increase the tachogenerator feedback.
Option B. increase to position feedback.
Option C. reduce the tachogenerator feedback.
Correct Answer is. increase to position feedback.
Question Number. 182. In the electro pneumatic servo-motor using dual poppet valves and dual roll-fram actuator, when
there is zero command output from the autopilot servo amplifier.
Option A. both valves will be open for an equal period of time.
Option B. both roll fram actuators will fully retract.
Option C. both valves will be closed.
Correct Answer is. both valves will be open for an equal period of time.
Question Number. 183. The purpose of using altitude rate signal to develop the capture point in the altitude acquire mode
is.
Option A. as a backup.
Option B. to allow the aircraft to start flaring on to the selected altitude later if the vertical speed is high.
Option C. to allow the aircraft to start flaring on to the selected altitude later if the vertical speed is high.
Correct Answer is. to allow the aircraft to start flaring on to the selected altitude earlier if the vertical speed is high.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 184. When internal navigation control is used, the roll channel signals used are.
Option A. beam deviation and course error.
Option B. drift angle and cross track distance.
Option C. cross track distance and track angle error.
Correct Answer is. NIL.
Explanation. (If the aircraft is at altitude).
Question Number. 185. Which modes are incompatible?.

Option A. VOR & ALT hold.
Option B. VOR & GLIDE SLOPE.
Option C. HDG hold & speed hold.
Correct Answer is. VOR & GLIDE SLOPE.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 186. Rate feedback signal in a rate/rate system.

Option A. prevents oscillations of the control surfaces.
Option B. indicates control surface feedback.
Option C. provides proportional response to commanded inputs.
Correct Answer is. prevents oscillations of the control surfaces.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 187. Throttle hold will occur.

Option A. with weight on wheels.
Option B. at a predetermined take-off speed.
Option C. at the beginning of the take-off run.
Correct Answer is. at a predetermined take-off speed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 188. An autopilot transfer valve.

Option A. converts electrical power to hydraulic power.
Option B. converts hydraulic power to electrical power.
Option C. converts hydraulic power to electrical power and converts electrical power to hydraulic powe.
Correct Answer is. converts electrical power to hydraulic power.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 189. The autothrottle controls the aircraft.

Option A. both laterally and vertically.
Option B. vertically.
Option C. laterally.
Correct Answer is. vertically.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 190. Speed information to the autothrottle is derived from.

Option A. the IRS.
Option B. the CADC.
Option C. the D.M.E.
Correct Answer is. the CADC.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 191. On replacement of an actuator that incorporates an autopilot actuator, the autopilot must be
checked for.
Option A. correct sense of movement.
Option B. correct sense and range of movement.
Option C. correct sense and range of movement and autopilot breakout checks.
Correct Answer is. correct sense and range of movement and autopilot breakout checks.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 192. On replacement of an autopilot servo motor.

Option A. position feedback must be checked.
Option B. elevator and aileron must be checked.
Option C. torque limiting settings must be checked.
Correct Answer is. torque limiting settings must be checked.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 193. The autopilot prevents adverse yaw by.

Option A. aileron to rudder cross feed.
Option B. rudder to aileron cross feed.
Option C. rudder to pitch cross feed.
Correct Answer is. aileron to rudder cross feed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 194. An automatic disengagement of an autopilot will cause.

Option A. an aural warning only.
Option B. a red warning light to illuminate and an aural warning.
Option C. a red warning light to illuminate.
Correct Answer is. a red warning light to illuminate and an aural warning.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 195. Auto trimming trims the aircraft by.
Option A. movement of the elevator.
Option B. movement of either the elevator or the stabiliser.
Option C. moving the leading edge of the stabiliser.
Correct Answer is. moving the leading edge of the stabiliser.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 196. Automatic trimming starts on the detection of.

Option A. standing load on the elevator.
Option B. loss of servo input.
Option C. loss of position feedback.
Correct Answer is. standing load on the elevator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 197. An autopilot runaway is prevented by.

Option A. torque limiting devise.
Option B. a fuse.
Option C. position feedback.
Correct Answer is. torque limiting devise.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 198. An autopilot hardover runaway is caused by.

Option A. loss of servo power supply.
Option B. loss of clutch supply.
Option C. loss of position feedback.
Correct Answer is. loss of position feedback.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 199. Inner loop servo control of an autopilot will provide.
Option A. stability only.
Option B. navigation commands only.
Option C. stability and navigation commands.
Correct Answer is. stability only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 200. The pilots instinctive autopilot disengage button is on the.
Option A. side of the controls away from the throttles.
Option B. left of the control column.
Option C. right of the control column.
Correct Answer is. side of the controls away from the throttles.
Question Number. 201. If the autopilot automatically disconnects in the autoland mode, the audible warning.
Option A. is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button.
Option B. switches off after a time interval.
Option C. can only be switched off by re-engaging the autopilot.
Correct Answer is. is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button.
Explanation. JAR A.W.O Para 153.
Question Number. 202. For an aircraft to be certified for automatic landing, an autothrottle system is.
Option A. mandatory.
Option B. dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds.
Option C. a matter of choice for the operator.
Correct Answer is. dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds.
Explanation. JAR A.W.O Para 306 b.
Question Number. 203. With autothrottle engaged, the application of reverse thrust will.
Option A. drive the throttles to the minimum thrust position.
Option B. drive the throttles to the reverse thrust position.
Option C. disconnect the autothrottle.
Correct Answer is. disconnect the autothrottle.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 204. What channel of the autopilot does the glideslope control?.
Option A. Yaw.
Option B. Pitch.
Option C. Roll.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 205. In an autothrottle system, when is E.P.R or thrust mode used?.
Option A. Approach.
Option B. Cruise.
Option C. Take-off.
Correct Answer is. Take-off.
Explanation. E.H.J.Pallet 3rd edition page 284 3rd paragraph.
Question Number. 206. Autopilot, when on approach to landing, how many axis are used?.
Option A. 3.
Option B. 2.
Option C. 4.
Correct Answer is. 3.
Explanation. NIL.
13.04. Communication/Navigation (ATA 23/24).
Question Number. 1. Suppressor line is required for.

Option A. 2nd orbit.
Option B. 13th orbit.
Option C. 9th orbit.
Correct Answer is. 2nd orbit.
Explanation. Every day - 2 orbits per day.
Question Number. 2. A buffer amp on a transmitter is between.

Option A. local oscillator and demodulator.
Option B. modulator and power amp.
Option C. local oscillator and modulator.
Correct Answer is. local oscillator and modulator.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin Page 297.
Question Number. 3. Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a course of 090 R.M.I. The pointer points to.
Option A. 0.
Option B. 180.
Option C. 90.
Question Number. 4. What is the power at pulse?.

Option A. Pulsed power.
Option B. Average power.
Option C. Peak power.
Correct Answer is. Peak power.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. What frequency increases radar relative range?.

Option A. High.
Option B. Low.
Option C. Radar relative range cannot be increased by frequency change.
Correct Answer is. Low.
Question Number. 6. If radar pulse is reduced, there is.
Option A. reduced relative range.
Option B. increased relative range.
Option C. no effect.
Correct Answer is. no effect.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, Page 340. Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell Page 140.
Question Number. 7. If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial, resistance would be.
Option A. 160 ohm.
Option B. 80 ohm.
Option C. 0 ohm.
Correct Answer is. 80 ohm.
Explanation. Terminating a transmission line in its characteristic impedance makes a the transmission line look infinitely long,
and would therefore measure its characteristic impedance.
Question Number. 8. Adding 6 foot of cable to both T and R aerials on a rad alt would give you.
Option A. 6 ft error.
Option B. 18 foot error.
Option C. 12 ft error.
Correct Answer is. 18 foot error.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell. Page 191.
Question Number. 9. Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the.

Option A. narrowest width.
Option B. number of joints and bends.
Option C. widest width.
Correct Answer is. number of joints and bends.
Explanation. Jeppesen - Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Page 147.
Question Number. 10. Emergency frequency is.

Option A. 123.5 Hertz.
Option B. 121.5 Hertz.
Option C. 125.5 Hertz.
Correct Answer is. 121.5 Hertz.
Explanation. JAR OPS 1.820 or 1.850. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-25.
Question Number. 11. How many satellites are required for G.N.S?.
Option A. 8.
Option B. 4.
Option C. 6 90 degree apart.
Question Number. 12. 121.5 Mega Hertz is what frequency?.

Option A. V.H.F.
Option B. ILS.
Option C. VOR.
Correct Answer is. V.H.F.
Explanation. 118-137 Mega Hertz is V.H.F frequency. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-13.
Question Number. 13. 112.1 Mega Hertz is what frequency?.

Option A. VOR.
Option B. V.H.F.
Option C. ILS.
Correct Answer is. VOR.
Explanation. 112-118 Mega Hertz is VOR frequency. Less than 112 Mega Hertz odd decimals are ILS. Jeppesen A&P Technician
Airframe Textbook Page 12-14.
Question Number. 14. In M.L.S, what is the beam angle away from runway?.
Option A. 20°.
Option B. 1°.
Option C. 15°.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.allstar.fiu.edu/aero/MLS.htm
Question Number. 15. What is the 'Q' code for runway heading?.
Option A. QDM.
Option B. QDR.
Option C. QDH.
Correct Answer is. QDM.
Explanation. QDM, stands for 'query directional magnetic'.
Question Number. 16. On a fibreglass aerial, what paint should be used?.

Option A. Polyurethane.
Option B. Not cellulose.
Option C. Cellulose only.
Correct Answer is. Not cellulose.
Question Number. 17. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated.

Option A. after glideslope capture.
Option B. at any time.
Option C. only when autopilot is engaged.
Correct Answer is. after glideslope capture.
Explanation. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 346. G0-around is armed when glideslope is captured or flaps are not up.
Question Number. 18. When painting a neoprene coated radio antenna.

Option A. use any paint.
Option B. do not use cellulose paint.
Option C. use cellulose paint.
Correct Answer is. do not use cellulose paint.
Question Number. 19. VOR capture can be determined by.
Option A. a predetermined level of the course error signal away from the selected radial.
Option B. a predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away from the selected radial.
Option C. computation from the vectorial summation of the course error and radio deviation signals.
Correct Answer is. a predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away from the selected radial.
Explanation. Avionics Fundamentals. Jeppesen Pages 320, 328.
Question Number. 20. An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered by.

Option A. measured radio deviation.
Option B. rate of change of course.
Option C. rate of change of radio deviation.
Correct Answer is. rate of change of radio deviation.
Question Number. 21. To know the valid data base on the F.M.S.
Option A. call up the relevant page on the CDU.
Option B. perform a BITE check.
Option C. call up the relevant current status.
Correct Answer is. call up the relevant page on the CDU.
Question Number. 22. What is the impedance of VOR or H.F aerial cables?.
Option A. 75 ohms and 25 ohms.
Option B. 50 ohms.
Option C. 25 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 50 ohms.
Question Number. 23. To improve the image or picture when using the Weather Radar (weather radar receiver).
Option A. use shorter bursts.
Option B. scan at a lower rate.
Option C. use longer bursts.
Correct Answer is. use shorter bursts.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell Page 140/1.
Question Number. 24. The polythene coating on an H.F antenna wire is provided.
Option A. to prevent precipitation static build up.
Option B. to prevent the wire from chafing.
Option C. to prevent the wire from corroding.
Correct Answer is. to prevent precipitation static build up.
Question Number. 25. ILS marker beacon lights are.

Option A. blue, white, green.
Option B. green, blue, amber.
Option C. blue, amber, white.
Correct Answer is. blue, amber, white.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 312. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page
12-24.
Question Number. 26. 111.1 Mega Hertz is.

Option A. a H.F frequency.
Option B. a VOR frequency.
Option C. an ILS frequency.
Correct Answer is. an ILS frequency.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems Page 69 shows this as a localiser frequency. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 12-24.
Question Number. 27. The aviation distress frequency is.

Option A. 121.5 Kilo Hertz.
Option B. 121.5 Mega Hertz.
Option C. 122.5 Mega Hertz.
Correct Answer is. 121.5 Mega Hertz.
Explanation. JAR OPS 1.820 or 1.850 c. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-25.
Question Number. 28. A radar altimeter in track mode is effective to.

Option A. 100 feet.
Option B. 2000 feet.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin Page 323 - 324.
Question Number. 29. 112.1 Mega Hertz is.

Option A. an ILS frequency.
Option B. an A.D.F frequency.
Option C. a VOR frequency.
Correct Answer is. a VOR frequency.
Explanation. 112 - 118 Mega Hertz are VOR frequencies. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-14.
Question Number. 30. What does a Decca Navigation system operate on?.
Option A. Low Frequency.
Option B. Very High Frequency.
Option C. High Frequency.
Correct Answer is. Low Frequency.
Explanation. Decca navigation is low frequency.
Question Number. 31. Which of the following has an hyperbolic curve?.

Option A. D.M.E.
Option B. VOR.
Option C. Loran C.
Correct Answer is. Loran C.
Explanation. Loran C is a type of LF Navigation. Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page 153. Also Aircraft Radio Systems by
James Powell Page 101.
Question Number. 32. The ground run monitor (GRM) presents.

Option A. ground speed and distance to go.
Option B. distance to go.
Option C. take off speed and distance to go.
Correct Answer is. ground speed and distance to go.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. Restrictions to the use of hand held microphones apply to.
Option A. transport category aircraft only.
Option B. aerial work and transport category aircraft.
Option C. private aircraft.
Correct Answer is. transport category aircraft only.
Explanation. ANO Schedule 4 Scale N.
Question Number. 34. An R.M.I in VOR mode, its pointer is showing a course of 000. If the course knob is adjusted to 010
what happens to the pointer?.
Option A. Moves left then hard right.
Option B. Move left.
Option C. Move right.
Correct Answer is. Move right.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 35. The V.H.F aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is.
Option A. 20 and 50 ohms respectively.
Option B. 50 ohms.
Option C. 20 ohms.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 36. A poor oscillator in a receiver would cause.
Option A. poor channel selectivity.
Option B. poor audio output.
Option C. poor volume output.
Correct Answer is. poor channel selectivity.
Question Number. 37. T.C.A.S transmits and receives on a frequency of.

Option A. 1030Mega Hertz and 1090Mega Hertz respectively.
Option B. 1090Mega Hertz and 1030Mega Hertz respectively.
Option C. 1090Mega Hertz.
Correct Answer is. 1030Mega Hertz and 1090Mega Hertz respectively.
Explanation. 12 of An Introduction to T.C.A.S 2 Version 7 at www.eurocontrol.fr/ba_saf/acas/Version7.htm.
Question Number. 38. The quadrantal error in A.D.F is maximum at a heading of.
Option A. 45.
Option B. 0.
Option C. 90.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems. Powell Page 52.
Question Number. 39. Track mode of an Radio Altimeter is operational.

Option A. above 10,000 feet.
Option B. from 1.0 to 100 feet.
Option C. from 0 to 2,500 feet.
Correct Answer is. from 0 to 2,500 feet.
Explanation. The radio altimeter is operational from 0 - 2500 ft Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page 223.
Question Number. 40. How many aerials are there in a T.C.A.S system?.
Option A. 1.
Option B. 2.
Option C. 3.
Explanation. Avionic Systems: Operation and Maintenance page 160.
Question Number. 41. Wavelength of band radar is.

Option A. 3 cm.
Option B. 5 cm.
Option C. 10 m.
Correct Answer is. 3 cm.
Explanation. Introduction to Avionics Dale Cundy Page 82.
Question Number. 42. Precipitation static is caused by.

Option A. lightning strikes.
Option B. skin to air particle collisions.
Option C. H.F radiation.
Correct Answer is. skin to air particle collisions.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics - Eismin page 211.
Question Number. 43. H.F aerials have weak points designed at.
Option A. both ends.
Option B. the back end.
Option C. the front end.
Correct Answer is. the back end.
Explanation. CAIPs R.L/2-2 para 2.2.4.
Question Number. 44. What is the reply frequency of an aircraft transponder?.

Option A. 1000 Mega Hertz.
Option B. 1030 Mega Hertz.
Option C. 1090 Mega Hertz.
Correct Answer is. 1090 Mega Hertz.
Explanation. Avionic Fundamentals page 211.
Question Number. 45. A rain fall of 5mm/hr is indicated on the Weather Radar by a.
Option A. red colour.
Option B. green colour.
Option C. yellow colour.
Correct Answer is. yellow colour.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-43 p691.
Question Number. 46. The international emergency frequency used in V.H.F Comms is.
Option A. 118.
Option B. 121.5.
Option C. 131.55.
Correct Answer is. 121.5.
Question Number. 47. When an aircraft is at a height of 9500ft and the QNH is 500 ft, what is the distance that V.H.F
Com can cover?.
Option A. 140 nm.
Option B. 100 nm.
Option C. 120 nm.
Correct Answer is. 120 nm.
Question Number. 48. When the VOR reference and variable phases are in phase quadrature, the aircraft is at the.
Option A. 180° radial.
Option B. 275° radial.
Option C. 090° radial.
Correct Answer is. 090° radial.
Question Number. 49. The doppler VOR beacon reference signal.
Option A. frequency modulates the sub carrier frequency.
Option B. amplitude modulates the sub carrier frequency.
Option C. amplitude modulates the carrier frequency.
Correct Answer is. amplitude modulates the carrier frequency.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell page 62.
Question Number. 50. Suppressor line is required for.

Option A. T.C.A.Ss only.
Option B. all L band equipments including T.C.A.S.
Option C. A.T.C and D.M.E only.
Correct Answer is. all L band equipments including T.C.A.S.
Question Number. 51. Differential G.P.S requires.

Option A. 4 satellites and 2 ground based transmitters.
Option B. 3 satellites and two ground based transmitters.
Option C. 4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitter.
Correct Answer is. 4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitter.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.trimble.com/gps/how1.html
Question Number. 52. G.P.S has.

Option A. 7 satellites in 3 orbits.
Option B. 4 satellites in 6 orbits.
Option C. 6 satellites in 4 orbits.
Correct Answer is. 4 satellites in 6 orbits.
Explanation. NIL. http://samadhi.jpl.nasa.gov/msl/Programs/gps.html
Question Number. 53. In ACARS, if an upcoming message is received.

Option A. a selcal light along with a chime comes on.
Option B. a designated light comes on.
Option C. a chime sounds in the cockpit.
Correct Answer is. a chime sounds in the cockpit.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.sasflightops.com/dlk/avionics.htm
Question Number. 54. A hyperbolic system is.

Option A. LORAN C.
Option B. ILS.
Option C. VOR.
Correct Answer is. LORAN C.
Explanation. Loran C is a type of Omega Navigation. Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page 153.
Question Number. 55. In regard to the aircraft transponder, what is the pulse frequency?.
Option A. Amount of times interrogating signal is sent per second.
Option B. Number of pulses per signal.
Option C. Amount of times reply signal is sent per second.
Correct Answer is. Amount of times reply signal is sent per second.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 56. Align light flashes during alignment of an inertial navigation system.
Option A. It is indicating progress of alignment.
Option B. A fault has occurred and system needs to be turned off fore.
Option C. It is attracting operators attention.
Correct Answer is. It is attracting operators attention.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Circuits EHJ Pallett Page 275.
Question Number. 57. High range resolution is obtained by.

Option A. shorter pulse width.
Option B. shorter beam width.
Option C. high PRF.
Correct Answer is. shorter pulse width.
Question Number. 58. In weather radar, short range targets are missed by.
Option A. larger beam width.
Option B. larger pulse width.
Option C. larger frequency.
Correct Answer is. larger pulse width.
Question Number. 59. If an aircraft is east of VOR beacon, the reference and variable phases are.
Option A. opposite phase.
Option B. phase quadrature.
Option C. in-phase.
Correct Answer is. phase quadrature.
Explanation. Avionics Fundamentals. Jeppesen Page 165 and Pallett, Automatic Flight Control, page 188.
Question Number. 60. In a radio altimeter system, if you decide to increase the T cable and R cable each by 3 inch the
total correction factor is.
Option A. 3 inch.
Option B. 9 inch.
Option C. 6 inch.
Correct Answer is. 9 inch.
Question Number. 61. Radiated interference of current carrying cables can be minimized by.
Option A. having filters in power supply lines.
Option B. separating the affected and affecting cables.
Option C. putting the affected cable in a single conduit.
Correct Answer is. putting the affected cable in a single conduit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 62. If two aircraft decide to issue the same Resolution Advisory for a potential conflict, which aircraft
changes the decision?.
Option A. The one with the smaller address.
Option B. The one with the higher address.
Option C. Neither changes the decision.
Correct Answer is. The one with the higher address.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.arinc.com/downloads/tcas/tcas.pdf
Question Number. 63. G.P.S antenna is.

Option A. circular polarized.
Option B. vertically polarized.
Option C. horizontally polarized.
Correct Answer is. circular polarized.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.avionics.com/Practical%20Avionics/No%207.htm
Question Number. 64. How many programs can a F.M.C store?.

Option A. One current.
Option B. Two. One active and one standby.
Option C. Two. Both active.
Correct Answer is. Two. One active and one standby.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 399 on. Boeing 757 chapter 34-61-00 page 201.
Question Number. 65. E.P.R and speed for autothrottle is activated at.
Option A. take off.
Option B. approach.
Option C. cruise.
Correct Answer is. take off.
Question Number. 66. How does an I.R.S calculate velocity?.
Option A. Double integration of accelerometers.
Option B. Differentiation of laser gyro.
Option C. Integration of accelerometers.
Correct Answer is. Integration of accelerometers.
Question Number. 67. Use of a diplexer in a receiver is.

Option A. to amplify the RF signal.
Option B. to enable signals to be distributed to different receivers.
Option C. to impedance match the aerial and receivers.
Correct Answer is. to impedance match the aerial and receivers.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 68. Doppler flag comes on when it receives.

Option A. excessive ground clutter.
Option B. no signal.
Option C. excess signals.
Correct Answer is. no signal.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 69. Omega ground stations.

Option A. transmit pulses of CW.
Option B. series of CW.
Option C. are carrier modulated by three audio tones.
Correct Answer is. transmit pulses of CW.
Question Number. 70. During testing of A.T.C altitude function, the pressure altimeter is set.
Option A. sea level pressure.
Option B. 1013.25 mb.
Option C. prevailing pressure.
Correct Answer is. 1013.25 mb.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 71. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?.

Option A. When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1.
Option B. When the P2 pulse is anti-phase to P1.
Option C. If P2 is before P1.
Correct Answer is. When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1.
Question Number. 72. On an ILS approach, what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?.
Option A. Radio deviation.
Option B. Glideslope deviation.
Option C. Course deviation.
Correct Answer is. Radio deviation.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page 184/185.
Question Number. 73. If you carry out a V.S.W.R check of a SSB H.F system what should you do with the control switch?
Select it to.
Option A. OFF.
Option B. either USB or LSB.
Option C. AM.
Correct Answer is. AM.
Explanation. SSB transmissions require a modulating signal before any real power is transmitted (the carrier wave is
suppressed). Full AM however, transmits power regardless of the modulation (if any) and is normally used for V.S.W.R
measurements.
Question Number. 74. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the P2 pulse
length?.
Option A. 8 micro seconds.
Option B. 17 micro seconds.
Option C. 21 micro seconds.
Correct Answer is. 8 micro seconds.
Explanation. Mode A is 8 microseconds, mode C is 21 microseconds.
Question Number. 75. What is the wavelength of C band radar?.

Option A. 17 m.
Option B. 3 cm.
Option C. 7 cm.
Correct Answer is. 7 cm.
Explanation. C Band is 4 - 8 cm. Most aircraft systems use about 5.6cm. Ref Boeing and Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 12-27.
Question Number. 76. If a VOR R.M.I indicates 000 degrees and the course selected is 000 degrees what will the
TO/FROM indicator indicate?.
Option A. Neither.
Option B. TO.
Option C. FROM.
Correct Answer is. TO.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell Page 61 R.M.I showing 000 implies that aircraft is on 180 radial and
selected course is 000. Indicator must show 'TO' as aircraft is on reciprocal of selected course.
Question Number. 77. What does the Radar contour button do?.
Option A. Alter the transmitter power.
Option B. Alter the video amplifier.
Option C. Alter the beam shape.
Correct Answer is. Alter the video amplifier.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell page 143/page 150 fig9.10/page 154 Contour on then signals are
inverted if they exceed a certain level to show cells of heavy precipitation as dark holes within bright 'paint'.This changes video
amp output.
Question Number. 78. A radar response takes 309 micro seconds. How far away is the target?.
Option A. 12 miles.
Option B. 40 miles.
Option C. 25 miles.
Correct Answer is. 25 miles.
Explanation. 1 nautical mile=12.36 micro secs so 309/12.36 = 25 Miles.
Question Number. 79. D.M.E transponder transmits on receipt.

Option A. of pilot input command request.
Option B. of any interrogation.
Option C. of a pair of pulses separated by 12 microseconds.
Correct Answer is. of a pair of pulses separated by 12 microseconds.
Question Number. 80. The RAD alt electrical length for an helicopter is.
Option A. 28feet.
Option B. 16feet.
Option C. 12feet.
Correct Answer is. 28ft
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 81. Mode S transponders transmits a binary code of.

Option A. 12bits.
Option B. 24bits.
Option C. 64bits.
Correct Answer is. 24bits.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 82. A mode C transponder.

Option A. cannot be used for T.C.A.S.
Option B. can be used for T.C.A.S.
Option C. can be used for T.C.A.S on ILS approach only.
Correct Answer is. can be used for T.C.A.S.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 83. The audio select panel allows the crew to.
Option A. transmit on one channel, listen on multiple others.
Option B. receive on one channel, transmit on multiple others.
Option C. transmit on one channel, listen on one.
Correct Answer is. transmit on one channel, listen on multiple others.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 84. The crew select DH on.

Option A. the altimeter.
Option B. the DH annunciator panel.
Option C. the rad alt display.
Correct Answer is. the rad alt display.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 85. When substituting the radio altimeter antenna cables, you should consider.
Option A. power requirements.
Option B. the diameter of cables.
Option C. the speed of propagation of rad alt signal.
Correct Answer is. the speed of propagation of rad alt signal.
Question Number. 86. Audio select panel voice switch.

Option A. cuts 'beeps' from teh D.M.E signal.
Option B. disables D.M.E voice ident.
Option C. allows voice ident of D.M.E.
Correct Answer is. cuts 'beeps' from teh D.M.E signal.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 87. What is primary radar?.
Option A. Radar that gives height and position.
Option B. Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse.
Option C. Land based.
Correct Answer is. Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 88. G.P.S frequency is.

Option A. 1575 GHertz.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 89. Radio switches are normally.

Option A. latched on R/T, latched on I/C.
Option B. latched on R/T, sprung on I/C.
Option C. sprung on R/T, latched on I/C.
Correct Answer is. sprung on R/T, latched on I/C.
Explanation. I/C R/T switch is latched to I/C for normal conversation on the flight deck and sprung loaded for R/T so that you
don't continually transmit without intending to.
Question Number. 90. What is ILS marker beacon frequency?.

Explanation. Automatic Flight Control. Pallett, 4th Edition Page 183/4.
Question Number. 91. On T.C.A.S, with aircraft below 180feet.
Option A. all traffic produces aural alert.
Option B. system is disabled.
Option C. no traffic will be shown.
Correct Answer is. system is disabled.
Explanation. T.C.A.S 2, Version 7 publication on http://www.eurocontrol.fr/ba_saf/acas/Version7.htm on page 29, left column,
last paragraph, there is mention of aircraft when below 1,720 feet. T.C.A.S will assume the other aircraft is on the ground and
will inhibit advisories to it.
Question Number. 92. T.C.A.S is selected.

Option A. not available in cruise.
Option B. by a switch, by pilot on selector panel.
Option C. automatically.
Correct Answer is. by a switch, by pilot on selector panel.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 93. Mode S pulses. Which are used?.

Option A. s1, p1, p3, p4.
Option B. s1, s2, p1, p2.
Option C. F1, F2, F4, F5.
Correct Answer is. s1, p1, p3, p4.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 94. In a superhet receiver, the advantage of an RF amplifier is.

Option A. it amplifies output stages.
Option B. it couples noise factors.
Option C. it improves signal to noise ratio.
Correct Answer is. it improves signal to noise ratio.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 95. Back beam is captured.

Option A. by manually selecting the back beam mode.
Option B. by manually selecting the LNAV mode.
Option C. this automatically trips the LNAV mode.
Correct Answer is. by manually selecting the back beam mode.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 96. The manual VOR input is for.

Option A. glideslope.
Option B. course deviation bar.
Option C. R.M.I.
Correct Answer is. course deviation bar.
Explanation. B737 MM Chapter 34-31-02.
Question Number. 97. D.M.E reply pulses are 63MEGA HERTZ.

Option A. lower.
Option B. higher or lower.
Option C. higher.
Correct Answer is. higher or lower.
Question Number. 98. What is V.H.F comm range at 9000 feet?.

Option A. 130 Nautical Miles.
Option B. 120 Nautical Miles.
Option C. 100 Nautical Miles.
Correct Answer is. 120 Nautical Miles.
Question Number. 99. G.P.S sends L1 and L2. What is on L1?.

Option A. c/a code and P code.
Option B. c/a code only.
Option C. P code only.
Correct Answer is. c/a code and P code.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.nasatech.com/Briefs/Mar03/NPO30367.html
Question Number. 100. Mode 4 of G.P.W.S derives warnings from.

Option A. rad alt decrease.
Option B. comparison of rad alt to barometric.
Option C. approach along localiser with reference to runway threshold.
Correct Answer is. rad alt decrease.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 101. On power up, the I.R.S obtains position.

Option A. latitude from previous position.
Option B. longitude from previous position.
Option C. latitude and longitude from previous position.
Correct Answer is. longitude from previous position.
Explanation. NIL. http://digilander.libero.it/andreatheone/irs.htm
Question Number. 102. Carbon microphones require.

Option A. no supply.
Option B. AC supply.
Option C. DC supply.
Correct Answer is. DC supply.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 103. Microwave landing systems are modulated with.

Option A. Manchester code.
Option B. phase drift keying.
Option C. FM.
Correct Answer is. phase drift keying.
Explanation. NIL. http://nweb.pct.edu/homepage/staff/tinman/tinman/avc227327/NAV/mls/sld006.htm
Question Number. 104. A CVR is found to be unserviceable.
Option A. flights must not continue after four days.
Option B. flights must not continue after 72 hours.
Option C. flight can continue with serviceable FDR provided they are not combined.
Correct Answer is. flights must not continue after 72 hours.
Explanation. JAA MEL Temporary Guidance Leaflet Number 26. After 72 hours have elapsed from the CVR becoming
unserviceable you cannot fly. Also cannot fly if combined CVR/FDR or no more than 8 flying hours.
Question Number. 105. The bearing of a Non Directional Beacon(NDB) measured by A.D.F is 060 degrees relative to
aircraft heading of 030 degrees. The R.M.I pointer indicates.
Option A. 30 degrees.
Option B. 60 degrees.
Option C. 90 degrees.
Correct Answer is. 90 degrees.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 106. The pseudo-random code used by all civilian G.P.S users is.
Option A. the p code.
Option B. the y code.
Option C. the c/a code.
Correct Answer is. the c/a code.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 107. The respective band widths for a radar IF amplifier and video amplifier, for good pulse shape,
should be.
Option A. narrow and wide.
Option B. wide and narrow.
Option C. wide and wide.
Correct Answer is. narrow and wide.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 108. Glideslope deviation signals are.
Option A. DC positive going only.
Option B. DC polarity sensitive.
Option C. AC phase sensitive.
Correct Answer is. DC polarity sensitive.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 109. What is the colour of the middle marker beacon?.
Option A. White.
Option B. Amber.
Option C. Blue.
Correct Answer is. Amber.
Explanation. Jeppesen - Avionics Fundamentals, Page 219 fig 14-2.
Question Number. 110. A G.P.S system is formed from.

Option A. receiver, processing unit, interactive console.
Option B. space, control, user.
Option C. satellites, processing unit, display unit.
Correct Answer is. space, control, user.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.robins.af.mil/lkn/jssmogps.htm
Question Number. 111. The glideslope equipment operates in the.

Option A. V.H.F band.
Option B. H.F band.
Option C. U.H.F band.
Correct Answer is. U.H.F band.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin. Page 308 and table on page 278.
Question Number. 112. For aircraft with dual CMCs, when only one CMC is available, it.
Option A. must be connected to the left side.
Option B. can be connected to either side.
Option C. must be connected to the right side.
Correct Answer is. must be connected to the left side.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Fifth Edition Eismin Chap 13 page 271.
Question Number. 113. Laser gyros are.

Option A. aligned to the aircraft structure.
Option B. aligned to the magnetic north.
Option C. aligned to the true north.
Correct Answer is. aligned to the aircraft structure.
Explanation. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page.
Question Number. 114. Laser gyros.

Option A. do not have rotational parts.
Option B. have rotational parts.
Option C. have movable parts.
Correct Answer is. do not have rotational parts.
Question Number. 115. DSR TK (desired track) means.

Option A. distance left or right from desired track.
Option B. a great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way points.
Option C. the bearing to capture the track.
Correct Answer is. a great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way points.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control pallet page 193.
Question Number. 116. In a Doppler VOR, the 30Hertz reference signal is.
Option A. AM Modulated.
Option B. FM Modulated.
Option C. modulated with a 9960Hertz.
Correct Answer is. AM Modulated.
Question Number. 117. If an FM signal is modulated by an audio signal, the frequency of the audio would relate to the.
Option A. rate of frequency change.

Option B. amplitude.
Option C. frequency.
Correct Answer is. rate of frequency change.
Question Number. 118. On an H.F radio set, the clarifier control is used.
Option A. make the audio signal clearer.
Option B. an Americanism for volume.
Option C. to adjust the reinserted carrier due to instability in the R.
Correct Answer is. to adjust the reinserted carrier due to instability in the R.
Question Number. 119. An 'O' ring in a wave guide is used to.

Option A. correct the V.S.W.R.
Option B. stop moisture entering the wave guide.
Option C. stop arcing between the wave guide.
Correct Answer is. stop moisture entering the wave guide.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 120. Loran C Uses.

Option A. 16 Kilo Hertz.
Option B. 100 Kilo Hertz.
Correct Answer is. 100 Kilo Hertz.
Question Number. 121. G.P.S Telemetry consists of.
Option A. 8 bits of preamble and position information.
Option B. satellite position information.
Option C. week number and time label.
Correct Answer is. satellite position information.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 122. A D.M.E is in auto standby when.

Option A. the D.M.E receives 200 - 300 pulses a second.
Option B. the T.C.A.S is transmitting.
Option C. the A.T.C transponder is transmitting.
Correct Answer is. the D.M.E receives 200 - 300 pulses a second.
Question Number. 123. The aircraft is due north of a VOR station on a heading of 90°. What is the R.M.I displaying?.
Option A. 0°.
Option B. 180°.
Option C. 90°.
Question Number. 124. The flight director is on a localizer when the radio deviation signal is lost. The aircraft would.
Option A. continue on flying on the localizer.
Option B. fly parallel to the localizer.
Option C. drift of from the localizer on the same heading.
Correct Answer is. fly parallel to the localizer.
Question Number. 125. The rate of GLIDE SLOPE warning in G.P.W.S.
Option A. changes with barometric altitude.
Option B. does not change.
Option C. changes with radio altitude.
Correct Answer is. changes with radio altitude.
Question Number. 126. What frequency are VOR and ILS?.

Option A. H.F.
Option B. U.H.F.
Option C. V.H.F.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 426.
Question Number. 127. If one F.M.S fails in a dual system.

Option A. F.M.S CDU on fail side goes blank.
Option B. F.M.S display transfers automatically from serviceable computer.
Option C. system operation will not be affected.
Correct Answer is. F.M.S CDU on fail side goes blank.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 406.
Question Number. 128. To carry out a database update on the F.M.S.

Option A. insert new data via the CDU.
Option B. use the database loader.
Option C. insert a new EPROM.
Correct Answer is. use the database loader.
Question Number. 129. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?.

Option A. When the P2 pulse is anti-phase to P1.
Option B. If P2 is before P1.
Option C. When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1.
Correct Answer is. When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio systems, Powell, page 126.
Question Number. 130. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the P2 pulse
length?.
Option A. 21 microseconds.
Option B. 17 microseconds.
Option C. 8 microseconds.
Correct Answer is. 8 microseconds.
Explanation. Mode A is 8 microseconds, but Mode C is 21 microseconds.
Question Number. 131. What does the Radar contour button do?.
Option A. Alter the video amplifier.
Option B. Alter the beam shape.
Option C. Alter the transmitter power.
Correct Answer is. Alter the video amplifier.
Question Number. 132. A radar response takes 329 microseconds. How far away is the target?.
Option A. 25 miles.
Option B. 12 miles.
Option C. 40 miles.
Correct Answer is. 25 miles.
Explanation. 1 nm round trip = 12.359 microseconds 329/12.359 = 25 nm round trip approx.
Question Number. 133. The V.H.F aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is.
Option A. 50 ohms.
Option B. 20 ohms and 50 ohms respectively.
Option C. 20 ohms.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 134. An R.M.I in VOR mode, its pointer is showing a course of 000. If the course knob is adjusted to 010
what happens to the pointer?.
Option A. Moves left then hard right.
Option B. Moves right.
Option C. Moves left.
Correct Answer is. Moves right.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 135. An aircraft flying on a heading of 030 receives an A.D.F signal 030 relative to the aircraft, what is
the A.D.F pointer indicating?.
Option A. 30.
Option B. 60.
Option C. 90.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 136. A radio frequency of 16 Mega Hertz would be used for.
Option A. marker beacons.
Option B. weather radar.
Option C. H.F communications.
Correct Answer is. H.F communications.
Explanation. Jepessen A & P Technician Textbook p12-3 fig 12-2 shows H.F COMM as 2-30 Mega Hertz.
Question Number. 137. In what type of Doppler System do altitude holes appear?.
Option A. Pulse.
Option B. FM.
Option C. FM and Pulse.
Correct Answer is. FM and Pulse.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, page 178.
Question Number. 138. What is the output of a localiser NAV receiver?.
Option A. Polarity sensitive AC.
Option B. Either AC nor DC.
Option C. Polarity sensitive DC.
Correct Answer is. Polarity sensitive DC.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 139. What does an I.N.S calculate on power up?.

Option A. Last known longitude.
Option B. Last known longitude & latitude.
Option C. Last known latitude.
Correct Answer is. Last known latitude.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 140. A.D.F is.

Option A. Rho-Theta.
Option B. Rho.
Option C. Theta.
Correct Answer is. Theta.
Explanation. Rho-Theta = Distance-Angle. A.D.F is angle only.
Question Number. 141. What is jitter used for in a D.M.E transmission?.

Option A. To make an aircraft recognise a D.M.E in a quiet area.
Option B. To make an installation recognise its own transmission.
Option C. To make sure only strong signals are replied to in a dense area.
Correct Answer is. To make an installation recognise its own transmission.
Question Number. 142. What is audio clipping used for in voice communication?.
Option A. To enable consonants to be heard better.
Option B. To enable numbers to be heard better.
Option C. To enable vowels to be heard better.
Correct Answer is. To enable consonants to be heard better.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.cbcintl.com/docs/allabout.htm
Question Number. 143. What is the difference between transmit and receive pulse frequency?.
Option A. 1000.
Option B. 63.
Option C. 60.
Explanation. Probably referring to transponder transmit and reply frequencies of 1030 and 1090 Mega Hertz.
Question Number. 144. T.C.A.S 2 is.

Option A. 100 aircraft per 5 miles square.
Option B. 24 aircraft per 5 nautical mile radius.
Option C. 1 aircraft per square nautical mile.
Correct Answer is. 24 aircraft per 5 nautical mile radius.
Explanation. NIL. www.nak.no/flynytt/download/TCAS_II_V7.pdf
Question Number. 145. R.M.I in A.D.F mode, the pointer is moved by a.

Option A. servomotor.
Option B. loop voltage.
Option C. Chinaman.
Correct Answer is. loop voltage.
Explanation. NIL. www.eurocontrol.int/sma/SPG%20Positions%20documents/spg13p20-NDB.pdf
Question Number. 146. F.M.C changes movement via.

Option A. A/P actuator.
Option B. straight to the actuator.
Option C. flight control computer.
Correct Answer is. flight control computer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 147. Radio signals chance of penetration of ionosphere.

Option A. increase with the frequency.
Option B. is not affected by frequency.
Option C. decrease with frequency.
Correct Answer is. increase with the frequency.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 148. In an amplitude modulated wave, the intelligence is contained in the.
Option A. sidebands and carrier equally.
Option B. carrier only.
Option C. sidebands only.
Correct Answer is. sidebands only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 149. ILS and VOR operate in which range.

Option A. H.F.
Option B. U.H.F.
Option C. V.H.F.
Question Number. 150. Localiser signal modulation is.

Option A. 0.2.
Option B. 0.1.
Option C. 0.5.
Question Number. 151. F.M.C secondary flight-plan is selected.
Option A. by calendar date monthly.
Option B. in the air by the pilot.
Option C. on the ground by the pilot.
Correct Answer is. in the air by the pilot.
Explanation. F.M.C has a primary (active) and a secondary (alternative) stored flight plan.
Question Number. 152. A.D.F operates within which frequencies?.

Option A. 200 Kilo Hertz - 1000 Kilo Hertz.
Option B. 118 Mega Hertz - 132 Mega Hertz.
Option C. 32Kilo Hertz - 64 Kilo Hertz.
Correct Answer is. 200 Kilo Hertz - 1000 Kilo Hertz.
Question Number. 153. F.M.C mode that can be selected through the CDU is.
Option A. CRZ.
Option B. LNAV.
Option C. D.M.E Freq.
Correct Answer is. CRZ.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. EHJ Pallett Page 405.
Question Number. 154. Mode C response is.

Option A. 20.3 microseconds.
Option B. 8 microseconds.
Option C. 21 microseconds.
Correct Answer is. 20.3 microseconds.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell. Page 123 Fig 8.4.
Question Number. 155. Which would you use to test an aircraft transponder altitude reporting system?.
Option A. Transfer the code displayed by the A.T.C-600 into binary.
Option B. Check the altitude code with the correct alt/code table.
Option C. Read the altitude directly from A.T.C-600 panel.
Correct Answer is. Read the altitude directly from A.T.C-600 panel.
Question Number. 156. The components of an ILS are.

Option A. a localizer and the marker beacons.
Option B. a localizer and a glide slope.
Option C. a localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons.
Correct Answer is. a localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons.
Question Number. 157. A DG.P.S system installed on an aircraft requires.

Option A. 1 ground station and 6 satellites.
Option B. 2 ground stations and 4 satellites.
Option C. 1 ground station and 4 satellites.
Correct Answer is. 1 ground station and 4 satellites.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.trimble.com/gps/how1.html
Question Number. 158. In ILS, the glideslope provides.

Option A. lateral steering.
Option B. vertical steering.
Option C. distance checks.
Correct Answer is. vertical steering.
Question Number. 159. If the 90 Hertz tone modulation in a localizer receiver predominates, the deviation indicator will
show.
Option A. fly right.
Option B. fly left.
Option C. the flag.
Correct Answer is. fly right.
Question Number. 160. On a W radar display, the time base is a.

Option A. trapezoidal wave form.
Option B. rectangular wave form.
Option C. saw tooth wave form.
Correct Answer is. saw tooth wave form.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 161. Flight director on VOR, course error wash out signal is lost when following the FD commands.
Aircraft will.
Option A. follow the course with scalloping or bracketing.
Option B. stay on centre of course.
Option C. stay parallel to course.
Correct Answer is. stay parallel to course.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 162. Flight director on GLIDE SLOPE capture, the pitch integration is.
Option A. to maintain Glide Slope signal.
Option B. to increase Glide Slope signal.
Option C. to decrease Glide Slope signal.
Correct Answer is. to increase Glide Slope signal.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 163. If the inductance in a parallel tuned circuit is increased in value, the resonant frequency.
Option C. remains the same.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 164. When an AM carrier is modulated, its bandwidth.

Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 165. An inertial navigation unit uses pin programming for.
Option A. magnetic orientation.
Option B. aircraft type.
Option C. location.
Correct Answer is. location.
Explanation. Pin programming for IRU`s and INU`s are carried out on the aircraft rack mounted side. The purpose being to tell
the installed unit which position it is serving within the aircraft i.e left, ctr or right side! The unit is universal for all.
Question Number. 166. In audio clipping.

Option A. there is no change in relative strength of vowels.
Option B. vowels are strengthened relative to the remaining signal.
Option C. vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal.
Correct Answer is. vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal.
Question Number. 167. How can it be verified if F.M.C update is correct?.

Option A. BITE.
Option B. Dataplate on the F.M.C.
Option C. F.M.C via CDU.
Correct Answer is. F.M.C via CDU.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 168. Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals uses.
Option A. no attenuation but amplification.
Option B. attenuation first then amplification.
Option C. amplification first then attenuation.
Correct Answer is. attenuation first then amplification.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems. Powell, page 38/39.
Question Number. 169. D.M.E how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid?.
Option A. Decoder.
Option B. Blocking oscillator.
Option C. Integrator.
Correct Answer is. Decoder.
Explanation. Avionic Systems: Operation and Maintenance page 138 139.
Question Number. 170. Co-axial transmission line of impedance 80 ohms is connected to a dipole of 120 ohms. While
checking with an ohmmeter, the reading will be.
Option A. 80 ohms.
Option B. 200 ohms.
Option C. more than 20 megohms.
Correct Answer is. more than 20 megohms.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 171. G.P.W.S will show a fault if the following fails:.
Option A. Air speed indicator.
Option B. Radio altimeter.
Option C. Pressure altimeter.
Correct Answer is. Radio altimeter.
Explanation. Of the three, G.P.W.S has only connection to the RA. It does use barometric vertical speed however.
Question Number. 172. In a large transport aircraft, to check V.S.W.R of a H.F system with a long aerial feeder, the
V.S.W.R meter has to be connected.
Option A. between the transmitter and the A.T.U (transmitter end).
Option B. between the transmitter and the A.T.U (ATU end).
Option C. between the aerial and A.T.U.
Correct Answer is. between the transmitter and the A.T.U (transmitter end).
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 173. With no.1 H.F system transmitting the interlock circuit.
Option A. allows no.2 H.F to transmit and receive.
Option B. allows no.2 H.F to receive only.
Option C. does not allow no.2 to transmit or receive.
Correct Answer is. does not allow no.2 to transmit or receive.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, Pg31.
Question Number. 174. Aircraft is north of VOR beacon, course is set to 90°. The R.M.I indicates.
Option A. 90°.
Option B. 180°.
Option C. 0°.
Explanation. Avionics Fundamentals by Jepperson Pg 188 Fig 10-36.
Question Number. 175. An aircraft receives a response from a D.M.E station, 1236 microseconds after transmitting the
interrogation. What is the slant range to the station?.
Option A. 96 nautical miles.
Option B. 104 nautical miles.
Option C. 100 nautical miles.
Correct Answer is. 96 nautical miles.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 106 R=(T-50)/12.359.
Question Number. 176. If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off-track is the aircraft?.
Option A. 10°.
Option B. 5°.
Option C. 2.5°.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 177. What frequency range does ACARS operate in?.
Option A. 2-30 Mega Hertz.
Option B. 118-136 Mega Hertz.
Option C. 4-5 GHertz.
Correct Answer is. 118-136 Mega Hertz.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 178. I.N.S has mercury switches on.

Option A. all gimbals.
Option B. inner gimbal.
Option C. outer gimbal.
Correct Answer is. all gimbals.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 116.
Question Number. 179. An FM signal would have its sideband signals.

Option A. below the carrier signal.
Option B. above the carrier signal.
Option C. No sidebands present.
Correct Answer is. No sidebands present.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 180. A Doppler VOR station's transmissions.

Option A. can be received but not processed with a conventional VOR receiver.
Option B. can not be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver.
Option C. can be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver.
Correct Answer is. can be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 181. A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the vertical gyro to simulate a right
bank, the antenna.
Option A. will move down.
Option B. will not move.
Option C. will move up.
Correct Answer is. will move down.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 182. Standing waves in a co-axial feeder cable are proportional to.
Option A. transmitter power output.
Option B. length of the cable.
Option C. degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna.
Correct Answer is. degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 183. Radar beam-width improves.

Option A. bearing resolution.
Option B. range resolution.
Option C. range accuracy.
Correct Answer is. bearing resolution.
Explanation. Aircraft radio systems by Powell Page-143.
Question Number. 184. If the runway picture in the EADI moves down during an ILS approach, the aircraft must fly.
Option A. nowhere - this is normal on an ILS approach.

Option B. up.
Option C. down.
Correct Answer is. down.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 185. What modulation is used for the beams of a localiser in an ILS?.
Option A. 150 Hertz right of runway centerline, 90 Hertz left of runway centreline.
Option B. 90 Hertz below the glide path, 150 Hertz above the glide path.
Option C. 150 Hertz left of runway centerline, 90 Hertz right of runway centreline.
Correct Answer is. 150 Hertz right of runway centerline, 90 Hertz left of runway centreline.
Question Number. 186. In what frequency range does the automatic direction finding (ADF) system operate?.
Option A. 1025 - 1150 Kilo Hertz.
Option B. 190 - 1759 Kilo Hertz.
Option C. 108.00 - 117.95 Mega Hertz.
Correct Answer is. 190 - 1759 Kilo Hertz.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-13.
Question Number. 187. How does an aircraft distinguish its own Distance Measuring Equipment reply from those for other
aircraft?.
Option A. By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal.
Option B. By using an alternate frequency.
Option C. By modulation of an audio tone.
Correct Answer is. By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal.
Question Number. 188. From where is bearing information received for display on the digital-distance radio-magnetic
indicator (D.D.R.M.I)?.
Option A. From VOR only.
Option B. From A.D.F only.
Option C. From VOR and A.D.F systems.
Correct Answer is. From VOR and A.D.F systems.
Question Number. 189. Which frequency is used to achieve line of sight radio communication?.
Option A. V.H.F.
Option B. H.F.
Option C. V.H.F and U.H.F.
Correct Answer is. V.H.F and U.H.F.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.tpub.com/content/aviation/14014/css/14014_166.htm
Question Number. 190. Directional property is exhibited by.

Option A. the sense antenna.
Option B. the loop antenna.
Option C. both the sense and loop antenna.
Correct Answer is. the loop antenna.
Question Number. 191. Why is an aerial tuning unit used in a high frequency (H.F) communication system?.
Option A. To select the transmission/reception frequency in the H.F band.
Option B. To extend or retract the aerial and so vary its physical length.
Option C. To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum matching of impedance.
Correct Answer is. To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum matching of impedance.
Explanation. NIL. http://dspace.dial.pipex.com/town/pipexdsl/r/arar93/mds975/Content/aerials2.html
Question Number. 192. In an A.D.F system, the goniometer.

Option A. effectively simulates a rotating loop antenna.
Option B. alternately selects signals from loop antenna and sense antenna.
Option C. combines the signals from fixed loop antenna and sense antenna.
Correct Answer is. effectively simulates a rotating loop antenna.
Question Number. 193. What would be the purpose of an input from an inertial reference system being connected to a
weather radar?.
Option A. To ensure that there is no radar transmission with aircraft on ground.
Option B. To place the weather radar target in azimuth and distance for the display.
Option C. To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna.
Correct Answer is. To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.artietheairplane.com/radar.htm
Question Number. 194. In an aircraft VOR receiver.

Option A. 30 Hertz modulated reference signal is compared with 30 Hertz variable phase signal.
Option B. 108 Mega Hertz reference signal is compared with 9960 Hertz variable phase signal.
Option C. 30 Hertz reference signal is compared with 9960 Hertz variable phase signal.
Correct Answer is. 30 Hertz modulated reference signal is compared with 30 Hertz variable phase signal.
Question Number. 195. Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground Proximity Warning System
(G.P.W.S).
Option A. Autothrottle.
Option B. Flaps/undercarriage.
Option C. Rudder/ailerons.
Correct Answer is. Flaps/undercarriage.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 196. In CVOR, 9960 c/s AM subcarrier is used in the.

Option A. REF phase.
Option B. VAR phase.
Option C. station identification Morse code.
Correct Answer is. REF phase.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 59/62.
Question Number. 197. The DVOR is preferred in comparison to CVOR because.

Option A. DVOR ground installation is relatively simpler.
Option B. DVOR is compatible for digital processing.
Option C. DVOR is relatively insensitive to SITE errors.
Correct Answer is. DVOR is relatively insensitive to SITE errors.
Question Number. 198. A secondary surveillance radar (SSR) interrogation operates on.
Option A. a frequency of 1030 Mega Hertz and pulse spacing depending on mode of interrogation.
Option B. a frequency of 1030 Mega Hertz and pulse spacing of 20.3 microseconds.
Option C. a frequency of 1090 Mega Hertz and pulse spacing 20.3 microseconds.
Correct Answer is. a frequency of 1030 Mega Hertz and pulse spacing depending on mode of interrogation.
Question Number. 199. The F.M.S navigation database is updated.

Option A. after a B or C check has been completed.
Option B. every 28 days.
Option C. daily.
Correct Answer is. every 28 days.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 200. If the 90 Hertz tone predominates in a localizer receiver, the deviation indicator will show.
Option A. fly right.
Option B. the flag.
Option C. fly left.
Correct Answer is. fly right.
Question Number. 201. Localizer modulation depth is.

Option A. 0.5.
Option B. 0.02.
Option C. 0.2.
Question Number. 202. The aerial element of a V.H.F comms transmitter/receiver should have a midband length of.
Option A. π.
Option B. π/2.
Option C. π/4.
Correct Answer is. π/4.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 203. The short circuit stub that is used for broadbanding a V.H.F whip must have a length of about.
Option A. 70cm.
Option B. 59cm.
Option C. 29cm.
Correct Answer is. 59cm.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 204. An isotropic radiator.

Option A. has a cardioid shaped polar diagram.
Option B. has a perfectly spherical radiation pattern.
Option C. is an end fed π/2 unipole.
Correct Answer is. has a perfectly spherical radiation pattern.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 205. The V.S.W.R of a V.H.F system with a forward power of 100W and a reflected power of 4W will be.
Option A. 2:1.
Option B. 2.5:1.
Option C. 1.5:1.
Correct Answer is. 1.5:1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 206. When an A.D.F antenna is repositioned from the bottom of the fuselage to the top, the wiring of
the bearing indicator must be.
Option A. reverse R1+S2 connections.
Option B. reverse R1+R2 and S1+S2 connections.
Option C. reverse R1+R2 connections only.
Correct Answer is. reverse R1+R2 connections only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 207. In an I.R.S system you would expect to find.

Option A. an azimuth gyro system.
Option B. three strap down accelerometers.
Option C. ring laser gyros.
Correct Answer is. ring laser gyros.
Explanation. Assuming they mean a strapdown system. (Note: in b, it is the system which is strapdown, not the
accelerometers, in c, azimuth gyro is not the only type of gyro involved).
Question Number. 208. The mode S squitter pulse will.

Option A. contain the aircraft range and altitude information.
Option B. contain the aircraft identity.
Option C. trigger the T.C.A.S mode S all call interrogation.
Correct Answer is. contain the aircraft identity.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 209. In an I.N.S system the accelerometer is a mass.

Option A. a mass suspended in free air.
Option B. suspended between two springs in a tube.
Option C. a remotely mounted mass on the airframe.
Correct Answer is. suspended between two springs in a tube.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 256. (Note: the mass is suspended in fluid, and is not
remote).
Question Number. 210. When using the G.P.S.

Option A. the database card must be replaced every 28 days.
Option B. once the database card has expired the system will continue to operate with a warning message.
Option C. once the database expires the system will not operate.
Correct Answer is. once the database card has expired the system will continue to operate with a warning message.
Question Number. 211. In a modern aircraft the ACARS system is used primarily for.
Option A. communications between the aircraft and base.
Option B. as part of the passenger telephone system.
Option C. reporting defects on the aircraft automatically.
Correct Answer is. communications between the aircraft and base.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 212. When the ILS marker hi/lo switch is set to lo.
Option A. increased by 10 to 12db.
Option B. receiver sensitivity is reduced by 10 to 12db.
Option C. marker lamps are illuminated by a lower signal level.
Correct Answer is. receiver sensitivity is reduced by 10 to 12db.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 213. In a CVR system, hot mics.

Option A. is a term applied to all the aircraft's mics.
Option B. are as selected by the boom/mic switches.
Option C. get their power supply from the selected T* via the r/t switch.
Correct Answer is. is a term applied to all the aircraft's mics.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 214. A D.M.E receives a ground transponder reply after 2472 microseconds, the slant range to the
transponder is approximately.
Option A. 200 statute miles.
Option B. 196 nm.
Option C. 200 nm.
Explanation. 2422/12.36 (remember to subtract teh 50 microseconds hol time).
Question Number. 215. The most common type of gyro used in an I.N.S is.
Option A. a single rate gyro with a spring restrained gimbal and eddy current damping.
Option B. a displacement gyro to sense displacement and a rate gyro to sense rate of displacement.
Option C. a single rate integrating gyro with viscosity damping.
Correct Answer is. a single rate integrating gyro with viscosity damping.
Question Number. 216. A laser dither mechanism ensures that.

Option A. optical backscatter does not cause the contra rotating beams to lock together.
Option B. the contra rotating beams are synchronised together.
Option C. that the two contra rotating beams are each at different frequencies.
Correct Answer is. optical backscatter does not cause the contra rotating beams to lock together.
Question Number. 217. DFDR [digital flight data recorder] ARINC 573 data bus has how many sub-frames?.
Option A. 8.
Option B. 4.
Option C. 6.
Explanation. NIL. www.condoreng.com/support/ downloads/tutorials/ARINCTutorial.PDF
Question Number. 218. The middle marker is keyed with.

Option A. alternate dots and dashes.
Option B. dashes.
Option C. dots.
Correct Answer is. alternate dots and dashes.
Question Number. 219. What is the millivolt deflection per dot on ILS/VOR?.
Option A. 75/75.
Option B. 25/75.
Option C. 25/5.
Correct Answer is. 75/75.
Explanation. Avionics fundamentals Page 200. Same instrument indicates VOR and ILS so requires the same mV per dot.
Question Number. 220. An accelerometer in an I.N.S must be able to detect accelerations down to.
Option A. 10 to -6 g.
Option B. 10 to -3 g.
Option C. 10 to -2 g.
Correct Answer is. 10 to -6 g.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 221. An accelerometer has.

Option A. high inertia, restrained.
Option B. low inertia, free suspension.
Option C. high inertia, free suspension.
Correct Answer is. high inertia, restrained.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 222. Bandwidth of H.F transmission is.

Option A. 1Kilo Hertz.
Option B. 1.5Kilo Hertz.
Option C. 3Kilo Hertz.
Correct Answer is. 3Kilo Hertz.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 223. G.P.S.

Option A. uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits.
Option B. uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits.
Option C. uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits.
Correct Answer is. uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 224. What manoeuvre does T.C.A.S 2 advise the pilot to make?.
Option A. Resolution Advisory.
Option B. Traffic Alert.
Option C. either Resolution Advisory or Traffic Alert.
Correct Answer is. Resolution Advisory.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 225. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a T.C.A.S display ?.
Option A. White diamonds, red squares and amber circles.
Option B. White circles, red diamonds and amber squares.
Option C. White squares, red diamonds and amber circles.
Correct Answer is. White diamonds, red squares and amber circles.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 226. V.H.F frequency is.

Option A. 108 - 118 Mega Hertz.
Option B. 108 - 136 Mega Hertz.
Option C. 108 - 112 Mega Hertz.
Correct Answer is. 108 - 136 Mega Hertz.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 295.
Question Number. 227. The call system for the captain will have the audio signal of a.
Option A. hi tone chime.
Option B. horn.
Option C. two tone chime.
Correct Answer is. hi tone chime.
Explanation. B737.
Question Number. 228. Channel 3 on a CVR records.

Option A. first officer.
Option B. captain.
Option C. flightdeck.
Correct Answer is. flightdeck.
Explanation. JAR 25.1457.
Question Number. 229. D.M.E works on the frequency of.

Option A. V.H.F.
Option B. U.H.F.
Option C. H.F.
Correct Answer is. U.H.F.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 310 and 278.
Question Number. 230. T.C.A.S will issue a traffic advisory if.

Option A. a collision is within 35-40 seconds of occurring.
Option B. aircraft are within 6 nautical miles laterally and 1200 feet vertically of each other.
Option C. a collision is within 25-35 seconds of occurring.
Correct Answer is. aircraft are within 6 nautical miles laterally and 1200 feet vertically of each other.
Explanation. Boeing 757MM 34-45-00.
Question Number. 231. A radial is referenced.

Option A. from a beacon.
Option B. to a VOR.
Option C. on a compass.
Correct Answer is. from a beacon.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 232. A.D.F works by using.

Option A. sense aerial.
Option B. both loop and sense aerial.
Option C. loop aerial.
Correct Answer is. both loop and sense aerial.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 233. The auto gain voltage of a weather radar is set.
Option A. by adjusting the gain control until optimum picture quality is obtained.
Option B. in the workshop.
Option C. by the manufacturer.
Correct Answer is. by the manufacturer.
Question Number. 234. A G.N.S satellite system transmissions are.

Option A. horizontally polarised.
Option B. vertically polarised.
Option C. right hand circular.
Correct Answer is. right hand circular.
Explanation. NIL. www.aticourses.com/global_positioning_system.htm
Question Number. 235. A.D.F quadrantal error will be at.

Option A. 45°.
Option B. 90°.
Option C. 0°.
Explanation. Avionic Systems Jeppesen page 67.
Question Number. 236. A receiver having an IF of 465 Kilo Hertz. is tuned to 1300 Kilo Hertz., which of the following
signals could interact with the L O second harmonics to produce a receiver output if no RF amplifier was used?.
Option C. 2230 Kilo Hertz.
Explanation. To work out possible 2nd channels use (2xlo)+(IF of Receiver given) in this case (2*1765)+465=3995 or (2 *
835)+465=2135 Aircraft Radio Systems Powell pages 1 - 17.
Question Number. 237. On the ASP how many Rx and Tx can be selected at any one time?.
Option A. Multiple Rx and multiple Tx.
Option B. Multiple Rx and only one Tx.
Option C. Only one Rx and only one Tx.
Correct Answer is. Multiple Rx and only one Tx.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell page 128-129 page 39 fig 2.17.
Question Number. 238. The frequency range 300Kilo Hertz - 3Mega Hertz is called the.
Option B. MF band.
Option C. LF band.
Correct Answer is. MF band.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell table 1.2 page 4.
Question Number. 239. D.M.E squitter comes from.

Option A. test set.
Option B. D.M.E station.
Option C. interrogator.
Correct Answer is. D.M.E station.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell page 107 2nd para 3rd.
Question Number. 240. The plane of polarisation is defined as the plane in which the.
Option A. H field lies.
Option B. E and H fields are parallel.
Option C. E field lies.
Correct Answer is. E field lies.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 241. The stability of an RF oscillator can be improved by.

Option A. direct coupling to an RF amplifier.
Option B. tight coupling to an RF amplifier.
Option C. a buffer amplifier.
Correct Answer is. a buffer amplifier.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 242. How is the next database on the F.M.C activated?.
Option A. Automatically by due date.
Option B. Manually, on the ground.
Option C. Manually in the air.
Correct Answer is. Manually in the air.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 243. When terminating an aluminium cable, what preparations would be carried out before crimping?.
Option A. Just terminate.

Option B. Degrease stripped cable.
Option C. Apply a mixture of 50% petroleum jelly and zinc oxide.
Correct Answer is. Apply a mixture of 50% petroleum jelly and zinc oxide.
Question Number. 244. The distance over which V.H.F communication may be achieved is limited.
Option A. by local weather conditions in the troposphere.
Option B. to conditions in the ionosphere.
Option C. to radio line of sight.
Correct Answer is. to radio line of sight.
Question Number. 245. At its resonant frequency, a parallel tuned circuit has.
Option A. minimum impedance.
Option B. maximum impedance.
Option C. the same impedance as at any other frequency.
Correct Answer is. maximum impedance.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Page 288.
Question Number. 246. Crystals operate reliably at fundamental frequencies up to.

Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 247. The RF resistance of an inductor.

Option A. decreases as frequency is increased.
Option B. is independent of frequency.
Option C. increases as frequency is increased.
Correct Answer is. increases as frequency is increased.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 248. At its resonant frequency, a parallel tuned circuit.

Option A. offers minimum impedance.
Option B. has minimum voltage developed across it.
Option C. has maximum circulating currents.
Correct Answer is. has maximum circulating currents.
Question Number. 249. In a dual F.M.S, a failure of one computer will result in.
Option A. no effect on the Control and Display Unit(C.D.U).
Option B. down-grade of the landing category.
Option C. COMPLETELY blank display on one Control and Display Unit(C.D.U).
Correct Answer is. no effect on the Control and Display Unit(C.D.U).
Explanation. The word COMPLETEY makes a) incorrect. The word CDU is displayed on the CDU and it can be selected to
adifferent source.
Question Number. 250. Tx output stages are normally run in class C.

Option A. so that the output is rich in harmonics.
Option B. because the efficiency is high.
Option C. as higher gains can be obtained.
Correct Answer is. because the efficiency is high.
Question Number. 251. Which of the following has the best frequency stability?.
Option A. Hartley.
Option B. Colpitts.
Option C. Tuned collector tuned base.
Correct Answer is. Colpitts.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 252. A quartz crystal has the characteristics of a.

Option A. high 'Q' resonant circuit.
Option B. resistive bridge network.
Option C. pair of tuned circuits.
Correct Answer is. high 'Q' resonant circuit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 253. Time base of PPI display is.

Option A. a ramp.
Option B. a square wave.
Option C. a trapezoid.
Correct Answer is. a trapezoid.
Question Number. 255. Second channel interference could occur if the I/P frequency was at twice the.
Option A. I F away from the selected frequency.
Option B. L O frequency away from the selected frequency.
Option C. I F away from the L O frequency.
Correct Answer is. I F away from the L O frequency.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Page 17.
Question Number. 257. Single Side Band filters are.

Option B. 1Kilo Hertz.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Pages 32, 34.
Question Number. 258. Delayed Automatic Gain Control is inoperative, the sensitivity of the receiver.
Option A. decrease for low signal.
Option B. increase for low signal.
Option C. increase for high signal.
Correct Answer is. increase for low signal.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.tpub.com/content/neets/14189/css/14189_56.htm
Question Number. 259. Man made noise causes interference.
Option A. only in the LF band.
Option B. mainly above 12 Mega Hertz.
Option C. mainly below 12 Mega Hertz.
Correct Answer is. mainly below 12 Mega Hertz.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 260. A receiver having an IF of 465Hertz. is tuned to 1300 Kilo Hertz, which of the following signals
could interact with the L O second harmonics to produce a receiver output if no RF amplifier was used.
Option C. 3995 Kilo Hertz.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 261. With a Vertical Gyro simulated to aircraft right bank, the scanner in left hand position will.
Option A. tilt up.
Option B. tilt down.
Option C. tilt right.
Correct Answer is. tilt down.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 262. A transponder that is compatible for use with a T.C.A.S system would be.
Option A. Mode A.
Option B. Mode S.
Option C. Mode C.
Correct Answer is. Mode S.
Explanation. Introduction to T.C.A.S version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 17 (Target Surveillance).
Question Number. 263. G.P.S.
Option A. uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits.
Option B. uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits.
Option C. uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits.
Correct Answer is. uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 264. A single side band transmission is equal to.

Option A. One half of the high level modulation.
Option B. High level modulation.
Option C. Low level modulation.
Correct Answer is. Low level modulation.
Question Number. 265. Three RF amplifiers of 10dB and 10Kilo Hertz are in cascade, what is the output?.
Option A. 30dB and 10Kilo Hertz.
Option B. 30dB and 1000Kilo Hertz.
Option C. 10dB and 1000Kilo Hertz.
Correct Answer is. 30dB and 10Kilo Hertz.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 266. Random precession of the inner gimbal ring is detected by placing mercury switches.
Option A. on outer gimbal ring.
Option B. on both gimbal rings.
Option C. on inner gimbal ring.
Correct Answer is. on inner gimbal ring.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 267. Voice clipping.

Option A. decreases the depth of modulation of high amplitude voice signals.
Option B. maintains an average depth of modulation.
Option C. increases the depth of modulation.
Correct Answer is. decreases the depth of modulation of high amplitude voice signals.
Explanation. Manual of Avionics page 51\52.
Question Number. 268. The I.R.S laser gyro is a.

Option A. displacement gyro.
Option B. rate gyro.
Option C. displaced gyro.
Correct Answer is. rate gyro.
Explanation. Rate integrated gyro. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Ed. Eismin Page 373.
Question Number. 269. A padder capacitor has most efficiency at.

Option A. the lowest frequency of the LO.
Option B. the middle frequency of the LO.
Option C. the highest frequency of the LO.
Correct Answer is. the lowest frequency of the LO.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.midnightscience.com/_web/000000f3.htm
Question Number. 270. What manoeuvre does T.C.A.S 2 advise the pilot to make?.
Option A. Resolution Advisory.
Option B. Traffic Alert.
Option C. either Resolution Advisory or Traffic Alert.
Correct Answer is. Resolution Advisory.
Explanation. Introduction to T.C.A.S version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection).
Question Number. 271. The A.T.C aerial has a polar diagram which is.
Option A. directional.
Option B. omni-directional.
Option C. limacon shaped.
Correct Answer is. directional.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 272. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a T.C.A.S display ?.
Option A. White diamonds, red squares and amber circles.
Option B. White squares, red diamonds and amber circles.
Option C. White circles, red diamonds and amber squares.
Correct Answer is. White diamonds, red squares and amber circles.
Explanation. Introduction to T.C.A.S version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection).
Question Number. 273. The speech clipping modulating circuit.

Option A. clips high amplitude signals.
Option B. cuts out high tone sounds.
Option C. increases the average depth of modulation.
Correct Answer is. cuts out high tone sounds.
Explanation. Manual of Avionics page 53.
Question Number. 274. The laser ring gyro.

Option A. does not have gimbal and rotating parts.
Option B. does not have gimbal.
Option C. has a stabilized platform.
Correct Answer is. does not have gimbal and rotating parts.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Ed. Eismin Page 373.
Question Number. 275. Radio waves are said to have line-of-sight propagation.
Option A. from about 10 Mega Hertz upwards.
Option B. above about 100Mega Hertz.
Option C. not below 1000Mega Hertz.
Correct Answer is. above about 100Mega Hertz.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 276. V.H.F transmitter output impedance to match with antenna for maximum power transfer is.
Option A. 129 ohms.
Option B. 25 to 75 ohms.
Option C. 50 ohms.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Pages 28 and 30.
Question Number. 277. A valid interrogation will.

Option A. disable the R, disable the encoder and enable the D.M.E.
Option B. enable the R, disable the encoder and disable the D.M.E.
Option C. disable the R, enable the encoder and disable the D.M.E.
Correct Answer is. disable the R, enable the encoder and disable the D.M.E.
Question Number. 278. To check side lobe suppression.

Option A. select A.T.C on ASP.
Option B. carry out a self test.
Option C. use a ramp test set.
Correct Answer is. use a ramp test set.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 279. On an F.M.CS CDU, you can select.

Option A. VOR.
Option B. N1 Thrust.
Option C. VNAV.
Correct Answer is. VNAV.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 280. What is an Ideal V.S.W.R on a Radio Transmission line?.

Option A. 2:1.
Option B. 1:1.
Option C. 1.5:1.
Correct Answer is. 1:1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 281. What is Track angle?.

Option A. The angle, measured clockwise, between true north and the aircraft ground track.
Option B. The angle, measured clockwise, between true north and the aircraft longitudinal axis.
Option C. The angle between true heading (HGD) and ground track.
Correct Answer is. The angle, measured clockwise, between true north and the aircraft ground track.
Question Number. 282. RNAV accuracy is.

Option A. +/-1nm 85%.
Option B. +/-5nm.
Option C. +/-5nm 95%.
Correct Answer is. +/-5nm 95%.
Explanation. NIL. http://users.forthnet.gr/ath/mpang/whatis.htm
Question Number. 283. In colour Weather Radar AGC is set.

Option A. in workshop.
Option B. automatically on receiver noise level.
Option C. by operator on manually adjusted gain control.
Correct Answer is. automatically on receiver noise level.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 284. With an A.T.C code of 0600 selected, the pulses transmitted are.
Option A. B0 and B6.
Option B. B2 and B4.
Option C. B1 and B5.
Correct Answer is. B2 and B4.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, page 123 Table 8.1.
Question Number. 285. What is needed for RHO-RHO navigation?.
Option A. 1 VOR and 1 D.M.E signals.
Option B. 1 VOR/D.M.E signal.
Option C. 2 D.M.E signals.
Correct Answer is. 2 D.M.E signals.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 286. The relationship between LORAN master and slave transmitters. Master frequency is.
Option A. same as slave.
Option B. higher than slave.
Option C. lower than slave.
Correct Answer is. same as slave.
Question Number. 287. The loop aerial polar diagram is a.

Option A. cardioid.
Option B. figure 8.
Option C. circle.
Correct Answer is. figure 8.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, pages 46 & 47.
Question Number. 288. Single Side Band filters are.

Option B. 1Kilo Hertz.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 289. Delayed Automatic Gain Control is inoperative, the sensitivity of the receiver will.
Option A. increase for low signal.
Option B. decrease for low signal.
Option C. increase for high signal.
Correct Answer is. increase for low signal.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.tpub.com/content/neets/14189/css/14189_56.htm
Question Number. 290. A radar pulse takes 308 microseconds to return, what is the target distance?.
Option A. 25 Nautical miles.
Option B. 12.5 Nautical miles.
Option C. 30 Nautical miles.
Correct Answer is. 25 Nautical miles.
Explanation. 1 nm round trip = 12.36 microseconds 308/12.36 = 25 nm round trip approx.
Question Number. 291. A receiver in which selected signals of any frequency are converted to a single frequency is called
a.
Option A. wideband TRF.
Option B. multi-channel receiver.
Option C. superhet receiver.
Correct Answer is. superhet receiver.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 292. The noise factor of a receiver whose I/P signal to noise ratio is 15:1 and O/P signal to noise ratio is
12:1 is.
Option A. 1.25.
Option B. 2.5.
Option C. 0.8.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 293. A receiver with a high IF will successfully reject.

Option A. the 2nd channel / adjacent frequency.
Option B. the 2nd channel / image frequency.
Option C. the adjacent / image frequency.
Correct Answer is. the 2nd channel / image frequency.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 294. The frequency spectrum of noise is.

Option A. infinitely wide.
Option B. restricted to the audio band.
Option C. restricted to the H.F band.
Correct Answer is. infinitely wide.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 295. Man made noise causes interference.

Option A. only in the LF band.
Option B. mainly below 12Mega Hertz.
Option C. mainly above 12Mega Hertz.
Correct Answer is. mainly below 12Mega Hertz.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 296. Rad Alt failure effects which system?.

Option A. G.P.W.S.
Option B. Mode S transponder.
Option C. nav management systems.
Correct Answer is. G.P.W.S.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 297. A Mode S equipped aircraft has its Resolution Advisory area breached by a Mode A only equipped
aircraft. What warning does the Mode S aircraft get?.
Option A. Resolution Advisory visual and climb or descend aural warning.
Option B. A Traffic Alert visual warning only.
Option C. Traffic Alert visual and Traffic Traffic aural warning.
Correct Answer is. Traffic Alert visual and Traffic Traffic aural warning.
Explanation. BAE 146 \RJ T.C.A.S Flight crew and Engineer training notes.
Question Number. 298. A Loran C transmission consists of.

Option A. 6 pulses with a total pulse train length of 8.27ms.
Option B. 6 pulses each 270 microseconds long.
Option C. 8 pulses each 270 microseconds long.
Correct Answer is. 8 pulses each 270 microseconds long.
Explanation. Principles of Avionics Helfrick page 68.
Question Number. 299. ARINC 629 operates at which speed?.

Option A. 1000 Kb/s.
Option B. 2000 Kb/s.
Option C. 1300 Kb/s.
Correct Answer is. 2000 Kb/s.
Explanation. Principles of Avionics Helfrick page 285 2000Kb/s =2Mb/s.
Question Number. 300. Transmission line losses have what effect on V.S.W.R?.
Option A. Decrease.
Option B. Increase.
Option C. Do not affect.
Correct Answer is. Do not affect.
Explanation. V.S.W.R is as a result of incorrect termination of the load. If the loss in the line changes it affects both forward
and reflected waves equally. V.S.W.R is therefore not affected by line losses.
Question Number. 301. G.P.S L1 and L2 signals are.

Option A. 1 Kilo Hertz send rate.
Option B. Bi-phase 50 bit/sec.
Option C. 10.2 KILO HERTZ send rate.
Correct Answer is. Bi-phase 50 bit/sec.
Explanation. Principles of Avionics, Helfrick 3rd Edition Page 136-137.
Question Number. 302. Voice/Range switch selected to range.
Option A. allows NAV/A.D.F and D.M.E through cancelling out voice spectrum.
Option B. allows NAV/A.D.F and cancels out voice spectrum.
Option C. allows noise spectrum through.
Correct Answer is. allows NAV/A.D.F and cancels out voice spectrum.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 303. In A.D.F, quadrature error are eliminated by placing attenuators.
Option A. Across goniometer.
Option B. Across sense aerial.
Option C. Across loop aerial.
Correct Answer is. Across loop aerial.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 304. With AGC inoperative, sensitivity will be effected to signals with.
Option A. both high and low signal strength.
Option B. low signal strength.
Option C. high signal strength.
Correct Answer is. low signal strength.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 305. Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals uses.
Option A. attenuation first then amplification.
Option B. amplification first then attenuation.
Option C. no attenuation but amplification.
Correct Answer is. attenuation first then amplification.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 306. In audio clipping.

Option A. there is no change in relative strength of vowels.
Option B. vowels are strengthened relative to the remaining signal.
Option C. vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal.
Correct Answer is. vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal.
Question Number. 307. For a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimbal would be moved to correct the pitch
movement?.
Option A. Lateral.
Option B. Longitudinal.
Option C. Normal.
Correct Answer is. Longitudinal.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 308. Decca navigation uses.

Option A. H.F.
Option B. V.H.F.
Option C. LF.
Correct Answer is. LF.
Explanation. NIL. http://webhome.idirect.com/~jproc/hyperbolic/decca.html
Question Number. 309. A Mode S transponder makes a Mode A/C only call, what is the length of the P2 pulse?.
Option A. 2 μs.
Option B. 1.6 μs.
Option C. 0.8 μs.
Correct Answer is. 0.8 μs.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 310. There are two F.M.S installed on the aircraft. If one F.M.S faILS during flight.
Option A. the whole F.M.S system is unserviceable until the pilot switches over to standby.
Option B. the failed F.M.S has a blank screen.
Option C. it has no effect, because the second F.M.S was in the stand-by mode, now it is active.
Correct Answer is. the failed F.M.S has a blank screen.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page 406.
Question Number. 311. A.T.C.R.B.S reply pulses are.

Option A. 0.8 μs wide.
Option B. 1.45 μs wide.
Option C. 0.45 μs wide.
Correct Answer is. 0.45 μs wide.
Explanation. Principles of Avionics, Helfrick 3rd Edition Page 177.
Question Number. 312. What is the time between the F2 framing pulse and the SPI?.
Option A. 1.45 μs.
Option B. 2 μs.
Option C. 4.35 μs.
Explanation. Principles of Avionics, Helfrick 3rd Edition Page 178.
Question Number. 313. Range resolution in a radar system is improved by a.

Option A. narrower beam.
Option B. shorter pulses.
Option C. longer pulses.
Correct Answer is. shorter pulses.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Pages 141.
Question Number. 314. Which of the following has priority over T.C.A.S warnings?.
Option A. Stall warning.
Option B. Gear position warning.
Option C. Resolution Advisories.
Correct Answer is. Stall warning.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 315. What is the time between the framing pulses F1 and F2 in an A.T.C.R.B.S reply?.
Option A. 20.3 μs.
Option B. 21.7 μs.
Option C. 21 μs.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Pages 122.
Question Number. 316. The ILS marker beacon operates at a frequency of.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin page 311.
Question Number. 317. Slewing of the I.N.S gimballed platform simulates in-flight attitude changes up to.
Option A. 71° in pitch and 180° in azimuth.
Option B. 110° in pitch and 360° in azimuth.
Option C. 360° in roll and 85° in pitch.
Correct Answer is. 71° in pitch and 180° in azimuth.
Explanation. Aircraft Instrument & Integrated System - Pallett Chap - 10 Pg 280.
Question Number. 318. The manual input for the VOR course corrector is related to.
Option A. the ILS system.
Option B. the R.M.I.
Option C. the C D I offset bar.
Correct Answer is. the C D I offset bar.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 319. A flat plate antenna is a.

Option A. parabolic antenna.
Option B. a Doppler antenna.
Option C. a series of slots and wave guides.
Correct Answer is. a series of slots and wave guides.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin page 342.
Question Number. 320. The term 'oblate spheroid' refers to.

Option A. flattening at the polar regions.
Option B. tilting of the earth about its axis.
Option C. the network of meridians imagined to cover the earth.
Correct Answer is. flattening at the polar regions.
Question Number. 321. The horizontal angle contained between the true and the magnetic meridian at any place is.
Option A. angle of dip.
Option B. inclination.
Option C. declination.
Correct Answer is. declination.
Question Number. 322. To obtain an accurate G.P.S fix, the G.P.S receiver must be in line of sight of.
Option A. 6 satellites.
Option B. 4 satellites.
Option C. 3 satellites.
Correct Answer is. 4 satellites.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 319. 4 satellites are required to provide height information as
well as position. http://www.tycoelectronics.com/gps/basics.asp.
Question Number. 323. Glideslope frequency is.

Option A. 108.00-118 Mega Hertz.
Option B. 328.6-335.4 Mega Hertz.
Option C. 108.10-119.95 Mega Hertz.
Correct Answer is. 328.6-335.4 Mega Hertz.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 324. Which of the following systems is inhibited when a test is performed of the rad. alt. system?.
Option A. G.P.W.S.
Option B. altitude alert.
Option C. T.C.A.S.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 325. A.D.F operation range is at.

Option A. H.F band.
Option B. V.H.F band.
Option C. MF band.
Correct Answer is. MF band.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 326. A.D.F system sense aerial is.

Option A. null.
Option B. rotating figure of 8.
Option C. null cardioid.
Correct Answer is. null cardioid.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 327. Outer marker frequency is.

Option A. 1300 Hertz.
Option B. 400 Hertz.
Option C. 3000 Hertz.
Correct Answer is. 400 Hertz.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 328. The G.P.S satellite system consists of.
Option A. 20 satellites and 5 standby satellite.
Option B. 24 satellites and 1 standby satellites.
Option C. 21 satellites and 3 standby satellites.
Correct Answer is. 21 satellites and 3 standby satellites.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 318 and 319.
Question Number. 329. A Mode C transponder gives the following info:.

Option A. Altitude.
Option B. Altitude and interrogation.
Option C. Interrogation.
Correct Answer is. Altitude.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 330. F.M.C provides data envelope for.

Option A. G.P.W.S.
Option B. T.C.A.S.
Option C. A.T.C.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity & Electronics Eismin page 325 fig 15-48.
Question Number. 331. The alignment position of an IR Mode Selector unit enables.
Option A. sets the start co-ordinates.
Option B. the accelerometers to correct the axes.
Option C. gyro run up, levelling, azimuth determination.
Correct Answer is. gyro run up, levelling, azimuth determination.
Explanation. Aircraft instrument's and Integrated systems Pallett pages 279, 280.
Question Number. 332. Pin Programming is allowed.

Option A. under CAA Rules.
Option B. to enter aircraft performance database.
Option C. to provide reference to F.M.S computer as to which side of datum it is fitted to.
Correct Answer is. to provide reference to F.M.S computer as to which side of datum it is fitted to.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 333. The Janus beam is for.

Option A. to compensate for attitude changes.
Option B. working out acceleration.
Option C. levelling the aerial.
Correct Answer is. to compensate for attitude changes.
Explanation. To compensate for pitch attitude change. Manual of Avionics Kendal Page 224 fig 56 and pg 223.
Question Number. 334. Sonar Locator Beacons are a.

Option A. ANO Requirement.
Option B. ICAO Requirement.
Option C. Company Requirement.
Correct Answer is. ICAO Requirement.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 335. I.N.S power is provided by.

Option A. AC normal and DC emergency.
Option B. DC normal and DC emergency.
Option C. AC normal and AC emergency.
Correct Answer is. AC normal and DC emergency.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 336. Aircraft is 9000feet. When is it out of V.H.F range?.

Option A. 120 nm.
Option B. 100 nm.
Option C. 140 nm.
Explanation. 1.25 * square root of altitude.
Question Number. 337. CVR is unserviceable.

Option A. The aircraft can fly for 72 hours since unserviceability.
Option B. The aircraft cannot fly unless required data is recorded by FDR.
Option C. The aircraft can fly for 4 days since unserviceability.
Correct Answer is. The aircraft can fly for 72 hours since unserviceability.
Explanation. 737 NG MEL 23-10.
Question Number. 338. Before processing an AM USB signal, what needs to be done?.
Option A. Carrier removed.
Option B. Carrier added.
Option C. Carrier integrated.
Correct Answer is. Carrier added.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 339. On power up, IRS.

Option A. compares longitude from previous position.
Option B. obtains both from previous position.
Option C. obtains latitude from previous position.
Correct Answer is. compares longitude from previous position.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 340. When performing an A.D.F bearing check, commercial stations.
Option A. can be used.
Option B. can not be used as they are the wrong frequency.
Option C. can be used in addition to A.D.F nav stations.
Correct Answer is. can be used in addition to A.D.F nav stations.
Explanation. Providing their position on the map is known.
Question Number. 341. D.M.E interrogation is carried out.
Option A. 63 Kilo Hertz above transmitted frequency.
Option B. 63 Kilo Hertz below transmitted frequency.
Option C. 63 Kilo Hertz above or below transmitted frequency.
Correct Answer is. 63 Kilo Hertz above or below transmitted frequency.
Explanation. Depends whether it is and or Y system. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 110.
Question Number. 342. In ground mode, the F.M.S uses which of the following for velocity calculations?.
Option A. RHO-RHO.
Option B. RHO-THETA.
Option C. IRS.
Correct Answer is. IRS.
Explanation. B737 CL MM 36-42-01 Page 44.
Question Number. 343. Confirmation of the correct operation of an A.T.C transponder ident function, is verified by.
Option A. use of a ramp test set.
Option B. telephone contact with the receiving A.T.C cell.
Option C. observation of the A.T.C transponder control head ident light.
Correct Answer is. use of a ramp test set.
Explanation. Modern Aviation Electronics Helfric Page 281.
Question Number. 344. I.R.S serviceability for in-service drift is ascertained by.
Option A. 3+3t.
Option B. apparent drift divided by flight time.
Option C. CDU fault code interrogation.
Correct Answer is. 3+3t.
Explanation. B737 CL MM 34-28-01 Page 111 (will defer as per customer).
Question Number. 345. In an I.R.S system, the accelerometer is double integrated for.
Option A. acceleration.
Option B. distance.
Option C. velocity.
Correct Answer is. distance.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 257 Fig 10.8.
Question Number. 346. During an ACARS transmission, a 1 is generated by.

Option A. a 2400 Hertz waveform.
Option B. the -ve half of a 1200Hertz waveform.
Option C. the +ve half of a 1200Hertz waveform.
Correct Answer is. the -ve half of a 1200Hertz waveform.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 347. In flight mode, the F.M.S preference of data source is.
Option A. RHO-THETA, RHO-RHO, IRS.
Option B. IRS, RHO-RHO, RHO-THETA.
Option C. RHO-RHO, IRS, RHO-THETA.
Correct Answer is. IRS, RHO-RHO, RHO-THETA.
Explanation. B737 CL MM 34-62-01.
Question Number. 348. RNAV uses which inputs?.

Option A. IRS, A.D.F, VOR, D.M.E.
Option B. A.D.F, G.P.S, VOR.
Option C. IRS, VOR, G.P.S, D.M.E.
Correct Answer is. IRS, VOR, G.P.S, D.M.E.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 349. Janus in Doppler radar.

Option A. adjusts signal for overwater flight.
Option B. adjusts for lateral and vertical steering.
Option C. allows adjustment for antenna pitch.
Correct Answer is. allows adjustment for antenna pitch.
Question Number. 350. A.T.C altitude readout is.

Option A. series transmitted with octal encoding.
Option B. parallel transmitted with binary encoding.
Option C. series transmitted with binary encoding.
Correct Answer is. series transmitted with binary encoding.
Explanation. The mode C altitude is binary and serial.
Question Number. 351. Attenuation in a co-axial cable.

Option A. is not affected by frequency.
Option B. increases with frequency increase.
Option C. decreases with frequency decrease.
Correct Answer is. increases with frequency increase.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 352. How does a receiver know whether an ILS or a VOR frequency has been selected?.
Option A. A different receiver is used.
Option B. Manually selected by operator.
Option C. Logic control circuit in control unit.
Correct Answer is. Logic control circuit in control unit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 353. An aircraft is on course on an ILS Localiser. What is the difference in depth of modulation (DDM)?.
Option A. 0.5.
Option B. 0.2.
Option C. zero.
Explanation. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Instrument_Landing_System.
Question Number. 354. How is the flightdeck informed of an ACARS transmission?.
Option A. A double chime.
Option B. ONSIDE V.H.F T/R.
Option C. SELCAL.
Correct Answer is. ONSIDE V.H.F T/R.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 355. Peak power = 10kW, duty cycle =2.4ms, pulse duration =6 microseconds. What is mean power?.
Option A. Approximately 4 W.
Option B. 14 W.
Option C. 24 W.
Correct Answer is. 14 W.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 356. The flight data recorder underwater locator beacon operates at a frequency of thirty seven kilo-
hertz.
Option A. and is able to withstand immersion to twenty thousand metres.
Option B. with an operational time of at least thirty days.
Option C. and has a maximum detection range of two thousand to four thousand feet.
Correct Answer is. with an operational time of at least thirty days.
Explanation. CAA Airworthiness spec no 12, para 2 e/f...acoustic operating life not less than 30 days, or answer b by A300-
600 A.M.M 31-31-00 pg 17.
Question Number. 357. A resistance-capacitor low pass filter will have.

Option A. both resistance and capacitor in parallel.
Option B. the out put taken across the capacitor.
Option C. the output taken across the resistor.
Correct Answer is. the out put taken across the capacitor.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 358. Buffer amplifiers are used when.
Option A. an impedance change (high to low) is required.
Option B. an impedance change (low to high) is required.
Option C. high amplification factors are required.
Correct Answer is. high amplification factors are required.
Explanation. Avionics Fundamentals - Jeppesen Page 24.
Question Number. 359. How many satellites comprise the space segment for G.P.S?.
Option A. 8 satellites in three orbits.
Option B. 6 satellites in four orbits.
Option C. 4 satellites in six orbits.
Correct Answer is. 4 satellites in six orbits.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 360. What type of system is an ADF?.

Option A. theta.
Option B. rho-theta.
Option C. rho.
Correct Answer is. theta.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 361. Peak power is 10kW, pulse period 6?s and duty cycle is 2.4 ms. What is the average power
transmitted?.
Option A. 14.4W.
Option B. 25W.
Option C. Just over 4W.
Correct Answer is. 25W.
Explanation. If the pulse period is 6 micro seconds and the duty cycle is 2.4 ms then the power o/p is ransmitted for only 6
micro seconds in every 2400 microseconds or in other words one 400th of a second. Therefore you multiply the total power by
the amount of time (10000w 1/400 sec )giving the answer 25W.
Question Number. 362. In a triple RAD ALT installation on a large aircraft, interference is prevented by.
Option A. varying the modulating frequency of each system.
Option B. by using a different PRF for each system using PIN Programming.
Option C. changing the antenna orientation with phased signal control.
Correct Answer is. varying the modulating frequency of each system.
Question Number. 364. In a Loran navigation system, master station transmitter frequency.
Option A. lower than the slave.
Option B. higher than the slave.
Option C. the same as the slave.
Correct Answer is. the same as the slave.
Question Number. 365. Data communication between the aircraft and the operational control centre is possible through.
Option A. ACARS system.

Option B. satcom system.
Option C. selcal system.
Correct Answer is. ACARS system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 366. Communication between the aircraft earth station (AES) and the satellite is on.
Option A. S band.
Option B. C band.
Option C. L band.
Correct Answer is. L band.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 368. In an interrogator Mode S addressing format when does the first sync phase reversal occur?.
Option A. 2.75 µ seconds after P2.

Option B. 1.25 µ seconds after P2.
Option C. 0.8 µ seconds after P2.
Correct Answer is. 2.75 µ seconds after P2.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 369. If a ground station interrogating an aircraft transmits P1, P2 and P6 through the rotating beam
antenna and P5 is radiated by omni-directional antenna, which mode is it addressing?.
Option A. Mode A and C only.
Option B. Mode S only.
Option C. Mode A&C and S.
Correct Answer is. Mode S only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 370. When the pilot depresses the IDENT button, where does the ident pulse appear?.
Option A. 0.8 µ seconds after the last frame pulse.
Option B. 1.6 µ seconds after the P2 pulse.
Option C. 4.35 µ seconds after the last frame pulse.
Correct Answer is. 4.35 µ seconds after the last frame pulse.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 371. A magnetron can be used as an.

Option A. amplifier only.
Option B. oscillator or an amplifier.
Option C. oscillator only.
Correct Answer is. oscillator only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 372. Which of the following navigation system is not a hyperbolic navigation system?.
Option A. Doppler.
Option B. VLF omega.
Option C. Loran C.
Correct Answer is. Doppler.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 373. The length of a resonant antenna dipole is.

Option A. lambda/4.
Option B. lambda/2.
Option C. lambda.
Correct Answer is. lambda/2.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 374. The pulse repetition frequency (PRF) should be.
Option A. low for long ranges.
Option B. low for short ranges.
Option C. high for long ranges.
Correct Answer is. low for long ranges.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 375. Radio altimeter normally indicates the altitude of.
Option A. plus-minus 2500feet.
Option B. 0 to 2500 feet above the ground level.
Option C. to 2500feet pressure altitude.
Correct Answer is. 0 to 2500 feet above the ground level.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 376. G.P.S consists of 24 orbiting satellites located.

Option A. in a 5000 miles high orbit.
Option B. in a 10900 miles high orbit.
Option C. in a 8800 miles high orbit.
Correct Answer is. in a 10900 miles high orbit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 377. The path of a point which moves such that the difference in distance from two fixed points is called.
Option A. parabola.
Option B. circle.
Option C. hyperbola.
Correct Answer is. hyperbola.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 378. A selcal signal transmits.

Option A. two pair of tones - one pair after the other.
Option B. four tones continuously.
Option C. a pair of tones continuously.
Correct Answer is. two pair of tones - one pair after the other.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 379. The frequency of 111.1 Mega Hertz is used by.
Option A. VOR.
Option B. ILS glideslope.
Option C. ILS localiser.
Correct Answer is. ILS localiser.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 380. In VOR the manual phase shift resolver is a.

Option A. 1020 Hertz signal.
Option B. 30 Hertz signal.
Option C. 9960 Hertz signal.
Correct Answer is. 30 Hertz signal.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 381. The impedance of an H.F aerial is.

Option A. dependent on frequency.
Option B. 75 ohms.
Option C. 50 ohms.
Explanation. Aircraft radio system, Powell Page 30.
Question Number. 382. On an R.M.I, the input to the A.D.F pointer is fed via.
Option A. a matching unit.
Option B. a differential synchro.
Option C. a synchro.
Correct Answer is. a synchro.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 383. Full scale deflection on a VOR system is.

Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 384. A V.H.F comm blade aerial has a length of.
Option A. a quarter wavelength.
Option B. a half wavelength.
Option C. a full wavelength.
Correct Answer is. a quarter wavelength.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 385. Doppler VOR , when received by a conventional VOR receiver.
Option A. has normal reception with an ident signal.
Option B. can not be received on CVOR equipment.
Option C. has normal reception but no ident signal.
Correct Answer is. has normal reception with an ident signal.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 386. At resonance in a series tuned circuit the impedance is.
Option A. high.
Option B. reactive.
Option C. low.
Correct Answer is. low.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 387. A mode 'S' transponder utilises a.

Option A. Darlington pair.
Option B. linear amplifier.
Option C. logarithmic amplifier.
Correct Answer is. logarithmic amplifier.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 388. What is the time taken for one radar statute mile?.
Option A. 11.03 µs.
Option B. 12.36 µs.
Option C. 10.75 µs.
Correct Answer is. 12.36 µs.
Explanation. 12.36 microseconds is for 1nm.
Question Number. 389. What is the main cause of standing waves in waveguide?.
Option A. The velocity of propagation is too high.
Option B. The frequency transmitted is too high.
Option C. Mismatch of impedance.
Correct Answer is. Mismatch of impedance.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 390. The velocity of propagation is too high. This can cause.
Option A. at least one C pulse.
Option B. C1 and C4 to be received pulses together.
Option C. all C pulses to be received together.
Correct Answer is. at least one C pulse.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 391. In a secondary radar system, at what frequency does the interrogator transmit on?.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 392. In the OBS, the printing report system is activated.
Option A. automatically.
Option B. either manually or automatically.
Option C. manually.
Correct Answer is. either manually or automatically.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 393. In the downlink 11 format a 0.5 per second pulse in the first half of the slot represents.
Option A. the start of the preamble.
Option B. a logic zero.
Option C. a logic one.
Correct Answer is. a logic one.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 394. The uplink 11 format utilises.
Option A. Pulse Position Monitoring.
Option B. Mono-pulse Dual Interrogation.
Option C. Differential Phase Shift Keying.
Correct Answer is. Differential Phase Shift Keying.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 395. In a universal all-call transponder interrogation P2 is radiated by the.

Option A. omnidirectional aerial.
Option B. directional aerial.
Option C. horizontal dipole.
Correct Answer is. omnidirectional aerial.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 396. Group countdown in a transponder receiver changes the.

Option A. sensitivity.
Option B. selectivity.
Option C. fidelity.
Correct Answer is. sensitivity.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 397. T.C.A.S transmits squitter pulses on a frequency of.

Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 398. T.C.A.S considers another aircraft to be on the ground at a difference height between the
barometric altimeter and rad/alt of.
Option A. 180 feet.
Option B. 200 feet.
Option C. 160 feet.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 399. In a radio altimeter installation, the aerial spacing between aerials must be.
Option A. 12 feet.
Option B. 8 feet.
Option C. 10 feet.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 400. ACARS is used to transmit.

Option A. on the ground.
Option B. both in flight and on the ground.
Option C. in flight.
Correct Answer is. both in flight and on the ground.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 401. A Class 3 fault reporting failure.

Option A. may have an operational consequence.
Option B. does not have an operational consequence but may do if a second failure occurs.
Option C. has no consequences on aircraft safety.
Correct Answer is. has no consequences on aircraft safety.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 402. Audio frequency range is.

Option A. 20 to 20,000 Hertz.
Option B. 20 to 200,000 Hertz.
Option C. 20 to 2000 Hertz.
Correct Answer is. 20 to 20,000 Hertz.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 403. A signal at 120 Mega Hertz freq will normally propagate by means of.
Option A. ground waves.
Option B. sky waves.
Option C. space waves.
Correct Answer is. space waves.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 404. The length of a resonant antenna dipole is.

Option A. lambda/2.
Option B. lambda/4.
Option C. lambda.
Correct Answer is. lambda/2.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 405. In a vertically polarized electromagnetic wave.

Option A. the electric field vectors are vertical.
Option B. both electric and magnetic are vertical.
Option C. the magnetic field vectors are vertical.
Correct Answer is. the electric field vectors are vertical.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 406. In yagi-array antenna, the signal is fed through a cable to.
Option A. dipole.
Option B. parasitic elements.
Option C. both.
Correct Answer is. both.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 407. Before the aeroplane is moved from the loading pier, the pilot must.
Option A. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS.
Option B. insert the latitude and longitude of the first waypoint into the INS.
Option C. set the altitude to be fed into the INS.
Correct Answer is. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS.
Question Number. 408. A force re-balance accelerometer in an IN system has the acceleration force balanced by a.
Option A. linear force.
Option B. constant force.
Option C. non-linear force.
Correct Answer is. linear force.
Question Number. 409. An accelerometer in an IN system must be able to detect accelerations down to.
Option A. 10 power -2 g.
Option B. 10 power -3 g.
Option C. 10 power -6 g.
Correct Answer is. 10 power -6 g.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 410. A laser gyro output is.

Option A. directly proportional to angular turning rate.
Option B. directly proportional to frequency addition.
Option C. inversely proportional to angular turning rate.
Correct Answer is. directly proportional to angular turning rate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 411. The Inertial Navigation System computes distance from acceleration by.
Option A. two successive integrations.
Option B. a differential followed by an integration.
Option C. a single integration.
Correct Answer is. two successive integrations.
Question Number. 412. Coriolis effect is corrected for by.

Option A. re-aligning the stable platform.
Option B. adding a correction term to the accelerometer outputs.
Option C. torquing the gyros.
Correct Answer is. adding a correction term to the accelerometer outputs.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page.
Question Number. 413. In an IN system, the output of the accelerometer is linear because of a.
Option A. linear spring.
Option B. force balance system.
Option C. pendulous suspension.
Correct Answer is. force balance system.
Question Number. 414. The three accelerometers on a stable platform are mounted.
Option A. parallel to each other.
Option B. 120 degrees apart.
Option C. orthogonally.
Correct Answer is. orthogonally.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 415. In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to.
Option A. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers.
Option B. provide attitude reference.
Option C. stop the gyros from toppling.
Correct Answer is. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers.
Question Number. 416. The type of gyro generally used in an IN system is a.

Option A. rate integrating gyro.
Option B. displacement gyro.
Option C. rate gyro.
Correct Answer is. rate integrating gyro.
Question Number. 417. Earth rate is approximately.

Option A. 15 degrees per hour.
Option B. 84 degrees per hour.
Option C. 5 degrees per hour.
Correct Answer is. 15 degrees per hour.
Question Number. 418. In a gimbal system, the stable platform is the.

Option A. azimuth gimbal.
Option B. pitch gimbal.
Option C. roll gimbal.
Correct Answer is. azimuth gimbal.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 77/78.
Question Number. 419. To prevent gimbal lock on the stable platform it is normal to use.
Option A. a pitch gimbal.
Option B. three gimbals.
Option C. four gimbals.
Correct Answer is. four gimbals.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 420. When the inertial platform is torqued to perform like a Schuler pendulum.
Option A. the platform remains fixed with respect to the local vertical.
Option B. the platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical.
Option C. the platform rotates with respect to the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. the platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical.
Question Number. 421. A Schuler pendulum has a period of oscillation of.

Option A. 84.4 minutes.
Option B. 84.4 seconds.
Option C. 8.4 minutes.
Correct Answer is. 84.4 minutes.
Question Number. 422. An IN system requires data from the.

Option A. Doppler system.
Option B. satellites.
Option C. air data computer.
Correct Answer is. air data computer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 423. When in manual mode, the C.D.U. alert lamp of the IN system will flash.
Option A. when an error is detected.
Option B. thirty seconds before a track change is required.
Option C. two minutes before the next waypoint.
Correct Answer is. two minutes before the next waypoint.
Question Number. 424. The output of an I.N.S can be fed to.

Option A. vertical speed indicators.
Option B. altimeters.
Option C. attitude indicators.
Correct Answer is. attitude indicators.
Question Number. 425. The three accelerometers on a strapdown platform are mounted.
Option A. 120º apart.
Option B. 90º to each other.
Option C. parallel to each other.
Correct Answer is. 90º to each other.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 426. A basic I.N.S. platform has.

Option A. 2 accelerometers and 3 gyros.
Option B. 3 axis accelerometer.
Option C. 3 accelerometers and 2 gyros (pitch and roll).
Correct Answer is. 2 accelerometers and 3 gyros.
Question Number. 427. Using I.N.S. an aircraft flies.

Option A. rhumb line.
Option B. course directed by ground station.
Option C. great circle arc.
Correct Answer is. great circle arc.
Question Number. 428. What must be entered in to the I.N.S. before the aircraft moves?.
Option A. E.T.A.
Option B. Waypoints.
Option C. Present position.
Correct Answer is. Present position.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 429. Selection of the I.N.S Mode Selector Unit (MSU) to Attitude REF is made.
Option A. when attitude information is lost.
Option B. when navigation information is lost.
Option C. to feed information to the Captain and 1st Officers ADI displays.
Correct Answer is. when navigation information is lost.
Question Number. 430. For the INS, the Battery Unit provides.
Option A. standby power when airborne, switched by weight-off switches in the undercarriage.
Option B. standby power only when on the ground, to maintain the alignment phase.
Option C. both when airborne and on the ground.
Correct Answer is. both when airborne and on the ground.
Question Number. 431. Control Display Unit (CDU) selection of TKE displays.
Option A. difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track.
Option B. distance perpendicular from the selected track.
Option C. difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track.
Correct Answer is. difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track.
Question Number. 432. I.N.S wind speed is calculated from.

Option A. the vectorial addition of I.A.S and True Air Speed.
Option B. the vectorial addition of I.A.S and Ground Speed.
Option C. the vectorial addition of True Air Speed and Ground Speed.
Correct Answer is. the vectorial addition of True Air Speed and Ground Speed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 433. Centripetal error compensation is achieved by.
Option A. the platform is torqued to align the N/S accelerometer along its insensitive axis.
Option B. an additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer to cancel the centripetal error.
Option C. allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate.
Correct Answer is. an additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer to cancel the centripetal error.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 434. Transport Rate compensation is achieved by.

Option A. the platform being torqued by a computed torquing signal.
Option B. allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate.
Option C. an additional signal added to the N/S accelerometer output depending on heading.
Correct Answer is. the platform being torqued by a computed torquing signal.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 435. If the battery faILS on the ground (I.N.S System).
Option A. a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds.
Option B. an amber light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds.
Option C. a red light appears on the CDU and a horn sounds.
Correct Answer is. a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds.
Question Number. 436. An I.R.S alignment.

Option A. takes 10 minutes and present position can be entered any time during the alignment.
Option B. takes 10 minutes and present position must be entered before alignment.
Option C. takes 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present position is used for the alignment.
Correct Answer is. takes 10 minutes and present position can be entered any time during the alignment.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 437. The localiser deviation signal for the flight director comes from the.
Option A. V.H.F comm system.
Option B. flight director computer.
Option C. V.H.F nav system.
Correct Answer is. V.H.F nav system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 438. The heading error signal used in the heading select mode.
Option A. is the difference between the desired course and the actual course.
Option B. is the difference between the desired heading and the actual heading.
Option C. comes direct from the compass system.
Correct Answer is. is the difference between the desired heading and the actual heading.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 439. The crab angle of the aircraft during VOR or Localiser modes is displayed by the.
Option A. selected course counter.
Option B. difference between the selected heading and aircraft heading.
Option C. difference between the course arrow and aircraft heading.
Correct Answer is. difference between the course arrow and aircraft heading.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 440. VOR left-right deviation signals come from the.
Option A. D.M.E system.
Option B. V.H.F nav set.
Option C. VLF nav system.
Correct Answer is. V.H.F nav set.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 441. Above the glideslope, the ILS glideslope signal modulation is.
Option A. 90 Hertz.
Option B. 90 KILO HERTZ.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, page 181, Figure.6.6 and Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, Page 72, top of L/H
column.
Question Number. 442. The correct sense demand generated for a selected heading 180°, when the aircraft heading is
150° is.
Option A. straight ahead.
Option B. turn right.
Option C. turn left.
Correct Answer is. turn right.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 443. When an aircraft is flying along the extended centre line of the runway it is in the.
Option A. 150 Hertz modulation sector.
Option B. 90 Hertz modulation sector.
Option C. equi-signal sector.
Correct Answer is. equi-signal sector.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 444. The localiser system offers approach guidance to the runway in terms of.
Option A. distance to touch down.
Option B. the horizontal plane.
Option C. the vertical plane.
Correct Answer is. the horizontal plane.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 445. The glideslope transmitter is located.

Option A. adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway.
Option B. at the approach end of the runway.
Option C. at the end opposite to the approach end of the runway.
Correct Answer is. adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, page 181 (bottom of the page) and Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, page 72,
Figure. 5.5.
Question Number. 446. The glideslope and localiser frequencies.

Option A. are paired and one frequency selector suffices for both.
Option B. have to be selected separately.
Option C. are fixed and common to all runways therefore frequency selection is not necessary
Correct Answer is. are paired and one frequency selector suffices for both.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, page 71 and Avionics Fundamentals, Jeppesen, page 206.
Question Number. 447. The glideslope system offers approach guidance to runways in terms of.
Option A. the horizontal plane.
Option B. distance to touchdown.
Option C. the vertical plane.
Correct Answer is. the vertical plane.
Question Number. 448. The glideslope equipment operates in the.

Option B. U.H.F band.
Option C. H.F band.
Correct Answer is. U.H.F band.
Question Number. 449. The localiser equipment operates in the.

Option B. H.F band.
Option C. U.H.F band.
Correct Answer is. V.H.F band.
Question Number. 450. The aircraft equipment determines the bearing of a ground station by comparing.
Option A. the phase of one 30 Hertz modulation with that of a 9960 Hertz modulation.
Option B. the amplitude of two 30 Hertz modulations.
Option C. the phase of two 30 Hertz modulations.
Correct Answer is. the phase of two 30 Hertz modulations.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Pages 59 and 60 and Radio Aids, R.B.Underdown and David Cockburn Page 72.
Question Number. 451. The number of different radials provided by a ground station is.
Option A. infinite.
Option B. 180 per quadrant, i.e. 720 in 360°.
Option C. 360.
Correct Answer is. infinite.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 452. Which of the following frequencies is allocated to VOR?.

Option A. 114.3 Mega Hertz.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Pages 58 All frequencies between 112.00 and 117.95 Mega Hertz (High Power
VORs) and all odd frequencies between 108.00 and 111.95 Mega Hertz (Terminal VORs).
Question Number. 453. Aerial masts may be damaged by.

Option A. killfrost anti-icing fluid.
Option B. Skydrol hydraulic fluids.
Option C. water.
Correct Answer is. Skydrol hydraulic fluids.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 454. Most radio aerial masts are.

Option A. not bonded.
Option B. bonded.
Option C. insulated from the fuselage.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 455. When an aircraft is heading due north (magnetic) towards a VOR station the reference and variable
signals will be.
Option A. 180° out of phase.
Option B. in phase.
Option C. 270° out of phase.
Correct Answer is. 180° out of phase.
Explanation. Aircraft is due South of the station.
Question Number. 456. The middle marker modulation is keyed with.

Option A. dots.
Option B. alternate dots and dashes.
Option C. Nothing.
Correct Answer is. alternate dots and dashes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 457. The modulation of the outer marker is.

Option A. 1300 Hertz.
Option B. 3000 Hertz.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 311-312.
Question Number. 458. The approximate distance of the middle marker from the runway threshold is.
Option A. 7 miles.
Option B. 3 miles.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.avionicswest.com/marker_beacon_receiver.htm
Question Number. 459. Marker information is usually provided to the pilot.

Option A. visually.
Option B. aurally.
Option C. both visually and aurally.
Correct Answer is. both visually and aurally.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 311.
Question Number. 460. An over station sensor (OSS) detects.

Option A. radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a VOR transmitter.
Option B. radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a localiser transmitter.
Option C. the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion.
Correct Answer is. the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 461. Incompatible Flight Director modes are.

Option A. altitude hold and ILS.
Option B. VOR and glidepath.
Option C. VRU and compass.
Correct Answer is. altitude hold and ILS.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 462. The VOR system comprises.

Option A. reference phase signal.
Option B. variable phase signal.
Option C. variable and reference phase signals.
Correct Answer is. variable and reference phase signals.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 463. The most sensitive system between ILS and VOR is.
Option A. VOR.
Option B. they both have the same sensitivity.
Option C. ILS.
Correct Answer is. ILS.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 464. If an aircraft is flying on a heading of 000 away from a VOR station, the TO/FROM indicator would
show.
Option A. no indication.
Option B. from.
Option C. to.
Correct Answer is. from.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 465. How does the flight director computer differentiate between VOR and ILS frequencies?.
Option A. Frequency discriminator in receiver.
Option B. Discriminator on control panel.
Option C. Trigger pulse from ground station.
Correct Answer is. Frequency discriminator in receiver.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 466. The glideslope transmitter operates on.

Option A. the V.H.F band.
Option B. the U.H.F band.
Option C. frequencies of 108 to 118 MEGA HERTZ.
Correct Answer is. the U.H.F band.
Question Number. 467. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment will have.
Option A. a decision height of 50feet.
Option B. a decision height depending on RVR.
Option C. no decision height.
Correct Answer is. a decision height of 50feet.
Question Number. 468. During A.T.C transponder operation, side lobe suppression acts to.
Option A. mute the D.M.E operation during transmit phase.
Option B. mute coms transmission during transponder operation.
Option C. supply altitude readout.
Correct Answer is. mute the D.M.E operation during transmit phase.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 469. During operation of a twin H.F radio system transceiver.
Option A. #1 H.F system can transmit but not receive.
Option B. both systems can be operated simultaneously.
Option C. #1 H.F system operation is inhibited during #2 operation.
Correct Answer is. #1 H.F system operation is inhibited during #2 operation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 470. L band D.M.E transmits on a frequency of.

Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 471. Function of A.D.F & VOR and D.M.E in navigation system with reference to aircraft and beacon is;.
Option A. the first provides distance between aircraft and beacon and latter provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon.
Option B. None of above.
Option C. the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft and beacon.
Correct Answer is. the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft and
beacon.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 472. Which two frequencies are paired?.

Option A. D.M.E and Glideslope.
Option B. Glideslope and localizer.
Option C. Localizer and D.M.E.
Correct Answer is. Glideslope and localizer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 473. Localizer beam width is the angle where the two edges of beam are apart at the runway threshold
by.
Option A. 700 feet.
Option B. 7 feet.
Option C. 70 feet.
Explanation. Avionics Fundamentals Page 200.
Question Number. 474. What happens if frequency decreases without altering the physical length of aerial?.
Option A. The aerial becomes inductively reactive.
Option B. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive.
Option C. The aerial becomes inductively capacitive.
Correct Answer is. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 475. What happens if frequency increases without altering the physical length of aerial?.
Option A. The aerial becomes inductively reactive.
Option B. The aerial becomes inductively capacitive.
Option C. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive.
Correct Answer is. The aerial becomes inductively reactive.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 476. Aerials provide optimum output at one particular frequency, when its load is purely.
Option A. inductive.
Option B. capacitive.
Option C. resistive.
Correct Answer is. resistive.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 477. Most aerials are.

Option A. made from non-conductive material.
Option B. bonded.
Option C. not bonded.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 478. The Middle Marker beacon is what colour?.

Option A. Blue.
Option B. Amber.
Option C. White.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 479. Laser gyros have.

Option A. no rotating parts.
Option B. moving parts.
Option C. rotating parts.
Correct Answer is. no rotating parts.
Explanation. A laser gyro has moving parts (dither motor vibrates) but not rotating parts.
Question Number. 480. Laser gyros are aligned to.
Option A. aircraft structure.
Option B. true north.
Option C. magnetic north.
Correct Answer is. aircraft structure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 481. Flight management control system (F.M.CS) utilises.

Option A. VOR, A.D.F, D.M.E.
Option B. ILS, VOR, A.D.F.
Option C. ILS, D.M.E, ADC,.
Correct Answer is. ILS, D.M.E, ADC,.
Explanation. F.M.CS does not normally utilise A.D.F.
Question Number. 482. ACARS is.

Option A. a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight.
Option B. a navigation system.
Option C. a satellite communication system.
Correct Answer is. a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight.
Question Number. 483. How many data bases are required in an F.M.S system?.
Option A. 3 (one is used for redundancy).
Option B. 2.
Option C. 1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 484. What is secondary radar?.

Option A. Reflected radar bounce from an aircraft.
Option B. Signal returned from a transponder.
Option C. A backup radar on an airfield.
Correct Answer is. Signal returned from a transponder.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 485. What is Mode 1 & 2 of G.P.W.S used for?.

Option A. Excessive descent rate, excessive terrain closure rate.
Option B. Excessive descent rate, unsafe terrain clearance.
Option C. Excessive terrain closure rate, altitude loss after take-off.
Correct Answer is. Excessive descent rate, excessive terrain closure rate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 486. For radio communication over a distance of over 250 miles we use.
Option A. VLF.
Option B. V.H.F.
Option C. H.F.
Correct Answer is. H.F.
Explanation. NIL.
13.05. Electrical Power (ATA 24).
Question Number. 1. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the.

Option A. cells begin to gas freely.
Option B. SG and voltage remain constant for specified period.
Option C. SG reaches 1.180.
Correct Answer is. SG and voltage remain constant for specified period.
Explanation. E.E.L/1-1 4.4.8 and Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 23.
Question Number. 2. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant.
Option A. voltage.
Option B. current.
Option C. power.
Correct Answer is. current.
Explanation. CAIPs E.E.L/1-5 Para 4.1.
Question Number. 3. When a current transformer is disconnected, what should be done?.

Option A. Left open circuit.
Option B. Terminals shorted.
Option C. Resistor placed across terminals.
Correct Answer is. Terminals shorted.
Question Number. 4. What does the differential sensing coil sense?.

Option A. Volts.
Option B. Power.
Option C. Current.
Correct Answer is. Current.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. If, on a lead-acid battery, several cell checks of SG read consistently low. Battery needs.
Option A. topping up with distilled water.
Option B. recharging.
Option C. replacing.
Correct Answer is. recharging.
Question Number. 6. What happens when battery master is switched off in flight?.
Option A. Electrical systems shut down.
Option B. No effect.
Option C. Battery is disconnected from charge circuit.
Correct Answer is. No effect.
Explanation. If the generator is functional, switching the battery switch to OFF isolates the battery bus bar and prevents the
battery charging.
Question Number. 7. Galley loads are wired in.

Option A. series.
Option B. either series or parallel depending on the design.
Option C. parallel so load shedding will lower current consumption.
Correct Answer is. parallel so load shedding will lower current consumption.
Explanation. All loads on an aircraft are wired in parallel.
Question Number. 8. A fuse-type current limiter.

Option A. limits current flow to a load.
Option B. opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded.
Option C. can be used as a radio suppressor.
Correct Answer is. opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded.
Explanation. See Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 112, or, Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin Page
99. However, another type of current limiter holds the current but does and open the circuit see Aircraft Electricity and
Electronics Eismin Page 202.
Question Number. 9. When a load is shed from a busbar, the.

Option A. busbar voltage increases.
Option B. busbar voltage decreases.
Option C. current consumption from the bar decreases.
Correct Answer is. current consumption from the bar decreases.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, Page 241. Load shedding reduces current consumption.
Question Number. 10. In unparalleled AC generation systems, the phase rotation of one generator in relation to the
others.
Option A. must be BCA.
Option B. is unimportant.
Option C. must be synchronised prior to paralleling.
Correct Answer is. is unimportant.
Explanation. Phase relationship is unimportant in an unparalleled system (although answer b says it will be paralleled, thereby
changing the question???).
Question Number. 12. Sharing of electrical loads by paralleled DC generators is controlled by.
Option A. automatic load shedding.
Option B. equalising circuits which control the field excitation of the generators.
Option C. equalising circuits which control the speed of the generators.
Correct Answer is. equalising circuits which control the field excitation of the generators.
Explanation. Changing the speed would also change the frequency and thus the phase relationship. Generators are always
controlled by adjusting the field strength.
Question Number. 13. Excessive commutator sparking can be caused by.

Option A. brushes positioned on MNA.
Option B. rotating field diode failure.
Option C. weak spring tension.
Correct Answer is. weak spring tension.
Explanation. Weak spring tension of the brushes can cause excessive sparking.
Question Number. 14. Before checking the SG of a battery recently removed from an aircraft.
Option A. allow to stabilise for one hour.
Option B. carry out a capacity test.
Option C. take the temperature of the electrolyte.
Correct Answer is. take the temperature of the electrolyte.
Explanation. CAIPs E.E.L/1-1.
Question Number. 15. On an AC external power plug, the interlock circuit is controlled by pins.
Option A. AB.
Option B. EF.
Option C. CD.
Correct Answer is. EF.
Question Number. 16. Over-voltage protection circuits are activated.

Option A. before the over voltage limit is exceeded.
Option B. dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage.
Option C. after a fixed time delay.
Correct Answer is. dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage.
Question Number. 17. A diode connected across a coil will.

Option A. suppress arching when relay is opening and closing.
Option B. prevent the coil being fitted the wrong way.
Option C. prevent back EMF and allow faster switching.
Correct Answer is. prevent back EMF and allow faster switching.
Explanation. NIL. http://homepages.which.net/~paul.hills/Solenoids/SolenoidsBody.html
Question Number. 18. Differential protection in a generating system.

Option A. detects voltage difference between source and load.
Option B. uses the volts coil to trip the GCR.
Option C. detects current difference between source and load.
Correct Answer is. detects current difference between source and load.
Question Number. 19. Open phase sensing on a current transformer.

Option A. is detected using all phases.
Option B. is detected using any phase.
Option C. is detected on generator neutral circuit.
Correct Answer is. is detected on generator neutral circuit.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 121, & B737 Manual.
Question Number. 20. To flash a generator field the.
Option A. generator rotates but is not on line.
Option B. generator must be stationary.
Option C. generator is on line and producing a voltage less than the flashing voltage.
Correct Answer is. generator must be stationary.
Question Number. 21. Voltage is controlled by.

Option A. the voltage regulator.
Option B. the swashplate.
Option C. the constant speed drive.
Correct Answer is. the voltage regulator.
Explanation. The voltage is controlled by the voltage regulator.
Question Number. 22. The ground interlock pins are numbered.

Option A. E and F.
Option B. C and N.
Option C. A and B.
Correct Answer is. E and F.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page.
Question Number. 23. A GCR will trip if what is detected?.

Option A. Over frequency and under current.
Option B. Over current and over frequency.
Option C. Under frequency and over frequency.
Correct Answer is. Over current and over frequency.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. In a vibrator type voltage regulator.

Option A. parallel with the field.
Option B. the resistor is in series with the field.
Option C. in series with the voltage coil.
Correct Answer is. the resistor is in series with the field.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems EHJ Pallett 3rd Edition Page 11. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin Page 199.
Question Number. 25. When changing the brushes on a DC generator, the brushes must be bedded first. This can be
done.
Option A. the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on the bench.
Option B. at the manufacturers only.
Option C. with the generator fitted to the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on the bench.
Explanation. Generator brushes are never bedded in on aircraft because an engine driven genny has too high an rpm and the
brushes would glaze the commutator and render the genny unusable.
Question Number. 26. What must be taken into account when measuring the SG or relative density of a lead acid
battery?.
Option A. The ambient humidity.
Option B. The temperature.
Option C. The ambient pressure.
Correct Answer is. The temperature.
Explanation. The temperature changes the volume. SG = mass/volume.
Question Number. 27. The electrolyte in a nicad battery can be checked by checking.
Option A. only the end cell as all the others will be the same.
Option B. any single cell as all the others will be the same.
Option C. one cell at a time until all cells are completed.
Correct Answer is. one cell at a time until all cells are completed.
Explanation. Ni-cad battery cells are isolated from each other. All cells must be checked.
Question Number. 28. Distilled water should be added to a ni-cad battery.

Option A. at any time.
Option B. only in the battery workshop.
Option C. when fully charged.
Correct Answer is. only in the battery workshop.
Explanation. C.A.I.P E.E.L/1-3 para 4.
Question Number. 29. Overflowing electrolyte in a ni-cad battery indicates.

Option A. excessive charging current.
Option B. low electrolyte temperature.
Option C. not enough charging current.
Correct Answer is. excessive charging current.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Page 7-31, 7-32.
Question Number. 30. During a normal engine shutdown, generator tripping is initiated by.
Option A. underfrequency.
Option B. undervoltage.
Option C. overcurrent.
Correct Answer is. undervoltage.
Question Number. 31. What would you use to neutralise nicad battery spillage?.
Option A. Bicarbonate of soda.
Option B. Boric acid.
Option C. Distilled water.
Correct Answer is. Boric acid.
Explanation. Boric acid.
Question Number. 32. Before operating generators in parallel, their voltages should be matched to prevent.
Option A. voltage spikes of sufficient magnitude to trigger GCU overvoltage circuits.
Option B. large circulating currents developing.
Option C. overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines.
Correct Answer is. overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines.
Question Number. 33. Consumer loads are connected to a busbar.

Option A. in series so when loads are shed voltage is reduced.
Option B. in parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced.
Option C. in series so when loads are shed current is reduced.
Correct Answer is. in parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced.
Explanation. All loads are connected in parallel with each other.
Question Number. 34. A current transformer connected on the neutral star point of a generator is for.
Option A. differential current protection.
Option B. negative sequence protection.
Option C. overload protection.
Correct Answer is. differential current protection.
Question Number. 35. Differential protection as applied to AC generation systems compares.

Option A. generator current to busbar current.
Option B. ambient pressure to cabin pressure.
Option C. generator voltage to busbar voltage.
Correct Answer is. generator current to busbar current.
Question Number. 36. Sparking in a generator would be caused by.

Option A. brushes on the Magnetic Neutral Axis.
Option B. low spring tension.
Option C. bedding of brushes.
Correct Answer is. low spring tension.
Explanation. Sparking can be caused by low spring tension.
Question Number. 37. In an AC generation system, the frequency and phase rotation.
Option A. must be synchronised prior to paralleling.
Option B. must be out of phase prior to paralleling.
Option C. is of no consequence after paralleling.
Correct Answer is. must be synchronised prior to paralleling.
Question Number. 38. What should be done to a transformer secondary connections which are open circuit?.
Option A. Short the terminals together.
Option B. Leave the terminals open circuit.
Option C. Put a set resistance across the terminals.
Correct Answer is. Leave the terminals open circuit.
Explanation. The secondary of a transformer should always be open circuit or on load (except for a current transformer, which
should be shorted).
Question Number. 39. Diodes are placed across a contactor to.

Option A. ensure smooth contactor operation.
Option B. speed up operation by reducing back EMF.
Option C. prevent contact bounce.
Correct Answer is. speed up operation by reducing back EMF.
Explanation. NIL. http://homepages.which.net/~paul.hills/Solenoids/SolenoidsBody.html
Question Number. 40. Placing the battery master switch to off during flight will.
Option A. disconnect all power to the main busbar.
Option B. shut down the APU.
Option C. isolate the battery from the main busbar.
Correct Answer is. isolate the battery from the main busbar.
Explanation. The Battery master switch simply connects the battery to the main busbar, allowing it to be charged from the
generator(s).
Question Number. 41. Whilst operating paralleled AC constant frequency generators, it is important to maintain generator
outputs at the same voltage.
Option A. to prevent a circulating current developing between two or more TRUs.
Option B. to prevent CSD shock loading.
Option C. to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more generators.
Correct Answer is. to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more generators.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 42. A voltage regulator installed in series with a generator field.
Option A. uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output.
Option B. uses a current coil in parallel with generator output.
Option C. uses a voltage coil in series with generator output.
Correct Answer is. uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin page 199-200.
Question Number. 43. CSD warning lights on the flight deck normally indicate.
Option A. low oil pressure, low oil temperature.
Option B. low oil pressure, high oil temperature.
Option C. high oil pressure, low oil temperature.
Correct Answer is. low oil pressure, high oil temperature.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook , page 7-50.
Question Number. 44. The output frequency of a hydraulically driven standby generator is controlled by.
Option A. an hydraulically actuated swash plate.
Option B. an IDG.
Option C. a CSD.
Correct Answer is. an hydraulically actuated swash plate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 45. An AC generator used with a CSD.

Option A. does not need a voltage controller because current is kept constant.
Option B. needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with increasing load.
Option C. does not need a voltage controller because voltage is kept constant.
Correct Answer is. needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with increasing load.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 46. Trip signals for a GCR are.

Option A. underfrequency and overcurrent.
Option B. differential protection and undervoltage.
Option C. overfrequency and undervoltage.
Correct Answer is. differential protection and undervoltage.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 47. Abnormal CSD operation is monitored on the flight deck by observing indications of.
Option A. High oil temperature / low oil quantity.
Option B. low oil quantity / low oil temperature.
Option C. high oil temperature / low oil pressure.
Correct Answer is. high oil temperature / low oil pressure.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook , page 7-50.
Question Number. 48. Wires in hot temperature areas should be bound with.
Option A. PVC.
Option B. Nomex.
Option C. Teflon.
Correct Answer is. Teflon.
Explanation. This is probably referring to the Teflon tape referred to in Aircraft Electricity and Electronics by Eismin 5th Edition
Page 69. Also AC43 Para.11.96 z and Appendix 1 (Teflon is Dupont tradename for PTFE).
Question Number. 49. A heat gun should be operated at.

Option A. 100°C below the specified.
Option B. 100°C above the specified.
Option C. the specified temperature.
Correct Answer is. the specified temperature.
Explanation. A heat gun should be operated at the specified temperature, or 100°C (approx) above the heatshrink
temperature.
Question Number. 50. High voltages on a generator in a parallel system should be prevented because.
Option A. it will cause high circulating current in the bus / other generators.
Option B. it will damage the drive shaft.
Option C. it will trip the GCR.
Correct Answer is. it will trip the GCR.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 51. Over-voltage condition trips the generator. The time taken to trip the GCU depends on.
Option A. amplitude of voltage.
Option B. time delay circuit.
Option C. closing of fuel and hydraulic valves.
Correct Answer is. amplitude of voltage.
Explanation. Inverse time delay - c could also be considered correct. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, page 203.
Question Number. 52. Speed of an HMG is controlled by a.

Option A. swashplate.
Option B. ID unit.
Option C. CSD unit.
Correct Answer is. swashplate.
Explanation. Speed of an HMG is controlled by a swashplate.
Question Number. 53. Circulating currents is caused by unbalanced.

Option A. AC and DC generators.
Option B. DC generators.
Option C. AC generators.
Correct Answer is. AC generators.
Explanation. Balancing' refers to three phase generators. Hence AC.
Question Number. 54. A permanent magnet should have.
Option A. low retentivity, high coercivity.
Option B. low retentivity, low coercivity.
Option C. high retentivity, low coercivity.
Correct Answer is. high retentivity, low coercivity.
Explanation. A permanent magnet should have a low coercivity (so it is easy to magnetise) and high retentivity (so it is
difficult to demagnetise).
Question Number. 55. Loss of an electrolyte in a battery is due to.

Option A. insufficient charging current.
Option B. excessive charging current.
Option C. excessive charging voltage.
Correct Answer is. excessive charging current.
Explanation. Excessive charge current will cause bubbling and evaporation of the electrolyte.
Question Number. 56. What will happen if the aircraft battery becomes overheated?.
Option A. The battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode.
Option B. The hot battery bus will be disconnected from the battery.
Option C. The power supply to the battery charger will be interrupted.
Correct Answer is. The battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode.
Explanation. B737 switches to trickle charge. However, see Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rdEdition Figure 1.32 for
charger disconnect system.
Question Number. 57. When the temperature increases in a lead acid battery, the SG will.
Option A. increase.
Option B. decrease.
Option C. remain the same.
Explanation. Since volume increases, but mass remains constant, with temperature, density decreases.
Question Number. 58. A CSD is monitored for.
Option A. low temperature and high oil pressure.
Option B. high temperature and high oil pressure.
Option C. high temperature and low oil pressure.
Correct Answer is. high temperature and low oil pressure.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems EHJ Pallett third Edition Page. 37.
Question Number. 59. Low electrolyte in a nicad battery is caused by.

Option A. excessive electrical loading.
Option B. low charge current.
Option C. high charge current.
Correct Answer is. excessive electrical loading.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett 3rd Edition page 21.
Question Number. 60. The specific gravity readings of a leadacid cell taken twice after charging shows a substantially
lower value.
Option A. Cell is defective.
Option B. You replace the cell.
Option C. You top up the cell with distilled water.
Correct Answer is. Cell is defective.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 61. IDG output voltage.

Option A. voltage is regulated by GCU.
Option B. voltage is regulated by IDG.
Option C. does not require voltage regulation as RPM is constant.
Correct Answer is. voltage is regulated by GCU.
Question Number. 62. On testing a generator it is found to require adjusting, where would you adjust it?.
Option A. On the GCU.
Option B. In the cockpit on the flight engineers panel.
Option C. By means of a remote trimmer.
Correct Answer is. By means of a remote trimmer.
Explanation. Adjusted with a remote trimmer.
Question Number. 63. Control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is.
Option A. by angle of swash plate.
Option B. by CSU.
Option C. by IDG.
Correct Answer is. by angle of swash plate.
Explanation. Control of an HPG is via a swashplate.
Question Number. 64. In a modern aircraft, power distribution of generators are controlled by.
Option A. PCDU (power control distribution unit).
Option B. BPCU.
Option C. SPCU.
Correct Answer is. BPCU.
Question Number. 65. When a ni-cad battery is fully charged.

Option A. the electrolyte level is higher level than normal.
Option B. the electrolyte level stays the same.
Option C. the electrolyte level is lower than normal.
Correct Answer is. the electrolyte level is higher level than normal.
Question Number. 66. A 4:1 step-up transformer receives 120 VAC in its primary and has 1600 Ohms resistance in its
secondary. What is the current drawn from the source?.
Option A. 1.2 A.
Option B. 0.3 A.
Option C. 3 A.
Correct Answer is. 1.2 A.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 67. After engine start using a Ni-Cad battery, the pilot observes on the battery charger indicator, an
initial high current draw followed by a rapid decrease in current.
Option A. no cause for concern.
Option B. the battery is faulty.
Option C. there is a problem with the charging circuit and he must shut-down the engines.
Correct Answer is. no cause for concern.
Explanation. This is normal.
Question Number. 68. Topping up a Ni-Cad battery in situ.

Option A. is not allowed.
Option B. is permitted.
Option C. is only allowed in the shop.
Correct Answer is. is not allowed.
Explanation. CAIPs E.E.L/1-3 Para 6.4.
Question Number. 69. In a lead-acid battery after numerous checks, one cell has low reading.
Option A. It needs topping up.
Option B. It is defective.
Option C. It must be replaced.
Correct Answer is. It must be replaced.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 70. A short range passenger aircraft has complete electrical failure. What time duration would the
battery be expected to power essential equipment?.
Option A. Forever.
Option B. 30 minutes.
Option C. 60 minutes.
Correct Answer is. 30 minutes.
Explanation. A.W.N 81 para 3.1.2 - now transferred to CAP 747 GR no 4.
Question Number. 71. An external power plug has two short pins.These are used for.
Option A. a guide for correct alignment of the plug in the socket.
Option B. the interlock circuit.
Option C. ground handling bus.
Correct Answer is. the interlock circuit.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett Page 290.
Question Number. 72. The purpose of a synchronising bus bar is.

Option A. to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck.
Option B. to monitor total current load.
Option C. to enable two propeller systems to be synchronised.
Correct Answer is. to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 51 and 52.
Question Number. 73. To confirm the state of charge of a ni-cad battery.

Option A. subject the battery to load, check voltage and check the SG of each cell.
Option B. measure the discharge time.
Option C. subject the battery to load and check the voltage.
Correct Answer is. measure the discharge time.
Explanation. CAIPs E.E.L/1-3 4.5.6 and 4.7.
Question Number. 74. Circulating currents are associated with.

Option A. AC and DC generators in parallel.
Option B. AC generators in parallel.
Option C. DC generators in parallel.
Correct Answer is. AC generators in parallel.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 75. Generator brush bedding.
Option A. can be done on the aircraft.
Option B. should only be done if 50% of the width and 80% of the length is already being done.
Option C. should not be done on the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. should not be done on the aircraft.
Explanation. CAIPs E.E.L/1-4 4.3.6 (Does not say that it cannot be done on the aircraft - but would be difficult).
Question Number. 76. A differential relay in a twin generator system will cause.
Option A. only one generator can supply a bus bar at a time.
Option B. the generator voltages are nearly equal before they are paralleled.
Option C. one generator always comes on line before the other.
Correct Answer is. the generator voltages are nearly equal before they are paralleled.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 77. Distilled or demineralised water would be added to an alkaline battery.
Option A. in the charging room only.
Option B. in the aircraft.
Option C. when the battery is fully charged.
Correct Answer is. in the charging room only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 78. When removing the load from a current transformer.
Option A. short the terminals.
Option B. place a resistor across each terminal.
Option C. leave the terminals open.
Correct Answer is. short the terminals.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems EHJ Pallett Page 61.
Question Number. 79. On AC ground power the interlock system is operated by pins.
Option A. E and F.
Option B. A and B.
Option C. C and D.
Correct Answer is. E and F.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 80. Pitot tubes are heated by.

Option A. AC.
Option B. DC.
Option C. AC or DC.
Correct Answer is. AC or DC.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett 3rd edition Page 32.
Question Number. 81. When paralleling two AC generators.

Option A. it is important that they are in phase, and can be brought on in either ABC or CBA.
Option B. it is important that they are in phase, and should be brought on in sequence ABC.
Option C. they do not need to be in phase.
Correct Answer is. it is important that they are in phase, and can be brought on in either ABC or CBA.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 82. Paralleling is used for.

Option A. AC and DC electrical generators.
Option B. DC electrical generators only.
Option C. AC electrical generators only.
Correct Answer is. AC and DC electrical generators.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 83. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA.

Option A. Chapter 24 Section 31.
Option B. Chapter 31 Section 21.
Option C. Chapter 24 Section 21.
Correct Answer is. Chapter 24 Section 31.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 84. In a carbon pile regulator, the resistive element is.
Option A. in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length.
Option B. in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length.
Option C. in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact.
Correct Answer is. in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact.
Question Number. 85. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is.
Option A. 144 degrees C.
Option B. 144 degrees F.
Option C. 71 degrees F.
Correct Answer is. 144 degrees F.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 86. If an aircraft has no battery charger, the battery is charged by.
Option A. constant current.
Option B. constant voltage.
Option C. constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage.
Correct Answer is. constant voltage.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 87. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is.
Option A. fluctuating.
Option B. stationary.
Option C. pulse width modulating.
Correct Answer is. stationary.
Explanation. CAIPs E.E.L/1-2 3.1.1.
Question Number. 88. In a transistor voltage regulator, the voltage output is controlled by.
Option A. diodes and transformers.
Option B. zeners and transistors.
Option C. transformers and transistors.
Correct Answer is. zeners and transistors.
Question Number. 89. A paralleled relay for a DC system is energised and connected by.
Option A. voltage coil.
Option B. voltage and current coil.
Option C. current coil.
Correct Answer is. voltage and current coil.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 16, 17, 18.
Question Number. 90. Increasing the real load primarily.

Option A. decreases output voltage.
Option B. increases output voltage and increases frequency.
Option C. decreases frequency.
Correct Answer is. decreases frequency.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 91. Inductive reactive load causes.

Option A. no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated.
Option B. increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated.
Option C. increase in torque only.
Correct Answer is. no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 92. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of.
Option A. real power from the generator that does work.
Option B. apparent power from the generator that does work.
Option C. reactive power from the generator that does work.
Correct Answer is. real power from the generator that does work.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 93. Differential protection in an AC system protects against.

Option A. line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults.
Option B. short circuits.
Option C. a reverse current flowing from the battery.
Correct Answer is. short circuits.
Question Number. 94. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be.
Option A. rotating at idle.
Option C. rotating at Nsync.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 95. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to.

Option A. maintain constant load on the generator.
Option B. enable generators to be paralleled.
Option C. prevent engine overload.
Correct Answer is. enable generators to be paralleled.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 37.
Question Number. 96. In an undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely consequence is.
Option A. energise the bus tie relay.
Option B. activation of the time delay circuit.
Option C. deactivation of the field regulatory TRs.
Correct Answer is. activation of the time delay circuit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 97. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication that the.
Option A. CSD driveshaft had sheared.

Option B. phase sequence detection circuit has operated.
Option C. bus tie interlock is inoperative.
Correct Answer is. CSD driveshaft had sheared.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 98. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft, they are connected in.
Option A. series.
Option B. either parallel or series and switched between as an option.
Option C. parallel.
Correct Answer is. either parallel or series and switched between as an option.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Pallett Page 23/26/27.
Question Number. 99. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?.
Option A. Positive to external power relay.
Option B. Ground or earth.
Option C. Positive to battery relay.
Correct Answer is. Positive to external power relay.
Question Number. 100. How is RAT driven?.

Option A. Compressor.
Option B. Fan.
Option C. Airstream.
Correct Answer is. Airstream.
Explanation. Ram Air Turbine.
Question Number. 101. How is an aircraft battery rated?.
Option A. Joules.
Option B. Watts.
Option C. Ampere hours.
Correct Answer is. Ampere hours.
Explanation. Aircrfat Electrical Systems Pallett Page 21.
Question Number. 102. What would indicate the state of charge of a lead acid battery?.
Option A. Fluctuations in the terminal voltage.
Option B. Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte.
Option C. Fluctuations in the level of the electrolyte.
Correct Answer is. Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte.
Question Number. 103. How is the output of a constant speed drive fed AC generator controlled?.
Option A. No control as the generator is fed via a constant speed drive.
Option B. By a swashplate.
Option C. Hydraulic feedback to a governor.
Correct Answer is. By a swashplate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 104. What should be taken into account when measuring the SG of a battery?.
Option A. The outside temperature.
Option B. Charge state of the battery.
Option C. Electrolyte temperature.
Correct Answer is. Electrolyte temperature.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 105. DC power into the GCU comes from.

Option A. main battery bus and ground service.
Option B. main battery bus.
Option C. ground service.
Correct Answer is. main battery bus.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 106. A reduction in field strength of a DC shunt motor driving a constant load will result in.
Option A. increased torque and reduced speed.
Option B. reduced torque and increased speed.
Option C. increased torque and speed.
Correct Answer is. increased torque and speed.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 138 (reduces Back EMF).
Question Number. 107. Speed control on an emergency hydraulic driven generator is via the.
Option A. CSD.
Option B. swash plate.
Option C. IDG.
Correct Answer is. swash plate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 108. What are the 2 short prongs on an AC plug for?.
Option A. Using AC current to pull on interlock circuit.
Option B. To prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection.
Option C. To help plug location/fit.
Correct Answer is. To prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection.
Explanation. The short prongs are for DC only. Aircraft Electrical System, Pallett pg 72.
Question Number. 109. A vibration contact voltage regulator consists of a shunt winding and a.
Option A. voltage regulating coil in series.
Option B. voltage regulating coil in parallel.
Option C. current regulation coil in series.
Correct Answer is. current regulation coil in series.
Question Number. 110. What is the purpose of diode in a power GCR?.
Option A. To allow flow in the event of failure of the relay.
Option B. To speed up the operation.
Option C. To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil.
Correct Answer is. To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil.
Explanation. The diode is to prevent the high current flow in the coil due to induction as the relay switches off.
Question Number. 111. Eddy currents are.

Option A. caused by heating effect of the coil.
Option B. caused by resistance of the coil.
Option C. circulating currents.
Correct Answer is. circulating currents.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.google.com/search?q=define:Eddy+Currents
Question Number. 112. The small pins in the power connector plug are.
Option A. neutral.
Option B. negative.
Option C. positive.
Correct Answer is. positive.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 70.
Question Number. 113. When an overvolt is present on an AC generator system, the tripping circuit.
Option A. trips after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt amplitude.
Option B. trips after a time delay.
Option C. trips at a set level.
Correct Answer is. trips after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt amplitude.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 119/120.
Question Number. 114. In an AC distribution system, the purpose of the synchronising bus-bar is to.
Option A. provide interconnection between the generator load busbars.
Option B. supply essential services.
Option C. provide a means of monitoring the load.
Correct Answer is. provide interconnection between the generator load busbars.
Question Number. 115. Vibrating contact voltage regulator sensing coil is.
Option A. in parallel with the field windings.
Option B. across the generator output.
Option C. in series with the field windings.
Correct Answer is. in parallel with the field windings.
Explanation. E.E.L/1-2 Page 5, Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 11.
Question Number. 116. A current transformer connected across the neutral of a 3 phase generator is for.
Option A. load monitoring.
Option B. differential protection.
Option C. phase sequence monitoring.
Correct Answer is. differential protection.
Question Number. 117. A transformer has a power input of 115 V AC. What is the output voltage?.
Option A. 345 V.
Option B. 115 V.
Option C. 460 V.
Correct Answer is. 460 V.
Explanation. An old Module 3 question.
Question Number. 118. Zener diodes are for.

Option A. voltage regulation.
Option B. voltage stabilisation.
Option C. rectification.
Correct Answer is. voltage regulation.
Explanation. An old Module 4 question. Although Zener diodes can be used (back-to-back) to protect equipment from voltage
spikes (voltage stabilisation) they are more commonly associated with voltage regulation.
Question Number. 119. AC generator output indications are measured in.

Option A. KVA & KW.
Option B. KW.
Option C. KW & KVAR.
Correct Answer is. KVA & KW.
Explanation. An AC generator is rated in KVA and KW (or KVA and power factor, from which KW can be calculated). However,
a DC generator is rated in KW only.
Question Number. 120. A shunt wound generator fitted on an aircraft, a preset potentiometer is fitted.
Option A. in series with the field winding.
Option B. in series with the generator output.
Option C. in parallel with the field winding.
Correct Answer is. in series with the field winding.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 121. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft they are connected in.
Option A. series.
Option B. parallel.
Option C. either parallel or series and switched between as an option.
Correct Answer is. either parallel or series and switched between as an option.
Explanation. Option is available on some aircraft e.g. Shorts Skyvan (please report other examples you know of).
Question Number. 122. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?.
Option A. Ground or earth.
Option B. Positive to battery relay.
Option C. Positive to external power relay.
Correct Answer is. Positive to external power relay.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Pallett. Page 70.
Question Number. 123. Load shedding allows.

Option A. more voltage to the busbar.
Option B. less current to the busbar.
Option C. more current to the busbar.
Correct Answer is. less current to the busbar.
Explanation. Load shedding is carried out to reduce current (voltage is constant).
Question Number. 124. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is.
Option A. 144°F.
Option B. 115°F.
Option C. 144°C.
Correct Answer is. 115°F.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems By Pallett Page 31.
Question Number. 125. How may the output of a transistorised voltage regulator be described?.
Option A. Variable AC.
Option B. Pulse width modulated DC.
Option C. Slightly variable DC.
Correct Answer is. Pulse width modulated DC.
Explanation. A voltage regulator has two outputs, one to the generator field (pulse width modulated on a sistorised regulator)
and one to the busbar (constant voltage but variable current depending on load). The answer here depends upon which output
they are referring.
Question Number. 126. If an aircraft has no battery charger, the battery is charged by.
Option A. constant current.
Option B. constant current until a predetermined limit when it.
Option C. automatically switches to constant voltage constant voltage.
Correct Answer is. constant voltage.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 127. In the event of complete AC generator failure in an AC split bus-bar generation system, how is
power maintained to the essential AC bus-bar?.
Option A. By power fed from static inverter only.
Option B. By power fed from a hot battery bus-bar only.
Option C. By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter.
Correct Answer is. By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 78 Figure. 5.2.
Question Number. 128. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA.

Option A. Chapter 31 Section 21.
Option B. Chapter 24 Section 31.
Option C. Chapter 24 Section 21.
Correct Answer is. Chapter 24 Section 31.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 129. In a carbon pile regulator, the resistive element is.
Option A. in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length.
Option B. in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact.
Option C. in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length.
Correct Answer is. in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact.
Question Number. 130. In what units are static inverters rated?.

Option A. kVAR.
Option B. kW.
Option C. kVA.
Correct Answer is. kVA.
Explanation. VA or KVA, just like an AC generator.
Question Number. 131. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is.
Option A. pulse width modulating.
Option C. fluctuating.
Question Number. 132. In a transistor voltage regulator, the voltage output is controlled by.
Option A. transformers and transistors.
Option B. diodes and transformers.
Option C. zeners and transistors.
Correct Answer is. zeners and transistors.
Question Number. 133. Paralleled relay for DC system is energised and connected by.
Option A. voltage coil.
Option B. voltage and current coil.
Option C. current coil.
Correct Answer is. voltage and current coil.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems by Pallett page 70/71 fig 4.5.
Question Number. 134. Increasing the real load primarily.

Option A. decreases output voltage.
Option B. decreases frequency.
Option C. increases output voltage and increases frequency.
Correct Answer is. increases output voltage and increases frequency.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 135. Inductive reactive load causes.

Option A. increase in torque only.
Option B. increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated.
Option C. no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated.
Correct Answer is. no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 136. In a generator system, a stability winding is used.

Option A. to control output current.
Option B. in series with the field to prevent oscillations.
Option C. to prevent voltage overshoot.
Correct Answer is. to prevent voltage overshoot.
Explanation. E.E.L/1-2 3.4.5 (d).
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 138. On engine shutdown, what prevents GCR being tripped?.
Option A. Under-frequency.
Option B. Under-current.
Option C. Under-volt.
Correct Answer is. Under-frequency.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett page 120.
Question Number. 139. The control of a hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by.
Option A. angle of swash plate.
Option B. restriction valve.
Option C. IDG.
Correct Answer is. angle of swash plate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 140. How is real and reactive load sharing achieved in an AC parallel generator system?.
Option A. Real and reactive loads by control of the constant speed drives only. Output voltage is controlled by adjustment
of generator fields.
Option B. Real load by control of generator fields, Reactive loads by adjustment of the constant speed drives.
Option C. Real load by control of the constant speed drives, reactive load by adjustment of generator fields.
Correct Answer is. Real load by control of the constant speed drives, reactive load by adjustment of generator fields.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett page 48 and 49.
Question Number. 141. Differential protection in an AC system protects against.

Option A. line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults.
Option B. A reverse current flowing from the battery.
Option C. short circuits.
Correct Answer is. line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 142. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be.
Option A. stationary.
Option B. rotating at idle.
Option C. rotating at Nsync.
Question Number. 143. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to.

Option A. maintain constant load on the generator.
Option B. prevent engine overload.
Option C. enable generators to be paralleled.
Correct Answer is. enable generators to be paralleled.
Question Number. 144. In a undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely consequence is.
Option A. deactivation of the field regulatory TRs.
Option B. activation of the time delay circuit.
Option C. energise the bus tie relay.
Correct Answer is. activation of the time delay circuit.
Explanation. NIL.
Option A. phase sequence detection circuit has operated.

Option B. bus tie interlock is inoperative.
Option C. CSD drives shaft had sheared.
Correct Answer is. CSD drives shaft had sheared.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 146. Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical load increases, generator output
voltage will.
Option A. increases and amperage output increases.
Option B. decrease and amperage output increases.
Option C. remain constant and amperage output increases.
Correct Answer is. remain constant and amperage output increases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 147. Other than when there is a fault in an aircraft battery or its charging system, when is the charger
switched off automatically?.
Option A. When the alternators are fully loaded.
Option B. When the battery is used for excessively high discharge currents such as in starting.
Option C. When there is a failure of one alternator in a split-bus bar system.
Correct Answer is. When the battery is used for excessively high discharge currents such as in starting.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 148. The trimmer resister in a carbon pile volts regulator is.
Option A. in parallel with the generator volts coil.
Option B. in series with the generator field.
Option C. in series with the generator volts coil.
Correct Answer is. in series with the generator volts coil.
Explanation. E.E.L/1-2 Fig 1.
Question Number. 149. When a field relay trips the generator off-line, it can be reset.
Option A. after the fault has been cleared.
Option B. by cycling the generator switch.
Option C. on the ground only.
Correct Answer is. on the ground only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 150. In a paralleled AC generator system both A phases must be in synchronisation and.
Option A. phase rotation does not matter.
Option B. CBA must equal ABC.
Option C. CBA must equal CBA.
Correct Answer is. CBA must equal CBA.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 151. When loads are shed from a busbar automatically.
Option A. bus bar current rises.
Option B. bus bar voltage rises.
Option C. bus bar current decreases.
Correct Answer is. bus bar current decreases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 152. What controls output from the generator?.

Option A. GCU.
Option B. ELCU.
Option C. BPCU.
Correct Answer is. GCU.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, has full descriptions of all 3 units.
Question Number. 153. Specific Gravity in a lead acid battery should give an indication of.
Option A. electrolyte level.
Option B. electrolyte temperature.
Option C. charge.
Correct Answer is. charge.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 154. During normal engine shut-down, the generator.

Option A. control relay is tripped only.
Option B. breaker and control relay are both tripped.
Option C. breaker is tripped only.
Correct Answer is. breaker is tripped only.
Explanation. B757 Maintenance Training Manual.
Question Number. 155. During a system overload, load sharing will first affect.
Option A. first officers transfer bus.
Option B. galley services.
Option C. IFE.
Correct Answer is. galley services.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics (Fifth Edition), Eismin, page 241.
Question Number. 156. A RAT provides AC power of around.

Option A. 28 VAC.
Option B. 7.5 kVA.
Option C. 63 kVA.
Correct Answer is. 7.5 kVA.
Explanation. NIL.
Option A. phase sequence detection circuit has operated.

Option B. CSD drive shaft has sheared.
Option C. bus tie interlock is inoperative.
Correct Answer is. CSD drive shaft has sheared.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics (Fifth Edition), Eismin, Page 221.
Question Number. 158. Paralleling in AC constant frequency is affected by.

Option A. contactors.
Option B. But Tie Bar (BTB).
Option C. Generator Control Unit (GCU).
Correct Answer is. But Tie Bar (BTB).
Question Number. 160. Parallel distribution systems can typically be found on all.
Option A. twin-engined aircraft.
Option B. aircraft with 4 or more engines only.
Option C. aircraft with 3 or more engines.
Correct Answer is. aircraft with 3 or more engines.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics (Fifth edition), Eismin, page 238.
Question Number. 161. Aircraft generators are connected in.
Option A. series to the busbar, series to the load and the loads parallel to each other.
Option B. series to the busbar, parallel to the load and the loads parallel to each other.
Option C. parallel to the busbar, series to the load and the loads parallel to each other.
Correct Answer is. series to the busbar, series to the load and the loads parallel to each other.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and electronics, (Fifth edition), Eismin, page 235, figure 12-4.
Question Number. 162. Non-essential loads such as galleys and cabin lighting operate from the.
Option A. Ground handling bus.
Option B. Ground services bus.
Option C. Transfer bus.
Correct Answer is. Transfer bus.
Explanation. Boeing System.
Question Number. 163. The generator warning light will come on when.
Option A. voltage is too high.
Option B. voltage is above battery voltage.
Option C. voltage is below battery voltage.
Correct Answer is. voltage is below battery voltage.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 164. When replacing a current transformer.

Option A. it can only be fitted one way round.
Option B. voltage/current selection must be made prior to fitting.
Option C. it can be fitted any way round.
Correct Answer is. it can only be fitted one way round.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 165. The economy coil on a relay.

Option A. reduces current required to hold closed.
Option B. reduces current required to close.
Option C. makes it cheaper to make.
Correct Answer is. reduces current required to hold closed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 166. What does a current limiter fuse do?.

Option A. React when the circuit gets warm.
Option B. Limit current to a predetermined level to prevent circuit damage.
Option C. Allow high current to flow for 5 seconds.
Correct Answer is. Limit current to a predetermined level to prevent circuit damage.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 99, Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 112, CAIPs E.E.L/1-9
Para 3.2.
Question Number. 167. What is the function of the generator control relay?.
Option A. Control output voltage.
Option B. Connect the generator to the busbar.
Option C. Bring the generator on-line.
Correct Answer is. Bring the generator on-line.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 168. The current consumed by a DC starter motor will.

Option A. increase as the engine speed increases.
Option B. decrease as the engine speed increases.
Option C. remain constant.
Correct Answer is. decrease as the engine speed increases.
Explanation. Decreases due to the back EMF as engine speed increases.
Question Number. 169. A neutralising agent for sulphuric acid is.

Option A. borax powder.
Option B. sodium bicarbonate.
Option C. citric acid.
Correct Answer is. sodium bicarbonate.
Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook p 7-30 refers.
Question Number. 170. In a split bus power distribution system.

Option A. power is split between 115 V AC and 28 V DC.
Option B. generators are paralleled on connection to the tie bus.
Option C. each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in normal operation.
Correct Answer is. each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in normal operation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 171. Flashing a generator field.

Option A. increases resistance.
Option B. restores magnetism.
Option C. decreases resistance.
Correct Answer is. restores magnetism.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 172. When checking SG of electrolyte of lead acid battery, what should be taken into account?.
Option A. Electrolyte temperature.
Option B. Battery charge.
Option C. Ambient temperature.
Correct Answer is. Electrolyte temperature.
Explanation. E.E.L/1-1 4.3.4.
Question Number. 173. How do you check condition of Ni-Cad battery in situ?.
Option A. By voltmeter connected to the battery terminal.
Option B. By voltmeter in the cockpit when battery is off load.
Option C. By voltmeter in the cockpit, when battery is on load.
Correct Answer is. By voltmeter in the cockpit, when battery is on load.
Question Number. 174. The reactive load circuit in a multi-engined AC generator system.
Option A. modifies generator drive speed.
Option B. modifies generator field excitation voltage.
Option C. modifies generator field excitation current.
Correct Answer is. modifies generator field excitation current.
Question Number. 175. A vibrating type voltage regulator uses a volts coil.
Option A. in series with the current coil.
Option B. in parallel with the generator output.
Option C. in series with the generator output.
Correct Answer is. in parallel with the generator output.
Question Number. 176. The purpose of the economy contacts in a relay is to.
Option A. reduce the current required to hold the contacts closed.
Option B. prevent contact pitting and burning.
Option C. close the auxiliary contacts before the main contacts.
Correct Answer is. reduce the current required to hold the contacts closed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 177. A vibrating contact voltage regulator has.

Option A. a resister in parallel with the points.
Option B. a volts coil in parallel with the points.
Option C. a resistor in series with the points.
Correct Answer is. a resister in parallel with the points.
Explanation. E.E.L/1-2 Figure 3.
Question Number. 178. Brush bedding-in on a starter generator can be carried out.
Option A. when 80 percent of the brush area has been previously bedded in, on the bench.
Option B. only off the aircraft.
Option C. during flight.
Correct Answer is. only off the aircraft.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 179. Tripping the GCR will.

Option A. trip the GCB.
Option B. de-excite the generator.
Option C. both (a) and (b).
Correct Answer is. both (a) and (b).
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 180. In a synchronous motor the rotor is.

Option A. self excited.
Option B. excited by DC.
Option C. excited by AC.
Correct Answer is. excited by DC.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 190. The equalizing coILS on voltage regulators will.

Option A. have current passing through them only when the generators are not paralleled.
Option B. be connected to each other when the generators are paralleled.
Option C. have current passing through them from the higher loaded generator to the lower.
Correct Answer is. have current passing through them from the higher loaded.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Thomas Eismin 5th Edition page 200.
Question Number. 191. A fully charged lead-acid battery will not freeze until extremely low temperatures are reached
because.
Option A. most of the acid is in the solution.
Option B. the acid is in the plates, thereby increasing the specific gravity of the solution.
Option C. increased internal resistance generates sufficient heat to prevent freezing.
Correct Answer is. most of the acid is in the solution.
Question Number. 192. What determines the amount of current which will flow through a battery while it is being charged
by a constant voltage source?.
Option A. The ampere-hour capacity of the battery.
Option B. The total plate area of the battery.
Option C. The state-of-charge of the battery.
Correct Answer is. The state-of-charge of the battery.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 193. The method used to rapidly charge a nickel-cadmium battery utilizes.
Option A. constant current and varying voltage.
Option B. constant voltage and varying current.
Option C. constant current and constant voltage.
Correct Answer is. constant voltage and varying current.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 52. CAIPs E.E.L/1-3 4.5.1.
Question Number. 194. The presence of small amounts of potassium carbonate deposits on the top of nickel-cadmium
battery cells that have been in service for time is an indication of.
Option A. excessive plate sulphation.
Option B. normal operation.
Option C. excessive gassing.
Correct Answer is. excessive gassing.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 23 and Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 50 but see also CAIPs
E.E.L/1-3 4.2 (h).
Question Number. 195. The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries together in the same service
area is likely to result in.
Option A. contamination of both types of batteries.
Option B. normal battery service life.
Option C. increased explosion and/or fire hazard.
Correct Answer is. contamination of both types of batteries.
Explanation. CAIPs E.E.L/2-1 Page 1 Para 2.11.
Question Number. 196. If the current drawn from No.1 generator of a twin generator DC system is less than that drawn
from No.2 generator, the current in the No.2 generator equalizing coil will flow.
Option A. in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, increasing the output of No.2 generator.
Option B. in the opposite direction to the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator.
Option C. in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator.
Correct Answer is. in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator.
Explanation. CAIPs E.E.L/1-3 4.2 (h).
Question Number. 197. On a C.S. driven generator, operation of the Disconnect Solenoid will disconnect the generator
drive and.
Option A. it can only be reset when all loads are switched off.
Option B. it will automatically reset itself when the fault is rectified.
Option C. resetting can only be carried out on the ground.
Correct Answer is. resetting can only be carried out on the ground.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 198. In a constant frequency AC system, real load sharing is achieved by regulating the.
Option A. voltage regulator.
Option B. generator speed.
Option C. generator drive torque.
Correct Answer is. generator drive torque.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page 48-49.
Question Number. 199. A constant speed drive unit has a warning light indication.
Option A. for low oil pressure.
Option B. for when it is disconnected from the generator.
Option C. for low speed.
Correct Answer is. for low oil pressure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 200. The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is the lowest when the battery is.
Option A. in a discharged condition.
Option B. under load condition.
Option C. being charged.
Correct Answer is. in a discharged condition.
Question Number. 201. Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long period of time will show a low fluid level
because the.
Option A. fluid evaporates through vents.
Option B. fluid level was not periodically replenished.
Option C. electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates.
Correct Answer is. electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates.
Explanation. Jeppesen AandP Technician Airframe Textbook page 7-32 and 7-33. a) could alsobe correct.
Question Number. 202. The purpose of an inverter is to convert.

Option A. AC to a higher frequency AC.
Option B. DC to AC.
Option C. AC to DC.
Correct Answer is. DC to AC.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 203. What is the purpose of the current transformer on a Neutral phase of an AC generator?.
Option A. Negative phase sequencing.
Option B. Differential protection.
Option C. Open phase.
Correct Answer is. Differential protection.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 204. How can the state-of-charge of a nickel-cadmium battery be determined?.
Option A. By the level of the electrolyte.
Option B. By measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte.
Option C. By measuring discharge.
Correct Answer is. By measuring discharge.
Question Number. 205. What may result if water is added to a nickel-cadmium battery when it is not fully charged?.
Option A. Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle.
Option B. The cell temperature will run too low for proper output.
Option C. No adverse results since water may be added anytime.
Correct Answer is. Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle.
Question Number. 206. How do you reset a GCR trip?.

Option A. Automatically once the fault goes away.
Option B. Manually at the GCU.
Option C. Manually from the flight deck.
Correct Answer is. Manually at the GCU.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 207. In nickel-cadmium batteries, a rise in cell temperature.

Option A. causes a decrease in internal resistance.
Option B. increases cell voltage.
Option C. causes an increase in internal resistance.
Correct Answer is. causes a decrease in internal resistance.
Explanation. CAIPs E.E.L/1-3 4.5.8 (a).
Question Number. 208. When a charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium battery, the cells emit gas only.
Option A. toward the end of the charging cycle.
Option B. if they are defective.
Option C. when the electrolyte level is low.
Correct Answer is. toward the end of the charging cycle.
Question Number. 209. The equalising coil in the carbon pile regulator.
Option A. becomes inoperative when the undervolt relay energises.
Option B. is connected in series with the carbon pile.
Option C. modifies the effect of the voltage sensing coil.
Correct Answer is. modifies the effect of the voltage sensing coil.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 210. In a constant frequency AC system, reactive load sharing is achieved by regulating the.
Option A. generator speed.
Option B. voltage regulator.
Option C. generator drive torque.
Correct Answer is. voltage regulator.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 48.
Question Number. 211. Under-frequency in an AC supply would cause.

Option A. overheating of inductive devices.
Option B. overspeeding of AC motors.
Option C. overvoltage of capacitive devices.
Correct Answer is. overheating of inductive devices.
Explanation. Inductive devices will pass more current if it is lower frequency.
Question Number. 212. The electrolyte in a lead-acid battery contains.

Option A. nitric acid.
Option B. hydrochloric acid.
Option C. sulphuric acid.
Correct Answer is. sulphuric acid.
Question Number. 213. In the procedure to be followed after spillage of battery acid, neutralizing may be carried out.
Option A. with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate.

Option B. by washing with distilled water.
Option C. by applying a coating of petroleum jelly.
Correct Answer is. with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 214. Frequency (Hertz) is the number of cycles per.

Option A. revolution.
Option B. second.
Option C. minute.
Correct Answer is. second.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 215. The three voltages of a three phase generator are.
Option A. 90 degrees apart.
Option B. 180 degrees apart.
Option C. 120 degrees apart.
Correct Answer is. 120 degrees apart.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 216. To restore the level of electrolyte which has been lost due to normal gassing during battery
charging.
Option A. distilled water must be added.
Option B. sulphuric acid must be added.
Option C. electrolyte of the same specific gravity as that contained in the battery must be added.
Correct Answer is. distilled water must be added.
Explanation. CAIPS E.E.L/1-1 4.6.1.
Question Number. 217. A 12 volt lead-acid battery.

Option A. has 12 cells.
Option B. has 6 cells.
Option C. has 24 cells.
Correct Answer is. has 6 cells.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 218. The active component of an A.C. circuit is 4 amps and the reactive is 3 amps. Ammeter reading will
be.
Option A. 5 amps.
Option B. 3.4 amps.
Option C. 7 amps.
Correct Answer is. 5 amps.
Explanation. Total current is the vector sum of active (real) and reactive currents. 3, 4, 5 triangle in this case.
Question Number. 219. In a delta connected generator.

Option A. line volts equals phase volts.
Option B. phase volts equals 1.73 line volts.
Option C. line volts equals 1.73 phase volts.
Correct Answer is. line volts equals phase volts.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 220. The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an aircraft generator
under varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the.
Option A. number of conductors in the armature.
Option B. strength of the magnetic field.
Option C. speed at which the armature rotates.
Correct Answer is. strength of the magnetic field.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 221. As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity), the voltage will.
Option A. remain constant and the amperage output will decrease.
Option B. decrease and the amperage output will increase.
Option C. remain constant and the amperage output will increase.
Correct Answer is. decrease and the amperage output will increase.
Explanation. Assuming no voltage regulator is considered, otherwise b is the answer.
Question Number. 222. When checking the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a battery.
Option A. each cell should be checked as the readings may differ.
Option B. one cell only need be checked as the remainder will read the same.
Option C. only the end cells need be checked as they contain the terminals.
Correct Answer is. each cell should be checked as the readings may differ.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 223. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the.
Option A. S.G. reaches 1.180.
Option B. cells begin to gas freely.
Option C. S.G. and voltage remain constant for specified period.
Correct Answer is. S.G. and voltage remain constant for specified period.
Question Number. 224. Which aircraft circuit would be most likely to use frequency wild 200 V AC?.
Option A. Hydraulic pump.
Option B. Windscreen heating.
Option C. Standby compass.
Correct Answer is. Windscreen heating.
Explanation. Any heating or lighting circuit can be frequency wild.
Question Number. 225. To prevent corrosion at the terminals of a lead-acid battery.

Option A. petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections.
Option B. the connectors may be painted.
Option C. copper connectors are used.
Correct Answer is. petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections.
Explanation. CAIPs E.E.L/1-1 4.2 (vi).
Question Number. 226. Before taking S.G. readings of a lead-acid battery recently removed from an aircraft.
Option A. the electrolyte temperature must be noted.
Option B. the battery must be charged at the 10 hour rate for one hour.
Option C. a period of 1 hour should have elapsed to allow the S.G. to stabilize.
Correct Answer is. the electrolyte temperature must be noted.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 227. The output of a DC generator is controlled by varying the.

Option A. armature current.
Option B. field current.
Option C. engine speed.
Correct Answer is. field current.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 228. A generator rated at 30 kVA power factor 0.8 has a maximum continuous power output of.
Option A. 37.5 kW.
Option B. 30 kW.
Option C. 24 kW.
Correct Answer is. 24 kW.
Explanation. PF = TP/AP 0.8 = TP/30 TP = 24.
Question Number. 229. The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery.
Option A. remains constant with changes in the state of charge but is a useful guide to the amount of acid contained in the
electrolyte.
Option B. remains substantially constant regardless of the state of charge and is not therefore a guide to the state of
charge.
Option C. changes with the state of charge and is therefore a measure of the state of charge.
Correct Answer is. changes with the state of charge and is therefore a measure of the state of charge.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 230. A battery which is assumed to be 100% efficient and to have a capacity of 60 ampere-hours at the
10 hour rate will deliver.
Option A. 6 amps for 10 hours.
Option B. 60 amps for 10 hours.
Option C. 60 amps for 10 hours or 6 amps for 10 hours depending upon the rate of demand.
Correct Answer is. 6 amps for 10 hours.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 231. Small pins on an AC GPU receptacle.

Option A. use AC as part of an interlock circuit.
Option B. are used to prevent incorrect orientation.
Option C. prevent arcing when inserting or removing the connector.
Correct Answer is. prevent arcing when inserting or removing the connector.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 232. Constant speed drive is monitored in the cockpit for.
Option A. oil pressure and speed.
Option B. low oil pressure and high oil temperature.
Option C. oil pressure and quantity.
Correct Answer is. low oil pressure and high oil temperature.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 233. Two 12 V 25 ampere batteries connected in series will produce.
Option A. 12 V with 25 ampere hour capacity.
Option B. 12 V with 50 ampere hour capacity.
Option C. 24 V with 25 ampere hour capacity.
Correct Answer is. 24 V with 25 ampere hour capacity.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 234. As an installed battery becomes fully charged by the aircraft generator.
Option A. the battery contactor isolates the battery from the generator.
Option B. the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging current decreases.
Option C. the generator voltage decreases to supply the steadily decreasing current.
Correct Answer is. the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging current decreases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 235. Battery charging on an aircraft.

Option A. will be reasonably stable due to constant current charging.
Option B. will be reasonably stable due to constant voltage charging.
Option C. may produce excessive charging initially, especially if the battery charge is low.
Correct Answer is. will be reasonably stable due to constant current charging.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 236. A vibrating contact voltage regulator.

Option A. has a resistor in series with the voltage coil.
Option B. has a resistor in parallel with the two contacts.
Option C. has a resistor in series with the two contacts.
Correct Answer is. has a resistor in parallel with the two contacts.
Explanation. E.E.L/1-2 fig 3.
Question Number. 237. On a DC shunt generator without a voltage regulator, if the load increases the generator output
voltage will.
Option A. increase.
Option B. decrease.
Option C. Nothing.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 238. For battery charging, the electrical supply connected to the battery must be.
Option A. DC.
Option B. AC at 400 c.p.s.
Option C. AC at 50 c.p.s.
Correct Answer is. DC.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 239. When using A.C. power on the bus bar you require 28 V D.C. for battery charging.
Option A. an A.C. transformer and rectifier would be required.
Option B. a D.C. transformer and rectifier would be required.
Option C. an A.C. inverter would be required.
Correct Answer is. an A.C. transformer and rectifier would be required.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 240. Two similar 12 V batteries connected in parallel will produce.
Option A. 12 V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery.
Option B. 24 V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery.
Option C. 24 V e.m.f. with the same capacity as each battery.
Correct Answer is. 12 V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 241. If a nicad battery overheats, it is an indication of.

Option A. the generator is not connected to the bus bar.
Option B. the generator voltage regulator setting is too low.
Option C. thermal runaway.
Correct Answer is. thermal runaway.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 242. When checking a nicad battery in situ for serviceability.
Option A. a hydrometer must be used.
Option B. the electrical circuits must be isolated before installing shorting strips.
Option C. a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted.
Correct Answer is. a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 243. The output from an AC generator is taken from.

Option A. slip rings.
Option B. slip rings via commutator.
Option C. connections on the stator.
Correct Answer is. connections on the stator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 244. Load sharing on a DC generation system is achieved by.

Option A. circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage trimming.
Option B. tachogenerators varying the generators outputs as the engine speed varies.
Option C. the load differences causing torque signals to vary the engine speed.
Correct Answer is. circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage trimming.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 245. If a nickel cadmium aircraft battery is not required for immediate service, it should be stored.
Option A. in the fully discharged condition.

Option B. in a totally dry condition.
Option C. in the fully charged condition.
Correct Answer is. in the fully discharged condition.
Explanation. CAIPs E.E.L/1-3 8.
Question Number. 246. The correct way to determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery is.
Option A. by checking the specific gravity of each cell.
Option B. by a complete discharge and a measured recharge.
Option C. by checking the voltage of each cell under load.
Correct Answer is. by a complete discharge and a measured recharge.
Question Number. 247. A DC generator will be connected to the busbar after the RCCO contacts close due to.
Option A. a differential voltage of 0.5 V battery voltage higher than generator.
Option B. increasing generator voltage.
Option C. increasing battery voltage.
Correct Answer is. increasing generator voltage.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 248. Spillage of a lead acid electrolyte is detected by.

Option A. litmus paper that turns black.
Option B. indicating paper that turns red.
Option C. indicating paper that turns blue.
Correct Answer is. indicating paper that turns red.
Explanation. Acid turns litmus paper red.
Question Number. 249. To restore electrolyte after spillage.

Option A. add a mixture of acid and water of the same s.g. as that in the battery.
Option B. add distilled water only.
Option C. add acid only.
Correct Answer is. add a mixture of acid and water of the same s.g. as that in the battery.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 250. When a DC generator fails, the pilot will receive the following indications:-.
Option A. Rising voltage and current discharge with a red PFWL.
Option B. Zero current on the ammeter and a red PFWL.
Option C. An audio bell and red PFWL.
Correct Answer is. Zero current on the ammeter and a red PFWL.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 251. The purpose of an inverter is to convert.

Option A. AC to a higher frequency AC.
Option B. AC to DC.
Option C. DC to AC.
Correct Answer is. DC to AC.
13.06. Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25).
Question Number. 1. Where does it state what emergency equipment and what levels of emergency equipment should
be carried on an aircraft.
Option A. Maintenance Manual.
Option B. BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4.
Option C. JAR OPS.
Correct Answer is. JAR OPS.
Explanation. JAR OPS subpart K. Download a copy at http://www.jaa.nl/section1/jarsec1.html.
Question Number. 2. Emergency electronic equipment requirement will be found in.

Option A. Maintenance Manual.
Option B. CAAIPs.
Option C. JAR OPS.
Correct Answer is. JAR OPS.
Explanation. JAR OPS.
Question Number. 3. When the captain calls the attendant.

Option A. a low chime and blue light comes on.
Option B. a high/low chime and pink light comes on.
Option C. a high chime and pink light comes on.
Correct Answer is. a high/low chime and pink light comes on.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.meriweather.com/320/over/oxygen.html
Question Number. 4. PTV type entertainment equipment.

Option A. is installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing techniques.
Option B. is not the part of maintenance schedule.
Option C. has no capacity for digital information processing and transmitting.
Correct Answer is. is installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing techniques.
Explanation. PTV = Personal Television.
Question Number. 5. Attendant call is achieved by pressing a button on the passenger service unit (PSU). To reset the
light.
Option A. the button is pushed again.
Option B. the button is pulled out.
Option C. a reset switch on the attendants panel is operated.
Correct Answer is. the button is pushed again.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. Cabin assistance when activated from the toilet.

Option A. activates a high chime and an amber light.
Option B. activates a high / low chime and a blue light.
Option C. activates a musical fanfare and a red light.
Correct Answer is. activates a high chime and an amber light.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.meriweather.com/777/fd-777.html
Question Number. 7. Seat belts sign is accompanied by.
Option A. low chime.
Option B. high chime.
Option C. high / low chime.
Correct Answer is. low chime.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. A typical emergency locator transmitter (ELT).

Option A. receives 2 frequencies.
Option B. transmit 3 frequencies.
Option C. transmits 2 frequencies.
Correct Answer is. transmit 3 frequencies.
Explanation. Boeing 737 ELT 23-24-00 121.5Mega Hertz, 243.0Mega Hertz, 406Mega Hertz.
Question Number. 9. The V.H.F aeronautical emergency frequency is.

Option A. 125.5 Mega Hertz.
Explanation. NIL.
13.07a. Flight Controls (ATA 27).
Question Number. 1. Pushing the left rudder pedal.

Option A. yaws the aircraft left and possibly the right wing will rise.
Option B. yaws the aircraft left and possibly the left wing will rise.
Option C. yaws the aircraft left but has no effect on the wing.
Correct Answer is. yaws the aircraft left and possibly the right wing will rise.
Explanation. The aircraft will yaw to left, making the right wing rise due to its increased speed.
Question Number. 2. A full time yaw damper system detects.

Option A. only low frequencies.
Option B. all frequencies.
Option C. band pass frequencies.
Correct Answer is. band pass frequencies.
Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 222 on.
Question Number. 3. Which side of the pilot is the collective lever?.

Option A. In-between legs.
Option B. Left.
Option C. Right.
Correct Answer is. Left.
Explanation. A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Pg 1-63. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, Page 63.
Question Number. 4. The purpose of a yaw damper is to.

Option A. assist the aerodynamic response.
Option B. block the Dutch roll frequency.
Option C. produce a co-ordinated turn.
Correct Answer is. block the Dutch roll frequency.
Question Number. 5. Automatic trim is used to.

Option A. prevents standing loads on the elevator.
Option B. maintain level flight.
Option C. allow full authority to be regained by the aileron.
Correct Answer is. prevents standing loads on the elevator.
Explanation. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 371-372.
Question Number. 6. A yaw damper system operates on.
Option A. all yaw frequencies.
Option B. only mid range frequencies.
Option C. low range frequencies.
Correct Answer is. low range frequencies.
Question Number. 7. When the primary stops fitted to a control run have been contacted.
Option A. the secondary stops will just be in contact.
Option B. a clearance exists at the secondary stops.
Option C. the secondary stops have been over-ridden.
Correct Answer is. a clearance exists at the secondary stops.
Explanation. The clearance is on the secondary stops.
Question Number. 8. A flying control static friction check.

Option A. can only be carried out during flight.
Option B. demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls.
Option C. will demonstrate that a high force is always necessary to operate non-powered controls.
Correct Answer is. demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls.
Explanation. A static friction check demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the
controls.
Question Number. 9. Stall warning will be given at speeds.

Option A. at the actual stall speed.
Option B. that are lower than stall speed.
Option C. that are higher than stall speed.
Correct Answer is. that are higher than stall speed.
Explanation. As the aircraft slows, the stall warning is given 'prior to' the stall. That's why it's called a WARNING.
Question Number. 10. When working on an hydraulic operated flight control, it is sensible to.
Option A. remove/disconnect hydraulic power.
Option B. pull the appropriate CB.
Option C. remove/disconnect electrical power.
Correct Answer is. remove/disconnect hydraulic power.
Explanation. Removing/disconnect hydraulic power will ensure that the system is safe.
Question Number. 11. On the ground, poilers/speedbrakes deploy to.

Option A. 30°.
Option B. 60°.
Option C. 15°.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Jeppesen Page 5-6. In the air - 30 degrees and a further 15 degrees with
ailerons.
Question Number. 12. A manual trim wheel, when fully moved in the direction of the tail.
Option A. the authority of the elevators not effected.
Option B. the up movement authority of the elevators is effected.
Option C. the down movement authority of the elevators is effected.
Correct Answer is. the up movement authority of the elevators is effected.
Explanation. Moving the wheel back moves the trim surface DOWN, which moves the elevator surface UP and reduces the
range available to the pilot in that direction.
Question Number. 13. During a left turn.

Option A. right rudder to be used.
Option B. left rudder to be used.
Option C. ball is to be maintained in centre of turn and slip indicator.
Correct Answer is. ball is to be maintained in centre of turn and slip indicator.
Explanation. Normally a small amount of rudder is used to produce a more coordinated turn.
Question Number. 14. The cyclic stick in an helicopter is.

Option A. in the centre.
Option B. to the left.
Option C. to the right.
Correct Answer is. in the centre.
Question Number. 15. Purpose of the bellcrank is to.

Option A. transmit motion.
Option B. reverse direction and transmit motion.
Option C. adjust friction.
Correct Answer is. reverse direction and transmit motion.
Explanation. A bellcrank transmits motion and reverses direction of a control run.
Question Number. 16. If the 'Q' feel in a powered control system fails.
Option A. the failed system stops and it remains in this position.
Option B. the pilot feels air loads higher than normal.
Option C. the pilot feels air loads lower than normal.
Correct Answer is. the pilot feels air loads lower than normal.
Explanation. The 'Q' feel system is to simulate air loads.
Question Number. 17. When secondary stops are utilized in control surfaces, they come in contact.
Option A. before the primary stops.
Option B. at the same time as the primary stops.
Option C. after the primary stops.
Correct Answer is. after the primary stops.
Explanation. Secondary stops (usually at the cockpit end of the control run) make contact AFTER the primary stops.
Question Number. 18. Helicopter cyclic stick is turned to the right, the.
Option A. rotating aerofoil tilts to the right.
Option B. rotating aerofoil tilts forward.
Option C. pitch operating arms lengthen in one direction and shorten in another.
Correct Answer is. rotating aerofoil tilts to the right.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-47 p82.
Question Number. 19. A spring balance control system you.
Option A. can move the control surface only by moving the tab.
Option B. can move the control surface on the ground.
Option C. cannot move the control surface on the ground.
Correct Answer is. can move the control surface on the ground.
Question Number. 20. In normal flight, if the control column is pulled back, a servo tab fitted to the elevator will.
Option A. move up.
Option B. move down.
Option C. remain in line with the elevator.
Correct Answer is. move down.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. On an aircraft fitted with elevons in normal flight, if a column is moved forward, the elevons will.
Option A. both move down.

Option B. both move up.
Option C. remain stationary.
Correct Answer is. both move down.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. Artificial feel is gained by using a.

Option A. spring bias unit.
Option B. hydraulic damper.
Option C. 'feel' generator.
Correct Answer is. spring bias unit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. Medium vibration of 4 to 6 times per revolution is experienced on a helicopter. The primary control
method is.
Option A. design of engine and gearbox supports.
Option B. inspect main rotor head and main drive shaft.
Option C. inspect loose fixtures and fittings.
Correct Answer is. design of engine and gearbox supports.
Explanation. Engine and gearbox rotate faster than the rotor.
Question Number. 24. To avoid moments bending the root of the wing, the aircraft will be fitted with.
Option A. automatic trim control for controlled turns and rudder movements.
Option B. symmetrical flight control trim.
Option C. integrated fuel monitoring system.
Correct Answer is. symmetrical flight control trim.
Explanation. Probably referring to Load Alleviation Function. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-29.
Question Number. 25. 'Q' feel for the stabiliser requires.

Option A. pitot and static.
Option B. pitot only.
Option C. static only.
Correct Answer is. pitot and static.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. When the aircraft nose yaws to the left, the yaw damper will apply corrective rudder to.
Option A. the left.
Option B. the right.
Option C. the left with some aileron assistance.
Correct Answer is. the right.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. A yaw damper gain could be fitted with.

Option A. decreases sensitivity for decreased speed.
Option B. decreases sensitivity for increased speed.
Option C. increased sensitivity for increased speed.
Correct Answer is. increased sensitivity for increased speed.
Question Number. 28. A yaw damper will apply rudder proportional to.
Option A. attitude of aircraft.
Option B. rate of yaw.
Option C. amount of aircraft disturbance.
Correct Answer is. rate of yaw.
Question Number. 29. How are spoilers normally operated?.

Option A. Electrical motors.
Option B. Hydraulic actuator.
Option C. Air pistons.
Correct Answer is. Hydraulic actuator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. If the flaps are sluggish or erratic on final approach, the possible cause may be.
Option A. flap tracks out of rigging.
Option B. bearing seized.
Option C. flap motor internal leakage.
Correct Answer is. flap motor internal leakage.
Explanation. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-19.
Question Number. 31. The stabiliser is set to high setting when.

Option A. the flap are moving up.
Option B. the flap are moving up or down.
Option C. the flaps are moving down.
Correct Answer is. the flaps are moving down.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 215 fig 7.8, and page 219.
Question Number. 32. Mach trim threshold are set by the.

Option A. engineer using aircraft maintenance manual.
Option B. manufacturer.
Option C. pilot.
Correct Answer is. manufacturer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. Yaw damping rate changes with.

Option A. airspeed.
Option B. altitude.
Option C. flap position.
Correct Answer is. airspeed.
Question Number. 34. If a pointer is not centralised on a trim indicators, it means that.
Option A. the system is trimmed.
Option B. the control system is out of trim.
Option C. the indicator is not serviceable.
Correct Answer is. the control system is out of trim.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, Page 230/231.
Question Number. 35. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by.
Option A. feedback from the servo motor.
Option B. feedback from control surface.
Option C. fitting a tachogenerator.
Correct Answer is. fitting a tachogenerator.
Explanation. tomatic Flight Control by E.H.J.Pallett 3rd edition, page-157 (feedback, para 2).
Question Number. 36. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by.
Option A. 0.10321.
Option B. 0.04.
Option C. 0.07.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin 5th Edition Page-370.
Question Number. 37. With a spring balance control system you can.
Option A. not move the control surface on the ground.
Option B. move the control surface only by moving the tab.
Option C. move the control surface on the ground.
Correct Answer is. move the control surface on the ground.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 38. If an aircraft is entering a turn to the left, what input would the aileron to rudder crossfeed be?.
Option A. Right Rudder.

Option B. No Rudder.
Option C. Left Rudder.
Correct Answer is. Left Rudder.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 39. If a control surface that is fitted with a balance tab is moved, what will happen to the tab?.
Option A. It is moved automatically in the opposite direction as the surface.
Option B. It is moved automatically in the same direction as the surface.
Option C. It is moved manually in the opposite direction to the surface.
Correct Answer is. It is moved automatically in the opposite direction as the surface.
Explanation. A and P Mechanics Airframe Handbook Page 23.
Question Number. 40. If a stall is approaching, what indication does the pilot get?.
Option A. Stick Shaker.
Option B. EICAS warning.
Option C. Stick Nudger.
Correct Answer is. Stick Shaker.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Circuits EHJ Pallett Page 74 (although the other answers could also be
correct on some aircraft types, but stick shaker is most common).
Question Number. 41. A wing mounted stall warning vane.

Option A. gives a visual indication of impending stall.
Option B. moves up at impending stall.
Option C. moves down at impending stall.
Correct Answer is. moves up at impending stall.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 42. During an autopilot controlled turn.

Option A. ailerons, rudder and THS will move.
Option B. ailerons, rudder and elevators will move.
Option C. ailerons and rudder will move.
Correct Answer is. ailerons, rudder and elevators will move.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 43. The neutral shift system augments control of the.
Option A. elevator.
Option B. stabiliser.
Option C. spoilers.
Question Number. 44. If the aircraft is to be rolled to the right, where does the pilot feed in this command?.
Option A. Rudder Pedals.
Option B. Control Wheel.
Option C. Control Column.
Correct Answer is. Control Wheel.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 45. With a control surface tab in the neutral position, what happens when the control surface is
moved?.
Option A. It moves in the same direction as the control surface.
Option B. It moves in the opposite direction as the control surface.
Option C. It remains in the neutral position.
Correct Answer is. It moves in the opposite direction as the control surface.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 43. Assuming it is a balance tab, or a combined balance/trim tab.
Question Number. 46. If the cyclic is moved to the right.

Option A. the rotor blades on the right flap down.
Option B. the rotor blades on the left flap down.
Option C. POM shortens on one side and lengthens on another.
Correct Answer is. the rotor blades on the right flap down.
Explanation. Rotor blades on right flap down to tilt the rotor disk to right. Due to precession, the controlling POM for this
manoeuvre are fore and aft.
Question Number. 47. What would happen to an aircraft at low speed, at high angle of attack, if it had an aileron going
down?.
Option A. Have no effect on the stall speed.
Option B. Increase stall speed.
Option C. Decrease stall speed.
Correct Answer is. Increase stall speed.
Explanation. Deflecting aileron down decreases local stall angle, thus increasing local stall speed.
Question Number. 48. Active load control involves.

Option A. intervention & monitoring the human pilot.
Option B. limiting the deflection of control surface with airspeed.
Option C. varying lift force to control vertical movement of the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. varying lift force to control vertical movement of the aircraft.
Question Number. 49. Active load control uses.

Option A. aileron and spoiler.
Option C. elevator and stab.
Correct Answer is. aileron and spoiler.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems 5-29 (Load Alleviation Function).
Question Number. 50. What happens when a control stick is pulled back and to the left?.
Option A. Elevator up, left aileron down.
Option B. Elevator down, right aileron down.
Option C. Elevator up, right aileron down.
Correct Answer is. Elevator up, right aileron down.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 51. If an elevator is fitted with a fixed tab in the down position, the control surface will.
Option A. move down.
Option B. remain at the same place.
Option C. move up.
Correct Answer is. move up.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 52. Spring tabs.

Option A. cannot be adjusted.
Option B. cannot be adjusted in flight.
Option C. can be adjusted in the flight deck.
Correct Answer is. cannot be adjusted.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 53. Aileron input is fed into the yaw damper system to.
Option A. prevent nose pitching up.
Option B. prevent nose pitching down.
Option C. prevent adverse yaw in a turn.
Correct Answer is. prevent adverse yaw in a turn.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 54. A 'q' feel system supplies.

Option A. control movement effort relief.
Option B. aerodynamic damping.
Option C. the pilot with ever increasing awareness of speed.
Correct Answer is. the pilot with ever increasing awareness of speed.
Question Number. 55. A helicopter needs to re-trim.

Option A. indication is shown on the API.
Option B. indication is shown on the command bars of the EHSI.
Option C. indication is shown on the command bars of the attitude indicator.
Correct Answer is. indication is shown on the API.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control. Pallett page 237/238.
Question Number. 56. Pitch trimming in autopilot is initiated by.

Option A. continued pitch input.
Option B. C of G movement.
Option C. pitch of aircraft in cruise.
Correct Answer is. continued pitch input.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 57. Differential aileron control will.

Option A. prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input.
Option B. cause a nose down moment.
Option C. cause a nose up moment.
Correct Answer is. prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 58. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by.
Option A. 0.04.
Option B. 0.10321.
Option C. 0.07.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 59. When an hydraulic system is un pressurised, the position of flight control surfaces are.
Option A. down.
Option B. droop.
Option C. neutral.
Correct Answer is. droop.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 60. Elevons combine the functions of both.

Option A. rudder and aileron.
Option C. rudder and elevator.
Correct Answer is. elevator and aileron.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-16 Fig 1-36.
Question Number. 61. A differential aileron system is designed to.

Option A. minimise flutter.
Option B. prevent adverse yaw.
Option C. compensate for aileron reversal.
Correct Answer is. prevent adverse yaw.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 62. An artificial feel system is required.

Option A. for power operated control systems.
Option B. for proportional control systems.
Option C. for power assisted control systems.
Correct Answer is. for power operated control systems.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 63. A tandem P.F.C.U.

Option A. has two control surfaces under its control.
Option B. has the actuator rams parallel.
Option C. has the actuator rams co-axial.
Correct Answer is. has the actuator rams co-axial.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.tpub.com/content/engine/14105/css/14105_157.htm.
Question Number. 64. What is the purpose of a differential Frise aileron?.

Option A. To increase the drag to increase the rate of yaw and turn.
Option B. To decrease the drag and decrease the rate of yaw and turn.
Option C. Has no effect on rate of yaw and turn.
Correct Answer is. To increase the drag to increase the rate of yaw and turn.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 65. Active load control uses.

Option A. ailerons and spoilers.
Option B. elevator and ailerons.
Option C. elevator and stab.
Correct Answer is. ailerons and spoilers.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 66. An artificial feel system is necessary in a powered flying control system to.
Option A. increasing the sensitivity of the control system.
Option B. provide the pilot with simulated stick forces.
Option C. prevent overloading of the power control units.
Correct Answer is. provide the pilot with simulated stick forces.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 67. In the event of hydraulic failure in a power control system, a requirement of the manual reversion
is that it must be.
Option A. possible, but not recommended.
Option B. operated by the standby hydraulic system.
Option C. automatic and instantaneous.
Correct Answer is. automatic and instantaneous.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 68. The purpose of control cable regulators is to.

Option A. compensate for high temperature only.
Option B. compensate for low temperature only.
Option C. maintain preset cable tensions during flight.
Correct Answer is. maintain preset cable tensions during flight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 69. Range of movements of power operated flying control surfaces are limited by.
Option A. travel of the jack body.
Option B. travel of the jack ram.
Option C. mechanical stops in the control system.
Correct Answer is. mechanical stops in the control system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 70. The aircraft is controlled about the lateral axis by the.
Option A. elevator.
Option B. rudder.
Option C. ailerons.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 71. The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by the.
Option A. rudder.
Option B. ailerons.
Option C. elevator.
Correct Answer is. rudder.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 72. The purpose of the Servo Valve in a power operated control is.
Option A. to revert the system to manual operation.
Option B. to provide pressure to operate the control.
Option C. to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilots control in cockpit.
Correct Answer is. to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilots control in cockpit.
Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Technician Textbook page 12-38.
Question Number. 73. A stick shaker is a device which.

Option A. helps extricate an aircraft from soft ground.
Option B. gives a short period of extra lift to assist take off.
Option C. vibrates the control column near stalling speed.
Correct Answer is. vibrates the control column near stalling speed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 74. An anti-balance tab is moved.

Option A. when the C.G. changes.
Option B. hydraulically.
Option C. via a fixed linkage.
Correct Answer is. via a fixed linkage.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 75. A servo tab is operated.

Option A. by a trim wheel and moves in the opposite direction to the main control surfaces when moved.
Option B. automatically, and moves in the same direction as the main control surfaces.
Option C. directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces.
Correct Answer is. directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces.
Question Number. 76. Gust Load Alleviation Function in a FLY BY WIRE system.
Option A. uses the high speed computer responses to compensate for sudden gusts.
Option B. is achieved by the weight saving from elimination of cables, feel units and other conventional items.
Option C. may be controlled by the elevators.
Correct Answer is. uses the high speed computer responses to compensate for sudden gusts.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 77. Active load control on a large transport aircraft's aileron system is fitted to.
Option A. improve fatigue life, due to aeroelasticity and high lift loads.
Option B. improve trim control due to lateral centre of gravity changes.
Option C. increase roll control authority of the autopilot.
Correct Answer is. improve fatigue life, due to aeroelasticity and high lift loads.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 78. Powered flying control actuators.

Option A. transmit pilot input to the control surfaces.
Option B. provide feedback to the pilot.
Option C. are operated by the autopilot only.
Correct Answer is. transmit pilot input to the control surfaces.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 79. A stick shaker operates.
Option A. after the stall.
Option B. at the onset of the stall.
Option C. just before the stall.
Correct Answer is. just before the stall.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems Page 168.
Question Number. 80. Irreversibility of a fully powered control surface is provided by.
Option A. the jack ram being attached to structure.
Option B. nulling of the servo valve.
Option C. air loads on the control surface.
Correct Answer is. nulling of the servo valve.
Explanation. Nulling the servo valve produces a hydraulic lock.
Question Number. 81. Q feel units use.

Option A. static pressure only.
Option B. pitot pressure only.
Option C. pitot and static pressures.
Correct Answer is. pitot and static pressures.
Explanation. Avionics Fundamentals pg 257 fig 17-31.
Question Number. 82. Powered flight control systems are used on transport aircraft.
Option A. because the pilot has too many tasks to perform.
Option B. due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft.
Option C. because at low level air density is high.
Correct Answer is. due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 83. A lift transducer is normally fitted.

Option A. to the nose area of the aircraft.
Option B. on the leading edge of the wing.
Option C. on the elevator control system.
Correct Answer is. on the leading edge of the wing.
Explanation. Lift transducer, also known as a stall sensor.
Question Number. 84. The down position of the speed brake lever is detented to.
Option A. prevent inadvertent operation.
Option B. lock the speed brakes down during flight.
Option C. allow the ground speed brakes to be used on touchdown.
Correct Answer is. prevent inadvertent operation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 85. Asymmetric flap operation is prevented to keep to a minimum the tendancy of.
Option A. rolling.
Option B. yawing.
Option C. pitch changes.
Correct Answer is. rolling.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 86. The frequency of dutch roll oscillations are.

Option A. high.
Option B. medium.
Option C. low.
Correct Answer is. low.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 87. A series yaw damper.

Option A. moves the rudder and the rudder pedals.
Option B. moves ailerons and rudder.
Option C. moves the rudder only.
Correct Answer is. moves the rudder only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 88. The purpose of a yaw damper is to prevent.
Option A. dutch roll.
Option B. adverse yaw.
Option C. loss of height in a turn.
Correct Answer is. dutch roll.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 89. A series type yaw damper.

Option A. moves the rudder and the ailerons to damp out Dutch roll.
Option B. moves the rudder only.
Option C. moves the rudder pedals and the rudder.
Correct Answer is. moves the rudder only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 90. A stick shaker.

Option A. is an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor and mounted on the control column.
Option B. vibrates the elevators to cause buffeting of the airframe.
Option C. is a linear actuator attached to the base of the control column.
Correct Answer is. is an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor and mounted on the control column.
Explanation. A.L/3-21 page 22 para 13.3.2 and Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 211.
Question Number. 91. If the control column is moved forward and to the left.
Option A. left aileron moves up, right aileron down, elevator down.
Option B. left aileron moves down, right aileron up, elevator down.
Option C. left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator up.
Correct Answer is. left aileron moves up, right aileron down, elevator down.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 92. When an aileron trim control in the cockpit is moved to counteract a tendency to fly left wing low,
an aileron trim tab fitted to the port aileron will.
Option A. move up and cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move down to a lesser degree.
Option B. move up and cause the left aileron to move down but the right aileron will remain neutral.
Option C. move up and this will cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move up.
Correct Answer is. move up and this will cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move up.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 93. An interrupter arm incorporated in a flying control locking mechanism.
Option A. locks the ailerons and elevators.
Option B. dampens the rudder movement.
Option C. restricts movement of the throttles.
Correct Answer is. restricts movement of the throttles.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 94. Moving the elevator trim wheel fully aft, then the.
Option A. aircraft tends to go nose up.
Option B. aircraft tends to go nose down.
Option C. aircraft tends to roll to the right.
Correct Answer is. aircraft tends to go nose up.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 95. The outboard ailerons on some aircraft.

Option A. are isolated to improve sensitivity.
Option B. are isolated to prevent aileron reversal.
Option C. are isolated at slow speeds.
Correct Answer is. are isolated to prevent aileron reversal.
Explanation. NIL.
13.07b. Flight Controls (ATA 27).

Question Number. 1. Versine is generated by.
Option A. synchro resolvers.
Option B. control synchro transformers.
Option C. torque receiver synchros.
Correct Answer is. synchro resolvers.
Question Number. 2. In a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by using.
Option A. L.V.D.Ts for roll and pitch control surfaces.
Option B. L.V.D.Ts for roll control surfaces and R.V.D.Ts for pitch control surfaces.
Option C. R.V.D.Ts for roll and pitch control surfaces.
Correct Answer is. L.V.D.Ts for roll and pitch control surfaces.
Question Number. 3. A full authority Digital Engine Control System (FADEC) consists of.
Option A. electronic engine control unit only.
Option B. electronic engine control unit and all its sensors.
Option C. electronic engine control unit and throttle position transmitter.
Correct Answer is. electronic engine control unit and all its sensors.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. A FADEC system does not have the following system?.
Option A. Control of thrust reverser operation.
Option B. Automatic control of engine fire extinguishers.
Option C. An automatic starting capability.
Correct Answer is. Automatic control of engine fire extinguishers.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. What controls are used in response to the PVD?.

Option A. Nose-wheel steering or rudder pedals.
Option B. Throttles.
Option C. Ailerons.
Correct Answer is. Nose-wheel steering or rudder pedals.
Explanation. PVD = Para Visual Display.
Question Number. 6. Versine is used in which channel?.

Option A. Roll.
Option B. Yaw.
Option C. Pitch.
Question Number. 7. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder.

Option A. remains in the previous position.
Option B. controls the aircraft in trim.
Option C. remains at the neutral position.
Correct Answer is. remains in the previous position.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. FADEC system gets its power supply from.

Option A. channel A and B from the same windings of a dedicated Generator.
Option B. emergency Batt bus.
Option C. channel A and B from separate windings of a dedicated Generator.
Correct Answer is. channel A and B from separate windings of a dedicated Generator.
Explanation. See Total Training Support FADEC booklet.
Question Number. 9. In a fully fly by wire system, if the rudder becomes disconnected.
Option A. it is centralised by the airflow.
Option B. it is centralized by a spring.
Option C. its control is maintained by electric trim.
Correct Answer is. it is centralised by the airflow.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. When moving the control column.

Option A. sensors located under the control column produces a signal.
Option B. sensor in the A.F.C.S computer produces a signal.
Option C. sensor located along the control run produces a signal.
Correct Answer is. sensors located under the control column produces a signal.
Question Number. 11. To transmit position feedback for actuators of roll and pitch control surfaces, in a fly by wire syste.
Option A. Synchros are used.

Option B. L.V.D.T and R.V.D.T are used for pitch and roll.
Option C. L.V.D.T is used hence ensuring interchangeability.
Correct Answer is. L.V.D.T is used hence ensuring interchangeability.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 36 and 211. Example of spoilers is given.
Question Number. 12. Main electric pitch trim is controlled by.

Option A. a switch installed on centre pedestal panel.
Option B. a wheel on the centre pedestal.
Option C. a switch on control wheel.
Correct Answer is. a switch on control wheel.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. What is the authority of series actuator on an helicopters autopilot?.
Option A. 0.1.
Option B. 1.
Option C. 0.5.
Question Number. 14. What is a versine signal attenuated with?.
Option A. Decrease in altitude.
Option B. Increase in airspeed.
Option C. Increase in altitude.
Correct Answer is. Increase in altitude.
Explanation. Avionics Fundamentals 314 - 315.
Question Number. 15. Electrical stabilizer trim switches are found on the.
Option A. behind thrust levers.
Option B. control column.
Option C. flight control panel.
Correct Answer is. control column.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. The neutral shift sensor ensures that.

Option A. after a mach trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator.
Option B. after an auto trim, the elevator is moved to align with the stabiliser.
Option C. after an auto trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator.
Correct Answer is. after an auto trim, the elevator is moved to align with the stabiliser.
Question Number. 17. The versine signal is used in the.

Option A. roll channel only.
Option B. pitch channel only.
Option C. pitch and roll channel.
Correct Answer is. pitch channel only.
Question Number. 18. In fully Fly By Wire aircraft, wing root bending moments are reduced by.
Option A. transfer of fuel from one wing tank to another.
Option B. symmetrical application of ailerons.
Option C. operation of the elevator.
Correct Answer is. symmetrical application of ailerons.
Question Number. 19. In a series rudder system.

Option A. the pilot can input to the system.
Option B. the pilot cannot input to the system.
Option C. yaw damping is only possible signal input.
Correct Answer is. the pilot can input to the system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. In a parallel rudder system,.

Option A. the rudder pedals move in response to rudder movement.
Option B. the pilot can input on rudder pedals.
Option C. the rudder pedals are disconnected.
Correct Answer is. the rudder pedals move in response to rudder movement.
Question Number. 21. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder.

Option A. remains in the previous position.
Option B. remains at the neutral position.
Option C. controls the aircraft in trim.
Correct Answer is. remains in the previous position.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. On a full fly-by-wire system, a speedbrake screwjack servomotor is controlled by the.
Option A. flight management and guidance computer.
Option B. flight augmentation computer.
Option C. flight control computer.
Correct Answer is. flight control computer.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-26.
Question Number. 23. In a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls the roll spoilers?.
Option A. Flight control computer.
Option B. Flight management computer.
Option C. Flight augmentation computer.
Correct Answer is. Flight control computer.
Question Number. 24. On a full time fly-by-wire system, a nose up command causes.
Option A. the two elevator surfaces on each side of the stabiliser to move up.
Option B. the two Ailerons on each wing to move up.
Option C. all the elevators on each wing to move up.
Correct Answer is. the two elevator surfaces on each side of the stabiliser to move up.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. If a roll was commenced, what command would the versine generator give?.
Option A. Up Elevator.
Option B. Left rudder.
Option C. Down elevator.
Correct Answer is. Up Elevator.
Question Number. 26. In a fully Fly By Wire Aircraft, ground spoilers are deployed automatically when the aircraft is on
ground and.
Option A. thrust reversers are deployed.
Option B. weight on ground switch is activated.
Option C. brakes are deployed.
Correct Answer is. thrust reversers are deployed.
Explanation. A320 Ground Spoiler Logic diagram - also, http://www.b737.org.uk/flightcontrols.htm.
Question Number. 27. In a fully Fly By Wire aircraft, rudder trim is nulled by the.
Option A. Flight Augmentation Computers.
Option B. Flight Guidance and Management Computer.
Option C. electric flight control unit.
Correct Answer is. Flight Augmentation Computers.
Question Number. 28. In an auto trim horizontal stabiliser, 'low' speed mode is when.
Option A. flaps are retracted.
Option B. landing gear up and locked.
Option C. flaps extended.
Correct Answer is. flaps are retracted.
Explanation. Avionics Fundamentals by Jepperson Pg 371.
Question Number. 29. On a modern aircraft about to stall.

Option A. engine power increases automatically.
Option B. the flaps retract automatically.
Option C. the outboard slats extend automatically.
Correct Answer is. engine power increases automatically.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. Versine signal is governed by.

Option A. roll.
Option B. yaw.
Option C. pitch.
Correct Answer is. roll.
Question Number. 31. On a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls stabilizer trim?.

Option A. SEC.
Option B. E.L.A.C and S.E.C.
Option C. E.L.A.C.
Correct Answer is. E.L.A.C and S.E.C.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems 5-23.
Question Number. 32. In a fully fly by wire system, if the elevator loses all electrical power.
Option A. servos lock at last position.
Option B. servos move to neutral and lock.
Option C. servos remain stationary and provide damping.
Correct Answer is. servos remain stationary and provide damping.
Explanation. A319/A320/A321 Flight Crew Operating Manual.
Question Number. 33. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent weather conditions will result in.
Option A. ailerons and spoiler moving symmetrically upward.
Option B. ailerons moving symmetrically upward.
Option C. spoiler moving symmetrically upward.
Correct Answer is. ailerons and spoiler moving symmetrically upward.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 34. The stall margin mode is controlled by.

Option A. E.P.R limits.
Option B. angle of attack and flap position sensors.
Option C. speed bug cursors.
Correct Answer is. angle of attack and flap position sensors.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Page 143/4.
Question Number. 35. Versine signal is governed by.

Option A. pitch.
Option B. roll.
Option C. yaw.
Question Number. 36. Stab trim goes into high speed mode when.
Option A. Flaps are retracted.
Option B. cruise altitude is reached.
Option C. Flaps are extended.
Correct Answer is. Flaps are extended.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 215 fig 7.8, and page 219.
Question Number. 37. The FLY BY WIRE system uses two elevator and aileron computers (E.L.A.Cs),.
Option A. this is to provide redundancy.
Option B. each computer achieves control and monitoring of the three electric motors which power the trimmable horizontal
stabiliser (THS).
Option C. they provide alternate control of the elevators if spoiler and elevator computers (SECs) fail.
Correct Answer is. this is to provide redundancy.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, page 294/295 & figure.11.1.
Question Number. 38. What achieves control and monitoring of the three electric motors which power the trimmable
horizontal stabiliser (THS).
Option A. flap and computer stall margin speed circuits to maintain the correct angle of attack within the stall margin.
Option B. flap position sensors to maintain the minimum safe approach speed.
Option C. landing gear position sensors to maintain the aircraft speed above stall.
Correct Answer is. flap position sensors to maintain the minimum safe approach speed.
Question Number. 39. A versine signal is typically fed from the roll channel.
Option A. and modified by True Air Speed (TAS) and flap position signals to adjust for loss of lift during a turn.
Option B. and modified by aircraft attitude and pitch rate signals to limit the pitch angle during approach.
Option C. to adjust the roll angle to suit the approach turn during autoland.
Correct Answer is. and modified by True Air Speed (TAS) and flap position signals to adjust for loss of lift during a turn.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. In a FLY BY WIRE system, a complete failure of the electronic flight control system in pitch.
Option A. is not possible because of the built-in redundancy for all elements.
Option B. would require the aircraft to be manually controlled in pitch using pitch trim wheel.
Option C. would cause the captain's sidestick controller to take over pitch functions.
Correct Answer is. would require the aircraft to be manually controlled in pitch using pitch trim wheel.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 41. If electrical power is removed from a fly by wire spoiler system, the spoiler panels.
Option A. go to full up.
Option B. remain where they are.
Option C. go to down if any are not already down.
Correct Answer is. go to down if any are not already down.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 42. In a fly-by-wire control system, the follow-up transducer is fitted to.
Option A. the pilots input.
Option B. the hydraulic actuator.
Option C. the control system computer.
Correct Answer is. the hydraulic actuator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 43. Alpha floor protection to the autothrottle will.

Option A. increase angle of attack.
Option B. increase speed.
Option C. withdraw flaps.
Correct Answer is. increase speed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 44. High thrust stall warning is activated when the thrust of opposite engine reads.
Option A. greater than 75%.
Option B. greater than 50%.
Option C. greater than 90%.
Correct Answer is. greater than 75%.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 45. The alpha vane signal can be fed to __________ when the aircraft is close to stall.
Option A. fast/slow switch.
Option B. flap position.
Option C. throttle lever.
Correct Answer is. throttle lever.
Explanation. NIL.
===================================
13.08. Instrument Systems (ATA 31).
Question Number. 1. Which of these barometric instruments uses a restrictor to compute its output?.
Option A. A.S.I.
Option B. Machmeter.
Option C. VSI.
Correct Answer is. VSI.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. On a modern aircraft flight instrument display system, Radio deviation is shown on.
Option A. EHSI & EADI.
Option B. EHSI.
Option C. EADI.
Correct Answer is. EHSI & EADI.
Explanation. Radio deviation is VOR or ILS. The deviation indicator is duplicated. It is on the EHSI and EADI.
Question Number. 3. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system, Mach information is derived from.
Option A. indicated air speed and total air temperature.
Option B. pitot and static pressures.
Option C. indicated airspeed and altitude.
Correct Answer is. indicated airspeed and altitude.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), the rate of climb of an aircraft is produced in the.
Option A. Indicated Airspeed Module.
Option B. Mach Module.
Option C. Altitude Module.
Correct Answer is. Altitude Module.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. In a Central Air Data Computer, altitude is produced from.

Option A. pitot air pressure.
Option B. pitot air pressure and total air temperature.
Option C. static air pressure.
Correct Answer is. static air pressure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is produced from.
Option A. static pressure only.
Option B. pitot pressure only.
Option C. pitot and static air pressure.
Correct Answer is. pitot and static air pressure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system, True Air Speed (TAS) is derived from the Mach
information and.
Option A. Pitot Air Pressure.
Option B. Total Air Temperature.
Option C. Static Air Pressure.
Correct Answer is. Total Air Temperature.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at.

Option A. 10000 ft radio alt.
Option B. 1000 ft radio alt.
Option C. 2500 ft radio alt.
Correct Answer is. 2500 ft radio alt.
Question Number. 9. What is the maximum radio altimeter track altitude?.

Option C. 500 feet.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin pg 323-324.
Question Number. 10. An ECAM system is tested under the following conditions:-.
Option A. Aircraft in the air with both engines running.
Option B. Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on.
Option C. Aircraft on the ground with one engine running.
Correct Answer is. Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 391.
Question Number. 11. Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure, when carrying
out a pitot-static leak check?.
Option A. Altimeter.
Option B. Air speed indicator.
Option C. vertical speed indicator.
Correct Answer is. Altimeter.
Explanation. Altimeter is most sensitive to rapid pressure changes.
Question Number. 12. In an RVSM system, what is the tolerance level of separation (+ or - feet)?.
Option A. 160feet.
Option B. 400feet.
Option C. 80feet.
Correct Answer is. 80feet.
Explanation. JAA Administrative and Guidance Material Temporary Guidance Leaflet No.6 Para 7.3.3.
Question Number. 13. The runway heading is.

Option A. QFU.
Option B. QDM.
Option C. QDR.
Correct Answer is. QFU.
Explanation. NIL. http://www2.tky.3web.ne.jp/~jahfa/kokuningen/Q.html
Question Number. 14. An aircraft in climb maintains the same I.A.S. What is it's true airspeed?.
Option A. The same as its I.A.S.
Option B. Higher than its I.A.S.
Option C. Lower than its I.A.S.
Correct Answer is. Higher than its I.A.S.
Explanation. True Air Speed is I.A.S corrected for density. True Air Speed is greater than I.A.S at altitude.
Question Number. 15. Apparent drift of a vertical gyro is a function of.

Option A. sin of latitude.
Option B. tan of latitude.
Option C. cos of latitude.
Correct Answer is. cos of latitude.
Question Number. 16. For a vertical gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimbol would be moved to correct the pitch
movement?.
Option A. Normal.
Option C. Lateral.
Explanation. Jeppesen, Avionics Fundamentals Page 91.
Question Number. 17. With airspeed hold engaged whilst flying with Flight Director engaged, a down command means
your speed has.
Option A. is the same.
Option B. increased.
Option C. decreased.
Correct Answer is. decreased.
Question Number. 18. A Master Warning is issued when.

Option A. cargo smoke and a low oil quantity occurs.
Option B. overspeed and cabin altitude occurs.
Option C. engine fire and generator trip occurs.
Correct Answer is. overspeed and cabin altitude occurs.
Explanation. Boeing 757 has overspeed and cabin altitude as red master WARNINGS, although engine fire is a red master
WARNING, GEN trip is a ORANGE master CAUTION.
Question Number. 19. True Air Speed uses which inputs.

Option A. Pitot and Static pressures, Mach and Temperature.
Option B. Pitot and Static pressures.
Option C. Mach and Temperature.
Correct Answer is. Mach and Temperature.
Explanation. Jeppesen - Avionics Fundamentals Page 238.
Question Number. 20. The Ground Proximity Warning Computer in mode 4 would use which inputs to issue a warning?.
Option A. A low range altimeter and rate of change of low range altimeter.
Option B. A low range altimeter and G.P.S.
Option C. A low range altimeter and configuration of aircraft.
Correct Answer is. A low range altimeter and configuration of aircraft.
Explanation. Avionics Fundamentals. Jeppesen Page 266/267.
Question Number. 21. If a drain trap in a pitot static system is removed but nothing was found.
Option A. a leak test must be carried out even if nothing found.
Option B. a leak test is never required.
Option C. no leak test is required unless the drain trap contains water.
Correct Answer is. a leak test must be carried out even if nothing found.
Explanation. CAIPS Leaflet A.L/10-1 p14 para 15.5.
Question Number. 22. When an aircraft is aligned for a compass swing check to be carried out it will be aligned with an
error of plus or minus.
Option A. 3 degree.
Option B. 5 degree.
Option C. 1 degree.
Correct Answer is. 3 degree.
Explanation. CAIPs A.L/10-5 Para 9 - If using a datum compass 3-5 degrees is allowed (CAAIP Leaflet 8-2 para 10.3).
Question Number. 23. The electrical artificial horizon has a movement of.
Option A. 360 in roll and 110 in pitch.
Option B. 85 degree in pitch and roll.
Option C. 360 in roll and 85 in pitch.
Correct Answer is. 360 in roll and 85 in pitch.
Question Number. 24. A unit with two springs and a mass pick-off is.
Option A. a gyroscope.
Option B. an accelerometer.
Option C. a tachogenerator.
Correct Answer is. an accelerometer.
Question Number. 25. The units of vibration are measured in.

Option A. relative amplitude.
Option B. decibels.
Option C. phons.
Correct Answer is. relative amplitude.
Question Number. 26. A fuel flow measurement system.

Option B. can be adjusted for minimum flow rate.
Option C. can be adjusted for maximum flow rate.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett Page 367-375.
Question Number. 27. A machmeter works.

Option A. above 10,000 feet.
Option B. always except on the ground.
Option C. always.
Correct Answer is. always.
Question Number. 28. Magnetic variation is the difference in angle between.
Option A. magnetic heading and aircraft heading.
Option B. the compass north and magnetic north.
Option C. true north and magnetic north.
Correct Answer is. true north and magnetic north.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.google.com/search?q=define:MAGNETIC+VARIATION
Question Number. 29. G.P.W.S mode 1 is excessive.

Option A. rate of ascent.
Option B. rate of descent.
Option C. terrain closure.
Correct Answer is. rate of descent.
Question Number. 30. How many bits make up the mode 'S' address?.
Option A. 12.
Option B. 24.
Option C. 36.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.cena.fr/~sagnier/datalink/mode_s/mode_sa.htm
Question Number. 31. The applied pressure to an A.S.I varies with the.
Option A. square of the speed.
Option B. cube root of the speed.
Option C. square root of the speed.
Correct Answer is. square of the speed.
Explanation. An A.S.I measures 1/2 * density * velocity-squared.
Question Number. 32. Temperature compensation is required on an altimeter because of.

Option A. non linear pressure/height relationship.
Option B. capsule shape.
Option C. capsule elasticity.
Correct Answer is. capsule elasticity.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett Page 50/1.
Question Number. 33. Radio marker information is displayed on.

Option A. EICAS.
Option B. HSI.
Option C. ADI.
Correct Answer is. ADI.
Question Number. 34. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to the flight director system would cause.
Option A. aircraft to underbank.
Option B. aircraft to overbank.
Option C. aircraft to remain in level flight.
Correct Answer is. aircraft to overbank.
Question Number. 35. Angle of Attack alarm is sounding too close to stall. Rectification is to.
Option A. move probe up.
Option B. move probe down.
Option C. move probe laterally.
Correct Answer is. move probe up.
Explanation. Move probe up, closer to the Leading Edge stagnation point, so it operates sooner.
Question Number. 36. Where is alpha angle used?.

Option A. Angle of attack.
Option B. Accelerometer.
Option C. IRS.
Correct Answer is. Angle of attack.
Explanation. Aircraft Instrument and Integrated Systems - Pallett Page 73.
Question Number. 37. In a capacitive fuel gauging system, an increase in fuel level would.
Option A. increase capacitance.
Option B. increase capacitive reactance.
Option C. decrease capacitance.
Correct Answer is. increase capacitance.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Circuits. EHJ Pallett Page 328/329.
Question Number. 38. A foat fuel gauge system is.

Option B. adjusted when tanks are full.
Option C. adjusted when tanks are empty.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 39. With engine stopped, engine blanks fitted, E.P.R indicator reads slightly above 1.
Option A. You would adjust the gauge.
Option B. This is normal.
Option C. You would change the Tx as the datum is shifted.
Correct Answer is. You would adjust the gauge.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. To ensure the compass is serviceable before installation, you would carry out.
Option A. damping and periodicity checks.
Option B. damping and pivot friction check.
Option C. damping and alignment checks.
Correct Answer is. damping and pivot friction check.
Explanation. CAIPs A.L/10-5 5.1, 5.2.
Question Number. 41. Where is the spinup/rundown brake on a gyro instrument?.

Option A. Inner gimbal.
Option B. Rotating vane.
Option C. Outer gimbal.
Correct Answer is. Inner gimbal.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 42. On replacing a pre-indexed flux valve you would

Option A. carry out a check swing after fitment.
Option B. align the aircraft onto its A coefficient so that no error is induced.
Option C. fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve was
removed from.
Correct Answer is. fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux
valve was removed from.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 43. In Airways flying, what is the barometric scale of the altimeter set to?.
Option A. 1013.25.
Option B. QFE.
Option C. QNH.
Explanation. 1013.25 mb or QNE. A & P Technician Airframe Textbook Chap 3 page 592.
Question Number. 44. Equivalent airspeed is.

Option A. calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility.
Option B. rectified airspeed corrected for compressibility.
Option C. indicated airspeed corrected for instrument error and pressure error.
Correct Answer is. calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility.
Explanation. Calibrated Airspeed is indicated airspeed corrected for position installation error (IE). Equivalent Airspeed is
calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility. Equivalent airspeed will always be lower than calibrated airspeed.
Question Number. 45. Acceleration error produces.

Option A. a false indication of left bank.
Option B. a false indication of right bank.
Option C. a false indication of climb.
Correct Answer is. a false indication of climb.
Question Number. 46. The compensator in a fuel tank measures.

Option A. specific gravity of fuel.
Option B. fuel quantity.
Option C. K value of fuel.
Correct Answer is. K value of fuel.
Question Number. 47. Vibration monitoring signals are sent.

Option A. via a half-wave rectifier to the gauge.
Option B. direct to the gauge.
Option C. via a signal conditioner to the gauge.
Correct Answer is. via a signal conditioner to the gauge.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Instruments and Avionics Page 90.
Question Number. 48. A direct reading Bourdon gauge has a restriction in the inlet. This is to.
Option A. allow for calibration.
Option B. prevent FOD ingestion.
Option C. dampen sudden pressure changes.
Correct Answer is. dampen sudden pressure changes.
Explanation. The restriction is to damp out surges in pressure.
Question Number. 49. Flight director command bars indicate.

Option A. direction in which the beacon is.
Option B. direction in which aircraft is to be manoeuvred.
Option C. direction in which aircraft is flying.
Correct Answer is. direction in which aircraft is to be manoeuvred.
Question Number. 50. Mode S has.

Option A. 24 address bits.
Option B. 12 address bits.
Option C. 36 address bits.
Correct Answer is. 24 address bits.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 51. In RVSM, the error allowed is.

Option A. 300 feet.
Option B. 500 feet.
Option C. 80 feet.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 52. The hot junction of thermocouple is.

Option A. in the combustion chamber.
Option B. aft of combustion chamber.
Option C. in the instrument.
Correct Answer is. aft of combustion chamber.
Explanation. The hot junction is the sensor, aft of the combustion chamber.
Question Number. 53. If the static line is disconnected in the cabin, the Mach meter reading would be.
Option A. lower mach number.
Option B. higher mach number.
Option C. not effected.
Correct Answer is. lower mach number.
Question Number. 54. In a dual F.M.C installation, if one F.M.C is defective.
Option A. not be affected as automatic transfer takes place.
Option B. both CDU blanks.
Option C. one CDU blanks.
Correct Answer is. one CDU blanks.
Question Number. 55. While carrying out a leak check of the altimeter, if the static is leaking, the VSI would.
Option A. indicate climb.
Option B. indicate decent.
Option C. not be affected.
Correct Answer is. indicate decent.
Explanation. If there is a static leak,(i.e. pressure is increasing), the capsule in the VSI will increase in size, leading to a
descent indication. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett page 57.
Question Number. 56. In a combined pitot-static probe, while carrying out a leak check, which instrument is most likely to
be effected by over pressure?.
Option A. VSI.
Option B. A.S.I.
Option C. Altimeter.
Correct Answer is. VSI.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 57. The correction for a positive error for coefficient A in a compass.
Option A. It may be rotated either direction.
Option B. is to rotate clockwise.
Option C. is to rotate anticlockwise.
Correct Answer is. is to rotate clockwise.
Explanation. CAIPs A.L/10-5 CAAIP Chap 8-2 Para 5.5.
Question Number. 58. Duringa compass swing, using a datum compass, the error permitted in aligning the aircraft is.
Option A. 1 degree.
Option B. 10 degree.
Option C. 5 degree.
Correct Answer is. 5 degree.
Explanation. CAIPs A.L/10-5 Para 9.
Question Number. 59. In an FDS, the attitude gyro is coupled with the FD computer by means of transformer coupling.
The purpose of this arrangement is.
Option A. to protect FD computer in case of attitude gyro failure.
Option B. to protect the attitude gyro in case of failure of FD computer.
Option C. to minimise power losses.
Correct Answer is. to protect the attitude gyro in case of failure of FD computer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 60. In a horizontal gyro, the random precession of the inner ring is corrected by.
Option A. mercury switches on the outer ring.
Option B. flux valve slaving.
Option C. mercury switches on the inner ring.
Correct Answer is. flux valve slaving.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 61. Index error is.

Option A. Coefficient P.
Option B. misalignment of compass lubber line.
Option C. coefficient B.
Correct Answer is. misalignment of compass lubber line.
Explanation. CAIPs A.L/10-5 page 1.
Question Number. 62. When a radio altimeter reaches 2,500 feet. what happens to the display?.
Option A. Error warning in view.
Option B. Rad. alt. flag in view.
Option C. Rad. alt. goes out of view.
Correct Answer is. Rad. alt. goes out of view.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems Page 195.
Question Number. 63. Pitot tubes are heated.

Option A. by compressed bleed air.
Option B. by kinetic heating.
Option C. electrically.
Correct Answer is. electrically.
Explanation. CAIPs A.L/10-1 Para 3.2.
Question Number. 64. EICAS indicates.

Option A. engine performance only.
Option B. engine performance and aircraft system malfunctions.
Option C. engine performance and aircraft status.
Correct Answer is. engine performance and aircraft system malfunctions.
Question Number. 65. Magnetic heading errors will be.

Option A. negative if northerly.
Option B. positive if easterly.
Option C. negative if easterly.
Correct Answer is. positive if easterly.
Question Number. 66. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?.
Option A. It stays fixed on magnetic north.
Option B. It moves once the aircraft is established on a new heading.
Option C. It move as the aircraft moves.
Correct Answer is. It stays fixed on magnetic north.
Question Number. 67. What are the primary colours for use in CRT displays?.
Option A. Yellow, cyan, magenta.
Option B. Red, blue, yellow.
Option C. Red, blue, green.
Correct Answer is. Red, blue, green.
Question Number. 68. In air speed hold mode, a down displacement of the flight director pitch command bar signifies.
Option A. speed decrease.

Option B. speed increase.
Option C. height decrease.
Correct Answer is. speed decrease.
Explanation. Jeppesen, Avionics Fundamentals Page 356/7 and 364 together.
Question Number. 69. Flight director incompatible modes are.

Option A. VOR and glideslope.
Option B. heading and altitude hold.
Option C. VOR and altitude hold.
Correct Answer is. VOR and glideslope.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 70. Deviation from the HSI lubber line is known as.
Option A. real A.
Option B. apparent A.
Option C. true A.
Correct Answer is. apparent A.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 91. Coefficient A is deviation by non-magnetic causes -
HSI is a non-magnetic instrument.
Question Number. 71. Alpha vane signal could be fed to _________________________________ when close to stall.
Option A. flap position.

Option B. thrust levers.
Option C. fast/slow switch.
Correct Answer is. thrust levers.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 91. Coefficient A is deviation by non-magnetic causes -
HSI is a non-magnetic instrument.
Question Number. 72. An open circuit in the temperature bulb as used in the DC ratiometer would cause.
Option A. the pointer to read full scale.
Option B. the pointer to read mid scale.
Option C. the pointer to read zero.
Correct Answer is. the pointer to read full scale.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett page 35/36.
Question Number. 73. The instantaneous VSI is designed to.

Option A. improve the VSI output during acceleration greater than 1g.
Option B. overcome the inherent lag by utilising an accelerometer.
Option C. use an accelerometer to give a rate of climb/descent.
Correct Answer is. overcome the inherent lag by utilising an accelerometer.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated systems, Pallett page 59.
Question Number. 74. When performing maintenance operations on an aircraft equipped with RVSM system, and a quick
release disconnect connection is disturbed.
Option A. a full test of the system should be carried out.
Option B. the allowances for the system should be halved.
Option C. a full test of the system should be carried out only if the aircraft manufacturer recommends to do so.
Correct Answer is. a full test of the system should be carried out.
Explanation. Download TGL No.6 at http://www2.eur-rvsm.com/library.htm PAra.8.3.
Question Number. 75. With a constant torque applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession will.
Option A. decrease with a lower rotor speed.
Option B. decrease with a higher rotor speed.
Option C. increase with a higher rotor speed.
Correct Answer is. decrease with a higher rotor speed.
Question Number. 76. For aircraft certificated after 1997 and with RVSM, the maximum tolerance for the system would
be.
Option A. +/-500 feet for the system overall.
Option B. +/-300 feet plus +/-50 feet for instrument errors.
Option C. +/-200 feet plus +/-50 feet for instrument error.
Correct Answer is. +/-200 feet plus +/-50 feet for instrument error.
Explanation. Download TGL No.6 at http://www2.eur-rvsm.com/library.htm PAra.8.3.
Question Number. 77. A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor located about the gyroscope's.

Option B. lateral axis.
Option C. vertical axis.
Correct Answer is. lateral axis.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett page 117 fig 4.15.
Question Number. 78. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a flight director system would cause.
Option A. aircraft to overbank.
Option B. aircraft to remain in level flight.
Option C. aircraft to underbank.
Correct Answer is. aircraft to overbank.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 79. In a flight director system, the radio signal outputs from the navigation receiver are.
Option A. AC.
Option B. DC.
Option C. pulsed DC.
Correct Answer is. DC.
Question Number. 80. A fuel quantity test set consists of.

Option A. resistance decade.
Option B. inductance decade.
Option C. capacitance bridge.
Correct Answer is. capacitance bridge.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 81. The HSI provides information on.

Option A. VOR, plan, map, ILS, radar.
Option B. VOR, ILS, map, radar, attitude.
Option C. VOR, ILS, plan, attitude.
Correct Answer is. VOR, plan, map, ILS, radar.
Explanation. Attitude is on the EADI.
Question Number. 82. EICAS provides the following.

Option A. engine warnings and engine parameters.
Option B. engine parameters and system warnings.
Option C. engine parameters.
Correct Answer is. engine parameters and system warnings.
Question Number. 83. The sensing element of the flux valve.
Option A. remains in the same position attached to the aircraft structure.
Option B. aligns itself to the new heading as the aircraft turns.
Option C. aligns itself to the new heading of the aircraft after it has stabilised.
Correct Answer is. remains in the same position attached to the aircraft structure.
Explanation. Jeppesen - Avionics Fundamentals Page 106-110.
Question Number. 84. An R.M.I requires the following inputs:.

Option A. Heading and radio deviation.
Option B. Radio deviation only.
Option C. Course and radio deviation.
Correct Answer is. Heading and radio deviation.
Question Number. 85. In a compass swing:North error -2 degrees, South error - 2 degrees.The coefficient C is.
Option A. -2 degrees.
Option B. +2 degrees.
Explanation. A.L/10-5 page 6 table 1 (-2)-(-2)/2 = 0.
Question Number. 86. Magnetic heading errors will be.

Option A. negative if easterly.
Option B. positive if easterly.
Option C. negative if northerly.
Correct Answer is. positive if easterly.
Explanation. CAIPs A.L/10-5.
Question Number. 87. When aligning an aircraft for a compass swing, the maximum allowable error is.
Explanation. CAIPs A.L/10-5 9 note.
Question Number. 88. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is carried out with.
Option A. micrometer.
Option B. an inclinometer.
Option C. spirit level.
Correct Answer is. an inclinometer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 89. For a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimbol would be moved to correct the pitch
movement?.
Option A. Lateral.
Option C. Normal.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 90. A Master Warning is issued when.

Option A. cargo smoke and low oil quantity occurs.
Option B. overspeed and cabin altitude occurs.
Option C. engine fire and generator trip occurs.
Correct Answer is. overspeed and cabin altitude occurs.
Explanation. Boeing 757 has overspeed and cabin altitude as red master WARNINGS, although engine fire is a red master
WARNING, GEN trip is a ORANGE master CAUTION.
Question Number. 91. What altitude, relative to sea level, does the pressure in the standard atmosphere halve?.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 92. At which two points on a gas turbine engine is E.P.R measured?.
Option A. Combustion chamber and jet pipe.
Option B. Compressor inlet and jet pipe.
Option C. Jet pipe and combustion chamber.
Correct Answer is. Compressor inlet and jet pipe.
Question Number. 93. What colour is the autoland indication lights next to the pilots instruments, with excess deviation?.
Option A. Amber.
Option B. Red.
Option C. White.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 94. What happens to the Flight Director command bars if the roll gyro faILS in a turn?.
Option A. They return back to neutral when the turn is complete.
Option B. They disappear out of view.
Option C. They stay in the same place as nothing is there to null the input signal.
Correct Answer is. They disappear out of view.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 95. What is the typical aircraft hydraulic system pressure?.
Option A. 3000 psi.
Option B. 1000 psi.
Option C. 300 psi.
Correct Answer is. 3000 psi.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 96. What kind of gyro is a rate gyro?.
Option A. Space.
Option B. Displacement.
Option C. Tied down.
Correct Answer is. Tied down.
Explanation. A.L/10-2 A rate gyro has only 2 axis of freedom. Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems Pallett page 129.
Question Number. 97. What does a piezoelectric type vibration sensor detect?.
Option A. Velocity.
Option B. Disturbances.
Option C. Pressure changes.
Correct Answer is. Pressure changes.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page 376 last paragraph and also refers you to page 165.
Question Number. 98. An Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator indicates instant values of vertical speed by.
Option A. using a plunger to correct any lagging of the indicator.
Option B. blocking off static and by using an accelerometer.
Option C. blocking off pitot pressure and by using an accelerometer.
Correct Answer is. using a plunger to correct any lagging of the indicator.
Question Number. 99. What is the aural warning of an aircraft overspeed?.

Option A. Clacking sound.
Option B. Bell sound.
Option C. Horn sound.
Correct Answer is. Clacking sound.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett Page 69 and Fig 2.40.
Question Number. 100. A Boost Gauge reads.

Option A. absolute pressure.
Option B. above or below ISA atmospheric pressure.
Option C. above or below ambient atmospheric pressure.
Correct Answer is. absolute pressure.
Question Number. 101. A radio altimeter system can be self tested.

Option A. in the air only.
Option B. on the ground only.
Option C. both on the ground only and in the air.
Correct Answer is. on the ground only.
Explanation. B757 training notes.
Question Number. 102. What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 system?.

Option B. 2 - 6 Giga Hertz.
Option C. 2.3 - 23 Mega Hertz.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 103. What is the calibration law of a ratiometer?.

Option A. Material of the indicator needle.
Option B. Material of the coil.
Option C. Material of the sensing element.
Correct Answer is. Material of the sensing element.
Question Number. 104. If a QFE is set at an airfield and flown to another airfield at the same level above sea level then.
Option A. it will display the airfield height above sea level.

Option B. it will probably not need resetting and will read zero.
Option C. it will not need resetting and will read zero.
Correct Answer is. it will probably not need resetting and will read zero.
Explanation. Probably' is used since there is a small chance that the ambient pressure is different between the airfields, even
though they are at the same elevation.
Question Number. 105. capacitance fuel quantity indication test set is connected.
Option A. in series with capacitance probes.
Option B. by replacing capacitance probes.
Option C. in parallel with capacitance probes.
Correct Answer is. in parallel with capacitance probes.
Question Number. 106. A thermocouple.

Option A. capacitance and inductance cannot be added.
Option B. cannot be shortened.
Option C. can be shortened.
Correct Answer is. cannot be shortened.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 107. How is temperature compensation achieved in the fluid of a compass?.
Option A. Press relief valve.
Option B. Bellows and diaphragm.
Option C. Alcohol is used as it does not get effected by temperature.
Correct Answer is. Bellows and diaphragm.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 108. The apparent wander for directional gyros is.
Option A. maximum at the pole.
Option B. compensated by applying a constant torque.
Option C. dependant on longitude.
Correct Answer is. compensated by applying a constant torque.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 109. What is lapse rate?.

Option A. Density changes with altitude.
Option B. Temperature changes with altitude.
Option C. Pressure changes with altitude.
Correct Answer is. Temperature changes with altitude.
Question Number. 110. The Directional Gyro is checked every 15 minutes for.
Option A. erection.
Option B. drift.
Option C. toppling.
Correct Answer is. drift.
Question Number. 111. Where is the placement of a mercury switch?.

Option A. Outer gimbal.
Option B. Instrument case.
Option C. Gyro case.
Correct Answer is. Outer gimbal.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett Page 116 and 117.
Question Number. 112. In a boost gauge system the sensing element contains.
Option A. 2 capsules.
Option B. 1 capsule.
Option C. 3 capsules.
Correct Answer is. 2 capsules.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett Page 355/357.
Question Number. 113. Random drift of a gyro is caused by.
Option A. gyro friction and unbalance.
Option B. aircraft turning with an error in roll.
Option C. error in roll when aircraft is turning.
Correct Answer is. gyro friction and unbalance.
Question Number. 114. What instrument uses ram air pressure and atmospheric pressure?.
Option A. VSI.
Option B. A.S.I.
Option C. Altimeter.
Correct Answer is. A.S.I.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 115. If increasing altitude at constant I.A.S, True Air Speed will.
Option A. decrease.
Option B. increase.
Option C. remain the same.
Correct Answer is. increase.
Explanation. Mechanics of Flight by A.C. Kermode page 64/65.
Question Number. 116. Standby Compass adjusting magnets (Flinders Bars) exert the most amount of influence.
Option A. when 45 degrees apart.
Option B. when 90 degrees apart.
Option C. when parallel to each other.
Correct Answer is. when 90 degrees apart.
Explanation. Angle between flinders bars determines their correcting influence.
Question Number. 117. What does a vibration type sensor measure?.

Option A. Direction of flexing.
Option B. Frequency of deflections.
Option C. Maximum deflection.
Correct Answer is. Frequency of deflections.
Question Number. 118. Which is used for compass damping fluid compensation?.
Option A. Piston and oil.
Option B. No damping due to alcohol low temperature co-efficient.
Option C. Bellows or diaphragm.
Correct Answer is. Bellows or diaphragm.
Question Number. 119. The result of the equation (Dev E Dev W)/2 is known as.
Option A. Coefficient B.
Option B. Coefficient A.
Option C. Coefficient C.
Correct Answer is. Coefficient B.
Question Number. 120. If the torque were increased on a vertical gyro, what would happen to the precession?.
Option A. Increase.
Option B. Remain unaffected.
Option C. Decrease.
Correct Answer is. Increase.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 121. Coefficient A is adjusted.

Option A. at 360 degrees.
Option B. on any heading.
Option C. at 270 degrees.
Correct Answer is. on any heading.
Explanation. A.L/10-5 9.2.7.
Question Number. 122. With an aircraft which has more than one compass system.
Option A. both are adjusted on each heading.
Option B. master adjusted, slave adjusted, each having a corrected compass card.
Option C. master and slave adjusted, correction card for master only.
Correct Answer is. master adjusted, slave adjusted, each having a corrected compass card.
Explanation. A.L/10-5 9.2 Note.
Question Number. 123. A DC electrical cable must be positioned how far away from a compass?.
Option A. 24 inches.
Option B. So as to give no more than 2 degrees deflection of compass.
Option C. 20 inches.
Correct Answer is. 24 inches.
Question Number. 124. An uncorrected ADI is affected by.

Option A. descent.
Option B. climb.
Option C. roll.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. EHJ Pallett Page 120.
Question Number. 125. Which pitot probe provides information to the captains instruments?.
Option A. Lower.
Option B. Upper.
Option C. Both.
Correct Answer is. Upper.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.b737.org.uk/probes.htm
Question Number. 126. On the CWP, what does amber indicate?.

Option A. Warning.
Option B. Present status.
Option C. Cautionary info.
Correct Answer is. Cautionary info.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 127. Which instrument shows Decision Height?.

Option A. HSI.
Option B. ECAM.
Option C. ADI.
Correct Answer is. ADI.
Question Number. 128. Where does the HSI receive GND speed information from?.
Option A. Pitot static probes.
Option B. EICAS.
Option C. INS.
Correct Answer is. INS.
Question Number. 129. Transformer coupling between an ADI and a flight director computer is.
Option A. to protect the FD computer in case of an ADI failure.
Option B. to protect the FD computer in case of an HSI failure.
Option C. to protect the ADI in event of a FD computer failure.
Correct Answer is. to protect the ADI in event of a FD computer failure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 130. When power is switched off, the gimbal brake.
Option A. restricts inner gimbal.
Option B. restricts outer gimbal.
Option C. stops outer gimbal.
Correct Answer is. restricts inner gimbal.
Explanation. Used for gimbal lock prevention. Energised off.
Question Number. 131. On an Autoland coupled approach, a G.P.W.S warning.

Option A. would be a visual warning only.
Option B. would initiate a Go-Around.
Option C. would be an audio and visual warning.
Correct Answer is. would be an audio and visual warning.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 132. When more than one D.R. compass is fitted on an aircraft or where a D.R. compass serves as a
standby to a remote reading compass.
Option A. all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made simultaneously on each heading.
Option B. all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made at any one heading only.
Option C. only the master compass readings and adjustments carried out and remaining compasses are adjusted with
master compass.
Correct Answer is. all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made simultaneously on each heading.
Explanation. CAIPs A.L/10-5 9.2 Note.
Question Number. 133. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on the deviation card
should not exceed.
Explanation. CAIPs A.L/10-5 9.2.8.
Question Number. 134. Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called.
Option A. apparent error.
Option B. index error.
Option C. residual error.
Correct Answer is. residual error.
Explanation. CAIPs A.L/10-5 9.2.8.
Question Number. 135. Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with cover glasses whose surfaces are
bloomed to reduce.
Option A. static to avoid dust attraction.
Option B. surface reflection.
Option C. parallax error.
Correct Answer is. surface reflection.
Explanation. CAIPs A.L/10-1 14.2.
Question Number. 136. A D.R. compass fitted on an aircraft. The safe distance for electrical cables carrying electrical
current is.
Option A. 28 inches.
Option B. 20 inches.
Option C. 24 inches.
Correct Answer is. 24 inches.
Explanation. A.L/10-5 4.1.2.
Question Number. 137. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is carried out with.
Option A. micrometer.
Option B. spirit level.
Option C. an inclinometer.
Correct Answer is. an inclinometer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 138. The manufacturer of a pitot head gave a specification indicating 2 inches dia. This is the.
Option A. internal dia. of pitot head where air stagnates.
Option B. opening dia. of pitot head.
Option C. external dia. of pitot head.
Correct Answer is. external dia. of pitot head.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 139. On a VSI fitted on an aircraft, for climb and descent indication.
Option A. a set screw is provided for zero adjustment.
Option B. it does not have any adjustment.
Option C. a set screw is provided for climb/descent increments.
Correct Answer is. a set screw is provided for zero adjustment.
Explanation. A.L/10-1.
Question Number. 140. On an EADI the command bars show the.

Option A. required flight path compared to planned flight path.
Option B. required flight path compared with horizon.
Option C. required flight path compared with aircraft position.
Correct Answer is. required flight path compared with aircraft position.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 212/213.
Question Number. 141. The airdata computer inputs to.

Option A. mach meter, standby altimeter, A.S.I.
Option B. altimeter, F.M.C, secondary radar.
Option C. cabin rate sensors, mach-meters, A.S.I, altimeter.
Correct Answer is. altimeter, F.M.C, secondary radar.
Explanation. F.M.C for nav. Secondary Radar is A.T.C transponder encoder.
Question Number. 142. What deviation is indicated by 2 dots in a VOR system?.

Option A. 10°.
Option B. 6°.
Option C. 2.5°.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.allstar.fiu.edu/aero/FltDirS.htm (Note: VOR is 5° per dot. ILS is 2 1/2° per dot)
Question Number. 143. How may the basic principle of the radio altimeter be described?.
Option A. As a comparison of radio altitude against a barometric altitude referenced to ISA sea level (1013.25mb).
Option B. As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the ground directly
below the aircraft.
Option C. As a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency depending on the expansion or contraction of an
evacuated capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar transducer.
Correct Answer is. As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the ground
directly below the aircraft.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 144. In a compass system, what senses the horizontal component of the earths magnetic field and
where is it normally fitted?.
Option A. A precession device mounted on the yaw axis of the aircraft.
Option B. Directional gyro mounted on the roll axis of the aircraft.
Option C. Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips.
Correct Answer is. Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips.
Question Number. 145. An R.M.I has inputs from VOR and.

Option A. no other sources.
Option B. a remote compass input.
Option C. an azimuth gyro.
Correct Answer is. an azimuth gyro.
Question Number. 146. In a modern HSI, the displays are.

Option A. course and attitude.
Option B. direction and attitude.
Option C. course and direction.
Correct Answer is. course and direction.
Question Number. 147. Which modes of the G.P.W.S may be inhibited?.
Option A. modes 1, 3, 4a, 6.
Option B. modes 4b, 5.
Option C. modes 2, 4, 5.
Correct Answer is. modes 4b, 5.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 148. The vocal repetition for Mode 6 warnings are repeated.
Option A. twice only.
Option B. once only.
Option C. three times only.
Correct Answer is. once only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 149. When a compass is in the slave mode.

Option A. the azimuth gyro is slaved to the annunciator or synchroniser circuit.
Option B. the azimuth gyro will wander uncompensated.
Option C. azimuth gyro will be corrected by long term monitoring of the flux valve.
Correct Answer is. azimuth gyro will be corrected by long term monitoring of the flux valve.
Question Number. 150. A flux valve becomes permanently magnetized. What will be the effect?.
Option A. More deviation.
Option B. More variation.
Option C. Remote compass will indicate in one direction only.
Correct Answer is. More deviation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 151. At what height does the rising runway appear?.
Option A. 200 feet.
Option B. 500 feet.
Option C. 300 feet.
Question Number. 152. An H on the EHSI indicates.

Option A. VOR hold.
Option B. D.M.E hold.
Option C. ILS approach.
Correct Answer is. D.M.E hold.
Question Number. 153. When servicing an RVSM aircraft.

Option A. the alt. alert must be serviceable.
Option B. the alt. hold must be serviceable.
Option C. all pitot/static instruments must be serviceable.
Correct Answer is. the alt. alert must be serviceable.
Explanation. JAR Ops 1 Subpart L 1.872.
Question Number. 154. Compared to air driven gyros, the electric gyro runs.
Option A. same speed.
Option B. slower.
Option C. faster.
Correct Answer is. faster.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 155. An A.S.I compressibility error correction will be.

Option A. negative.
Option B. positive.
Option C. both.
Correct Answer is. negative.
Explanation. NIL. http://142.26.194.131/aerodynamics1/Basics/Page7.html
Question Number. 156. A typical ratiometer indicating system would use.

Option A. Single phase AC for the indicator and transmitter.
Option B. 3 phase AC.
Option C. Single phase AC for the indicator and DC for the transmitter.
Correct Answer is. Single phase AC for the indicator and transmitter.
Explanation. Aircraft instruments & integrated systems Pallett pages 317 & 319/320.
Question Number. 157. A pneumatic indicator takes its indications from.

Option A. compressor inlet.
Option B. compressor outlet.
Option C. reservoir.
Correct Answer is. reservoir.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 158. What is apparent drift due to?.

Option A. Errors when aircraft banking.
Option B. Gyro pivot friction.
Option C. Earths rotation.
Correct Answer is. Earths rotation.
Question Number. 159. Compass error 'Q' corrections correct.

Option A. A error.
Option B. C error.
Option C. B error.
Correct Answer is. C error.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Pages 88 and 92.
Question Number. 160. ICAO Standard Atmosphere is.
Option A. relevant to set parameters.
Option B. taken from data measured at the equator.
Option C. taken from data measured at 45 degrees North.
Correct Answer is. taken from data measured at 45 degrees North.
Explanation. NIL. http://amsglossary.allenpress.com/glossary/browse?s=s&p=88
Question Number. 161. An aircraft airspeed indicator has.

Option A. pitot to the capsule.
Option B. static to the capsule.
Option C. pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the capsule.
Correct Answer is. pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the capsule.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 162. Above 2500 feet. the rad. alt.

Option A. continues to indicate but with a warning flag.
Option B. pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of view.
Option C. pointer goes to zero to show system is being monitored.
Correct Answer is. pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of view.
Explanation. Avionic Systems: Operation and Maintenance Page 189.
Question Number. 163. A typical ratiometer indicating system would use.

Option A. single phase AC for indicator and dc for transmitter.
Option B. single phase AC for indicator and transmitter.
Option C. 3-phase AC.
Correct Answer is. single phase AC for indicator and transmitter.
Explanation. ircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems by EHJ Pallett p316/7.
Question Number. 164. A Mach meter.

Option A. does not compensate for square law.
Option B. uses a spring and bar.
Option C. compensates for square law.
Correct Answer is. compensates for square law.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems by EHJ Pallett page 43/45.
Question Number. 165. An aircraft increases in altitude The A.S.I indication remains constant. What will happen to the True
airspeed value?.
Option A. Decrease.
Option B. Remain the same.
Option C. Increase.
Correct Answer is. Increase.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems by EHJ Pallett page 42.
Question Number. 166. How does a machmeter work?.

Option A. Indicated airspeed / temperature.
Option B. True airspeed / indicated airspeed.
Option C. True airspeed and speed of sound.
Correct Answer is. True airspeed and speed of sound.
Explanation. Kermode Mechanics of Flight 10th edition pg 339, and Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, Harris
Page 20.
Question Number. 167. Air density compensation requires.

Option A. altitude and OAT.
Option B. OAT.
Option C. altitude.
Correct Answer is. altitude and OAT.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett, page 42, Figure.2.15.
Question Number. 168. When changing a pitot static instrument with quick release couplings.
Option A. a leak check is not required.
Option B. a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer.
Option C. a leak check is always required.
Correct Answer is. a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 169. What aircraft system supplies power to the standby artificial horizon?.
Option A. Generator bus.
Option B. Normal power, then switches to emergency supply in an emergency.
Option C. Battery Bus.
Correct Answer is. Battery Bus.
Explanation. B757 A.M.M chap 34-24-00 (actually called standby bus).
Question Number. 170. Flight Director bars move up in slow increments, what controls their rate/speed?.
Option A. Instrument amplifier gain.
Option B. Position feedback.
Option C. Rate feedback.
Correct Answer is. Instrument amplifier gain.
Question Number. 171. If the static pressure is varied at too great a rate. The instrument that is most affected is the.
Option A. airspeed indicator.

Option B. rate of change indicator.
Option C. altimeter.
Correct Answer is. rate of change indicator.
Explanation. The Rate of Change (VSI) is most sensitive.
Question Number. 172. The flux detector element.

Option A. changes heading with the heading of the aircraft.
Option B. changes it position after the aircraft heading is changed.
Option C. gives heading with respect to magnetic north.
Correct Answer is. gives heading with respect to magnetic north.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 173. If rate feedback in a flight director goes open circuit, position indication will.
Option A. oscillate.
Option B. go hard over.
Option C. be sluggish.
Correct Answer is. oscillate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 174. When calibrating an electronic fuel capacitance indicating system, what piece of test equipment
would you use?.
Option A. A bridge.
Option B. A decade.
Option C. A potentiometer.
Correct Answer is. A bridge.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 175. The needle of a resolver is connected to.

Option A. two coils and a permanent magnet.
Option B. two coils and an electromagnet.
Option C. two coils only.
Correct Answer is. two coils only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 176. The capacitance fuel contents system works on the principle of.
Option A. capacitive reactance.
Option B. resistance.
Option C. capacitance.
Correct Answer is. capacitance.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft instruments page 326.
Question Number. 177. What is the maximum value of installation tester that may be used on a fuel contents system?.
Option A. 250 Volt.

Option B. You cannot use one on the fuel contents system.
Option C. 300 Volt.
Correct Answer is. You cannot use one on the fuel contents system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 178. An aircraft landing on QFE, the altimeter will.

Option A. read zero on touchdown.
Option B. read airfield height on landing.
Option C. read local area pressure.
Correct Answer is. read zero on touchdown.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page54.
Question Number. 179. A rate gyro has.

Option A. a calibrated spring to restrain movement about longitudinal axis.
Option B. one degree of freedom along the lateral axis.
Option C. a calibrated spring between inner gimbal and case.
Correct Answer is. a calibrated spring to restrain movement about longitudinal axis.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page129.
Question Number. 180. Using the fast erection switch on a standby horizon prior to the flag clearing may cause.
Option A. application of a large torque to the control phase windings causing failure.
Option B. the instrument to erect to a false datum.
Option C. You must use the Fast erection switch to clear the flag.
Correct Answer is. application of a large torque to the control phase windings causing failure.
Question Number. 181. Water contamination in a capacitance fuel system will.

Option A. cause contents to overead.
Option B. short out capacitance probe and trip CB.
Option C. cause contents to under read.
Correct Answer is. cause contents to overead.
Explanation. The dielectric constant of water is 81.07 fuel is around 2 the system over reads Aircraft Instruments and
Integrated Systems Pallett page 328.
Question Number. 182. An ILS indicator is.

Option A. parallel to filters.
Option B. across filters.
Option C. series with filters.
Correct Answer is. series with filters.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 183. In a dual F.M.S, a failure of one computer will result in.
Option A. no effect on the CDU display.
Option B. a blank display on one CDU.
Option C. a down grade of the landing category.
Correct Answer is. a blank display on one CDU.
Question Number. 184. When a compass is in the slave mode.

Option A. the azimuth gyro is slaved to the annunciator or synchroniser circuit.
Option B. the azimuth gyro will wander uncompensated.
Option C. azimuth gyro will be corrected by long term monitoring of the flux valve.
Correct Answer is. azimuth gyro will be corrected by long term monitoring of the flux valve.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 185. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on the deviation card
should not exceed.
Explanation. CAAIPS Lft 8-2 Para 14.8 5.
Question Number. 186. If one F.M.S faILS in a dual system.

Option A. F.M.S CDU on fail side goes blank.
Option B. F.M.S display transfers automatically from serviceable computer.
Option C. system operation will not be affected.
Correct Answer is. F.M.S CDU on fail side goes blank.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 406-407.
Question Number. 187. If the compass fluid has bubbles at low altitude.
Option A. this is due to insufficient de-aeration.
Option B. this is due to excessive high cabin altitude flying.
Option C. this has no influence on compass readings.
Correct Answer is. this is due to insufficient de-aeration.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.silva.se/files/compass.html#BUBBLES
Question Number. 188. Cyclic shift of the stator connections in a torque synchro results in.
Option A. output datum advanced 240 deg.
Option B. output datum advanced 180 deg.
Option C. data to coincide.
Correct Answer is. output datum advanced 240 deg.
Question Number. 189. Gimbal lock in a displacement gyro occurs when.

Option A. bearing friction causes gimbal system to unbalance.
Option B. spin axis becomes coincident with any of the axis of freedom.
Option C. gimbal rings are mutually not at right angles to each other.
Correct Answer is. spin axis becomes coincident with any of the axis of freedom.
Question Number. 190. In a turn coordinator, the output axis of the rate gyro is.
Option A. set at 30° to the longitudinal axis.
Option B. parallel to the lateral axis to make the gyro sensitive to rolling and banking as well as turning.
Option C. parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. set at 30° to the longitudinal axis.
Question Number. 191. All 'fly-to' information in an EFIS system is displayed in.
Option A. white.
Option B. green.
Option C. magenta.
Correct Answer is. magenta.
Question Number. 192. In an EICAS display, all scales, normal operating range of pointers and digital readouts are
displayed in.
Option A. white.
Option B. magenta.
Option C. green.
Correct Answer is. white.
Question Number. 193. The scratch pad in an F.M.S CDU occupies.

Option A. the last 12 character spaces of the bottom line.
Option B. 24 character spaces of the bottom line.
Option C. first 12 character spaces of the bottom line.
Correct Answer is. first 12 character spaces of the bottom line.
Explanation. Aircraft Instrument System - Pallett Chap - 17 Pg 403.
Question Number. 194. Thermocouple combination mostly used for exhaust gas temperature indications are.
Option A. Copper-Constantan.
Option B. Iron-Constantan.
Option C. Chromel-Alumel.
Correct Answer is. Chromel-Alumel.
Question Number. 195. A remote compass compensator unit is replaced. Which of the following is correct?.
Option A. A compass swing must be performed.
Option B. No swing is required if the new heading is within 5 degrees of the old.
Option C. The swing can be performed at a later date.
Correct Answer is. A compass swing must be performed.
Explanation. A.L/10-5 10.
Question Number. 196. A compass has a residual deviation of +1 degree. To steer a true heading of 180 degrees the pilot
must steer.
Explanation. A.L/10-5 Table 1 columns 7 and 8.
Question Number. 197. How is a leading edge flap position indicated in the cockpit?.
Option A. A measuring device.
Option B. Torque synchro.
Option C. Servomotor.
Correct Answer is. Torque synchro.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 198. In a capacitive fuel contents system, changes in temperature are compensated by.
Option A. placing a capacitor in parallel with the tank unit capacitance.
Option B. placing a resistor in series with the tank unit capacitance.
Option C. adjustment of a potentiometer.
Correct Answer is. placing a capacitor in parallel with the tank unit capacitance.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated systems Pallett page 331 -333.
Question Number. 199. In an EICAS system, operation of the cancel switch.

Option A. removes all messages from the display.
Option B. removes caution and advisory messages.
Option C. removes advisory messages.
Correct Answer is. removes caution and advisory messages.
Explanation. Aircraft Instrument's and Integrated systems Pallett page 383.
Question Number. 200. The true airspeed output from a CADC will be determined by information fed from.
Option A. The Pitot and Static sensors.
Option B. The Mach unit.
Option C. The Mach unit and Temperature Sensor.
Correct Answer is. The Mach unit and Temperature Sensor.
Explanation. Aircraft Instrument's and Integrated Systems Pallett page 167 and diagram page 162.
Question Number. 201. Absolute pressure of 25 PSI is.

Option A. 39.7 PSI.
Option B. 10.3 PSI.
Option C. 14 PSI.
Correct Answer is. 10.3 PSI.
Explanation. Gauge Pressure = Absolute Pressure - Atmospheric Pressure.
Question Number. 202. JAR OPS states that the time an FDR recording must be kept after an accident or incident.
Option A. 30 days after incident 60 days after accident.
Option B. 30 Days.
Option C. 60 days.
Correct Answer is. 60 days.
Explanation. JAR OPS 1.160.
Question Number. 203. Coefficient A correction is carried out.

Option A. before B and after C.
Option B. after B and after C.
Option C. before C after B.
Correct Answer is. after B and after C.
Explanation. CAIPs A.L/10-5 Para 9.
Question Number. 204. A combined A.S.I indicates Mach.

Option A. all the time airspeed is present.
Option B. above 10000 feet.
Option C. above 0.15.
Correct Answer is. all the time airspeed is present.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 205. Compass compensator units have greatest effect when the magnets are.
Option A. Parallel.
Option B. 45° apert.
Option C. 90° apart.
Correct Answer is. 90° apart.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 206. In a Machmeter, what type of compensation is there?.

Option A. Square-Law compensation.
Option B. Compensation is not required.
Option C. Hair spring.
Correct Answer is. Square-Law compensation.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems - Pallett, page 45.
Question Number. 207. A gate valve is installed in a vacuum system to prevent.
Option A. reverse flow due to engine backfire.
Option B. oil entering gyro when shut down.
Option C. back pressure due to engine surge.
Correct Answer is. oil entering gyro when shut down.
Explanation. A gate valve closes completely on engine shutdown.
Question Number. 208. Normal vertical minimum separation allowed is.

Option A. 1000feet.
Option B. 800feet.
Option C. 2000feet.
Correct Answer is. 2000feet.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.faa.gov/ats/ato/rvsm1.htm (note 'Normal'. not RVSM)
Question Number. 209. The venturi tubes in a vacuum instrument are measured in.
Option A. Inches of Mercury.
Option B. PSI.
Option C. Millibars.
Correct Answer is. Inches of Mercury.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 210. The instrument supplied with pitot and is affected by altitude is a.
Option A. Mach Meter.
Option B. A.S.I.
Option C. VSI.
Correct Answer is. Mach Meter.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 211. A fuel system that corrects fuel SG is calibrated in.
Option A. Pounds or KGs.
Option B. Gallons.
Option C. Litres.
Correct Answer is. Pounds or KGs.
Question Number. 212. Component P relates to.

Option A. coefficient C.
Option B. coefficient B.
Option C. coefficient A.
Correct Answer is. coefficient B.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 91 Fig 3.7.
Question Number. 213. A standby artificial horizon uses a.

Option A. free gyro.
Option B. space gyro.
Option C. earth gyro.
Correct Answer is. earth gyro.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 214. Pitot-static lines in helicopters.

Option A. must provide an accurate indication of the flight regime below 20 knots.
Option B. must provide accurate information over the helicopter certified flight envelope.
Option C. are made of stainless steel, and must withstand twice normal working pressure.
Correct Answer is. must provide accurate information over the helicopter certified flight envelope.
Explanation. JAR 29.1323 implies that this is the correct answer.
Question Number. 215. EG.P.W.S mode 2 announces.

Option A. too low flaps.
Option B. whoop whoop pull up.
Option C. sink rate.
Correct Answer is. whoop whoop pull up.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Harris Page 160.
Question Number. 216. Leakage of a static line during a pitot static test (altitude increasing) would be indicated by.
Option A. VSI remaining in a fixed position.
Option B. VSI showing rate of climb.
Option C. VSI showing rate of descent.
Correct Answer is. VSI showing rate of climb.
Explanation. Although there would be some error, since the static pressure sensed would not be that of the static port
position.
Question Number. 217. Alpha angle relates to which system?.

Option A. Mach trim system.
Option B. Flap blowback system.
Option C. Angle of attack system.
Correct Answer is. Angle of attack system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 218. When a standby compass is replaced, on installation the compensator magnets should be set to.
Option A. the neutral setting on the new unit.

Option B. maximum setting on the new unit.
Option C. the same setting as the removed compass.
Correct Answer is. the neutral setting on the new unit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 219. Compensator magnets in a standby compass exert greatest influence at.
Option A. when parallel to each other.
Option B. 45°.
Option C. 90°.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 220. If the static vent is leaking into cabin pressurised space when the aircraft is at altitude, a mach
meter will indicate.
Option A. a decrease.
Option B. an increase.
Option C. no change.
Correct Answer is. a decrease.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 221. EFIS display, SG1 + SG2 are for captain and FO displays. What is the purpose of SG3?.
Option A. ECAM lower display.
Option B. Backup for SG 1 and 2.
Option C. ECAM upper display.
Correct Answer is. Backup for SG 1 and 2.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 222. The compensator tank unit in a fuel system adjusts fuel readings for.
Option A. zero reading.
Option B. SG of fuel.
Option C. permittivity.
Correct Answer is. permittivity.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 223. The flight recorder accelerometer used in the DFDR system measures vertical acceleration as one
of its parameters to values between.
Option A. plus eight 'g' to minus four 'g' with a null output of two volts plus or minus twenty millivolts.
Option B. plus four 'g' and minus two 'g' with a null output of one point six to plus or minus twenty eight millivolts dc.
Option C. plus six 'g' and minus three 'g' with a null output of one point eight volts plus or minus twenty five millivolts
dc+C193:C232.
Correct Answer is. plus six 'g' and minus three 'g' with a null output of one point eight volts plus or minus twenty five
millivolts dc.
Explanation. IHums book for Super Puma AS332 Chap 31-32-00.
Question Number. 224. As part of the checks on the DFDR system, you are required to carry out a check using the self-test
switch on the aircraft integrated data system (AIDS) printer. Actuation of the switch causes the printer to print in.
Option A. forty column mode.
Option B. eighty column mode.
Option C. sixty six column mode.
Correct Answer is. forty column mode.
Explanation. A320 MM chapter 31-36-00 page 17 para 4.
Question Number. 225. When the 'busy' indicator lamp flashes on the QAR in a DFDR system, this indicates that the.
Option A. cartridge is loaded correctly and the QAR is ready for use.
Option B. data is being received and the cartridge cannot be ejected.
Option C. data is not being received and the cartridge can be ejected.
Correct Answer is. cartridge is loaded correctly and the QAR is ready for use.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 226. In digital flight data recorder (DFDR) system, low speed playback of currently received data can be
achieved at.
Option A. the DFDAU built in test equipment (BITE).
Option B. the electronic bay test connection at the quick access recorder (QAR).
Option C. the flight compartment test connector through the digital flight data acquisition unit (DFDAU).
Correct Answer is. the electronic bay test connection at the quick access recorder (QAR).
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 227. During a change to a lower altitude, the piston unit in an IVSI (instantaneous vertical speed
indicator) will create, for an instant.
Option A. more suction to the capsule only.
Option B. pressure to both case and capsule.
Option C. more pressure to the capsule only.
Correct Answer is. more pressure to the capsule only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 228. A leak in the static line in a pressurised part of an aircraft can cause the mach indication to.
Option A. rise.
Option B. no change.
Option C. decrease.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 229. The full testing of a FDR system is accomplished by.
Option A. bite test of the FDR acquisition unit.
Option B. real time monitoring of system with ground test equipment.
Option C. bite test of the FDR.
Correct Answer is. bite test of the FDR acquisition unit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 230. G.P.W.S Mode 7 Windshear is activated at.

Option A. 1500 radio altimeter for take-off and landing.
Option B. 2500 radio altimeter for take-off and landing.
Option C. 1500 radio altimeter for take-off and 2500 rad alt for landing.
Correct Answer is. 1500 radio altimeter for take-off and landing.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 231. A mach meter is.

Option A. compensated with square law screws and an arm.
Option B. automatically compensated.
Option C. not square law compensated.
Correct Answer is. automatically compensated.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 232. A mach meter reads the correct value.
Option A. at any altitude.
Option B. above 10,000 feet only.
Option C. at sea level only.
Correct Answer is. at any altitude.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 233. A fuel system that measures SG will be displayed in.
Option A. Ltrs or gals.
Option B. Lbs or kgs.
Option C. Ltrs or kgs.
Correct Answer is. Lbs or kgs.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 234. Which is not displayed on an attitude director indicator (ADI)?.
Option A. Glideslope deviation.
Option B. VOR lateral deviation.
Option C. Localizer deviation.
Correct Answer is. VOR lateral deviation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 235. An engine vibration indicator system uses.

Option A. AC /DC in the indicator.
Option B. AC /DC in the transmitter.
Option C. 2 filters in the indicator.
Correct Answer is. 2 filters in the indicator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 236. A turn and slip needle/pointer moves to the left. What is the aircraft doing?.
Option A. turning left.
Option B. rolling left.
Option C. slipping leftt.
Correct Answer is. turning left.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 237. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?.
Option A. Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.
Option B. Decrease the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.
Correct Answer is. Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.
Question Number. 238. A gyroscopic body has its rigidity increased by.
Option A. increasing the rotor speed.
Option B. decreasing the rotor speed.
Option C. decreasing the mass of the rotor.
Correct Answer is. increasing the rotor speed.
Question Number. 239. If a constant torque is applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession.
Option A. increases with a higher rotor speed.
Option B. is unaffected by changes in rotor speed.
Option C. increases with a lower rotor speed.
Correct Answer is. increases with a lower rotor speed.
Question Number. 240. Random drift of a gyro is caused by.

Option A. rotation of the earth.
Option B. aircraft turning with an error in roll.
Option C. unbalance and bearing friction in the gyro.
Correct Answer is. unbalance and bearing friction in the gyro.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 33 (Real Drift).
Question Number. 241. A pendulous vane type erection system fitted to a gyro horizon works on the principle of.
Option A. decreased reaction of the air from a fully open port.
Option B. increased reaction of the air from a fully open port.
Option C. increased reaction of the air from a bisected port.
Correct Answer is. increased reaction of the air from a fully open port.
Question Number. 242. The pitch/bank erection system is used in an electrical gyro horizon to.
Option A. give full erection control to the pitch switch during a turn.
Option B. give full erection control to the roll switch during a turn.
Option C. to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to centrifugal effects during a turn.
Correct Answer is. to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to centrifugal effects during a turn.
Question Number. 243. The fast erection push on an electrical gyro horizon must not be used for a set period after
switching on because.
Option A. the normal erection switch contact will burn out.
Option B. overheating of the gyro rotor windings will occur.
Option C. excessive hunting will take place.
Correct Answer is. excessive hunting will take place.
Explanation. A.L/10-2 9.3.2 a).
Question Number. 244. The erection system on a directional gyroscope has.

Option A. a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal.
Option B. a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the outer gimbal.
Option C. a switch on the outer gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal.
Correct Answer is. a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the outer gimbal.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 46/7.
Question Number. 245. In a rate gyro used to detect movements about a vertical axis, the amount the gimbal ring moves
would be increased if the.
Option A. spring tension was increased.
Option B. rotor speed decreases.
Option C. angle through which the gyro moves in azimuth increases.
Correct Answer is. rotor speed decreases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 246. The Turn and Slip indicator employs.

Option A. an azimuth gyro.
Option B. a rate gyro.
Option C. a vertical gyro.
Correct Answer is. a rate gyro.
Question Number. 247. In a Turn and Slip indicator, the effect of increasing the rotor speed would be.
Option A. it would over read.
Option B. it would under read.
Option C. it would have no effect.
Correct Answer is. it would under read.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 248. How is the information on a directional gyro outer gimbal taken off?.
Option A. By a switch on the outer gimbal.
Option B. By a switch on the inner gimbal.
Option C. By a flux take-off device.
Correct Answer is. By a flux take-off device.
Question Number. 249. Why is a directional gyro inner gimbal restricted to +/-85º?.
Option A. To prevent outer gimbal rotating.
Option B. To ensure outer gimbal erection system works correctly.
Option C. To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock.
Correct Answer is. To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 250. The speed of the rotor in a Turn and Slip indicator is approximately.
Option A. 22,500 rpm.
Option B. 4,200 rpm.
Option C. 2,400 rpm.
Correct Answer is. 4,200 rpm.
Question Number. 251. In a directional gyro, the inner/outer gimbal is corrected to.
Option A. 15 cosine latitude.
Option B. 15 sine longitude.
Option C. 15 sine latitude.
Correct Answer is. 15 sine latitude.
Question Number. 252. The electrolyte switches used in gyro systems rely upon.
Option A. change in resistance to operate.
Option B. change in voltage applied to operate.
Option C. change in inductance to operate.
Correct Answer is. change in resistance to operate.
Question Number. 253. Precession of a gyro depends on.

Option A. both answers (a) and (b).
Option B. angular velocity of the rotor only.
Option C. moment of inertia of the rotor only.
Correct Answer is. both answers (a) and (b).
Question Number. 254. Angular momentum of a gyro rotor depends on.

Option A. moment of inertia of the rotor.
Option B. angular velocity of the rotor.
Option C. moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor.
Correct Answer is. moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor.
Question Number. 255. Air driven gyros, compared to electric gyros, generally rotate.
Option A. the same speed.
Option B. faster.
Option C. slower.
Correct Answer is. slower.
Question Number. 256. Gyro rigidity is proportional to.

Option A. mass and speed.
Option B. mass, speed and radius of mass from spin axis.
Option C. mass, and radius of mass from spin axis.
Correct Answer is. mass, speed and radius of mass from spin axis.
Question Number. 257. Gyro precessional force is.

Option A. inversely proportional to the applied force.
Option B. proportional to the square of the applied force.
Option C. directly proportional to applied force.
Correct Answer is. directly proportional to applied force.
Question Number. 258. The speed of a vacuum driven gyro horizon rotor is approximately.
Option A. 4,200 rpm.
Option B. 15,000 rpm.
Option C. 22,000 rpm.
Correct Answer is. 15,000 rpm.
Question Number. 259. A V.S.I. is connected to.

Option A. static pressure.
Option B. vacuum.
Option C. pitot pressure.
Correct Answer is. static pressure.
Question Number. 260. With a V.S.I. pointer at position 1 on the upper half of the scale it indicates.
Option A. 1,000 ft/minute rate of descent.
Option B. 1,000 ft/minute rate of climb.
Option C. 100 ft/minute rate of climb.
Correct Answer is. 1,000 ft/minute rate of climb.
Question Number. 261. After disconnecting the supply to an electrically operated gyro instrument it is recommended that,
to allow the gyro rotor to stop, before moving the instrument.
Option A. fifteen minutes should elapse.
Option B. three minutes should elapse.
Option C. seven minutes should elapse.
Correct Answer is. fifteen minutes should elapse.
Explanation. A.L/10.2 8.1 c).
Question Number. 262. The Port and Starboard static vents on an aircraft are inter-connected to.
Option A. reduce compressibility error.
Option B. cancel errors caused in the static system when the aircraft yaws.
Option C. minimize errors caused by leaks in the system.
Correct Answer is. cancel errors caused in the static system when the aircraft yaws.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 263. Which of the following would cause a displacement gyro to topple?.
Option A. Running gyro at low speed.
Option B. Running gyro at high speed.
Option C. Inverting the gyro.
Correct Answer is. Running gyro at low speed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 264. In level flight, a V.S.I. will indicate.

Option A. horizontal to left.
Option B. vertically up.
Option C. vertically down.
Correct Answer is. horizontal to left.
Question Number. 265. On descent, the pressure in a V.S.I. capsule.

Option A. is the same as case pressure.
Option B. lags the case pressure.
Option C. leads the case pressure.
Correct Answer is. leads the case pressure.
Question Number. 266. A small constant leak in the case of V.S.I. fitted in a pressurized aircraft would, during level flight,
cause the instrument to indicate.
Option A. a rate of climb.
Option B. a rate of descent.
Option C. zero.
Question Number. 267. When a force is applied to a horizontal gyro, the precession of the rotor will continue until.
Option A. plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied force.
Option B. plane of rotation is in line with the precessional force.
Option C. as long as the force is applied.
Correct Answer is. plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied force.
Question Number. 268. An artificial horizon has.

Option A. the inner gimbal pivoted laterally.
Option B. the inner gimbal pivoted vertically.
Option C. the inner gimbal pivoted longitudinally.
Correct Answer is. the inner gimbal pivoted laterally.
Question Number. 269. A pressure of one atmosphere is equal to.

Option A. 1 inch Hg.
Option B. 100 millibar.
Option C. 14.7 PSI.
Correct Answer is. 14.7 PSI.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 270. In the directional gyro.

Option A. the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically.
Option B. the outer gimbal is pivoted longitudinally.
Option C. the outer gimbal is pivoted laterally.
Correct Answer is. the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically.
Question Number. 271. The millibar is a unit of.
Option A. barometric pressure.
Option B. atmospheric temperature.
Option C. pressure altitude.
Correct Answer is. barometric pressure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 272. In the Turn and Slip indicator.

Option A. the spin axis is lateral.
Option B. the spin axis is longitudinal.
Option C. the spin axis is vertical.
Correct Answer is. the spin axis is lateral.
Question Number. 273. In an altimeter, the.

Option A. inside of the capsule is connected to static pressure.
Option B. capsule and case are connected via a calibrated choke.
Option C. capsule is evacuated and sealed.
Correct Answer is. capsule is evacuated and sealed.
Question Number. 274. The units on the calibrated scale of a V.S.I. are expressed in.
Option A. knots (kts).
Option B. hundreds of feet per minute.
Option C. miles per hour (mph).
Correct Answer is. hundreds of feet per minute.
Explanation. (Light aircraft only - large aircraft are 1000s ft/min).
Question Number. 275. A standby air supply for gyro operation could be obtained from.
Option A. a tapping from the induction manifold.
Option B. a pitot head.
Option C. a venturi.
Correct Answer is. a venturi.
Question Number. 276. At the lowest point of each vent line you would normally find a.
Option A. float valve.
Option B. NACA duct.
Option C. self draining non-return valve.
Correct Answer is. self draining non-return valve.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 277. A rate two turn is.

Option A. 180 degrees per minute.
Option B. 360 degrees per minute.
Option C. 90 degrees per minute.
Correct Answer is. 360 degrees per minute.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 54, Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems Page 131.
Question Number. 278. The rate of turn information from a turn coordinator (compared to a Turn and Slip) is.
Option A. less accurate.
Option B. more accurate.
Option C. more instantaneous.
Correct Answer is. more accurate.
Question Number. 279. Temperature correction in a sensitive altimeter mechanism is provided by a.

Option A. bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule.
Option B. U-spring acting on the capsule.
Option C. balance weight.
Correct Answer is. bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule.
Question Number. 280. The capsule in a vertical speed indicator will be expanded when the aircraft is.
Option A. climbing.
Option B. in level flight.
Option C. descending.
Correct Answer is. descending.
Question Number. 281. After replacing an instrument of the pitot-static group, it is necessary to.
Option A. carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s).
Option B. blow through the lines with a clean low pressure air supply.
Option C. calibrate the instrument concerned.
Correct Answer is. carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s).
Question Number. 282. If the pitot and static pipe lines were cross connected at the instrument panel connection,
application of pressure to the pitot head would cause the.
Option A. altimeter reading to increase, vertical speed indicator to indicate descent.
Option B. altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator to indicate climb.
Option C. altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator to indicate descent.
Correct Answer is. altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator to indicate descent.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 283. A constant force applied to the inner gimbal of a vertical gyro would cause.
Option A. a pitch error and gyro topple.
Option B. a roll error and gyro topple.
Option C. a continual precession in roll.
Correct Answer is. a continual precession in roll.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 284. A pitot or static leak check is carried out.
Option A. only when a leak is suspected.
Option B. whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed.
Option C. only when an instrument is changed.
Correct Answer is. whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed.
Question Number. 285. The temperature of boiling water at standard pressure on the Fahrenheit and Centigrade scale is.
Option A. 212 deg. and 100 deg. respectively.

Option B. 180 deg. and 100 deg. respectively.
Option C. 100 deg. and 32 deg. respectively.
Correct Answer is. 212 deg. and 100 deg. respectively.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 286. A temperature of 59°F is equivalent to.

Option A. 32°C.
Option B. 15°C.
Option C. 14.69°C.
Correct Answer is. 15°C.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 287. Aircraft heading (HDG) is.

Option A. the angle between True North and the actual track.
Option B. the angle between True North and the desired track.
Option C. the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
Question Number. 288. Limit stops are fitted in an artificial horizon to.
Option A. reduce gimbal nutation.
Option B. limit the outer gimbal movement.
Option C. prevent gimbal lock.
Correct Answer is. prevent gimbal lock.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 289. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an attitude director indicator is.
Option A. by a differential synchro.
Option B. by a control synchro.
Option C. by a torque synchro.
Correct Answer is. by a control synchro.
Explanation. Avionics Fundamentals Page 93 Fig 5-20.
Question Number. 290. Agonic lines link places of.

Option A. different variation.
Option B. zero variation.
Option C. equal variation.
Correct Answer is. zero variation.
Explanation. NIL. https://ntc.cap.af.mil/ops/DOT/school/L23CockpitFam/magneticcompass.cfm
Question Number. 291. Position error is caused by.

Option A. pitot head position.
Option B. instrument location in the instrument panel.
Option C. mechanical imperfections in an instrument.
Correct Answer is. pitot head position.
Question Number. 292. To convert degrees Centigrade to degrees Kelvin.

Option A. add 273 degrees.
Option B. use the formula (°C * 9/5) + 32.
Option C. add 112 degrees.
Correct Answer is. add 273 degrees.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 293. Damping on a RATE GYRO can be either.

Option A. eddy current, variable spring or moving iron.
Option B. viscous, eddy current or air dash pot.
Option C. viscous, eddy current or variable spring.
Correct Answer is. viscous, eddy current or air dash pot.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 294. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an attitude director indicator is.
Option A. by a control synchro.
Option B. by a differential synchro.
Option C. by a torque synchro.
Correct Answer is. by a control synchro.
Explanation. Avionics Fundamentals Page 93 Fig 5-20.
Question Number. 295. Electrical driven gyros are.

Option A. rotated faster than air driven gyros.
Option B. rotated at the same speed as air driven gyros.
Option C. rotated slower than air driven gyros.
Correct Answer is. rotated faster than air driven gyros.
Question Number. 296. In a ratiometer temperature indicating circuit, there is a break in the circuit to the bulb. This will
give.
Option A. no scale deflection.
Option B. full scale deflection.
Option C. mid scale deflection.
Correct Answer is. full scale deflection.
Explanation. Think of it this way - resistance increases with temperature, and that drives it toward fsd. If the bulb circuit is
broken, the resistance will be infinite.
Question Number. 297. With the gyro at normal running speed, a torque applied to the inner gimbal ring of a vertical gyro
will cause the.
Option A. outer and inner ring to move.
Option B. outer ring to move.
Option C. inner ring to move.
Correct Answer is. outer ring to move.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 298. When an aircraft is descending, the pressure in the altimeter case.
Option A. will cause the aneroid capsule to expand.
Option B. will cause the aneroid capsule to contract.
Option C. will not affect the aneroid capsule.
Correct Answer is. will cause the aneroid capsule to contract.
Question Number. 299. The supply of Desynn indicating system.

Option A. is alternating current at 400 c/s.
Option B. is direct current.
Option C. is alternating current at 50 c/s.
Correct Answer is. is direct current.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 300. A sensitive altimeter reading 100 feet. when the millibar scale is set to the atmospheric pressure at
airfield level (QFE).
Option A. indicates that the aircraft is in a region of high pressure and the reading must be corrected to I.S.A. standards.
Option B. indicates that the instrument is unserviceable.
Option C. indicates that the airfield is 100 feet. above sea level.
Correct Answer is. indicates that the instrument is unserviceable.
Question Number. 301. After using a pitot-static test set the pressure in the aircraft static system should be released to the
atmosphere by.
Option A. removing the static connector from its static vent after waiting for a period of three minutes.
Option B. removing the static connector from its static vent.
Option C. venting the static system via an internal bleed in the test set.
Correct Answer is. venting the static system via an internal bleed in the test set.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 302. An altimeter is operated.

Option A. by the pitot system.
Option B. by the vacuum system.
Option C. by the static system.
Correct Answer is. by the static system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 303. What is the purpose of the bimetallic strip in the altimeter?.
Option A. Compensates for change in density.
Option B. Corrects for capsule elasticity.
Option C. Compensates for non-linear tension in the hairspring.
Correct Answer is. Corrects for capsule elasticity.
Question Number. 304. Which axis does the directional gyro spin on?.
Option A. Horizontal.
Option B. Vertical.
Option C. Both vertical and horizontal.
Correct Answer is. Horizontal.
Question Number. 305. The capsule in an altimeter responds to.
Option A. gauge pressure.
Option B. differential pressure.
Option C. absolute pressure.
Correct Answer is. absolute pressure.
Question Number. 306. The aeroplane monitor on the artificial horizon is fitted to the.
Option A. inner gimbal.
Option B. rotor.
Option C. instrument case.
Correct Answer is. instrument case.
Question Number. 307. True airspeed in an Air Data Computer is a function of.
Option A. airspeed and altitude.
Option B. mach number and temperature.
Option C. airspeed and temperature.
Correct Answer is. mach number and temperature.
Question Number. 308. The advantage of an instantaneous V.S.I. over a conventional one is.
Option A. it does not require pitot/static pressure.
Option B. it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a conventional one.
Option C. it does not require warming up.
Correct Answer is. it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a conventional one.
Question Number. 309. For a particular I.A.S. as the density decreases with altitude, the T.A.S.
Question Number. 310. The type of gyro used in a gyro compass is a.

Option A. rate gyro.
Option B. directional gyro.
Option C. vertical gyro.
Correct Answer is. directional gyro.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 311. A desiccant used in the storage of instruments.

Option A. is sodium-bicarbonate.
Option B. is silica-gel.
Option C. is anti-freeze oil.
Correct Answer is. is silica-gel.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 312. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?.
Option A. Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.
Option B. Decrease the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.
Correct Answer is. Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 313. Bourdon Tubes have.

Option A. circular cross section.
Option B. oval cross section.
Option C. toroidal cross section.
Correct Answer is. oval cross section.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems David Harris Page 182 Figure 7.1.
Question Number. 314. In a Bourdon tube.

Option A. one end is sealed and the other end open to atmosphere.
Option B. one end is sealed and the other end open to the pressure source.
Option C. both ends sealed.
Correct Answer is. one end is sealed and the other end open to the pressure source.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems David Harris Page 182.
Question Number. 315. The fluid suitable for use in a Dead Weight Tester is.
Option A. castor-oil.
Option B. anti-freeze oil.
Option C. kerosene.
Correct Answer is. castor-oil.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.bcmsensor.com/pressure/datasheets/PDH.htm
Question Number. 316. The distance readout on an HSI is.

Option A. from the aircraft D.M.E system.
Option B. from the aircraft A.T.C system.
Option C. dialled in by the pilot.
Correct Answer is. from the aircraft D.M.E system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 317. A gyroscope having one plane of freedom at right angles to the plane of rotation, and its gimbal
restrained either electrically or by a spring, is known as.
Option A. a rate gyro.
Option B. an earth gyro.
Option C. a tied gyro.
Correct Answer is. a rate gyro.
Question Number. 318. Pressure may be expressed in.
Option A. weight or mass.
Option B. force per unit volume.
Option C. force per unit area.
Correct Answer is. force per unit area.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 319. One dot VOR deviation represents.

Option A. 1 1/4°.
Option B. 5°.
Option C. 2 miles.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 320. An instrument used for measuring negative pressures.

Option A. cannot be of the Bourdon tube type.
Option B. has the Bourdon tube reversed within the case.
Option C. has anti-clockwise pointer movement if Bourdon tube operated.
Correct Answer is. cannot be of the Bourdon tube type.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems David Harris Page 182.
Question Number. 321. An absolute pressure gauge measures.

Option A. pressures extremely accurately.
Option B. the applied pressure referred to atmospheric pressure.
Option C. the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum.
Correct Answer is. the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 322. Gauge pressure as indicated on a direct reading Bourdon Tube pressure gauge is equal to.
Option A. absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure.
Option B. absolute pressure plus atmospheric pressure.
Option C. atmospheric pressure minus absolute pressure.
Correct Answer is. absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 323. The to/from indicator on an HSI informs the pilot of which direction he is tracking relative to.
Option A. an ILS station.

Option B. an A.D.F station.
Option C. a VOR station.
Correct Answer is. a VOR station.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 324. A pressure gauge, such as a hydraulic brake pressure gauge, indicates 1,000 p.s.i. In terms of
absolute pressure, this represents.
Option A. 1,014.7 p.s.i.
Option B. 1,000 p.s.i.
Option C. 985.3 p.s.i.
Correct Answer is. 1,014.7 p.s.i.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 325. To fill a Dead Weight Tester.

Option A. screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir.
Option B. remove platform and fill cylinder.
Option C. screw in hand wheel and fill reservoir.
Correct Answer is. screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 326. With an aircraft on the ground and QNH set on the millibar scale of the altimeter, the altimeter will
read.
Option A. off scale.
Option B. the airfield height.
Option C. zero.
Correct Answer is. the airfield height.
Question Number. 327. When checking a sensitive altimeter on a pre-flight inspection.

Option A. the ambient air pressure corrected for temperature is set on the millibar scale.
Option B. the standard sea level barometric pressure is always set on the millibar scale.
Option C. the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale.
Correct Answer is. the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale.
Explanation. QFE is set and it should read airfield height.
Question Number. 328. The HSI compass card is positioned by the.

Option A. heading select knob.
Option B. compass system.
Option C. aircraft A.D.F system.
Correct Answer is. compass system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 329. The applied pressure to an A.S.I. varies with the.
Option A. square of the speed.
Option B. cube root of the speed.
Option C. square root of the speed.
Correct Answer is. square of the speed.
Question Number. 330. The supply to an A.S.I.

Option A. are pitot and static pressure.
Option B. is pitot pressure only.
Option C. is static pressure only.
Correct Answer is. are pitot and static pressure.
Question Number. 331. The capsule for an A.S.I. will be expanding when the aircraft is.
Option A. climbing.
Option B. accelerating.
Option C. decelerating.
Correct Answer is. accelerating.
Question Number. 332. The deflection of the ADI command bars when flying a localiser approach is proportional to.
Option A. the difference in amplitude of the two r.f. carriers.
Option B. the difference between the amplitudes on the two modulations.
Option C. the sum of the amplitude of the two modulations.
Correct Answer is. the difference between the amplitudes on the two modulations.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 333. If an aircraft is flying straight and level in still air, airspeed will be.
Option A. greater than the ground speed.
Option B. equal to the ground speed.
Option C. less than the ground speed.
Correct Answer is. equal to the ground speed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 334. If an aircraft flying in still air at 400 knots, encounters a head wind of 50 knots, its ground speed
is.
Option A. 350 knots.
Option C. 450 knots.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 335. To provide a linear scale on an A.S.I., a.
Option A. bi-metal corrector is employed.
Option B. 10 to 1 gearing is used.
Option C. ranging bar and screws are fitted.
Correct Answer is. ranging bar and screws are fitted.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 44 fig 2.18 and text below.
Question Number. 336. The moving element of a ratiometer has.

Option A. three coils.
Option B. two coils.
Option C. one coil.
Correct Answer is. two coils.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems Page 186 Fig 7.4 and para below.
Question Number. 337. When carrying out a pressure leak test on an altimeter, you are checking for leaks in the.
Option A. capsule stack.
Option B. instrument case.
Option C. pressure chamber.
Correct Answer is. instrument case.
Explanation. Jepessen A & P Technician Textbook p11-9.
Question Number. 338. If an altimeter millibar scale was set to 1 0 1 3 .2 5 and the barometric pressure at that time was
1020, the altimeter should read.
Option A. zero feet.
Option B. below zero feet (negative altitude).
Option C. positive altitude.
Correct Answer is. below zero feet (negative altitude).
Explanation. Assuming aircraft is on the ground.
Question Number. 339. The command bars in a flight director system indicate.
Option A. the required path with respect to actual path.
Option B. true horizon.
Option C. the actual path with respect to required path.
Correct Answer is. the required path with respect to actual path.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 340. When changing a windscreen panel which has a standby magnetic compass located in the vicinity.
Option A. The attachment bolts should be tightened in an anti-clockwise direction around the window.
Option B. precautions must be taken to ensure that the attachment bolts are of the specified type.
Option C. precautions should be taken that the bonding tag is attached to the correct attachment bolt.
Correct Answer is. precautions must be taken to ensure that the attachment bolts are of the specified type.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 341. On a conventional R.M.I the angle between the compass datum and the radio pointer arrow is.
Option A. the magnetic bearing.

Option B. the relative bearing.
Option C. the complimentary bearing.
Correct Answer is. the relative bearing.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 342. A compass is made aperiodic by.

Option A. using fluid.
Option B. tying it to the case.
Option C. locking.
Correct Answer is. using fluid.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 343. Isogonal lines link places of.

Option A. zero variation.
Option B. different variation.
Option C. equal variation.
Correct Answer is. equal variation.
Question Number. 344. In an artificial horizon Pendulosity Error is caused by.

Option A. bottom lightness of inner gimbals.
Option B. displacement of erection control device.
Option C. bottom heaviness of inner gimbals.
Correct Answer is. bottom heaviness of inner gimbals.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 49 (acceleration error).
Question Number. 345. If True Airspeed is 470 knots, what is the Equivalent Air speed?.
Explanation. True airspeed is always higher than EAS (or I.A.S) at any altitude above Sea Level.
Question Number. 346. If the Airspeed Indicator reading is 300 Knots, what is the Calibrated Airspeed?.
Question Number. 347. In an Artificial Horizon, Erection Error is caused by.

Option A. displacement of erection control device.
Option B. bottom lightness of inner gimbals.
Option C. bottom heaviness of inner gimbals.
Correct Answer is. displacement of erection control device.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 348. A Vertical Speed indicator Metering Unit Consist of.
Option A. a capillary.
Option B. both a) & b).
Option C. an orifice.
Correct Answer is. both a) & b).
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 349. The manual VOR input is for.

Option A. the radio magnetic indicator.
Option B. the ADI.
Option C. the course deviation bar.
Correct Answer is. the course deviation bar.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 350. After correction of the north-south heading reading on a compass swing, the resultant correction is
known as.
Option A. magnetic heading.
Option B. correct heading.
Option C. residual deviation.
Correct Answer is. residual deviation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 351. Apparent drift on directional gyro is corrected by.

Option A. series of balance holes drilled in gyro rotor.
Option B. an adjustment nut on inner ring.
Option C. mercury switch on outer ring.
Correct Answer is. an adjustment nut on inner ring.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems Page 45.
Question Number. 352. If a micro adjuster is replaced in a compass system, you would.
Option A. carry out a new compass swing.
Option B. set it to zero datum.
Option C. set it up the same as the one removed.
Correct Answer is. carry out a new compass swing.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 353. In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees, South error + 2 degrees. The coefficient C is.
Option A. -2 degrees.
Option B. +2 degrees.
Correct Answer is. -2 degrees.
Explanation. A.L/10-5 Table 1. This is not he same as a previous question.
Question Number. 354. Purpose of Altitude Alerting is to warn the pilot of.
Option A. approach to or deviation from selected altitude.
Option B. selection of altitude.
Option C. altitude information.
Correct Answer is. approach to or deviation from selected altitude.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.domingoaereo.hpg.ig.com.br/Boeing727/ManuA.L/warnings.htm
Question Number. 355. Aircraft certified before 1997 with RVSM, maximum tolerance for the system is.
Option A. +/-200ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error.
Option B. +/-300ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error.
Option C. +/-500ft system tolerance.
Correct Answer is. +/-300ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error.
Explanation. Download TGL No.6 at http://www2.eur-rvsm.com/library.htm Para.8.3.
Question Number. 356. Machmeters work on.

Option A. pitot.
Option B. pitot and static.
Option C. static.
Correct Answer is. pitot and static.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 357. An aircraft with Mach warning will warn.

Option A. when envelope limit is reached.
Option B. when Mach 1 is exceeded.
Option C. when Mcrit is reached.
Correct Answer is. when Mcrit is reached.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 358. An HSI provides what information?.

Option A. VOR, map, attitude, ILS.
Option B. VOR, ILS, plan, attitude.
Option C. VOR, plan, ILS, map, radar.
Correct Answer is. VOR, plan, ILS, map, radar.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 359. Compressibility error in a pitot head is caused by.

Option A. compression of air in the tube at high speed.
Option B. blockage in the pitot tube.
Option C. misalignment of pitot head.
Correct Answer is. compression of air in the tube at high speed.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems - David Harris P17 A.S.I Errors (3).
Question Number. 360. There is an air bubble in the compass:.

Option A. The fluid is not aerated properly.
Option B. It is required, to compensate for expansion of the fluid.
Option C. It is due to high altitude.
Correct Answer is. It is due to high altitude.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 361. A flux detector output is a.

Option A. A.C. voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation voltage.
Option B. A.C. voltage at the same frequency as the excitation voltage.
Option C. rectified D.C. voltage.
Correct Answer is. A.C. voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation voltage.
=================================
13.09. Lights (ATA 33).
Question Number. 1. Galley and cabin lighting operate from the.

Option A. AC bus.
Option B. GND services bus.
Option C. DC bus.
Correct Answer is. AC bus.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. With aircraft lights - which of the following is true?.

Option A. Starboard light green, port light red, tail light white.
Option B. Starboard light red, port light green, tail light Red.
Option C. Starboard light red, port light green, tail light White.
Correct Answer is. Starboard light green, port light red, tail light white.
Question Number. 3. Emergency floor lighting system is inoperative, then.

Option A. the aircraft is allowed to fly in daylight conditions only.
Option B. the aircraft is not allowed to fly until repaired.
Option C. the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base.
Correct Answer is. the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base.
Explanation. Can fly without passengers in accordance with the MEL. No reference found.
Question Number. 4. If a section of the emergency floor proximity lights are inoperative.
Option A. the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where the defect can be fixed.
Option B. the aircraft cannot fly i.e. grounded until the defect is fixed.
Option C. the aircraft can fly but the section with the problem is not used/shut off.
Correct Answer is. the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where the defect can be fixed.
Question Number. 5. The tail navigation light. What angle of divergence should it have?.
Option A. 120°.
Option B. 180°.
Option C. 140°.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. A fluorescent tube contains.

Option A. orange coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour.
Option B. phosphor coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour.
Option C. iodine coatings and rare gases.
Correct Answer is. phosphor coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.users.mis.net/~pthrush/lighting/flour.html
Question Number. 7. A white steady light is required.

Option A. of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees either side of dead astern.
Option B. of at least 3 lumens, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern.
Option C. of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern.
Correct Answer is. of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees either side of dead astern.
Explanation. CAP 393 Rules of the Air Rule 11 (2) (a) (iii).
Question Number. 8. How many floor path lights can you fly with unserviceable?.
Option A. 0.2.
Option B. 0.25.
Option C. 0.15.
Explanation. A.W.N 56 2.11.
Question Number. 9. Runway turn-of lights have a beam width of.

Option A. 110°.
Option B. 10°.
Option C. 50°.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems EHJ Pallett 3rd Edition Page 146.
Question Number. 10. When a helicopter lands, how does the pilot signal to the ground staff that it is safe to approach
the aircraft?.
Option A. Turning off the anti-collision lights.
Option B. Turning on and off the NAV lights.
Option C. Flashing the landing light.
Correct Answer is. Turning off the anti-collision lights.
Explanation. ANO Section 2 Section 111 Para 9 (3).
Question Number. 11. What is the power supply to cabin flourescent tubes?.
Option A. 115 VAC.
Option B. 200 VAC.
Option C. High voltage stepped up.
Correct Answer is. 115 VAC.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook. 12-66 p584.
Question Number. 12. What is the arc of a landing light is?.
Option A. 11°.
Option B. 20°.
Option C. 15°.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 146 Fig 10-1.
Question Number. 13. The visible angle of a white tail navigation light is.
Option A. 110°.
Option B. 140°.
Option C. 11°.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 146, and JAR 25.1387.
Question Number. 14. Wing navigation lights must be visible through which angle?.
Option A. 180°.
Option B. 110°.
Option C. 125°.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 146, and JAR 25.1387, and E.E.L/1-10 301 a).
Question Number. 15. Cockpit dome lighting is provided by the.

Option A. battery bus and ground services bus.
Option B. ground services bus.
Option C. battery bus.
Correct Answer is. battery bus and ground services bus.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin 5th edition page 256.
Question Number. 16. Wing steady light must be visible through.

Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems EHJ Pallett Page 146.
Question Number. 17. Upper and lower strobe lights are coloured.
Option A. red.
Option B. green.
Option C. white.
Correct Answer is. red.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Jeppesen Page 7-2.
Question Number. 18. Cargo bay lights on a modern aircraft are supplied by.
Option A. the battery bus.
Option B. DC handling bus.
Option C. AC handling bus.
Correct Answer is. AC handling bus.
Explanation. BAe 146 A.M.M (AC ground service busbar) although other aircraft (A340, B747) use 28 VDC ground bus.
Question Number. 19. What is the minimum candelas of an anti-collision beacon?.

Option A. 100.
Option B. 50.
Option C. 20.
Explanation. CAP 393 Rules of the Air Section 3 Para 11 (2).
Question Number. 20. What will happen if the Master Dim and test switch is switched to the on position?.
Option A. Dome lights will illuminate.
Option B. Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate.
Option C. All lights will illuminate.
Correct Answer is. Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. Escape route lighting must not have more than.
Option A. 15% obscured.
Option B. 10% obscured.
Option C. 20% obscured.
Correct Answer is. 20% obscured.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. How many emergency lights are allowed to be inoperative?.
Option A. None.
Option B. 0.1.
Option C. 0.25.
Explanation. JAR 25.812 (l) (1), and CAAIPs Leaflet 5-11 2.11.1.
Question Number. 23. The angle of a runway turnoff light is.

Option A. 60°.
Option B. 50°.
Option C. 40°.
Question Number. 24. Cabin fluorescent lighting circuits are supplied with.
Option A. 115 V AC.
Option B. 28 V DC.
Option C. 28 V AC.
Correct Answer is. 115 V AC.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-76 (figure 7-115).
Question Number. 25. How are passenger reading lights normally tested?.
Option A. By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin attendant panel.
Option B. Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel.
Option C. By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch at any passenger panel.
Correct Answer is. Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. In what position should the selector switch be for a standby and emergency lighting system during
flight?.
Option A. ON.
Option B. Armed.
Option C. OFF.
Correct Answer is. Armed.
Question Number. 27. Dome lights on the flight deck are powered by the.
Option A. ground services.
Option B. battery bus bar.
Option C. battery bus bar or ground services.
Correct Answer is. battery bus bar or ground services.
Explanation. Boeing 757 WDM 33-11-31 pg 1 shows 28vdc BAT Bus for normal use, when the flight deck ovrd relay is
energised the 28vac GND service bus powers the dome lights.
Question Number. 28. The emergency lighting system must be designed so that after any single transverse vertical
separation of the fuselage during crash landing the maximum amount of emergency lighting that faILS is.
Option A. 0.15.
Option B. 0.25.
Option C. 0.1.
Explanation. JAR 25.812.
Question Number. 29. Rear navigation lights have.

Option A. steady white light with a viewing angle of 60°.
Option B. flashing white light with a viewing angle of 60°.
Option C. steady white light with a viewing angle of 140°.
Correct Answer is. steady white light with a viewing angle of 140°.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. Runway turn-off lights have a viewing angle of.
Option A. 50°.
Option B. 160°.
Option C. 110°.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. A rotating beacon must have a minimum light rating of.
Option A. 50 candelas.
Option B. 100 candelas.
Option C. 20 candelas.
Correct Answer is. 20 candelas.
Explanation. CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the Air Para. 11 (2) (d).
Question Number. 32. Service lights include.

Option A. avionics bay lights, engine scanning lights, baggage compartment lights.
Option B. refuelling lights, engine scanning lights, logo lights.
Option C. baggage compartment lights, avionics bay lights, refuelling lights.
Correct Answer is. baggage compartment lights, avionics bay lights, refuelling lights.
Explanation. E.E.L/1-10 3.5.
Question Number. 33. Before touching or disconnecting a strobe light head, a time period must elapse to avoid electrical
shock or burning. That time period is at least.
Option A. 2 minutes.
Option B. 5 minutes.
Option C. 1 minute.
Correct Answer is. 2 minutes.
Question Number. 34. The rear light of an aircraft must be white and, in addition, must show through an inclusive angle
of.
Option A. 110 degrees and be 40 candelas minimum.
Option B. 140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum.
Option C. 110 degrees and be 5 candelas minimum.
Correct Answer is. 140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum.
Explanation. CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the Air Para 2 a 3 and CAIPs E.E.L/1-10 3.1 c).
Question Number. 35. Self-illuminating signs.

Option A. require a period of daylight, or intense artificial light to operate.
Option B. are self powered and contain phosphor and helium gas.
Option C. are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark adapted.
Correct Answer is. are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark adapted.
Question Number. 36. If the common portion of the winding of a autotransformer used to supply a 26 VAC light bulb from
a 115 VAC busbar goes open circuit the light bulb will.
Option A. flicker.
Option B. go dim.
Option C. blow.
Correct Answer is. blow.
Explanation. All current would divert through the bulb.
Question Number. 37. In the CWS system, the caution light is coloured.
Option A. green.
Option B. red.
Option C. amber.
Correct Answer is. amber.
Question Number. 38. On a CWS, which has the highest priority?.

Option A. Hydraulic pump failure.
Option B. Duct overheat.
Option C. Fire warning.
Correct Answer is. Fire warning.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 39. What inert gas is used in a typical strobe light?.
Option A. enon.
Option B. Halon.
Option C. Freon.
Correct Answer is. enon.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. Floor proximity lighting is a mandatory requirement and each light should be spaced.
Option A. at 40 inch intervals.
Option B. at 60 inch intervals.
Option C. at 70 inch intervals.
Correct Answer is. at 40 inch intervals.
Question Number. 41. Tritium Gas is used in a.

Option A. self illuminating lights.
Option B. strobe light.
Option C. landing Light.
Correct Answer is. self illuminating lights.
Question Number. 42. A strobe light is a light unit that takes form of glass tube filled with which gas and its light colour is
what?.
Option A. enon Gas and blue-white.
Option B. Helium gas and white.
Option C. Neon gas and blue.
Correct Answer is. enon Gas and blue-white.
Question Number. 43. The aircraft has a partial failure of its emergency lighting system.
Option A. continue with reduced passenger load.
Option B. ground the aircraft.
Option C. ferry flight to main base for rectification.
Correct Answer is. continue with reduced passenger load.
Explanation. that the answer is b. However, no reference has been found.
Question Number. 44. Navigation lights are supplied by the following circuit:.
Option A. Single circuit.
Option B. Dual circuit.
Option C. Individual circuits.
Correct Answer is. Single circuit.
Question Number. 45. Automatic no smoking sign will illuminate.

Option A. below 10,000ft and descending.
Option B. when landing gear doors are not closed.
Option C. when landing gear is up.
Correct Answer is. below 10,000ft and descending.
Explanation. NIL.
=====================================
13.10. On Board Maintenance Systems (ATA 45).
Question Number. 1. The real time on a CMC is when.

Option A. ground test page is selected on the CDU.
Option B. existing faults page is selected on the CDU.
Option C. fault history page is selected on the CDU.
Correct Answer is. existing faults page is selected on the CDU.
Question Number. 2. One of the inputs in a CMC is autopilot controls. The data will be stored in.
Option A. volatile memory.
Option B. erased only after end of sector.
Option C. non-volatile memory.
Correct Answer is. non-volatile memory.
Question Number. 3. In a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managed and provided by.
Option A. the electronic interface units (EIU).
Option B. the central warning computer (CWC).
Option C. the engine indicating and crew alert system (EICAS).
Correct Answer is. the electronic interface units (EIU).
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin Page 271-273.
Question Number. 4. What type of memory do CMCs have?.

Option A. Volatile.
Option B. Hard.
Option C. Non-volatile.
Correct Answer is. Non-volatile.
Question Number. 5. In an autoland aircraft fitted with a CMC.

Option A. only Primary Faults are recorded.
Option B. all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory.
Option C. all faults are recorded in Volatile memory.
Correct Answer is. all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory.
Question Number. 6. In a modern aircraft, a BITE is carried out.

Option A. on the ground only.
Option B. only in the air.
Option C. continuously when the systems are working.
Correct Answer is. continuously when the systems are working.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. In case the aeroplane is wired for dual installation of the Central Maintenance Computers and only
one computer is to be installed.
Option A. it may be installed either on LH or RH side.
Option B. it must be installed on LH side.
Option C. it must be installed on RH side.
Correct Answer is. it must be installed on LH side.
Question Number. 8. An aircraft with autoland is fitted with a CMC.

Option A. It records all faults in non-volatile memory.
Option B. All memory is erased when aircraft lands.
Option C. It records all faults in volatile memory.
Correct Answer is. It records all faults in non-volatile memory.
Question Number. 9. With on-board maintenance (OBM) systems, the purpose of central maintenance function (CMF) is
to.
Option A. log relevant maintenance data.
Option B. provides detaILS of defect action.
Option C. transmits to the CMC.
Correct Answer is. log relevant maintenance data.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. On an aircraft fitted with a CMC, how do you get to the system pages?.
Option A. Through the Existing faults function.
Option B. Through the Present Leg faults function.
Option C. Through the ground test function.
Correct Answer is. Through the ground test function.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. A modern aircraft CMC uses.

Option A. a CRT screen.
Option B. a magnetic fault indicator.
Option C. an LED display.
Correct Answer is. a CRT screen.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. Aircraft condition monitoring monitors.

Option A. certain parameters.
Option B. and compares the faults on the aircraft with the CMC.
Option C. with a fault detector and tells master warning computer.
Correct Answer is. certain parameters.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. Aircraft normally fitted with 2 central maintenance computers, and you only have one to dispatch
the aircraft. Where do you fit it?.
Option A. Left Hand side.
Option B. Left Hand or Right Hand side (i.e. doesn't matter).
Option C. Right Hand side.
Correct Answer is. Left Hand side.
Explanation. Eismin, Aircraft Electricity & Electronics, page 271.
Question Number. 14. A HUMS in a helicopter is.

Option A. a system which monitors time period of components in service and warns of a premature failure.
Option B. a vibration analysis system.
Option C. a system which indicates a crack in the blade.
Correct Answer is. a system which monitors time period of components in service and warns of a premature failure.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.cs.nsu.edu/others/research/FAA2.htm and
http://www.shl.co.uk/Technologies/Pages/Hums_intro_text.html.
Question Number. 15. A Flight Data Recorder is activated when.

Option A. the helicopter takes off.
Option B. when power is applied to the helicopter.
Option C. the helicopters engines are started.
Correct Answer is. the helicopters engines are started.
Explanation. JAR Ops-3.
Question Number. 16. In a CMC, warning signals are generated by.

Option A. Warning computer.
Option B. CMC.
Option C. F.M.C.
Correct Answer is. Warning computer.
Question Number. 17. MCDUs.

Option A. enable dialog with central maintenance computer.
Option B. are used to transmit data to ground.
Option C. store fault data.
Correct Answer is. enable dialog with central maintenance computer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. The uploading function on an on-board maintenance system enables.
Option A. the on-board data base to be updated.
Option B. the on-board maintenance system to be interrogated by the engineer.
Option C. data to be taken from on-board maintenance system.
Correct Answer is. the on-board data base to be updated.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. An aircraft condition monitoring system.

Option A. sends information to the central maintenance cell.
Option B. stores information for long term error analysis.
Option C. detects the source of a fault.
Correct Answer is. stores information for long term error analysis.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. A C M S quick access recorder.

Option A. tape must not be used before.
Option B. must use digital tape.
Option C. can use previously if first bulk erased.
Correct Answer is. can use previously if first bulk erased.
Explanation. NIL.

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Module 13.

13.01a. Theory of Flight - Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls.

Question Number. 1. Flaps at landing position.

Question Number. 2. As a subsonic aircraft speeds-up, its Centre of Pressure.

Question Number. 3. Lowering of the flaps.

Question Number. 5. What do ruddervators do?.

Question Number. 7. What does a trim tab do?.

Question Number. 8. How does a balance tab move?.

Question Number. 15. An elevator tab moves down.

Question Number. 16. The stall margin is controlled by.

Question Number. 20. The purpose of a slot in a wing is to.

Question Number. 21. Large flap deployment.

Question Number. 24. In the reversed camber horizontal stabilizer.

Question Number. 25. When the trailing edge flap is extended.

Question Number. 27. What type of flap is this?.

Question Number. 28. Servo tabs.

Question Number. 29. Spring Tabs.

Question Number. 32. Krueger flaps make up part of the.

Question Number. 33. In a turn, wing spoilers may be deployed.

Question Number. 34. Dutch role is movement in.

Question Number. 35. What is the main purpose of a frize aileron?.

Question Number. 36. Flap asymmetry causes the aircraft to.

Question Number. 38. If an aircraft is aerodynamically stable.

Question Number. 39. What are ground spoilers used for?.

Question Number. 40. Mass balance weights are used to.

Question Number. 41. What is a slot used for?.

Question Number. 45. What is aileron droop?.

Question Number. 46. Earths atmosphere is.

Question Number. 47. An anti-balance tab is used.

Question Number. 48. The fin helps to give.

Question Number. 49. If an aircraft moves in roll, it is moving about the.

Question Number. 52. When the flaps are lowered.

Question Number. 53. At take-off, if the flaps are lowered there is a.

Question Number. 54. Wing spoilers be used.

Question Number. 55. Differential aileron control will.

Question Number. 58. A split flap.

Question Number. 59. An anti-servo tab.

Question Number. 60. Slats.

Question Number. 62. Flight spoilers.

Question Number. 64. Wing tip vortices are strongest when.

Question Number. 65. Aerodynamic balance.

Question Number. 66. A balance tab.

Question Number. 67. Elevons combine the functions of both.

Question Number. 68. Flutter can be reduced by using.

Question Number. 70. The outboard ailerons on some large aircraft.

Question Number. 73. Wing loading of an aircraft.

Question Number. 76. A split flap increases lift by increasing.

Question Number. 81. Dutch roll is.

Question Number. 83. Ruddervators when moved, will move.

Question Number. 86. An anti-balance tab is moved.

Question Number. 87. A servo tab is operated.

Question Number. 95. A leading edge slat is a device for.

Question Number. 96. A Krueger flap is.

Question Number. 104. Asymmetric flaps will cause.

Option A. Pressure decreases, lift increases.

Question Number. 107. Changes in aircraft weight.

Question Number. 110. The aircraft stalling speed will.

Question Number. 111. In a bank and turn.

Question Number. 113. Control surface flutter may be caused by.

Question Number. 114. A differential aileron control system results in.

Question Number. 115. The primary function of a flap is.

Question Number. 116. The angle of attack at which stall occurs.

Question Number. 117. The stalling speed of an aircraft.