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SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH

NEET GRAND TEST-4


Name :........................................... Hall Ticket No:

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. The Model NEET- 2018 is of 3 Hrs duration. Time: 10.00 AM – 1.00


PM.
2. The question paper for NEET-2018 consists of 180 questions
comprising 45 questions in Botany, 45 in Zoology, 45 in Physics
and 45 in Chemistry for NEET.
3. All questions are of objective type (Multiple choices only)
4. Each question carries four marks.
5. Negative marking: one mark will be deducted for every wrongly
answered question.
6. Total Marks 720.
7. The candidates are prohibited from carrying any paper to the
examination hall except HALL TICKET.
8. No Calculators, Mini-Cards, Watches with Calculators, Pager, Cell
Phone, Slide rules or outer aids to calculation will be allowed in
the examination hall.
9. Candidates once admitted will not be allowed to leave the hall till
half an hour before the closing of the test.
10. A separate sheet is attached in the middle of this booklet for rough
work, you can detach and use it.
11. A detachable answer sheet with 180 question blocks, with 4 circles
corresponding to 4 multiple choice for each question will be
provided. Use HB Pencil to darken the appropriate circle against
the question number provided in the sheet. Answer should be
marked only on the answer sheet, but not on the question
paper booklet.

Sri Chaitanya Page No.1 Vijayawada


SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE, AIIMS SUPER60, NEET MPL& IC_LTC Date : 24.04.18
BIOLOGY NEET GRAND TEST-4 Max.Marks : 720

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS :
+ Pattern of the Entrance Examination :
Paper containing 180 objective type questions from Biology, Physics and Chemistry.
+ Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only to darken the appropriate circle. Answers marked with
pencil would not be evaluated.
+ Each item carries 4marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. For
each incorrect response 1mark will be deducted from the total score.

1. Germinated, 3-celled pollen (3) H2O is the oxidisable reactant


grain represents in plant photosynthesis and thus
(1) Spermatogenous cell O2 is evolved
(2) Matured female gametophyte (4) CO2 is oxidised in dark phase
(3) Matured male sporophyte 4. Which of the following
(4) Matured male gametophyte statements is wrong for
2. Which one of the following Mycoplasmas.
vertebrate has cartilaginous (1) They lack cell wall
cranium and vertebral column? (2) They are anaerobes
(1) Pterophyllum (3) They are the smallest living
(2) Psittacula cells
(3) Petromyzon (4) Majority of them are symbionts
(4) Pteropus in plants and animals
3. Van Niel’s experiments 5. Under unfavourable conditions
established the idea that many zooplankton species in
lakes and ponds enter in a stage
(1) Photophosphorylation occurs
called
during light phase (1) Diapause
(2) H2O is the oxidisable reactant (2) Hibernation
in sulphur bacterial (3) Migration
photosynthesis (4) Aestivation

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6. In the process of decomposition, 9. In a mitochondrion, highest
which steps operate first? number of ATP are found in
(1) Fragmentation and catabolism (1) Matrix
(2) Leaching and humification (2) Intermembrane space
(3) Mineralisation and (3) F0 of ATP synthase
fragmentation (4) Cristae
(4) Fragmentation, leaching and 10. Identify the correct statement
catabolism operate simultaneously from the following in relation to
7. Critical elements of the human eye ball
following are (1) The space between the lens and
(1) Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen the retina is filled with aqueous
(2) Nitrogen, Phosphorus, humor.
Potassium (2) The eye ball contains a lens
(3) Calcium, Magnesium, Sulphur which is held in place by
(4) Iron, Manganese, ligaments attached to iris.
Molybdenum (3) The photopic vision and colour
8. Dictyosomes, Peroxysomes and vision are functions of cones.
Lysosomes are all (4) The fovea is a thinned - out
a) Single membrane bound cell portion of the retina where only
organelles. the rods are densely packed.
b) Self duplicating and anabolic 11. In which of the following
cell organelles. interactions both partners are
Which one of the following adversely affected?
options is correct ? (1) Sea anemone and clown fish
(1) Both a and b are correct (2) Flamingoes and resident fishes
(2) Both a and b are incorrect in South American lakes
(3) a is true, but b is false (3) Fig tree and pollinator wasp
(4) b is true but a is false (4) Epiphytic orchid on a mango
branch

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12. Both the chromatids of mitotic 16. The first sign of growing foetus
metaphase chromosome are during human pregnancy may be
noticed by
(1) Genetically identical
(1) observing the movements of
(2) Morphologically dissimilar
the foetus
(3) Non-telomeric
(2) listening to the labour pains of
(4) Separated at centromere also
the mother
13. The requirements for expression
(3) observing the severe vomitings
of Lac operon are
of the mother
(1) Availability of lactose
(4) listening to the heart sound of
(2) Binding of repressor to
the foetus
operator
17. Which of the following is a
(3) Non-availability of glucose
membrane bound cell organelle ?
(4) 1 and 3
(1) Microsome
14. A colour blind man married a
(2) Nucleosome
woman with normal vision, who
has no history of colourblindness (3) Plasmosome
in her family. If we consider the (4) Idiosome
grand sons only through their
18. µ -amylase enzyme induced seed
daughter, what is the probability
of their grand sons being colour germination is the bio-assay for
blind? (1) ABA
(1) Nil
(2) GA3
(2) 0.25
(3) IAA
(3) 0.5
(4) CK
(4) 1 19. The total number of incisors
15. DNA with histone proteins is present in the buccal cavity of an
found in adult human are
(1) Centriole (1) 4
(2) Well organised nucleus (2) 8
(3) Chloroplast (3) 12
(4) Mitochondria (4) 16
Sri Chaitanya Page No.4 Vijayawada
20. The adnated but not connated (1) E - Fishes, B - Birds
floral organs in Solanaceae (2) C - Reptiles, B - Fishes
flower are (3) D - Birds, A - Fishes
(1) Sepals (4) E - Amphibians, A - Birds
(2) Petals 24. In Morgan’s experiment on
(3) Stamens linkage, the percentage of white
(4) Carpels eyed, miniature winged
21. The skeleton of cell wall of recombinants in F2 generation is
sclereids is made up of (1) 37.2
(1) Chitin (2) 1.3
(2) Peptidoglycan (3) 62.8
(3) Cellulose (4) 98.7
(4) Hemicellulose 25. Which of the following is not a
22. The separation of homologues of feature of the ideal gene cloning
each bivalent start at vector ?
(1) Pachytene (1) Presence of ‘ori’ site
(2) Leptotene (2) Presence of more than one
(3) Zygotene target site for each restriction
(4) Diplotene enzyme
23. In the figure given below, (3) Ability of self replication
biodiversity is depicted showing (4) High copy number
species number of vertebrates 26. Identify gregarious pest from the
major taxa. Identify the correct following
groups based on their number (1) Locusta
(2) Laccifer
(3) Limulus
(4) Latimeria

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27. The enzyme that activates 29. Nitrates and phosphates are plant
trypsinogen into trypsin is nutrients but they act as prime
secreted by contaminants in
(1) Brunner's glands (1) Biomagnification
(2) Pancreatic islets (2) Water logging and soil salinity
(3) Intestinal mucosa (3) Cultural Eutrophication
(4) Goblet cells of pylorus (4) Desertification
28. Match the terms in Column-I 30. Which one of the following is
with their description in correct ?
Column-II and choose the correct (1) Cyanobacteria exhibit great
option. metabolic diversity
Column-I Column-II (2) Gonyaulax is an yellow
Dissimilar dinoflagellate
A) Homologous I) alternative
(3) Fructifications of sac fungi
chromosomes forms of a
gene produce meiospores
Identical endogenously
Homozygous maternal and
B) II) (4) Deuteromycetous fungi never
alleles paternal
chromosomes show sexual reproduction
Identical 31. Tight junctions are a type of cell
Heterologous
C) III) forms of a
chromosomes junctions, they help to
gene
Unidentical (1) stop substances from leaking

Heterozygous maternal and across a tissue


D) IV)
alleles paternal (2) cementing to keep

chromosomes neighbouring cells together

A B C D (3) connecting the cytoplasm of

(1) II I IV III adjoining cells for rapid transfer

(2) II III IV I of ions

(3) IV I II III (4) transfer impulses rapidly to the

(4) IV III I II other cells

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32. Which one of the following (1) 7 th and 8th sterna ventro-
statements is wrong?
anteriorly and 9th sternum
(1) Active immunity is slow and
dorsally
takes time to give its full effective
(2) 9th and 10 th sterna dorsally
response.
and 9 th tergum ventrally
(2) The use of anti-histamine,
adrenalin and steroids quickly (3) 9th and 10th terga dorsally and

reduce the symptoms of allergy. 9th sternum ventrally


(3) The injection which is given to (4) 7th, 8th and 9 th sterna
the snake bite patient, contains
ventrally and 10th tergum
performed antibodies against the
dorsally
snake venom.
36. The balance between production
(4) Bone marrow and thymus and degradation of ozone in the
provide the sites for interaction of stratosphere has been disrupted
lymphocytes with the antigens. due to enhancement of ozone
33. Gynoecium without style is degradation by
found in (1) Green house gases
(1) Hibiscus (2) Chloroflurocarbons
(2) Datura (3) UV rays and N2O
(3) Allium
(4) Cl ions and Nitrogen oxides
(4) Papaver
37. Which cytoskeletal structures are
34. Sal I is obtained from
involved in amoeboid movement
(1) Streptomyces albus
of macrophages ?
(2) Serratia albus
(1) Microfilaments
(3) Streptobacillus albus
(2) Microtubules of axoneme
(4) Streptococcus albus
(3) Streaming movements of
35. In male cockroach, the genital
protoplasm
pouch is bounded by
(4) Dynein arms

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38. Which of the following plant 41. During urine formation, a fall in
disease is caused by animal GFR can activate JG cells to
pathogen ?
release renin, which converts
(1) Late blight of potato
(1) Angiotensin I to angiotensin II
(2) Red rot of sugarcane
(2) Angiotensin II to aldosterone
(3) Root knot of tobacco
(3) Angiotensinogen to
(4) Blight of rice
angiotensin I
39. Which of the following is a stem
(4) Angiotensin I to angio
modification ?
(1) Bladder of utricularia tensinogen

(2) Fleshy cylindrical structures of 42. Select the correct statement?


(1) Embryophytic plants are both
Euphorbia
homogametic and heterogametic
(3) Hanging structures of Banyan
(2) Peat moss, Club moss Irish
tree
moss are all bryophytes
(4) Spines in cactus
(3) Salvinia is a rootless,
40. Which one of the following
conditions correctly describes the heterophyllous pteridophyte
manner of determining the sex in (4) Aquatic angiosperms do not
the given example?
(1) XO type of sex chromosomes possess tracheary elements of

determine male sex in xylem


43. A wild flowering plant showing
grasshopper
stunted growth has fleshy green
(2) Homozygous sex aerial organs. It looks same even
chromosomes (XX) produce male under prolonged drought
conditions without the signs of
in Drosophila
wilting. In which of the
(3) Homozygous sex following physiological groups
chromosomes (ZZ) determine would you assign this plant ?
(1) C3
female sex in birds
(2) C4
(4) XO condition in humans as
(3) CAM
found in determines normal
(4) Nitrogen fixer
female
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44. This induces rupture of Graafian 48. Which one of the following
follicle and thereby ovulation in statements is wrong ?
(1) ATP is a ribonucleotide
human female
(2) Rubisco is an abundant protein
(1) Follicular phase in the animal kingdom
(2) Large amounts of estrogen (3) Thymidine is a deoxy
ribonucleoside
(3) Large amounts of progesteron
(4) Co. enzymes are vitamin
(4) LH surge derivatives
45. Body with diploblastic 49. In gymnosperms and
organisation, both extracellular angiosperms, the megasporangia
and intracellular digestion and
proper are usually
reproduction only by sexual
means are the characters of (1) Non-nutritive
phylum (2) Non-enveloped
(1) Coelenterata
(3) Integumented
(2) Ctenophora
(4) Single celled
(3) Porifera
50. Which of the following diseases
(4) Platyhelminthes is caused by a protozoan?
46. Which of the following is not an (1) Influenza
(2) Genital herpes
enzyme?
(3) Gonorrhoea
(1) Hind II (4) Trichomoniasis
(2) Ribozyme 51. Filiform apparatus found in
(3) Cytozyme (1) Egg
(2) Synergids
(4) DNase
(3) Antipodals
47. Which one of the following (4) Central cell
hormones is not involved in 52. Strategy of animal breeding,
sugar metabolism? which helps to overcome
(1) Insulin inbreeding depression is
(2) Glucagon (1) Out-crossing
(3) Cortisol (2) Cross-breeding
(4) Aldosterone (3) Inbreeding
(4) Interspecific hybridisation
Sri Chaitanya Page No.9 Vijayawada
53. ZIFT is an assisted reproductive moist skin
technique which can provide a
without scales ;
child to a childless couple. In
this technique which of the two pairs of
following is / are transferred into limbs ; eyes
the fallopian tube?
with eye lids
(1) Ovum or spermatozoa
Bony
(2) Zygote or embryo upto 8
endoskeleton ;
blastomeres
gills with
(3) Late embryos or foetus
operculum ;
(4) Gastrula or embryo with more (2) Osteichthyes
skin with
than 8 blastomeres
cycloid scales ;
54. Which of the following is not
present in mature or processed internal
m-RNA fertilisation
(1) Cap
Body covered
(2) Tail
with
(3) Exons
cornified skin ;
(4) Introns
external ear
55. Wrong match w.r.t taxonomic
openings
categorisation of mango (3) Reptilia
absent ; three –
(1) Order – Dicotyledonae
chambered
(2) Family – Anacardiaceae
heart ;
(3) Division – Angiospermae
internal
(4) Genus – Mangifera
fertilisation
56. Which of the following
represents the correct Body covered
combination without any with Feathers ;
exception? bony
Characteristics Class (4) endoskeleton ; Aves

Mouth oviparous ;
(1) Amphibia direct
terminal ;
development

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57. Plasma proteins help in osmotic (2) Spermatophyta
balance are (3) Archegoniatae
(1) Albumins (4) Atracheophyta
(2) Globulins 62. In human females, the primary
(3) Gamma globulins oocyte grows in size and
completes its first meiotic
(4) Fibrogen and heparin
division when it is within
58. Which of the following is not an (1) Tertiary follicle
ecosystem service ? (2) Secondary follicle
(1) Crop pollination (3) Primordial follicle
(2) Maintainance of bio. diversity (4) Primary follicle
(3) Mitigation of drought and 63. Primary and secondary phloem
floods get gradually crushed due to
(4) Degeneration of fertile soils continued formation and
59. In human sperm, which structure accumulation of
is filled with enzymes that help (1) Secondary corlex
in fertilisation of the ovum ?
(1) Head (2) Secondary xylem

(2) Middle piece (3) Primary xylem

(3) Neck (4) Cork


64. Which of the following statement
(4) Acrosome
is incorrect regarding the salient
60. Cereal grains are features of human genome?
morphologically (1) Less than 2 per cent codes for
(1) Seeds proteins.
(2) Fruits (2) Repeated sequences make up
(3) Starch granules very large portion.
(4) Latex granules (3) Over 50 per cent of the
61. Liver worts, Mosses, Horsetails, discovered genes functions are
Ferns, Cycads, Conifers together unknown.
can be included in the group. (4) It contains 3164.7 billion
(1) Tracheophyta nucleotide bases.
Sri Chaitanya Page No.11 Vijayawada
65. In cockroach, blood from sinuses (1) Physical fitness
enter into heart through
(2) Psychological fitness
(1) Ostia
(3) Reproductive fitness
(2) Spiracles
(3) Anterior aorta (4) Ecological adaptiveness
(4) Alary muscles
69. In an area, there is a decline in
66. Somatic hybridization involves.
bird populations due to thinning
(1) Both karyogamy and
of their egg shell and premature
plasmogamy
breaking. Probably the reason
(2) Karyogamy but not
may be
plasmogamy
(1) Eutrophication in a young lake
(3) Plasmogamy but not
(2) Biomagnification of DDT in an
karyogamy aquatic food chain
(4) Both karyokinesis and
(3) Sharp decline in DO
cytokinesis
downstream from the point of
67. Which of the following is
sewage discharge
wrongly matched in the given
(4) Increased predation pressure
table.
in the terrestrial food chain
Microbe Type Product
70. The common genotype in the
Aspergillus Citric
(1) Fungus progeny of dihybrid back-cross
niger acid
(out cross) and dihybrid test
(2) Methanogens Bacteria Methane
cross.
Saccharomyces
(3) Fungus Ethanol (1) Double homozygous dominant
cerevisiae
(2) Double homozygous recessive
(4) Streptococcus Bacterium Statins
(3) Double heterozygous
dominant
68. According to Darwin, fitness of
(4) Double homozygous
the individual or population
recombinant
refers ultimately and only to

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71. Which of the following is not (3) Secondary phloem is the vital
involved in knee-jerk reflex? tissue of bark.
(1) Muscle spindle (4) Conjoint collateral, closed and
(2) Brain fibro vascular bundles are found
(3) Inter neuron in grass stem.
(4) Motor neuron 75. This hormone plays a very
72. ABO blood grouping is important role in the regulation
controlled by gene I which has of a 24-hour rhythm of our body
three alleles. How many (1) Melatonin
phenotypes and genotypes are (2) Thymosin
possible? (3) Thyroxine
(1) 4 phenotypes and 4 genotypes (4) Adrenaline
(2) 6 phenotypes and 4 genotypes 76. Which of the following are not of
(3) 5 phenotypes and 8 genotypes epidermal cells ?
(4) 4 phenotypes and 6 genotypes (1) Guard cells
73. Which of the following is not a (2) Bulliform cells
characteristic feature during (3) Complimentary cells
meiosis I in spore mother cells ? (4) Subsidiary cells
(1) Chromosomal segregation 77. The joint present between
(2) Crossing over humerus and pectoral girdle is
(3) Reduction of chromosome (1) Ball and socket joint - allows
number limited movements
(4) Chromatidal segregation (2) Hinge joint - allows no
74. Which of the following statement movement
is not correct ? (3) Ball and socket joint - allows
(1) Vascular cambium is all free movement
secondary in origin in dicot stem. (4) Gliding joint - do not allows
(2) Cork cambium is stelar origin any movement
in dicot root.

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78. Study the pedigree chart given (1) Stethoscope
below (2) Spirometer
(3) Hygrometer
(4) Sphygmomanometer
82. Infectious RNA molecules of low
molecular weight, lacking
What does it show ? protein coat were discovered by
(1) The pedigree chart is wrong as (1) Pruisiner
this is not possible (2) Diener
(2) Inheritance of a recessive sex- (3) Iwanowsky
linked disease like haemophilia (4) Leeuwenhoek
(3) Inheritance of a sex-linked 83. What is the recommended per
inborn error of metabolism like cent of forest cover for plains by
the National Forest Policy (1988)
phenylketonuria of India?
(4) Inheritance of a condition like (1) 67%
phenylketonuria as an autosomal (2) 33%
recessive trait (3) 47%
79. The fleshy storage leaves are (4) 23%
found in
84. Highest values of B.O.D can be
(1) Pitcher plant
recorded in
(2) Cacti
(3) Onion (1) Drinking water pond
(4) Pea plant (2) Flowing river water
80. In the diagramatic representation
(3) Well water in the plain regions
of a standard ECG, this
represents the return of ventricles (4) Sewage water drains
from excited to normal state 85. The technique of DNA finger
(1) T-wave printing was initially developed
(2) P-wave by
(1) Francois Jacob
(3) QRS complex
(2) Rosalind Franklin
(4) PR-interval
(3) T.H. Morgan
81. In breathing movements, air
volume can be estimated by (4) Alec Jeffreys
Sri Chaitanya Page No.14 Vijayawada
86. In the course of evolution of (2) Development of male
man, fossils discovered in Java in gametophyte
1891 revealed this stage (3) Embryogenesis
(1) Homo erectus (4) Sporogenesis
(2) Homo habilis 89. Who among the following lead to
(3) Australopithecines experimental verification of
(4) Homo neanderthalensis chromosomal theory of
87. The following are the two inheritance
statements regarding antibodies (1) Sutton & Boveri
(a) Each antibody molecule has (2) Muller
two light peptide chains and two (3) Morgan
heavy peptide chains, hence it is (4) Mendel
represented as H2L2. 90. Government of India has passed
(b) The T-cells themselves do not the water (Prevention and control
secrete antibodies but help B of pollution) Act in
cells produce them. (1) 1981
Of the above statements which (2) 1986
one of the following options is (3) 1974
correct ? (4) 1987
(1) Both (a) and (b) are false 91. Consider a point P at contact
(2) (a) is correct but (b) is false point of a wheel on ground
which rolls on ground without
(3) (b) is correct but (a) is false
slipping. Then value of
(4) Both (a) and (b) are correct displacement of point P when
88. In an angiospermic plant body, wheel completes half of rotation
(If radius of wheel is 1 m)
free nuclear divisions take place
(1) 2 m
during
(2) 2
4m
(1) Development of female
(3) m
gametophyte
(4) 2
2m

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92. The power factor of a circuit in 95. Which of the following numbers
which a box having unknown has maximum number of
electrical devices connected in
significant figures?
series with a resistor of resistance
3 is 3/5. The reactance of the (1) 1001
box is (2) 100.1
(1) 5
(3) 100.10
(2) 5/ 3
(4) 0.001001
(3) 4
96. A silver sphere (work function
(4) 4 / 3
4.6 eV) is suspended in vaccum
93. One mole of a diatomic gas chamber by an insulating thread.
undergoes a process TV =
Ultraviolet light of wavelength
Constant. If the temperature of
gas increases by T , work done 0.2 m falls on the sphere. Then
for this process is its maximum potential will be
(1) R T
0

(2) 3R T hc 12400ev A

(3) 5R T (1) 4.6V


(4) 7R T (2) 6.2 V
94. Consider the circuit in the given (3) 1.6 V
figure. In the steady state, (4) 3.2 V
potential difference between A 97. An organ pipe P1 closed at one
and B is end vibrating in its first
harmonic and another pipe P2
open at both ends vibrating in its
third harmonic are in resonance
with a given tuning fork. The
ratio of the length of P1 to that of
P2 is
(1) E (1) 8/3
(2) E/2 (2) 3/8
(3) E/3 (3) 1/6
(4) Zero (4) 1/3
Sri Chaitanya Page No.16 Vijayawada
98. A radioactive element X converts 101. A plane electromagnetic wave of
into another stable element Y. frequency 25 MHz travels in free
Half life of X is 2 hrs. Initially space along the positive X-
only X is present. After time t, the direction. At a particular point in
ratio of atoms of X and Y is found space and time, E 6.3 j in V/m.
to be 1 : 7. Then t in hours is Then B at this point will be (in
(1) 2 tesla)
(2) 4
(1) 2.1 10 6
k
(3) Between 4 and 6
(4) 6 (2) 2.1 10 6
k

99. If the distance between the first (3) 2.1 10 6


j
maxima and fifth minima of a
double slit pattern is 7 mm and (4) 2.1 10 6
i

the slits are separated by 0.15 mm 102. A vessel contains two different
with the screen 50 cm from the liquids of different densities 2d
slits, then wavelength of the light and d as shown. There is a small
used is hole at the bottom of the vessel.
(1) 600 nm Velocity of the liquid coming out
(2) 525 nm of the hole will be
(3) 420 nm
(4) 540 nm
100. The logic operation performed
by the given circuit will be

(1) 6gh

(2) 2 gh
(1) NOT
(3) 2 2gh
(2) AND
(3) NOR (4) gh

(4) OR

Sri Chaitanya Page No.17 Vijayawada


103. Two boys are standing at the 105. A thin rod of length L and mass
ends A and B of a ground where M is bent at its midpoint into two
halves so that the angle between
AB=a. The boy at B starts
them is 90º. The moment of
running in a direction inertia of the bent rod about an
perpendicular to AB with axis passing through the bending
point and perpendicular to the
velocity v1 . The boy at A starts
plane defined by the two halves
running simultaneously with of the rod is
velocity v2 and catches the other ML2
(1)
6
in a time t, where t is
2ML2
a (2)
(1) 24
2 2
v 2 v1
ML2
a (3)
(2) 24
v2 v1
ML2
(4)
a 12
(3)
v2 v1
106. A particle of mass ‘m’ is kept at
a2 rest at a height 3R from the
(4) surface of earth, where ‘R’ is
v2 v12
radius of earth and ‘M’ is mass of
104. A 5000 kg rocket is set for vertical earth. The minimum speed with
firing. The exhaust speed is 800 which it should be projected, so
that it does not return back, is (g
ms-1. To give an initial upward
is acceleration due to gravity on
acceleration of 20 ms-2, the the surface of earth)
amount of gas ejected per second æ GM ö÷
1/ 2

(1) çç
to supply the needed thrust will çè 2 R ø÷÷

be (g = 10 ms-2) æ gR ö
1/ 2

(2) çç ÷÷
çè 4 ø÷
(1) 180.5kg s 1

æ 2g ö
1/ 2
(2) 187.5kg s (3) çç ÷÷÷
1

çè R ø
(3) 127.5kg s 1

æ GM ö÷
1/ 2

(4) çç
(4) 137.5kg s çè R ø÷÷
1

Sri Chaitanya Page No.18 Vijayawada


107. Three liquids of densities r1 , r2 surroundings to which it rejects
and r3 (with r1 > r2 > r3 ), having heat is

the same value of surface tension (1) 11ºC

T, rise to the same height in three (2) 21ºC

identical capillaries. The angles (3) 31ºC

of contact q1 , q2 and q3 obey (4) 41ºC

p 110. Two containers A and B are


(1) > q1 > q2 > q3 ³ 0
2 partly filled with water and
p closed. The volume of A is twice
(2) 0 £ q1 < q2 < q3 <
2
that of B and it contains half the
p
(3) < q1 < q2 < q3 < p amount of water in B. If both are
2
at the same temperature, the
p
(4) p > q1 > q2 > q3 >
2 water vapour in the containers
108. Steam at 100ºC is passed into 20 will have pressure in the ratio of
g of water at 10ºC. When water (1) 1 : 2
acquires a temperature of 80ºC, (2) 1 : 1
the mass of water present will be (3) 2 : 1
[Take specific heat of water = 1 (4) 4 : 1
cal g-1ºC-1 and latent heat of 111. The superposition of two simple
steam = 540 cal g-1] harmonic motions of equal
(1) 24g periods at right angle to each
(2) 31.5 g other and with a phase difference
(3) 42.5 g of p results in the displacement
(4) 22.5 g of the particle along
109. The coefficient of performance of (1) circle
a refrigerator is 5. If the (2) figure of eight
temperature inside freezer is - (3) straight line
20ºC, the temperature of the (4) ellipse

Sri Chaitanya Page No.19 Vijayawada


112. Two trains move towards each (2) DE
other with the same speed. The (3) AB
speed of sound is 340 m/s. If the (4) BC
height of the tone of the whistle 115. A wire elongates by 1 mm when
of one of them heard on the other a load W is hanged from it. If the
wire goes over a pulley and two
changes to 9/8 times, then the
weights W each are hung at the
speed of each train should be two ends, the elongation of the
(1) 20 m/s wire will be (in mm)
l
(2) 2 m/s (1)
2
(3) 200 m/s
(2) l
(4) 2000 m/s
(3) 2l
113. Point charges +4q, -q and +4q are
(4) zero
kept on the X-axis at point x = 0,
x = a and x = 2a respectively. 116. A conducting square frame of
(1) only –q is in stable equilibrium side ‘a’ and a long straight wire
carrying current I are located in
(2) all the charges are in stable
the same plane as shown in the
equilibrium except along a line figure. The frame moves to the
(3) all of the charges are in right with a constant velocity ‘V’.
The emf induced in the frame
unstable
will be proportional to
equilibrium except along a line
(4) none of the charges is in
equilibrium
114. From the graph between current
(I) and voltage (V) is shown
below. Identify the portion (1)
1
corresponding to negative (2x + a)
2

resistance 1
(2)
(2 x - a)(2 x + a)
1
(3)
x2
1
(4)
(2x - a)
2
(1) CD
Sri Chaitanya Page No.20 Vijayawada
117. A galvanometer having a (2) convergent lens of focal length
resistance of 9 ohm is shunted by 3.0 R
a wire of resistance 2 ohm. If the (3) divergent lens of focal length
total current is 1 amp, the part of 3.5 R
it passing through the shunt will (4) divergent lens of focal length
be about 3.0 R
(1) 0.2 amp 120. There is a prism with refractive
(2) 0.8 amp index equal to 2 and the
(3) 0.25 amp refracting angle equal to 30º. One
(4)0.5 amp of the refractive surface of the
118. A circular disc of radius 0.2 meter prism is polished. A beam of
is placed in a uniform magnetic monochromatic light will retrace
1 æçWb ö÷ its path if its angle of incidence
field of induction ç ÷ in such
p çè m2 ø÷ over the refracting surface of the
a way that its axis makes an angle prism is
of 60º with B . The magnetic flux (1) 0º
linked with the disc is (2) 30º
(1) 0.08 Wb (3) 45º
(2) 0.01 Wb (4) 60º
(3) 0.02 Wb 121. A beam of light of l = 600 nm
(4) 0.06 Wb from a distant source falls on a
single slit 1 mm wide and the
119. A concave lens of glass, refractive
resulting diffraction pattern is
index 1.5 has both surfaces of observed on a screen 2 m away.
same radius of curvature R. On The distance between first dark
fringes on either side of the
immersion in a medium of
central bright fringe is
refractive index 1.75, it will (1) 1.2 cm
behave as a (2) 1.2 mm
(1) convergent lens of focal length (3) 2.4 cm
3.5 R (4) 2.4 mm

Sri Chaitanya Page No.21 Vijayawada


122. A beam of cathode rays is 124. Transfer characteristics [output
subjected to crossed electric (E) voltage (V0) vs input voltage (Vi)]
and magnetic fields (B) after for a base biased transistor in CE
accelerating through a potential configuration is as shown in the
difference V between cathode figure. For using transistor as a
and anode. The fields are switch, it is used
adjusted such that the beam is
not deflected. The specific charge
of the cathode rays is given by
B2
(1)
2VE 2
2VB 2
(2)
E2
(1) in region III
2
2VE
(3) (2) both in region (I) and (III)
B2
(3) in region II
E2
(4) (4) in region I
2VB 2
123. Ionization potential of hydrogen 125. Choose the only false statement

atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atoms from the following.

in the ground state are excited by (1) In conductors the valence and

monochromatic radiation of conduction bands overlap.


photon energy 12.1 eV. According (2) Substances with energy gap of
to Bohr’s theory, the spectral the order of 10 eV are insulators.
lines emitted by hydrogen will (3) The resistivity of
be: semiconductor increases with
(1) Two increase in temperature.
(2) Three (4) The conductivity of a
(3) One semiconductor increases with
(4) Six increase in temperature.

Sri Chaitanya Page No.22 Vijayawada


126. The diode used in the circuit 1
(3) f0T
shown in the figure has constant 2

voltage drop at 0.5V at all (4) f 0T

currents and a maximum power 128. A particle moves along a circle of

rating of 100 milli watts across radius


20
m with constant
the diode. What should be the
tangential acceleration. If the
value of the resistor R, connected
velocity of the particle is 80 m/s
in series with diode for obtaining
at the end of the second
maximum current ?
revolution after motion has
begun, the tangential
acceleration is
(1) 40 m / s 2
(1) 6.76 (2) 640 m / s 2
(2) 20
(3) 160 m / s 2
(3) 5
(4) 40 m / s 2
(4) 5.6
129. A body of mass 5 kg explodes at
127. A particle moving along x-axis rest into three fragments with
having an acceleration f at instant masses in the ratio 1 : 1 : 3. The
t fragments with equal masses fly
t is given by f f0 1 , where
T
in mutually perpendicular
f0 and T are constants. The
directions each with speed of 21
particle at t = 0 has zero velocity.
m/s. The velocity of heaviest
In the time interval between t = 0
fragment in m/s will be
and the instant when f = 0, the
(1) 7 2
particle’s velocity (vx) is
(2) 5 2
1
(1) f 0T 2
2 (3) 3 2
(2) f 0T 2 (4) 2

Sri Chaitanya Page No.23 Vijayawada


130. The potential energy between (1) 2g/3
two atoms in a molecule is given (2) 2g/6
a b (3) 2g/9
by U x where a and b
x12 x6
(4) g/3
are positive constants and x is
132. Which of the following rods,
the distance between the atoms.
(given radius r and length l) each
The atom is in stable
made of the same material and
equilibrium, when
whose ends are maintained at the
1/ 6
2a same temperature will conduct
(1) x
b
most heat ?
1/ 6
11a (1) r
(2) x r0 , l l0
5b
(2) r 2 r0 , l l0
(3) x = 0
1/ 6
(3) r r0 , l 2l0
a
(4) x (4) r 2 r0 , l 2l0
2b
131. A smooth ring P of mass m can 133. A wire is fixed between two ends

slide on a fixed horizontal rod. A of a sonometer at x = 0 and x =

string tied to the ring passes over 100 cm. What should be the

a fixed pulley and carries a block positions of two bridges below

Q of mass (m/2) as shown in the the wire so that the three

figure. At an instant, the string segments of the wire have their

between the ring and the pulley fundamental frequencies in the

makes an angle 60º with the rod. ratio 1 : 3 : 5.

The initial acceleration of the 1500 500


(1) cm, cm
23 23
ring is
1500 300
P (2) cm, cm
23 23
300 1500
(3) cm, cm
23 23
1500 2000
(4) cm, cm
Q 23 23

Sri Chaitanya Page No.24 Vijayawada


134. A square surface of side L meter (1) No. of -bonds :
in the plane of the paper is
placed in a uniform electric field ClO4 ClO3 ClO2 ClO
E(volt/m) acting along the same (2) Cl – O bond energy:
plane at an angle with the OCl ClO2 ClO3 ClO4
horizontal side of the square as
(3) Cl – O distance:
shown in figure.
OCl ClO2 ClO3 ClO4
(4) Oxidising power :
OCl ClO2 ClO3 ClO4
137. Tolerable limits of lead and
fluoride in international
standards are:
The electric flux linked to the
(1) 10 ppm and 50 ppm
surface, in units of volt m is
(2) 50 ppb and 1 ppm
(1) EL2
(3) 50 ppb and 15 ppm
(2) EL2 cos
(4) 1 ppm and 50 ppm
(3) EL sin
2

138. In Lassaigne’s test, which of the


(4) zero
following organic compounds
135. A potentiometer wire has length
would produce a blood red
4m and resistance 8 . The
resistance that must be connected colour when its sodium extract is
in series with the wire and an treated with FeCl3 solution
accumulator of emf 2V, so as to
get a potential gradient 1 mV per
cm on the wire is
(1)
(1) 44

(2) 48

(3) 32 (2)
(4) 40
136. Which of the following (3)
arrangements does not truly
represent the property indicated
against it? (4)
Sri Chaitanya Page No.25 Vijayawada
139. Improper match of the following (2) 2 and 0
is (3) 1 and 2
(1) (4) 2 and 1
OH
a) NaH
b) RX
OR 142. Which of the following elements

…. Williamson synthesis has least number of electrons in


(2) its ‘M’ shell?
(1) K
a)aqueous NaOH
OH OH
b) CO2 , 6 7atm (2) Mn
COOH
(3) Ni
…. Kolbe’s reaction
(3) (4) Sc

COCl
H2
CHO 143. Which among the following is
Lindlar's catalyst

…. Wolf – Kishner reduction incorrect?


(4) (1) Order of C-C bond length :
CO + HCl
CHO C2H6 > C6H6 > C2H4
Cu 2Cl2 CH2Cl 2

(2) Order of bond angle : HgCl2 >


…. Gattermann – Koch reaction BF3 > SiCl4
dil.H 2SO4
140. Ph CH 2 CH CH 2 X. (3) Order of % p- character in
Identify product ‘X’ is hybrid orbitals of central atom :
(1) Ph CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 OH BeCl2 > CCl4
H H (4) Order of polarizing power of
| |
(2) Ph C C CH 3 cations: Al+3 > Mg+2 > Na+1
| |
H OH 144. Stability of the species
H H Li2 , Li2 and Li2 increases in the order
| |
(3) Ph C C CH 3 of:
| |
OH H (1) Li2 Li2 Li2
(4) Ph CH 2 OH
(2) Li2 Li2 Li2
141. The number of radial nodes of 3S
(3) Li2 Li2 Li2
and 2P orbitals respectively are
(1) 0 and 2 (4) Li2 Li 2 Li2
Sri Chaitanya Page No.26 Vijayawada
145. When the temperature is
increased, surface tension of
water:
(1) increases (4)

(2) remains constant 147. C 2 H 5 l and dry Ag2O reacts to

(3) decreases produce

(4) shows irregular trend (1) C2 H 6

146. The major product obtained on (2) C 2 H 5 C2 H 5


mono bromination Br2 / FeBr3 (3) C 2H 5 O C2 H 5
of the following compound ‘A’ (4) C 2 H 5 CH 3

148. RCH 2OH X


RCOOH ;
Y
RCH 2OH RCHO

is: X, Y respectively are


(1) LiAlH 4 , NaBH 4

(2) PCC , NaBH 4

(3) PCC , KMnO4 H


(1)
(4) Jone’s reagent, PCC

149.

(2) B is
(1) Glutaric acid
(2) Succinic acid
(3) Adipic acid

(3) (4) Malonic acid

Sri Chaitanya Page No.27 Vijayawada


(4) Both statements are incorrect
152. For the reaction
N2 g O2 g 2 NO g , the value of
150. Kc at 800 ºC is 0.1. What is the
What are x and y? value of Kp at the same
SO3H OH
temperature
NO2 (1) 0.5
, (2) 0.01
(1)
(3) 0.05
OH CH3
(4) 0.1
SO3 H
153. 4 Mg 10 HNO3 4 Mg NO3
, 2

NH 4 NO 3 3 H 2O . 1 mole of
NO2
(2) HNO3 oxidizes how many grams
of magnesium ?
(1) 96g
(2) 9.6g
(3) 960 g
(3) ,
(4) 240g
SO3H OH
154. What is the conc. of Cl- ion in
SO3H NO2
HgCl2 saturated solution. If K sp of
SO3H , HgCl2 at 298k is 4 ×10-15 M3
(4) 2 NO (1) 1 10 5 M
151. Statement – I: For a reaction (2) 2 10 5 M
2NH3 g N2 g 3H2 g , H E (3) 4 10 5 M
Statement – II: Enthalpy change is (4) 4 10 15
M
always greater than internal 155. The number of OH- ions in 1 mL
energy change of the solution having pH = 4 is:
(1) Both statements are correct 4
(1) 10
(2) Statement – 1 is correct,
(2) 10
10

statement – II is incorrect
(3) 6.02 10
10

(3) Statement – 1 is incorrect,


(4) 6.02 10
13
statement – II is correct
Sri Chaitanya Page No.28 Vijayawada
156. CH 3 C CH NaNH 2
A C2 H5Cl
B.
Positional isomer of B is
(1) 1 - butyne
(2) 2 - butyne
(3) 1 - pentyne (1)
(4) 3 - hexyne
157. P K a is highest for
OH

(2)
CH 3
(1)
OH
NO2

(3)
NO2
(2)
OH
CH 3

(3)
OH (4)
160. Which of the following does not
contain P-O-P bond?
(4) (1) P4O6
158. When acetic acid is heated with (2) (HPO3)3
P2O5 then which compound will (3) H4P2O6
be formed? (4) H4P2O7
161. The volume of atoms present in
(1) CH 3CO 2 O
end centered cubic Unit Cell of a
(2) CH 3COCH 3 metal is (r = atomic radius)
(3) CH 3CHO (1)
16 3
r
3
(4) CH 4
4 3
(2) r
3
8 3
(3) r
3
159. (4)
12 3
r
‘C’ in the reaction is 3
Sri Chaitanya Page No.29 Vijayawada
162. Synthetic fibres like nylon-6,6 is 165. One Faraday of electricity is
very strong because: passed separately, through one
litre of one molar aqueous
(1) They have high molecular
solution of AgNO3, SnCl4 and
weights and high melting points CuSO4. The number of moles of
(2) They have linear molecules Ag, Sn and Cu deposited at
cathode are respectively
consisting of very long chains 1 1
(1) , ,1
(3) They have a high degree of 4 2
1 1
cross-linking by strong C-C bond (2) ,1,
2 4
(4) They have linear molecules 1 1
(3) 1, ,
interlinked with forces like 2 4
1 1
hydrogen bonding (4) 1, ,
4 2
163. Compound PdCl 4 .6H 2 O is a 166. Which of the following is correct
hydrated complex. One molal structure of S 2Cl2 ?
aqueous solution of it has
freezing point 269.28 K.
Assuming 100% ionisation of the
complex, which of the following (1)
is the formula of the complex (2) Cl S S Cl
K f for water 1.86 K Kg mol 1 ?

(1) Pd H 2O 6
Cl 4
(2) Pd H 2O 4 Cl2 Cl2 .2H 2O
(3)
(3) Pd H 2O 3 Cl3 Cl.3H 2O (4) Cl S S Cl
(4) Pd H 2O 2 Cl4 .4H 2O 167. Consider the following
statements:
164. What will be the emf of the given
(i) La OH 3 is the least basic
cell?
among hydroxides of lanthanides
Pt/H2(10atm)/H+(1M)IIH+(1M)/H2 (ii) Eu+2 acts as a reducing agent
(1atm) / Pt (iii) Ce 4 acts as an oxidising
(1) +0.09V agent.
(2) +0.03V Which of the above is/are true?
(1) i and iii
(3) -0.12V
(2) ii and iii
(4) +0.12V (3) ii only
(4) i and ii
Sri Chaitanya Page No.30 Vijayawada
168. The temperature co efficient for
reaction in which food
deteriorates is ‘2’. Then food
deteriorates --- times as rapidly at
(1) Structure of uracil is
250C as it does at 50C.
(1) 8 (2)During denaturation, primary

(2) 2 structure of proteins is destroyed

(3) 1 (3) DNA has a double helical

(4) 4 structure

169. The copper matte obtained in the (4) Nucleoside is the combination
metallurgy of copper has the of sugar and base
approximate composition
172. Which of the following is not a
(1) FeS + CuO
function of DNA finger printing?
(2) Cu + FeO (1) In forensic laboratories for
(3) Cu2S+FeS identification of criminals
(4) CuS+FeS2 (2) To determine paternity of an
170. The following are some individual
statements about micelle
(3) To identify the dead bodies in
I) These are formed as
aggregated particles when soap is any accident by comparing the
a applied at lower conc. DNA’s of parents
II) The tail part of it dissolves the
(4) In checking Biological activity
grease deposit or dirt
in the human body
III) Hydrocarbon chain of soap
173. List – I List – II
micelle is hydrophilic end and its (use of polymer) (Polymer)
anion part is hydrophobic end A) Making paints 1) Bakelite
B) Making tyre cords 2) Teflon
The correct statement(s) is/are
C) Making oil seals 3) Nylon – 6
(1) All are correct
D) Making combs 4) Glyptal
(2) Only I and II The correct match is
(3) Only II and III (1) A - 4, B - 2, C - 1, D – 3
(4) Only II (2) A - 4, B -3, C - 2, D – 1
171. Which of the following is (3) A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D – 1
incorrect? (4) A - 3, B - 2, C - 1, D - 4
Sri Chaitanya Page No.31 Vijayawada
174. Which among the following 177. Largest ion among the following
inhibits the synthesis of is
chemicals known as
(1) Li H 2O x
prostaglandins which stimulates
inflammation in the tissue and (2) Cs H 2O x

cause pain is:


(3) Rb H 2O x
(1) zantac
(2) Chlorodiazepoxide (4) K H 2O x
(3) Alitame 178. The product obtained as a result
(4) aspirin of a reaction of nitrogen gas with
175. Incorrect statement is hot CaC2 is:
(1) Natural gas is an important (1) Super phosphate of lime
source of helium (2) Nitrolim
(2) Most abundant inert gas in (3) Plaster of paris
atmosphere is Radon (4) Milk of lime
(3) First noble gas compound 179. In summer season which of the
prepared is XePtF6 following group 13 elements

(4) Electron gain enthalpy H EG exist as liquid?

values of noble gases are positive (1) Ga

176. Which among the following is (2) B

incorrect statement ? (3) Al

(1) NH3 is an electron rich hydride (4) Tl

(2) CaH2 is known as Hydrolith 180. With which of the following

(3) Reaction involved in water gas silica doesn’t reacts

shift reaction: (1) HNO3

CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g) (2) HF


(4) Melting point of Heavy water (3) NaOH
(D2O) is less than that of normal (4) Na2CO3
Water.
Sri Chaitanya Page No.32 Vijayawada

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