CCNA FINAL TEST EXAM

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MARK POINT:

1. Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords?

A. Router# service password-encryption
B. Router(config)# password-encryption
C. Router(config)# service password-encryption
D. Router# password-encryption

2. Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch
interface? (Choose two.)

A. show interface trunk

B. show interface interface
C. show ip interface brief
D. show interface description
E. show interface switchport

3. How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is
configured on the switches?

A. one
B. six
C. twelve
D. two

4. Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between host that connect through
path?
A. tracert address
B. ping address
C. arp address
D. traceroute address

5. Which command shows system hardware and software version information?

A. show configuration
B. show environment
C. show inventory
D. show platform
E. show version

6. When you are logged into a switch, which prompt indicates that you are in privileged mode?

A. %
B. @
C. >
D. $
E. #

7. Which command is used to copy the configuration from RAM into NVRAM?

A. copy running-config startup-config

B. copy startup-config: running-config:
C. copy running config startup config
D. copy startup config running config
E. write terminal

8. Which layer of the OSI reference model uses the hardware address of a device to ensure message
delivery to the proper host on a LAN?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport

9. What are two characteristics of Telnet? (Choose two)

A. It sends data in clear text format.
B. It is no longer supported on Cisco network devices.
C. It is more secure than SSH.
D. It requires an enterprise license in order to be implemented.
E. It requires that the destination device be configured to support Telnet connections.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings Host B. What source MAC address and source IP address are
contained in the frame as the frame leaves R2 destined for host B?

A. abcd.abcd.a001
B. abcd.abcd.b002
C. abcd.abcd.c003
D. 10.2.0.15
E. 10.0.64.1
F. 10.0.128.15

11. An administrator attempts a traceroute but receives a “Destination Unreachable” message. Which
protocol is responsible for that message?

A. RARP
B. RUDP
C. ICMP
D. SNMP

12. A network administrator issues the ping 192.168.2.5 command and successfully tests connectivity to a
host that has been newly connected to the network. Which protocols were used during the test? (Choose
two)
A. ARP
B. CDP
C. DHCP
D. DNS
E. ICMP

13. Refer to the exhibit, Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3, what is the TTL value for that ping?

A. 253
B. 252
C. 255
D. 254

14. Refer to the graphic. It has been decided that PC1 should be denied access to Server. Which of the
following commands are required to prevent only PC1 from accessing Server1 while allowing all other
traffic to flow normally? (Choose two)

A – Router(config)# interface fa0/0

Router(config-if)# ip access-group 101 out
B – Router(config)# interface fa0/0
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 101 in
C – Router(config)# access-list 101 deny ip host 172.16.161.150 host 172.16.162.163
Router(config)# access-list 101 permit ip any any
D – Router(config)# access-list 101 deny ip 172.16.161.150 0.0.0.255 172.16.162.163 0.0.0.0
Router(config)# access-list 101 permit ip any any
15. Which command shows if an access list is assigned to an interface?
A. show ip interface [interface] access-lists
B. show ip access-lists interface [interface]
C. show ip interface [interface]
D. show ip access-lists [interface]

16. Which IP address can be assigned to an Internet interface?

A. 10.180.48.224
B. 9.255.255.10
C. 192.168.20.223
D. 172.16.200.18

17. Which routing protocols will support the following IP addressing scheme? (Choose three)

Network 1 – 192.168.10.0 /26

Network 2 – 192.168.10.64 /27
Network 3 – 192.168.10.96 /27
Network 4 – 192.168.10.128 /30
Network 5 – 192.168.10.132 /30
A. RIP version 1
B. RIP version 2
C. IGRP
D. EIGRP
E. OSPF

18. Refer to the graphic. A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 network is to be configured on the HFD router.
Which commands will accomplish this? (Choose two)

A. HFD (config) #ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 fa0/0

B. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 10.5.4.6
C. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0
D. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 10.5.4.6
E. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 0.0.0.255 10.5.6.0
F. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 255.255.255.0 10.5.6.0
19. Which three features are of OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three)
A – Converge quickly
B – OSPF is a classful routing protocol
C – Identify the best route by use of cost
D – Before exchanging routing information, OSPF routers find out neighbors

20. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set,
what router ID will OSPF use for this RouterD?

A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.154.154.1
C. 172.16.5.1
D. 192.168.5.316

21. Which layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and
has built-in security mechanisms?
A. PPP
B. X.25
C. Frame Relay
D. HDLC

22. Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to review
directly connected Cisco devices ?
A. Cdp run
B. Cdp enable
C. Enable run
D. Run cdp

23. Which IP address can send traffic to all hosts on network 10.101.0.0/16 ?
A. 224.0.0.1
B. 10.101.0.1
C. 10.101.255.255
D. 10.101.254.254

24. Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

A. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.
B. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table
 C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame
D. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch
E. Broadcast only use network layer addressing

25. For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses ? (Choose two)
A. To differentiate a layer 2 frame from a layer 3 packet
B. To allow communication with devices on a different network
C. To allow communication between different devices on the same network
D. To uniquely identify devices at layer 2
E. To allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown.
F. To establish a priority system to determine which device get to transmit first.

26. Which command must you enter to switch from privileged EXEC mode to user EXEC mode on a
Cisco device ?
A. Configure terminal
B. Disable
C. Logout
D. Enable

27. Which two statements correctly describe the ping utility? (Choose two)
A. It can indentify the path that a packet takes to a remote device
B. It uses UDP
C. It uses ICMP
D. It can indentify the source of an ICMP “time exceeded” message
E. It can verify connectivity to a remote device without indentifying the path.
28. To enable router on a stick on a route subinterface, which two steps must you perform? (Choose
two)
A. Configure an IP route to VLAN destination network
B. Configure encapsulation dot1q
C. Configure the subinterface with an IP address
D. Configure full duplex and speed
E. Configure a default to the route traffic between suomtertaces.

29. Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (Choose two)
A. NHRP
B. IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration
C. DHCP
D. IPv6 stateful autoconfiguration
E. ISATAP tunneling

30. Which command must you enter configure a DCHP relay ?

A. Ip dhcp relay
B. Ip helper-address
C. Ip dhcp pool
D. Ip address dhcp

31. Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three)
A. To reduce the complexity of router configuration
B. To reduce routing overhead
C. To confine network instability to single a areas of the network
D. To lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
E. To speed up convergence
F. To decrease latency by increasing bandwidth.

32. Which two statements about the successor and feasible successor are true? (Choose two)
A. The successor is the secondary route
B. The feasible successor has a lower metric than the successor
C. The successor is stored in the routing table
D. The successor is the primary route
E. The feasible successor is store in both the topology table and the routing table

33. Which frame type allows STP to compute the spanning-tree topology?
A. LSA
B. RSTP
C. LSP
D. BPDU

34. Which statement about spanning-tree route-bridge election is true ?

A. It is always performed automatically
B. Each VLAN must have its own root bridge
C. Every VLAN must use the same root bridge
D. Every root bridge must reside on the same root switch

35. Which feature is configured by setting variance that is least two times the metric ?
A. Path selection
B. Equal cost load balancing
C. Path count
D. Unequal cost load balancing

36. Which two characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two)
A. Utilizes event-triggered updates
B. Provides common view of entire topology
C. Calculates feasible path
D. Utilizes frequent periodic updates
E. Exchanges routing table for its own routes with neighbors.
37. Which technology allows a large number of private IP address to be represented by a smaller
number of public IP address?
A. NAT
B. NTP
C. RFC 1918
D. RFC 1631

38. Which two circumstance can prevent two routers from establishing an OSPF neighbor adjacency
? (Choose two)
A. Mismatched hello timers and dead timers
B. Use of the same router ID on both devices
C. Mismatch autonomous system numbers
D. An ACL blocking traffic from multicast address 224.0.0.10
E. Mismatch process IDs.

39. If all switches are configured with default values, which switch will take over when the primary
root bridge experiences a power loss?
A. Switch 00E0.F908.6BE3
B. Switch 0004.9A1A.C182
C. Switch 0040.0BC0.90C5
D. Switch 00E0.F726.3DC6

40. Which layer of the TCP/IP model manages the transmission of binary digits across an Ethernet
Cable?
A. Physical
B. Transport
C. Network
D. Data link