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ISABELA STATE UNIVERSITY

SAN MATEO CAMPUS

COURSE AUDIT

NATURAL SCIENCE

1. Scientists tend to replicate measurements during an experiment. The main reason behind this is
for them to.

A. Estimate the experimental error


B. List the data in a tabulation
C. Change the experimental conditions
D. Find out if the equipment is working

2. Arrange the following steps in the most logical order of scientific investigation.

I. Formulate the hypothesis


II. Perform the experiment
III. State the problem
IV. Draw the generalization

A. III, II, I, IV C. III, I, II, IV


B. III, IV, II, I D. III, II, IV, I

3. Roger and Henry are doing their experiments; both use the same kind of materials, same
amount of different liquids, and same place where they performed their experiment. What is
the variable in the experiment?

A. Bottles
B. Amount of liquid
C. Kind of liquid
D. Place of experiment

4. What is the importance of control set-up in experimentation?

A. It will identify the variables in the experimentation


B. It will provide a basis of comparison between treated and untreated subjects
C. It will provide a basis for measuring data
D. It will eliminate mechanical errors in experimentation
5. Linda formulated a hypothesis that anthurium flower will grow larger if fish bone is added to the
soil. She has two experimental plots of anthurium, one with fish bone and the other without fish
bone. Which data should she be collected to support this hypothesis?

A. Height of anthurium plant in both plots


B. Length of growing time in both plots
C. Size of anthurium flower in both plots
D. Amount of fish bone in both plots

6. The process of comparing one quantity with the corresponding standard is called _______.

A. Measurement C. Interpolation
B. Formulation D. Extrapolation

7. Which of the following relationships is correct?


A. A meter is less than a kilometer
B. A second is more than a minute
C. A centigram is equal to a milligram
D. A decimeter is greater that a decameter

8. Matter is anything that has ______.

A. Weight and volume C. Weight and mass


B. Mass and volume D. Mass and shape

9. The relationship between quality A and B is expressed in the equation, AB =K. What graph line is
formed if quantity A is plotted against quantity B?

A. Straight line slanting to the right


B. Horizontal line
C. Parabola
D. Hyperbola

10. A student walks from home to school 3 blocks away and then returns for lunch. After lunch, he
goes back to school. His total displacement is _______.

A. 0 block
B. 3 blocks
C. 6 blocks
D. 9 blocks

11. Which description below shows the fastest runner?

A. The one with the longest recorded time


B. The one with the farthest distance travelled
C. The one with the farthest distance travelled at longer recorded time
D. The one with the farthest distance travelled at shorter recorded time

12. What property of matter is involved in the sign, “Fasten Your Seat Belt”?

A. Impenetrability
B. Inertia
C. Acceleration
D. Interaction
13. Two items of similar shapes and weights are dropped simultaneously from a ten-storey building.
Which of the following statements is correct about the failing rate (acceleration) of the objects?

A. The weight of the objects has no effect on the falling rate


B. The shape of the objects has no minor effect on the falling rate
C. The resistance of the air has no effect on the falling rate
D. The distance of the fall has an effect on the falling rate

14. Which laboratory equipment/s is/are used to find whether a ring is genuine or fake?

I. Platform balance
II. Graduated cylinder
III. Breaker

A. I only C. I and II only


B. II only D. I, II and III
15. If three-fourths of the block of wood floating in water is below the surface of the water, the
density of his block of wood is_______.

A. Greater than the density of water


B. More than half the density of water
C. Equal to the density of water
D. Less than half the density of water

16. Four circular holes of equal size arranged from top to bottom were cut 2 cm apart into a large
plastic bottle. The holes were covered first with tape, and the bottle was filled with water. The
tape was then removed simultaneously. Which of the following statements will best describe
the result?
A. Water from each hole will squirt out the same distance from the bottle
B. Water from the top hole will squirt out the farthest
C. Water from the bottom hole will squirt out the farthest
D. The sudden release of water will cause the bottle to collapse

17. Which of the following situations is true as a boat moves from salty sea to fresh water river?

A. It sinks deeper C. it says at the same level


B. It floats higher D. it moves faster

18. Which of the following conserved when a pendulum is swinging?

A. Mass C. Energy
B. Momentum D. Weight

19. Which statement best explains why ice is a good refrigerant?

A. It cools by evaporation
B. It absorbs heat while melting
C. It conducts heat quickly
D. It does not melt inside the refrigerator

20. Where does visible light fall on the electromagnetic spectrum?

A. Between infrared and ultraviolet radiations


B. Between FM and AM radio waves
C. Between microwaves and infrared radiations
D. Between gamma rays and x-rays

21. An object becomes positively charge if it _________.

A. Gains protons
B. Gains electrons
C. Loses protons
D. Loses electrons

22. What relationship exists between current and voltage when resistance is constant?

A. Direct proportionality
B. Direct-square proportionality
C. Inverse proportionality
D. Inverse-square proportionality
23. If three light bulbs of different wattages are connected in series to a battery, which of the
following is true?
A. The resistance in each light bulb will be the same
B. The current in each light bulb will be the same
C. The light output of each light bulb will be the same
D. The power consumed by each light bulb will be the same

24. The force that holds the atoms and molecules together to form larger bodies is known as

A. Gravitational force C. Weak nuclear force


B. Electromagnetic force D. Strong nuclear force

25. Which of the following statements is true of nuclear fission?

A. The energy process is identical to that which occurs in the sun


B. Energy is obtained by getting nucleus of the atoms to break up or split
C. Scientists can combine lighter nuclei to form a heavier nucleus
D. Matter from the lighter atoms is changed into energy

26. Which of the following statements about atomic structure is not true?

A. Atoms are mostly empty space


B. All atoms of the same atomic number are atoms of the same element
C. Most of the mass of the atom is concentrated at the nucleus
D. An atom can gain or lose electrons without changing its change

27. Atoms consist of three fundamental particles. What are these particles and their charges?

A. Proton (-), neutron (+) and electron (neutral)


B. Proton (+), neutron (-) and electron (neutral)
C. Proton (+), neutron (neutral) and electron (-)

28. Uranium 238 has an atomic number of 92. It can be inferred that this atom has _______.

A. 92 protons, 146 electrons, and 92 neutrons


B. 146 protons, 92 electrons, and 92 neutrons
C. 92, protons, 92 electrons, and 146 neutrons
D. 146 protons, 146 electrons, and 238 neutrons

29. What is the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in n = 4?

A. 2 C. 16
B. 8 D. 32

30. Which element in the periodic table has the symbol Ca?

A. Cadmium C. Carbon
B. Calcium D. Californium

31. Ions are formed by ____________.

A. Gaining or losing electrons C. sharing protons


B. Gaining or losing protons D. sharing electrons

32. A given gas occupies 2000 cc at a pressure of 90 cm of mercury. What volume will the same gas
occupy if the pressure becomes ½ of the original pressure?
A. 1000 cc C. 30000 cc
B. 2000 cc D. 4000 cc

33. All of the following are characteristics of metal, except ________.

A. Good conductor C. Malleability


B. Brittleness D. Ductility

34. Which is true of metalloids?

A. Have properties of both metals and non-metals


B. Conduct electricity better than metals
C. Conduct heat better metals
D. Conduct heat and electricity less effective than non-metals

35. Which of the substances below are compounds and not elements or mixtures?

I. Ethanol
II. Neon
III. Water
IV. Crude Oil

A. I, II and IV C. I and III


B. I and IV D. III only

36. In the given list of mixtures, the one which is considered homogenous is ________.
A. Alloy, air, sugar solution
B. Rainwater, petroleum, gravel and sand
C. Salt solution, sugar, sea water
D. Water, air, oil

37. In a flame test, what is the color of the flame if there is a presence of boron in a solution?

A. Brick red
B. Yellow gold
C. Royal blue
D. Bright green

38. Which of the following properties are characteristics of acids?

A. Turn red litmus paper to blue, have pH less than 7 and are electrical conductors
B. Turn red litmus paper to blue, are electrical conductors and react with metals
C. Turn red litmus paper to red, have pH less than 7 and react with metals
D. Turn blue litmus paper to red, have pH greater than 7 and electrical conductors

39. Which warning label indicates a chemical property of the material being labeled?

A. Fragile C. Shake well


B. Handle with care D. Flammable

40. The chemical reaction that releases heat energy during the process is called _________.

A. Endothermic reaction C. Synthesis reaction


B. Exothermic reaction D. Decomposition reaction

41. Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?


A. Melting of candle C. Dissolving sugar
B. Rusting of iron D. Boiling of water

42. A change in state from solid to gas without passing the liquid state is called_______.

A. Solidification C. Condensation
B. Evaporation D. Sublimation

43. Which two processes are reversible and occur at the same temperature?

I. Freezing
II. Condensation
III. Melting
IV. Sublimation

A. I and II C. II and III


B. I and III D. III and IV

44. The radioisotope which is now used in cancer radiation treatment is ______.

A. Cobalt 60 C. Sodium 24
B. Uranium 238 D. Iodine 131

45. Which radioactive radiation coming from external source is most dangerous to human body?

A. X-rays C. Beta radiation


B. Alpha radiation d. Gamma radiation

46. The history of the Earth has been divided by scientists into eras. Which of the following shows
the arrangement of these eras into the proper sequence from the oldest to the most recent?

A. Precambrian, Paleozoic, Mesozoic, Cenozoic


B. Cenozoic, Mesozoic, Paleozoic, Precambrian
C. Precambrian, Mesozoic, Cenozoic, Paleozoic
D. Paleozoic, Cenozoic, Precambrian, Mesozoic

47. The invention of the telescope is very significant because ________.

A. It brightens the light coming from the stars


B. It analyzes the composition of the planet
C. It allows the observation of far objects
D. It determines the age of the stars

48. All the planets in the solar system _______.

A. Have the same temperature


B. Can maintain life
C. Revolve around the sun
D. Are exactly of same size

49. Which scientist paved the way for modern exploration by advancing the theory that planets
revolve around the sun?

A. Ptolemy
B. Aristotle
C. Copernicus
D. Harvey

50. Which of the following is the main cause of seasonal changes?

A. The distance of the earth from the sun


B. The rotation of the sun about the earth
C. The revolution of the earth around the sun
D. The titling of the earth on its axis

51. Solar eclipse occurs when_______.

A. The Moon is between the Earth and the Sun


B. The Earth is between the Moon and the Sun
C. The Sun is between the Earth and the Moon
D. The Earth is behind the sun

52. What phase of the Moon is observed when it cannot be seen at all because it passes directly
between the earth and the Sun?

A. New Moon C. Full Moon


B. First Quarter D. Last Quarter

53. Two minerals are both green and shiny. Which of the following methods can be used to identify
whether they are the same or different?

A. Identify the general characteristics


B. Find out which one is organic
C. Determine the visible characteristics
D. Compute and compare their densities

54. Fossils are mostly to be found in_______.

A. Sendimentary rocks C. Metamorphic rocks


B. Igneous rocks D. Plutonic rocks

55. Tropical disturbances are classified as tropical depression, tropical storm or typhoon. This
classification is based on the ________.

A. Amount of rainfall
B. Strength of the accompanying winds
C. Amount of rainfall and strength of accompanying winds
D. Origin of formation

56. The Philippines lies in the region where many volcanoes are active. This region is known as

A. Wheel of Fire C. Volcanic Rim


B. Ring of Fire D. Archipelagic Fault Line

57. The following means help in controlling floods, except

A. Reforestation C. Crop rotation


B. Deforestation D. Construction of flood ways

58. Petroleum is formed by the ____.


A. Decay of microorganisms under heat and pressure
B. Heat from radioactive substances found in the mantle
C. Volcanic eruptions that burn living matters
D. Steam trapped underneath a geologic column

59. Farmers add commercial fertilizers to the soil to ______.

A. Speed up the decay of bacteria


B. Add mineral content
C. Activate the growth of earthworms
D. Enhance the growth of the roots

60. All of the following are reasons why terraces are built in Mountain Province, except

A. To accommodate excess run of water


B. To provide space for planting rice
C. To make the place beautiful
D. To provide steps for the natives to go up hill

61. The biologist who probably first used the term “cell” was _______.

A. Hooke C. Leeuwenhoek
B. Browne D. Schleiden

62. When a plant cell is placed in a hypertonic solution.

A. The plant cell will expand


B. The plant cell will rupture
C. The plant cell will shrink
D. There will be no effect on the plant cell

63. One of the bases for classifying plants based on phytogenetic consideration is

A. Chemical composition
B. Physiological traits
C. Structural similarities
D. Evolutionary sequence

64. Which of the following organisms is included in the Kingdom Plantae?

A. Magnolidae C. Protoza
B. Fungi D. Prokaryotes

65. The molecule that allows plants to capture energy from the sun is the _______.

A. ATP C. chlorophyll
B. Carbon dioxide D. sugar

66. What plant tissue is responsible for transporting water and minerals from the roots to the leaves
and conveying food materials from the leaves to all parts of the body?

A. Vascular tissue C. Primary tissue


B. Meristematic tissue D. Secondary tissue

67. Which of the following protists can cause dysentery?


A. Aedis Egypti C. Gorilla beringei
B. Entamoeba D. Streptococcus

68. What phylum classification is the transmitter of dengue?

A. Arthropoda C. Echinodermata
B. Hemichordate D. Annelida

69. A cold-blooded animal is one that _______.

A. Lacks red corpuscles


B. Lacks white corpuscles
C. Has a variable body temperature
D. Has a fixed body temperature

70. Spiders can be distinguished from insects by the fact that spiders have ________.

A. Hard outer covering


B. Four pairs of legs
C. Large abdomens
D. Biting mouth parts
71. In order to determine the cause of an infectious disease, a diagnostic test that allows
microorganisms to multiply in a medium is performed in a controlled laboratory condition. This
test is called _________.

A. Complete blood count


B. Urinalysis
C. Microbial culture
D. In vitro fertilization

72. A lot of malnourished children in Africa are found to have poor teeth and eyesight. This is
believed to be caused by deficiency in________.

A. Vitamin A and D C. Vitamin C


B. Iodine D. Iron

73. The two chemical factors that can cause decomposition are

A. Death and cellular respiration


B. Autolysis and photosynthesis
C. Autolysis and putrefaction
D. Putrefaction and respiration

74. How will genetic drift affect the population of rabbits that are living in a stable habitat with no
changes in the environment?

A. It will increase the population of the rabbits


B. It will decrease the genetic variation of the rabbits
C. It will develop the dominance and superior traits of the rabbits
D. It will enhance the appearance of new traits of the rabbits

75. The union of an egg and sperm cell inside a test tube is called ______.

A. Self pollination C. Embryology


B. In vivo fertilization D. in vitro fertilization
76. Which of the following is under the grass family?

A. Bamboo C. Moss
B. Fern D. Mushroom

77. The appendix, though a part of the large intestine, has no digestive function. It is therefore
called.

A. A heterogeneous organ C. An addendum organ


B. A vestigial structure D. An analogous structure

78. Which of the following is the by-product of photosynthesis?

A. Oxygen C. Carbon dioxide


B. Nitrogen D. Carbohydrates

79. The protein shell of virus is called _______.

A. Nucleolus C. Nucleus
B. Capsid D. Nucleic acid

80. Which of the following molecules contains an organism’s genetic structure?

A. Nucleic acid C. Nucleolus


B. Cytosal D. Cytoplasts

81. The segmented worm that can be used to facilitate anticoagulation is the _______.

A. Earthworm C. Flatworm
B. Leech D. Remora

82. Which of the following is an example of non-pathogenic microorganism?

A. Probiotics such as lactobacilli C. Plasmodium vivax


B. Yersenia pestis D. Influenza sp.

83. What stage in chicken pox is considered very contagious?

A. When wounds are peeling off


B. When wounds have swollen
C. When all wounds have disappeared
D. During the first week
84. Some genetic orders are caused by the damage to DNA, which cannot be repaired. This shows

A. Mutation
B. Pathology
C. Embryology
D. Speciation

85. What do you call the consumers that directly feed on procedures and get the greatest amount
of energy?

A. Decomposers
B. Carnivores
C. Herbivores
D. Omnivores
86. What term is used to describe an organism which depends its subsistence on others?

A. Prey C. Medium
B. Parasite D. Host

87. The main organ for respiration is the __________.

A. Nose C. Esophagus
B. Lungs D. Trachea

88. All of the following are autotrophs, except _________.

A. Fern C. Herb
B. Grasshopper D. Grass

89. What organism would most likely be in arctic environment?

A. Frog C. Rice bird


B. Turtle D. Walrus

90. Which is true about dominant genes?

A. They prevent the expression of other genes in the same locus


B. They should be paired with recessive genes
C. They should be expressed if heterozygous
D. They are aggressive and express the more beneficial traits

91. Which of the following best describes the science of Ecology?

A. Living things C. life and environment


B. Rocks D. weather and climate

92. What do you call the natural environment where a certain organism lives and thrives?

A. Community C. Country
B. Habitat D. Ecosystem

93. When water from a river is mixed with sewage in a septic tank, water pollution occurs and this is
called ___________.

A. Eutrophication C. Hydrolysis
B. Hypertrophication D. Water condensation

94. The main aim of Bruntland Commission is the development that meets the needs of the present,
without compromising the ability of the future generation to meet their own needs. This
development is classified as ____________.

A. Sustainable development
B. Environmental development
C. Uncompromising development
D. Ecological development

95. The “red tide” phenomenon causes what particular marine organism to be poisonous for human
consumption?
A. Arthropods C. Earthworms
B. Mollusks D. Algae

96. Which environmental law requires industries to install anti-pollution devices and bans the use of
incinerators?

A. Philippine Clean Air Act


B. Environmental Security Act
C. Anti-pollution Act
D. Greenpeace Act

97. The progressive flooding in some parts of Mindanao are believed to be caused by _________.
A. Cultural minority discrimination
B. Irrigation of vast rice fields
C. Wanton cutting of trees
D. Construction of fish ponds

98. The El Nino phenomenon, which grabbed control of the world’s weather machine, is described
by meteorologist as _________.

A. Landslides, flash floods, warm air currents


B. Heavy downpours, tropical storms, strong winds
C. Lack of rains, droughts, crop failure
D. Monsoons, easterly winds, low pressure area

99. The Kyoto Protocol requires the reduction of greenhouse gases in the environment. This
practice advocates

A. Environmental protection C. ecological destruction


B. Energy conservation D. sustainable development

100. At present, scientists report about the formation of holes in the ozone layer of the
atmosphere. This dangerous trend is being blamed on what of the following wrong practices?

A. The use of ozone itself on the surface of the earth


B. The excessive use of aerosols
C. Removal of the protective cover like the green plants
D. The use of coil fertilizers on earth

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