11/05/2017 Code - A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 200 Test Series : Test – 01 (Objective) Time : 150 Min.

(for JIPMER - 2017 )
Topics Covered :
Physics : Physical World and Measurement, Kinematics, Laws of motion, Work, Energy & Power, Motion of System
of particles & Rigid Body, Gravitation
Chemistry : Some basic concepts of chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and Periodicity in
Properties, Chemical bonding and molecular structure, States of Matter: Gases & Liquids, Thermodynamics,
Equilibrium
Biology : The Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom, Morphology of Flowering Plants, Anatomy of
Flowering Plants, Animal Kingdom: (Salient features and classification of animals-nonchordate up to
phyla level, Chordate up to classes level (three to five salient features and at least two examples), Structural
organization in Animal, Animal tissues & Animal Morphology, Biomolecules
English and Comprehension :
Logical and Quantitative Reasoning :

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Answer sheet.
(vi) Each answer with correct response shall be awarded ONE mark. Zero mark will be given for the question
NOT answered. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
h 3. Figure shows the displacement - time (x - t) graph
1. If h is Planck’s constant and  is wavelength, has of a body moving in a straight line. Which one of the

dimensions of graphs shown in given option represents the velocity-
(1) Energy (2) Energy density time (v - t) graph of the motion of the body?

(3) Momentum (4) Velocity gradient x(m)

2. The length, breadth and thickness of a strip are

(10.0 ± 0.1) cm, (1.00 ± 0.01) cm and (0.100 ±
0.001) cm respectively. The most probable error in
the volume will be
t(s)
(1) ± 0.111 cm3 (2) ± 0.012 cm3 5 15 20

(3) ± 0.03 cm3 (4) ± 0.04 cm3

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Test-01 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
9. The table shows the distance covered in successive
v
seconds by a body accelerated uniformly from rest

(1) 15 20 Time interval (s) I II III IV

t
5
Distance (cm) 2 6 10 14

What is the speed of the body at the end of 4th

v second?
(1) 4 cm/s (2) 8 cm/s
(2)
t (3) 14 cm/s (4) 16 cm/s
5 15 20
10. The component of vector A  2iˆ  3 jˆ along the vector

v iˆ  jˆ is
5
(1) (2) 5 2
(3) 2
t
5 15 20 (3) 10 2 (4) 2 2
11. A man wants to reach point B on the opposite bank
of a river flowing at a speed as shown in figure. What
v
minimum speed relative to water should the man
have, so that he can reach point B?
(4) 15 20 t B
5

4. A stone thrown vertically up with a velocity v reaches v

45°
v v v
three points P, Q and R with velocities , ,
2 4 8 A
respectively. Then PQ : QR is
v
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1 (1) v 2 (2)
2
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 3
v
5. The graph between two quantities A and B is a (3) 2v (4)
2
straight line when
12. Among the four graph, there is only one graph for
(1) AB = constant (2) AB2 = constant which average velocity over the time interval (0, T)
can vanish for suitable chosen T. Which one is it?
A A
(3) = constant (4) = constant x x
B2 B
⎛ a ⎞
6. In standard van der Waal’s equation ⎜ P  2 ⎟ (1) (2)
⎝ V ⎠
a
(V – b) = nRT. The dimensional formula of is t
b t
(1) M–1L–2T2 (2) M–1L2T–2 x x
(3) M1L2T–2 (4) M1L–2T2
7. The dimension of RC in the equation (3) (4)
Q = Q0(1 – e–t/RC) is
(1) ML2T–3A–2 (2) ML2T–2A–3
t t
(3) T–1 (4) T
13. When a ball is thrown up vertically with velocity V0,
8. A physical quantity is given by X = [MaLbTc]. The it reaches a maximum height of h. If one wishes to
percentage error in measurement of M, L and T are
double the maximum height, then the ball should be
,  and  then, the maximum % error in the
thrown with velocity
quantity X is
(1) a + b – c (2) a + b + c (1) 2V0 (2) 2V0
a b c a b c
(3)   (4)   (3) 2 2V0 (4) 4V0
     
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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-01 (Code A)
 
14. Six vectors a through f have the magnitudes and 21. When a force (8i + 4j) N displaces a particle through
directions as shown in figure. Which statement is (3i – 3j) m, the power is 0.6 W. The time of action
true? [All vectors have same magnitude] of the force is
a c (1) 20 s (2) 12 s
b (3) 72 s (4) 24 s
d e f 22. A man can swim in still water at a speed of 4 kmph.
      He desires to cross a river flowing at a speed of
(1) b  d  f (2) d  c  f
      3 kmph in the shortest time interval. The direction in
(3) a  e  f (4) b  e  f
which he has to swim is
15. The path of a particle moving under the influence of
a force fixed in magnitude and direction is (1) Making an angle tan–1(3/4) with the normal to
the river flow
(1) Straight line (2) Parabola
(2) Making an angle 127° with downstream direction
(3) Circle (4) Both (1) & (2)
16. A ball of mass m is thrown vertically upwards. What (3) Making an angle 37° with upstream direction
is rate at which the momentum of the ball changes? (4) Making an angle 90° with river flow
(1) Zero (2) mg 23. Two particles are revolving on circular paths of radii
(3) Infinity (4) None of these a and b respectively with same linear speed. Ratio
of their centripetal acceleration is
17. In uniform circular motion, the factor that remains
constant is 2 2
⎛a⎞ ⎛b⎞
(1) ⎜ ⎟ (2) ⎜ ⎟
(1) Speed (2) Centripetal force ⎝b⎠ ⎝a⎠
(3) Acceleration (4) All of these 1/2
⎛b⎞ b
18. A mass M is suspended by a rope from a rigid (3) ⎜ ⎟ (4)
⎝a⎠ a
support at A as shown in the figure. Another rope is
tied at the end B and it is pulled horizontally with a 24. A 1 kg book rests on your desk. Which of the
force F. If rope AB makes 60° with vertical then following option is incorrect?
tension in the string AB is 1 Kg
A
(1) The normal force on the book equals its weight
because of Newton’s first law
60°
(2) The normal force on the book is not equals the
B weight because of Newton’s third law
F
(3) The normal force on the book equals its weight
M because of Newton’s second law
F (4) The normal force on the book equals its weight
(1) (2) 2Mg
2 because of Newton’s third law
2F 25. The contact force on the block having mass 1 kg
(3) (4) Both (2) & (3)
3 (Assume wedge to be fixed)
19. A body is thrown with a velocity of (3i  5 jˆ) m/s. The
g
time of flight is (g = 10 m/s2) 1k
0.5
(1) 2 s (2) 4 s =
(3) 5 s (4) 1 s
20. A man is going in a topless car with a velocity of
10.8 kmph. It is raining vertically downwards. He has
37°
to hold the umbrella at angle 53° to the vertical to
protect himself from rain. The actual velocity of the (1) 4 5
⎛ 3⎞
rain ⎜ cos53  ⎟ (2) 10 3
⎝ 5⎠
(1) 3.75 m/s (2) 2.25 m/s (3) 2 5

(3) 2.50 m/s (4) 2 m/s (4) 5 5

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Test-01 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
26. A particle of mass 2 kg is subjected to a force which 33. A bullet comes out of the barrel of gun of length 2 m
varies with distance as shown in figure. The work with a speed of 80 m/s. The average acceleration of
done by the force during the displacement from the bullet is
x = 0 to x = 10 is (1) 1.6 m/s2 (2) 160 m/s2
F(N) (3) 1600 m/s2 (4) 16 m/s2
34. If a person is pushing a box inside a moving train,
the work done in the frame of the earth will be [where
20  
s1 and s2 are displacement of box in the train and
displacement of train with respect to earth. F is
x(m) pushing force]
0 5 10 15
   
(1) F  s1 (2) F  s2
(1) 100 J (2) 60 J
     
(3) 150 J (4) 250 J (3) F  (s1  s2 ) (4) F  (s2  s1)
27. Five forces inclined at angle of 72° to each other are 35. Two bodies with masses m1 and m2 have equal
acting on a particle of mass placed at origin of kinetic energies. If P1 and P2 are their respective
coordinates. Four forces are of magnitude F1 and P1
one of F2. The resulting acceleration of particle is momenta, then P is equal to
2
F2  F1 F F (2) m12 : m22
(1) (2) 1 2 (1) m1 : m2
m m
(3) m2 : m1 (4) m1 : m2
F  4F1
(3) 2 (4) Zero 36. The centripetal acceleration of a particle varies
m
28. Passengers standing in a bus are thrown outwards inversely with the square of the radius r of the
when the bus takes a sudden turn. This happens circular path. The kinetic energy of the particle is
because of directly proportional to

(1) Outward pull on them (1) r (2) r 2

(2) Inertia (3) r –1 (4) r –2
(3) Change in momentum 37. A body of mass 1 kg is projected at 40 m/s at an
angle of 60° above the horizontal. Power due to
(4) Change in acceleration
gravity on the body at its highest point is
29. Which of the following relations associated with
Newton’s second law remains valid for all velocities? (1) 200 W (2) 100 3 W
   (3) 100 W (4) Zero
 dv
(1) F  ma (2) F  m 38. A body is acted upon by a force which is inversely
dt
 d  proportional to the cube of the distance x. The work
(3) F  (mv ) (4) All of these done will be proportional to
dt
30. A machine gun fires n bullets per second and the (1) x (2) x –2
mass of each bullet is m. If v is the speed of each (3) x3/2 (4) x2
bullet, then the force exerted on the machine gun is 39. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(1) nmg (2) mvn (1) Kinetic energy of a body is independent of the
mnv direction of motion
(3) mnvg (4)
g (2) In an elastic collision of two bodies, the
momentum and energy of each body is
31. Which of the following friction is self adjusting in
conserved
nature?
(3) A body can have energy without momentum
(1) Limiting friction (2) Kinetic friction
(4) All of these
(3) Static friction (4) All of these 40. A light body A and a heavy body B have equal linear
32. The mass of a lift is 2000 kg. When the tension in momentum. Then KE of the body A
the supporting cable is 28000 N, then its (1) Is equal to that of B
acceleration is (take, g = 10 m/s2)
(2) Is greater to that of B
(1) 4 m/s2, upwards (2) 4 m/s2, downwards (3) Is smaller to that of B
(3) 14 m/s2, upwards (4) 30 m/s2, downwards (4) Is zero
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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-01 (Code A)
41. Force acting on a particle moving in a straight line 3 3
(1) MR2 (2) MR2
C 2 4
varies with the velocity of the particle as F 
v 5 5
where C is a constant. The work done by this force (3) MR2 (4) MR2
in time t is 4 2
C Ct 2 46. An inclined plane makes an angle of 60° with
(1) t (2) horizontal. A disc rolling down this inclined plane
v2 2
3Ct
without slipping has a linear acceleration equal to
(3) Ct (4)
v2 3g g
42. The given diagram represents the potential energy (1) (2)
2 3
curve of a particle in a field. The magnitude of the
force on the particle will be maximum when its 3g g
(3) (4)
position coordinate x is equal to 4 3
47. The bodies situated on the surface of earth at its
U(x) equator become weightless when the kinetic energy
of rotation of earth about its axis is (M is the mass
of earth and g is acceleration due to gravity at
surface of the earth)

x3 x4 2MgR
x (1) MgR (2)
0 x1 x2 5
MgR 5MgR
(1) x1 (2) x2 (3) (4)
5 2
(3) x3 (4) x4
48. If a rigid body rolls on a horizontal surface without
43. A ball P is moving with a certain velocity collides, slipping then
with another ball Q of the same mass at rest. If the
coefficient of restitution is e, the ratio of the velocities (1) Angular speed is different at different points of a
of P and Q after collision is rigid body

1 e 1 e (2) Linear speed is same at all points of the rigid

(1) (2) body
1 e 2
1 e 1 e (3) Linear speed is minimum at the highest point but
(3) (4)
2 1 e maximum at the point of contact
44. Three identical spheres each of mass ‘m’ and radius (4) Linear speed is maximum at highest point but
R are placed touching each other so that their minimum at the point of contact
centres A, B and C lie on a straight line. The 
position of their centre of mass from centre of A is 49. If vector F be a force acting on a particle having the
 
2R position vector r and  be the torque of this force
(1) (2) 2R about the origin, then
3
   
5R (1) r    0 and F    0
(3) (4) 3R
3    
(2) r    0 and F    0
45. Two circular rings each of mass M and radius R are
   
attached to each other at their rims and their planes (3) r    0 and F    0
are perpendicular to each other as shown in the    
figure. The moment of inertia of system about a (4) r    0 and F    0
diameter of one of the rings and passing through the 50. If go, gh and gd be the acceleration due to gravity at
point of contact is the earth’s surface, at height h and at depth d
respectively, then
(1) go > gh and go > gd
(2) go < gh and go < gd
(3) go > gh and go < gd
(4) go < gh and go > gd

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Test-01 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
51. A body is projected with a velocity of magnitude 56. A boat of mass 40 kg is at rest. A dog of mass
gR  V  2gR at an angle of 30° with the radius 4 kg moves in the boat with a velocity of 10 m/s with
vector of the earth. If at the highest point the speed respect to ground. Velocity of the boat is
of the body is V/4, the maximum height attained by (1) 4 m/s (2) 2 m/s
the body is (R = radius of earth) (3) 1 m/s (4) 8 m/s
57. A round uniform body of radius R, mass M and
V2
(1) (2) R moment of inertia I rolls down (without slipping) on
2g inclined plane making an angle  with the horizontal.
(3) (4) 2R Then its acceleration is
2R
g sin  g sin 
52. A satellite orbits around the earth in a circular orbit (1) (2)
MR 2 I
with a speed v and orbital radius r. If it loses some 1 1
I MR 2
energy , then v and r changes as
g sin  g sin 
(1) v decreases and r increases (3) 2 (4) I
MR 1
1 2
(2) Both v and r decreases I MR
(3) v increases and r decreases 58. Two identical spherically symmetric objects are kept
at some distance as shown. A point mass m is
(4) Both v and r increases taken from the surface of one sphere to the surface
53. What will be the escape velocity on some planet of other sphere during this process, the potential
which is having radius four times that of the earth energy of the system
and gravitational acceleration equal to the earth?

(1) Equal to escape velocity on the earth

(1) Increases continuously
(2) One-third of escape velocity on the earth (2) Decreases continuously
(3) Half of escape velocity on the earth (3) First decreases, then increases
(4) First increases, then decreases
(4) Two times of escape velocity on the earth
59. Two satellite of mass m and 9m are orbiting a planet
54. Kepler’s second law is based on in orbits of radius r. Their periods of revolution will be
(1) Newton’s first law in the ratio of
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1
(2) Newton’s second law
(3) 9 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
(3) Conservation of angular momentum 60. Two identical cars are moving with same velocity v
(4) Conservation of linear momentum towards an intersection as shown in figure. If the
collision is completely inelastic then
55. A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit around the
earth. The mass of the satellite is very small
compared to the mass of the earth. Then
v

(1) The acceleration of S is always directed towards

the centre of the earth 2
v
(2) The angular momentum of S about the centre of
the earth changes in direction but its magnitude
remains constant

(3) The total mechanical energy of S varies (1) The velocity of approach is 2v cos
periodically with time (2) The common velocity after collision is 2v sin

(4) The linear momentum of S remains constant in (3) The velocity of separation is v cos
magnitude (4) The common velocity after collision is v cos

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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-01 (Code A)

CHEMISTRY
61. The number of oxygen atoms present in 180 mg of 70. Weight ratio of CO and CO2 in a gaseous mixture is
D-glucose are 1 : 2. Hence the ratio of their number of molecules
(1) 6.02 × 1023 (2) 6.02 × 1020 is
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 11 : 14
(3) 3.6 × 1021 (4) 6.02 × 1024
(3) 2 : 5 (4) 7 : 12
62. Number of ions present in 100 ml, 0.5 M NaCl 71. 100 ml, 0.5 M HCl solution was mixed with 100 ml
solution are 0.1 M NaOH solution. Then, the molarity of HCl
(1) 3 × 1022 (2) 6.02 × 1023 in solution after mixing is
(3) 1.2 × 1024 (4) 6.02 × 1022 (1) 0.4 (2) 0.1
63. 100 ml, 2 M aqueous solution of sodium chloride (3) 0.2 (4) 0.3
was titrated with excess of silver nitrate solution. 72. Which statement is true for pure water?
Then the mass of white precipitate obtained after the (1) Both pH and pOH increases with increase in
complete reaction is (Ag = 108; Cl = 35.5) temperature
(1) 287 mg (2) 14.35 g (2) Both pH and pOH decreases with increase in
temperature
(3) 28.7 g (4) 2.87 g
(3) pH and pOH do not change with increase in
64. 100 g of CaCO3 was heated in a closed vessel which temperature
resulted in 40 g of calcium oxide. Then, the moles (4) pH increases while pOH decreases with
of CO2 evolved is (Ca = 40) increase in temperature
(1) 1.0 (2) 0.7 73. Conjugate base of H3O+ is
(3) 1.4 (4) 0.5 
O 
O
(1) OH (2) H
65. 250 ml of 2 M NaOH solution was diluted by 750 ml
of water. The new molarity of NaOH in the solution (3) H2O (4) OH
will be 74. Considering complete dissociation of sulphuric acid,
(1) 0.67 M (2) 0.5 M find pH of 5 × 10–3 M H2SO4 solution.
(1) 3 (2) 2.3
(3) 1 M (4) 2 M
(3) 2.7 (4) 2
66. What volume of O2 at NTP is required to burn 440 g
of propane completely? 75. 100 ml of an aqueous solution of HCl having pH = 3
was diluted by 900 ml of water. Then, the pH of the
(1) 1120 L (2) 224 L resultant solution is
(3) 22.4 L (4) 112 L (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 3.5 (4) 4.5
67. 4 g of H2 was reacted with 56 g of N2. Then, the
mass of ammonia produced in the process will be 76. The concentration of H+ ion of a 0.25 M HA solution
is (Ka = 4 × 10–8)
(1) 34.24 g (2) 68.45 g
(1) 10–6 (2) 10–4
(3) 22.67 g (4) 60 g (3) 10–5 (4) 10–2
68. If M is the molecular weight of KMnO4, then, the 77. Which among the following is a strongest acid?
equivalent weight of KMnO4 when it is converted into
(1) CH3COOH (2) C6H5COOH
K2MnO4 is
(3) CH3CH2COOH (4) HCOOH
M M 78. 0.1 M solution of HF is 10% ionised. Then its Ka
(1) (2)
5 2 value is
M (1) 1.11 × 10–3 (2) 1 × 10–4
(3) M (4) (3) 6.4 × 10–4 (4) 8.8 × 10–4
3
69. 12.6 g of dihydrate oxalic acid was dissolved in a 79. Ka of four acids in aqueous solution are given as
volumetric flask and the solution was made up to (i) Ka1  104 (ii) Ka2  103
500 ml. Then, the volume of 0.1 M NaOH solution
required to completely neutralize 10 ml of this (iii) Ka3  105 (iv) Ka4  102
solution is Then, the pKa of the strongest acid is
(1) 20 ml (2) 80 ml (1) – 3 (2) 5

(3) 40 ml (4) 10 ml (3) 4 (4) 2

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Test-01 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017

80. The pH of 0.1 M C6H5ONa solution [Ka of C6H5OH 90. Which of the following is the correct relation between
= 1 × 10–10] Gibb’s free energy change and equilibrium constant
of a reaction?
(1) 11.5 (2) 11
(1) G = – RT lnK (2) G° = RT lnK
(3) 2.5 (4) 10
1
81. 30 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution is mixed with 30 mL (3) G   lnK (4) G° = – RT lnK
RT
of 0.3 M CH3COOH (pKa = 4.74). Then, pH of the
final solution (log 2 = 0.3) is 91. Which among the following is paramagnetic?
(1) 4.74 (2) 5.04 (1) O2 (2) F2
(3) 4.44 (4) 5.74
(3) CO (4) O22
82. pH of a solution of 0.10 M CH3CH2COOH increases
92. Hybridization of central atom in SO2 is
when which of the following substance is added?
(1) sp (2) sp2
(1) K2CO3 (2) KCl
(3) sp3 (4) sp3d
(3) NaCl (4) KNO3
93. Which of the following molecules/ion is having
83. Solubility of Al(OH)3 is S mol/L. Then its solubility
T-shape?
product, will be
(1) PCl3 (2) ClF3
(1) 108 S3 (2) 27 S4
(3) 108 S4 (4) 81 S3 (3) I3 (4) NH3
84. If Ksp of silver carbonate is 1.08 × 10–10, what is its 94. The compound with zero dipole moment is
⎛ mole ⎞ (1) Chloroform (2) Dichloromethane
solubility in ⎜ ⎟? (3) Methyl chloride (4) Carbontetrachloride
⎝ L ⎠
(1) 3 × 10–4 (2) 3 × 10–5 95. Which one among the following is isostructural with
(3) 9 × 10–6 (4) 5.2 × 10–6 CO2?
85. Which among the following has the least pKa value? (1) C2H2 (2) C2H4
(3) C2H6 (4) CH2 = C = CH2
(1) NH3 (2) CH3 – NH2
(3) (CH3)2NH (4) Ph – NH2 96. Which one among the following will not form
hydrogen bond?
86. For the chemical reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)
(1) NH3 (2) H2O
KC
the value of K is equal to (3) HF (4) H2S
P
97. Which among the following has bond order of 0.5?
1
(1) (2) (RT)2 (1) O2 (2) N2
RT
(3) RT (4) (RT)–2 (3) He2 (4) C2
87. For the chemical reaction H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g), the 98. Shape of SF2Cl2 is
equilibrium constant changes with (1) Tetrahedral (2) See-Saw
(1) Total pressure (3) Square planar (4) Trigonal bipyramidal
(2) Temperature 99. Number of waves produced by an electron in one
(3) Catalyst complete revolution in the nth orbit is
(4) Partial pressure of H2 and I2 (1) n2 (2) n
88. A catalyst is a substance which (3) 2n (4) 2n + 1
(1) Changes the equilibrium constant value 100. The energy of the second Bohr’s orbit in hydrogen
(2) Shortens time to reach equilibrium atom is – 3.41 eV. Then, the energy of the second
(3) Alters the path of reaction by changing the Bohr’s orbit of Li2+ ion would be
enthalpy of reaction (1) – 30.69 eV (2) – 10.23 eV
(4) Increases the activation energy of the reaction (3) – 1.14 eV (4) – 3.41 eV
89. NH4HS(s)  NH3(g) + H2S(g) 101. The ionization potential for the electron in the ground
state of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Then, the
The equilibrium pressure at 25°C is 0.8 atm, then KP ionization potential for the electron in the second
for the reaction is excited state of He+ ion will be
(1) 0.16 (2) 0.64 (1) 13.6 eV (2) 3.41 eV
(3) 0.32 (4) 0.8 (3) 6.04 eV (4) 30.6 eV
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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-01 (Code A)
102. What is the shortest wavelength line in the Balmer 112. At what pressure a quantity of gas will occupy a
series of He+ ion? [RH = Rydberg constant] volume of 100 mL, if it occupies a volume of 150 mL
1 at 700 mm pressure at same temperature?
(1) R (2) RH (1) 1050 mm (2) 700 mm
H

4 9 (3) 900 mm (4) 1250 mm

(3) R (4) 5R
H H 113. The ratio of the rate of diffusion of methane and
103. Which orbital pairs are located along the axis, and sulphur dioxide under identical condition of pressure
not between the axis? and temperature will be

(1) pz , d x 2  y 2 (2) d xy , d z2 (1) 2 (2) 4

(3) 0.5 (4) 1
(3) d yz , d x 2  y 2 (4) py , d zx
114. In the van der Waals gas equation the volume
104. Which among the following rules could explain the occupied by gas molecules is given by the term
presence of two unpaired electrons in carbon atom?
(1) Aufbau’s principle an2 ⎛ an2 ⎞
(1) (2) ⎜⎜ P  2 ⎟⎟
(2) Pauli’s exclusion principle V2 ⎝ V ⎠
(3) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle (3) nb (4) (V – nb)
(4) Hund’s rule 115. A gaseous mixture at a particular temperature
105. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell is given contains 64 g O 2, 10 g H 2 and 12 g He. If the
by mixture exerts a pressure of 2 atmosphere. Then the
(1) 2(2l + 1) (2) (2l + 1) partial pressure of H2 in the mixture will be
(3) (2l + 1)2 (4) l2 (1) 0.5 atm (2) 1 atm
106. The number of radial nodes in 3s and 3p orbitals are (3) 0.6 atm (4) 0.4 atm
respectively.
116. The amount of work done by 2 mole of an ideal gas
(1) 2, 1 (2) 2, 0
at 298 K in reversible isothermal expansion from
(3) 2, 2 (4) 3, 2
10 litre to 20 litre (log 2 = 0.3) is
107. The correct increasing order of size of ions is
(1) – 3.42 kJ (2) – 2.51 kJ
(1) F– < O2– < Na+ < Mg2+
(3) 4.52 kJ (4) – 3.95 kJ
(2) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2–
(3) Na+ < Mg2+ < F– < O2– 117. Heat of combustion of ethylene at 18°C and at
constant volume is –335.8 kcal when water is
(4) F– < Na+ < O2– < Mg2+
obtained in liquid state. Then, heat of combustion
108. Which among the following has the maximum
at constant pressure and at same temperature
number of unpaired electrons?
(R = 2 cal K–1 mole–1) will be
(1) Cr3+ (2) Fe2+
(1) – 225 kcal (2) – 175 kcal
(3) V3+ (4) Mn2+
(3) – 337 kcal (4) – 330 kcal
109. Element with atomic number 49 belongs to
(1) s-block (2) d-block 118. How much heat is required to change 100 g ice at
0°C to steam at 100°C? Given, latent heat of fusion
(3) p-block (4) f-block
and vaporization for H2O are 80 cal/g and 540 cal/g
110. Predict which among the following reactions show respectively. Specific heat of water is 1 cal/g.
negative entropy change.
(1) 72 kcal (2) 62 kcal
(i) CH4(g) + 2O2(g)  CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
(3) 18 kcal (4) 64 kcal
(ii) NH4HS(s)  NH3(g) + H2S(g)
(iii) HCl(g) + NH3(g)  NH4Cl(s) 119. An example of extensive property is
(iv) 2KClO4(s)  2KClO3(s) + O2(g) (1) Temperature (2) Internal energy
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iv) (3) Specific heat (4) Molar volume
(3) (i) and (iii) (4) (i), (iii) and (iv) 120. 1 : 1 molar mixture of acetic acid and sodium
111. The density of a gas (molecular weight 32) at 1 atm acetate is a
and 273 K, is [R = 0.082 l atm K–1 mol–1]
(1) Neutral buffer (2) Acidic buffer
(1) 1.43 (2) 1.00
(3) Basic buffer (4) Not a buffer
(3) 2.01 (4) 1.75
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Test-01 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017

BIOLOGY
121. True regeneration is exhibited by 132. Stems are unbranched and leaves are pinnately
(1) Roundworms (2) Flatworms compound in which of the following gymnosperms?
(1) Cycas (2) Pinus
(3) Tapeworms (4) All except (2)
(3) Cedrus (4) All except (1)
122. Modern taxonomic studies are based on all, except
133. Three generations are found in gymnospermic seeds.
(1) Ontogeny (2) Ecology The future sporophyte represents all, except
(3) Phylogeny (4) Cytology (1) Suspensor (2) Cotyledon
123. Indian Botanical Garden obeys conservation (3) Tegmen (4) Radicle
strategies of plants and is located in
134. Alga exhibiting haplodiplontic life cycle is all, except
(1) in situ, Howrah (2) ex situ, Howrah
(1) Ectocarpus (2) Polysiphonia
(3) in situ, Lucknow (4) ex situ, Lucknow
(3) Kelps (4) Fucus
124. Select odd one w.r.t. symbiotic N2 – fixing bacteria.
135. Which bryophyte represents algal ancestory in
(1) Rhizobium (2) Frankia presence of pyrenoid?
(3) Xanthomonas (4) Klebsiella (1) Adiantum (2) Anthoceros
125. Red sea is caused by (3) Marchantia (4) Riccia
(1) Cyanobacteria 136. Male gametes of Cycas are
(2) Dinoflagellate (1) Multiciliated
(3) Bacteria (2) Top-shaped
(4) More than one option is correct (3) Largest male gamete
126. Extract of______is used for the manufacture of (4) More than one option is correct
antibiotic.
137. Assimilating roots are found in
(1) Nostoc (2) Tolypothrix
(1) Tinospora (2) Trapa
(3) Lyngbya (4) Aulosira
(3) Podostemon (4) All of these
127. Which one of the following is called as, Bacteria with
138. Which of the following stem is elongated, prostrate
their coats off?
branch with long internodes and roots at nodes?
(1) Actinomyces (2) Aulosira (1) Offsets (2) Suckers
(3) Mycoplasma (4) Anabaena (3) Runners (4) Stolons
128. Which one is mismatched? 139. Opposite phyllotaxy is found in
(1) Apothecium - Peziza (1) Guava
(2) Perithecium - Pleospora (2) Trifolium
(3) Cleistothecium - Penicillium (3) Calotropis
(4) Hysterothecium - Gloniella (4) More than one option is correct
129. Floridean starch is found in all, except 140. Pendulous spike in leaf axis which bears unisexual
(1) Polysiphonia (2) Porphyra flower is characteristic features of
(1) Spadix (2) Catkin
(3) Gracilaria (4) Laminaria
(3) Panicle (4) Capitulum
130. Sporophytic plant body is parasitic over
gametophytic plant body in 141. Which one is mismatched?
(1) Funaria (1) Epipetalous stamens - Brinjal
(2) Sphagnum (2) Epiphyllous stamens - Lily
(3) Marchantia (3) Diadelphous stamens - China rose
(4) More than one option is correct (4) Polyadelphous stamens - Citrus
131. Select odd one w.r.t. heterosporous pteridophyte. 142. Characteristic fruit of Cruciferae is
(1) Salvinia (2) Selaginella (1) Siliqua (2) Legume
(3) Azolla (4) Dryopteris (3) Capsule (4) Cypsella
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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-01 (Code A)
143. Floral formulae C1 + 2 + (2)A(9) + 1 is found in 154. Which of the following is not a feature of Mollusca?
(1) Sesbania (1) Mantle (2) Radula
(2) Muliathi (3) Torsion (4) Intracellular digestion
(3) Belladonna 155. All chordate have
(4) More than one option is correct (1) Closed blood vascular system
(2) Notochord in some stage of life
144. Plant of which family is used in doubling of
chromosomes? (3) Hair in some stage of life
(4) Vertebrae in adult stage
(1) Lily family (2) Wheat family
156. Anadromous migration is the feature of
(3) Sunflower family (4) Pulse family
(1) Petromyzon (2) Myxine
145. Tunica-corpus theory was proposed by (3) Scoliodon (4) Whale
(1) Clowes (2) Schuepp 157. Inside water frog respire through
(3) Schmidt (4) Hanstein (1) Gills (2) Lungs
146. Thickened cell walls and obliterated lumen of cells (3) Cloaca (4) Skin
are found in 158. Birds differ from mammals in
(1) Sclereids (1) Being ectothermic
(2) Bast fibres (2) Having bidirectional respiration
(3) High metabolic rate
(3) Collenchyma
(4) Low respiratory rate
(4) Parenchyma
159. Which of the following is not a feature of fishes?
147. Schizolysigenous vascular bundle is the
(1) Single circulation
characteristic feature of
(2) Mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in
(1) Monocot stems (2) Dicot stems ventricle
(3) Monocot roots (4) Dicot roots (3) Cold blooded
148. Sum of rings of spring wood and autumn wood was (4) Presence of mesonephric kidney
found to be ‘20’ in the year 2000. What will be the 160. Choose the correct match :
number of annual rings in 2018?
(1) 38 (2) 8 Column I Column II
(3) 28 (4) 18 (1) Adamsia Sea pen
149. Bark includes all, except
(1) Periderm (2) Secondary phloem (2) Pennatula Sea fan

(3) Pericycle (4) Secondary xylem (3) Nereis Blood worm

150. Wood is actually a
(1) Primary xylem (2) Secondary xylem (4) Herdmania Sea squirt

(3) Primary cortex (4) Secondary cortex 161. Metagenesis is the feature of
151. Which of the following animal have blind sac body (1) Hydra (2) Adamsia
plan? (3) Obelia (4) Aurelia
(1) Fasciola (2) Ascaris 162. Which of the following is not a feature of whale?
(3) Earthworm (4) Cockroach (1) Lungs as a respiratory structure
152. Gastrovascular cavity is the characterstic feature of (2) Endothermy
(1) Obelia (2) Leucosolenia (3) Single dentary bone
(3) Sea cucumber (4) Earthworm (4) Absence of hepatic portal system
153. All arthropods have 163. Cyclostomes differ from fishes in having
(1) Jointed appendages (1) Paired fin
(2) Internal fertilisation (2) Close blood vascular system
(3) Tracheal system for respiration (3) Absence of Jaw
(4) Both (1) & (2) (4) Notochord in embryonic phase of development

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Test-01 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
164. Which of the following is an protostome? 173. Which of the following is associated with both male
(1) Herdmania (2) Tongue worm and female cockroach?
(3) Cockroach (4) Frog (1) Spermatophore (2) Mushroom gland
165. Areolar connective tissue connect (3) Anal style (4) Alary muscle
(1) Muscle to bone (2) Integument to muscle 174. Fertilisation in cockroach is ____ and development
(3) Bone to bone (4) Muscle to muscle _____.
166. Study the given structure and choose the correct (1) External, Paurometabolous
w.r.t. this structure. (2) Internal, Hemimetabolous
Cilia
(3) External, Hemimetabolous
(4) Internal, Paurometabolous
175. Which of the following is most abundant in term of
% of number of atoms in human body?
(1) C (2) H
(3) O (4) N
(1) It represent compound epithelium
176. Acid soluble fraction during ash analysis do not have
(2) It is avascular
(1) Amino acid (2) Simple sugars
(3) Present in germinal epithelium of ovary
(3) Nucleotides (4) Lipids
(4) Present in visceral layer of Bowman’s capsule
177. Which of the following is not a polysaccharide of
167. Which of the following form blood in embryonic stage glucose?
of Human?
(1) Cellulose (2) Inulin
(1) Liver (2) Spleen (3) Glycogen (4) Starch
(3) Red bone marrow (4) All of these 178. Tertiary structure of protein gives three dimensional
168. Tendon connect view of protein. Which of the following is not involved
(1) Bone to bone (2) Muscle to bone in the formation of tertiary structure?
(3) Muscle to muscle (4) Bone to cartilage (1) Hydrogen bond (2) Ionic bond
169. Which of the following is a branched alveolar and (3) Hydrophobic bond (4) Ester bond
holocrine gland? 179. Which of the following have polar head and non polar
(1) Crypts of Lieberkuhn tail?
(2) Gastric gland in stomach (1) Triglyceride (2) Phospholipid
(3) Sebaceous gland (3) Fatty acid (4) All of these
(4) Sweat glands 180. The graph given below shows the effect of substrate
170. Which of the following is a bone forming cell? concentration on the rate of reaction of enzyme.

(1) Osteocyte (2) Osteoclast

of reaction
Velocity

(3) Osteoblast (4) Chondroblast

171. Posterior part of oesophagus is characterised by
(1) Presence of elongated spindle shaped voluntary
O
muscles Substrate
O
(2) Presence of striated involuntary muscle conc 
What does the graph indicate?
(3) Presence of involuntary muscle
(1) The rate of enzyme reaction is directly
(4) Presence of unstriated voluntary muscle proportional to enzyme concentration
172. Unipolar neuron have (2) Presence of enzyme inhibitor in the reaction
(1) One dendron and no axon mixture
(2) Only axon and no dendron (3) Formation of enzyme substrate complex
(3) One dendron and one axon (4) At higher substrate concentrations the pH
(4) Two dendron and one axon increases
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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-01 (Code A)

LOGICAL AND QUANTITATIVE REASONING

181. Q’s mother is sister of P and daughter of M. S is 187. Select a figure from the answer figures. Which will
daughter of P and sister of T. How is M related to T? continue the same series as established by the five
problem figures.
(1) Grand Mother
Problem Figures
(2) Father
(3) Grand Father
A B C D E
(4) Grand Mother or Grand Father
Answer Figures
182. In the following question, a number series is given
with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative
that will follow the same pattern.
1 2 3 4
46, 94, ____, 52, 61
(1) 1
(1) 32 (2) 63
(2) 2
(3) 72 (4) 90
(3) 3
183. Study the following figure and answer the question
given below (4) 4

188. In a certain code

Artists
4 17
(a) “134” means ‘you are well’
25 3
Players
8 (b) “758” means ‘they go home’
30 Doctors (c) “839” means ‘we are home’

Which of the following represents “they” in that code

How many doctors are neither artists nor players?
language?
(1) 17 (2) 5
(3) 10 (4) 30 (1) 5

184. Sachin is younger than Rahul by 7 years. If the ratio (2) 7

of their ages is 7 : 9, find the age of Sachin (in (3) 8
years).
(4) Data inadequate
(1) 24.5 (2) 25.5
189. Rakesh ranks 16th from the top and 49th from the
(3) 26.5 (4) 27.5
last in his class. How many students are there in
185. A train running at the speed of 40 km/hr crosses a the class?
pole in 9 seconds. Find the length of the train.
(1) 64
(1) 90 m (2) 150 m
(2) 65
(3) 120 m (4) 100 m
(3) 66
186. Which letter replaces the question mark?
(4) 63
4 9 9 16
190. Select the best alternative which fits in place of (?)
16 I L 25 mark.

B3D : E6G : : ? : K12M

16 O ? 49
(1) H8J
25 36 25 36 (2) H9J
(1) P (2) Q
(3) H7J
(3) R (4) S
(4) J8H
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Test-01 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017

ENGLISH AND COMPREHENSION

Directions (Q191 to Q193): Read the given passage and Directions (Q194 to Q196): Fill in the blanks with the most
answer the questions that follow. appropriate option to complete the passage.

The iconic twin towers of downtown Manhattan’s World The white elephant was originally sighted by us as a
Trade Centre were a triumph of human imagination and new born in 1933. She was 4 as an infant in a herd of
will. Completed in 1973, the towers stood at 110 stories 12 animals, when they came to drink at a watering place
each, accommodating 50,000 workers and 200,000 daily at dusk. There was another calf 5 same age in the
visitors in 10 million square feet of space. group and the difference in the two animals was very obvi-
They were the hub of the bustling Financial District, a top ous. Although we spent much time in the park on individual
tourist attraction and a symbol of New York City’s – and identification, and 6 on the lookout for the group, we
America’s – steadfast devotion to progress and the future. were not able to locate her thereafter.
On September 11, 2001, the World Trade Centre became
the target of a massive terrorist attack that took the lives of 194. (1) observed (2) sought
nearly 3,000 people. The disaster also radically altered the
(3) to be found (4) looked
skyline of New York City, destroying the twin columns of
glass and steel that over the years had come to embody 195. (1) at round the (2) of round
the city itself. (3) at about the (4) of about the
191. The primary purpose of the passage is to 196. (1) was (2) were
(1) Introduce the iconic World Trade Centre (3) have been (4) had been
(2) Illustrate the history of World Trade Centre Directions (Q197 & Q198): The following sentences have
been divided into parts and numbered as (1), (2), and (3)
(3) Reminiscence the Trade Centre
respectively. Identify the part that is not correct as per Stan-
(4) Outline the story of attack on World Trade dard English Usage. If there is no mistake in any part,
Centre choose option (4).
192. What does the author mean by ‘The disaster also 197. (1) This short play is about the calamities inflicted
radically altered the skyline of New York City’?
(2) by the sea on a family of
(1) New York lost its rich heritage because of the
attack on World Trade Centre (3) fishermen on an island to West of Ireland.

(2) The World Trade Centre became the lost symbol (4) No Error
of New York as an aftermath of the attack 198. (1) The typical job duties of chef also depend on
(3) The terrorist attack changed the very image of (2) the specific kitchen and what kind of
the New York sky as it no more had the twin (3) support team a chef had to work with.
towers, which earlier defined the city
(4) No Error
(4) New York mourned the loss of its symbol of art
Directions (Q199 & Q200): Identify the antonym of the
– the World Trade Centre – after the attack given capitalised word.
193. The twin towers exhibited 199. ENNOBLED
(1) The committed faithfulness of America towards (1) Conclude (2) Shrink
its development and future (3) Support (4) Demean
(2) The achievement of its creator’s vision and 200. LANGUID
determination
(1) Pale (2) Energetic
(3) The manifestation of life
(3) Fragile (4) Enthusiast
(4) Both (1) & (2)

  
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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-01 (Code A)

11/05/2017 Code - A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 200 Test Series : Test – 01 (Objective) Time : 150 Min.

(for JIPMER - 2017 )
ANSWERS
1. (3) 41. (3) 81. (3) 121. (2) 161. (3)
2. (3) 42. (2) 82. (1) 122. (3) 162. (4)
3. (4) 43. (4) 83. (2) 123. (2) 163. (3)
4. (3) 44. (2) 84. (1) 124. (4) 164. (3)
5. (4) 45. (4) 85. (4) 125. (1) 165. (2)
6. (3) 46. (4) 86. (2) 126. (3) 166. (2)
7. (4) 47. (3) 87. (2) 127. (3) 167. (4)
8. (2) 48. (4) 88. (2) 128. (2) 168. (2)
9. (4) 49. (1) 89. (1) 129. (4) 169. (3)
10. (1) 50. (1) 90. (4) 130. (4) 170. (3)
11. (2) 51. (2) 91. (1) 131. (4) 171. (3)
12. (3) 52. (3) 92. (2) 132. (1) 172. (2)
13. (1) 53. (4) 93. (2) 133. (3) 173. (4)
14. (4) 54. (3) 94. (4) 134. (4) 174. (4)
15. (4) 55. (1) 95. (1) 135. (2) 175. (2)
16. (2) 56. (3) 96. (4) 136. (4) 176. (4)
17. (1) 57. (2) 97. (3) 137. (4) 177. (2)
18. (4) 58. (4) 98. (2) 138. (3) 178. (4)
19. (4) 59. (4) 99. (2) 139. (4) 179. (2)
20. (2) 60. (4) 100. (1) 140. (2) 180. (4)
21. (1) 61. (3) 101. (3) 141. (3) 181. (4)
22. (4) 62. (4) 102. (1) 142. (1) 182. (2)
23. (4) 63. (3) 103. (1) 143. (4) 183. (1)
24. (4) 64. (2) 104. (4) 144. (1) 184. (1)
25. (1) 65. (2) 105. (1) 145. (3) 185. (4)
26. (3) 66. (1) 106. (1) 146. (1) 186. (3)
27. (1) 67. (3) 107. (2) 147. (1) 187. (4)
28. (2) 68. (3) 108. (4) 148. (3) 188. (4)
29. (3) 69. (3) 109. (3) 149. (4) 189. (1)
30. (2) 70. (2) 110. (3) 150. (2) 190. (2)
31. (3) 71. (3) 111. (1) 151. (1) 191. (1)
32. (1) 72. (2) 112. (1) 152. (1) 192. (3)
33. (3) 73. (3) 113. (1) 153. (1) 193. (4)
34. (3) 74. (4) 114. (3) 154. (4) 194. (1)
35. (4) 75. (1) 115. (2) 155. (2) 195. (4)
36. (2) 76. (2) 116. (1) 156. (1) 196. (2)
37. (4) 77. (4) 117. (3) 157. (4) 197. (3)
38. (2) 78. (1) 118. (1) 158. (3) 198. (3)
39. (2) 79. (1) 119. (2) 159. (2) 199. (4)
40. (2) 80. (1) 120. (2) 160. (4) 200. (2)

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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-01 (Code A)

11/05/2017 Code - A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 200 Test Series : Test – 01 (Objective) Time : 150 Min.

(for JIPMER - 2017 )

Answers and Hints

PHYSICS
1. Answer (3) 5. Answer (4)
2. Answer (3) 6. Answer (3)
l = (10.0 ± 0.1) cm
a = PV2
t = (0.100 ± 0.001) cm
b = (1.00 ± 0.01) cm b = V

Volume (V) = l × b × t
a
= PV = M1L2T–2
V ⎛ l b t ⎞ b
Error in volume is  ⎜   ⎟
V ⎝ l b t ⎠
7. Answer (4)

⎛ 0.1 0.01 0.001 ⎞ RC = t = T

 ⎜   ⎟
⎝ 10.0 1.00 0.100 ⎠ 8. Answer (2)
= ± 0.03 cm3
Maximum possible % error in X is
3. Answer (4)
4. Answer (3) X
= × 100 = (a  b  c  )
X
R v/8
9. Answer (4)
Q v/4
a
Snth = u + (2n – 1)
2
P v/2
a
2=0+ (2 × 1 – 1)
2
v
 a = 4 cm/s2

v 2  u2 v = u + at  0 + 4 × 4  16 cm/s
s (a = constant)
2a 10. Answer (1)

⎛v ⎞ ⎛v ⎞
2 2 2
⎛v ⎞ ⎛v ⎞
2 Component of A along iˆ  jˆ
⎜4⎟ ⎜2⎟ ⎜8⎟ ⎜4⎟
PQ  ⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ , QR  ⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ ⇒ PQ  4
2a 2a QR 1  

 A  Bˆ  A  B 
  
2iˆ  3 ˆj  iˆ  jˆ

5
|B| 2 2
(1)
Answers & Hints of Test-01 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
11. Answer (2) 19. Answer (4)
B
2u sin  2u y
Y Time of flight (T )  
g g
v0 u = 3iˆ  5 jˆ

vb
 45° 2×5
X uy = 5 m/s, T  1s
10
A v
20. Answer (2)
Let v 0 be the speed of boatman in still water.
Resultant of v 0 and v should be along AB. VM
Component of vb (absolute velocity of boatman) VM
along x and y direction are
53°
vx = v – v0sin, vy = v0cos
vy VR
tan45° =
vx VRM
VRM cos53° = VR ...(i)
v cos 
or, 1  0 VRM sin53° = VM ...(ii)
v  v 0 sin 
VM = 3 m/s
v v
v0   15
sin   cos  2 sin(  45) VRM = m/s
4
v0 is minimum at  + 45 = 90° or  = 45°
9
v VR = m/s
v0 min  4
2 21. Answer (1)

  
12. Answer (3)  
W F S 8iˆ  4 ˆj  3iˆ  3 jˆ
13. Answer (1) Power (P )  ⇒ ⇒
t t t
v2 = u2 – 2gh
24  12
v = 0, u = V0 ⇒ 0.6 
t
V0  2gh ⇒ t  20 s
22. Answer (4)
When h’ = 2h then V0'  2g (2h )  2 2gh
For shortest time the direction of man should be
= 2V0 perpendicular to river flow.
23. Answer (4)
14. Answer (4)
24. Answer (4)
15. Answer (4)
25. Answer (1)
16. Answer (2)
N
17. Answer (1)
18. Answer (4) f
g
1k
0.5
T Tcos60°
 =
60° sin
60°
mg
F
Tsin60° 37°
M
F
Net contact force (R) = N2  f 2
Tsin60° = F  T =
sin60 N = mgcos37° = 8 N
2F f = mgcos37° =4 N
T  N , Tcos60° = Mg
3
R  (8)2  (4)2  80  4 5 N
T = 2mg
(2)
Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-01 (Code A)
26. Answer (3) 39. Answer (2)
Work done = Area of (F-x) graph 40. Answer (2)
⎛1 ⎞ 41. Answer (3)
W  ⎜ × 5 × 20 ⎟   5 × 20 
⎝2 ⎠ P = Fv
= 50 + 100
C
= 150 J = v  C  constant
v
27. Answer (1) W = Pt
According to polygon law, resultant of four equal
W = Ct
forces, acting at 72° is along the fifth side of polygon
taken in opposite order. As F2 is acting along this 42. Answer (2)
side of polygon, therefore, net force on the particle du du
= F2 – F1 F  ⇒|F |   slope of U – x curve. Slope
dx dx
F2  F1 (F) is maximum at x = x2
Acceleration =
m 43. Answer (4)
28. Answer (2) Velocity of P after collision
29. Answer (3)
V1 
 m1  em2   u
30. Answer (2)
m1  m2
Change in momentum in one second
Velocity of Q after collision
F = change in momentum per bullet × no. of bullet
fired per second
V2 
 i  e  m1  u
= mv × n = mvn  m1  m2 
31. Answer (3)  m1 = m2
32. Answer (1)
V1 1  e
F – mg = ma ⇒ 
V2 1  e
8000 = 2000a  a = 4 m/s2
 u = velocity of P before collision
33. Answer (3)
44. Answer (2)
v2 = u2 – 2as
0 = (80)2 – 2 × a × 2
a = 1600 m/s2
O
34. Answer (3)
Displacement of the box relative to earth will be
 s1  s2  . Hence required work done m1x1  m2 x2  m3 x3
X cm 
   m1  m2  m3
W  F  (s1  s2 ) .
m(0)  m(2R )  m(4R ) 6mR
35. Answer (4)  
3m 3m
P2 = 2R
K.E. = : K.E  constant
2m 45. Answer (4)
P  m ⇒ P1 : P2 : m1 : m2
MR 2 5
I  2MR 2 ⇒ MR 2
36. Answer (2) 2 2
37. Answer (4) 46. Answer (4)
At the highest point net force is perpendicular to
g sin 
velocity. Acceleration on inclined plane a 
K2
38. Answer (2) 1 2
R
1
F
x3 g sin 60 g
a  m/s2
1 1 3
W  ∫ fdx  ∫ dx ⇒ w  x 2 1
x3 2
(3)
Answers & Hints of Test-01 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
47. Answer (3) 51. Answer (2)
g1 2
= g – R = 0
V
g
 ; v  R  gR
R 30°
1 2
K.E of rotation of earth = I A
2 R
1 2 MgR O B
× MR 2 × 2  h
=
2 5 5
Conservation of angular momentum of the body
48. Answer (4)
about O yields.
2v
(mVsin30°) R = mV(R + h)

v V V ⎡ V⎤
R  (R  h ) ⎢∵V '  4 ⎥
2 4 ⎣ ⎦
h=R

v=0 52. Answer (3)

49. Answer (1) 53. Answer (4)
   54. Answer (3)
r ×F
  dA L
  r and F   constant
dt 2m
50. Answer (1)
55. Answer (1)
GM
g0  2 56. Answer (3)
R
57. Answer (2)
g0
gn  2 58. Answer (4)
⎛ h⎞
⎜1  R ⎟ 59. Answer (4)
⎝ ⎠
Time period is independent of mass of satellite.
⎛ d⎞
gd  g0 ⎜ 1  ⎟ 60. Answer (4)
⎝ R ⎠

CHEMISTRY

61. Answer (3) 63. Answer (3)

Glucose = C6H12O6
NaCl  AgNO3  AgCl  NaNO3
molar mass = 180.0 g/mole
mmol of NaCl = 100 × 2 = 200
180 × 10 3 g = 200 × 10–3 mol
mole of glucose =  10 3
180 g / mole mol of AgCl = mol of NaCl = 2 × 10–1
mole of O atoms = 6 × 10–3 Mass of AgCl = 2 × 10–1 × (108 + 35.5)
No. of O atoms = 6.02 × 1023 × 6 × 10–3 = 2 × 10–1 × (143.5)
= 36.12 × 1020 = 28.7 g
= 3.6 × 1021 64. Answer (2)
62. Answer (4) 
CaCO3   CaO  CO2
mmol of NaCl = 100 × 0.5 mmol
40
= 50 mmol  0.71 moles
= 50 × 10–3 mol 56
65. Answer (2)
mmol of ions = 2 × 50 × 10–3 mol
= 100 × 10–3 = 10–1 mol 250 × 2 = (250 + 750) × M
No. of ion = 6.02 × 1023 × 10–1 250 × 2 500
M  0.5
= 6.02 × 1022 1000 1000
(4)
Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-01 (Code A)
66. Answer (1) 71. Answer (3)

⎛ y⎞ y mmol of HCl = 100 × 0.5 = 50 mmol

CxHy  ⎜ x  ⎟ O2  xCO2  H2O
⎝ 4⎠ 2 mmol of NaOH = 100 × 0.1 = 10 mmol
⎛ 8⎞ mmol of HCl remaining = (50 – 10) = 40 mmol
C3H8  ⎜ 3  ⎟ O2  3CO2  4  H2O
⎝ 4⎠ 40 = 200 × M
C3H8  5O2  3CO2  4  H2O 40
 M  0.2
440 200
 10 moles
44 72. Answer (2)
1 mole C3H8 requires 5 mol of O2 73. Answer (3)
10 mole C3H8 requires 50 mol of O2 74. Answer (4)
Volume occupied = 50 × 22.4 = 1120 L
H2SO4  2H  SO24
67. Answer (3)
5 × 10–3 M 2 × 5 × 10–3 M
N2 + 3H2  2NH3
= 10–2 M
56 pH = – log 10–2 = 2
= 2 moles
28
75. Answer (1)
3 moles of H2 react with 1 mole of N2 100 × 10–3 = (900 + 100) M
2 100 × 103
2 moles of H2 react with mol of N2 M
3 1000
H2 is limiting reagent. 10–4 = M
pH = 4
3 mol of H2 give 2 moles of NH3.
76. Answer (2)
2 4
2 mol of H2 give ×2= moles of NH3
3 3 HA  H  A 
4 C(1 – ) CC
Mass of NH3 = × 17 = 22.67 g
3
C  C
68. Answer (3) Ka   C2 [∵  << 1]
C(1   )
7 6
K MnO4  K 2 MnO4 Ka

69. Answer (3) C
COOH
.2H2O [H ]  C  K aC  4 × 10 –8 × 0.25  104
COOH 77. Answer (4)
126
eq. weight =  63 78. Answer (1)
2
Normality of oxalic acid = HF  H  F 
12.6 10
63  12.6 × 1000  0.4 0.1 0 0   0.1
100
500 63 500
(0.1 – 0.1 × 0.1) 0.01 0.01
1000
0.4 × 10 = 0.1 × V 1 × 102 × 1 × 102 1
Ka   × 104 × 102
40 = V 0.09 9
70. Answer (2) 10
Ka  × 103  1.11 × 103
CO : CO2 = 1 : 2 9
CO = 12 + 16 = 28 g (mol) 79. Answer (1)
CO2 = 12 + 32 = 44 g (mol) Ka = 103
1 2 – log Ka = – log103
Mole ratio = : = 11 : 14
28 44 pKa = – 3
(5)
Answers & Hints of Test-01 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
80. Answer (1) 86. Answer (2)
1 N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)
pH  7  pK a  logc  KP = KC(RT)ng ng = 2 – 4
2
1 KP = KC(RT)–2 =–2
= 7   logK a  log0.1
2 1 K
2
 C  (RT)2
(RT) KP
= 7
1
2

10  log(10)1  87. Answer (2)
1 88. Answer (2)
= 7 10  1
2 89. Answer (1)
= 7 + 4.5 = 11.5 Kp  pNH3  pH2S
81. Answer (3)
⎛1 ⎞ ⎛1 ⎞
CH3COOH + NaOH  CH3COO Na + H2O

= ⎜ 2 × 0.8 ⎟ × ⎜ 2 × 0.8 ⎟
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
30 × 0.3 30 × 0.1
= 0.4 × 0.4 = 0.16
= 9 mmol 3 mmol
90. Answer (4)
6 mmol 0
3 mol 91. Answer (1)
92. Answer (2)
[salt]
pH  pK a  log 2
[acid] sp
S
3
= 4.74  log O O
6
= 4.74 + log(2)–1 93. Answer (2)
= 4.74 – 1log2 94. Answer (4)
= 4.74 – 0.3010 = 4.4 95. Answer (1)
82. Answer (1) HC  C H
83. Answer (2) 96. Answer (4)
-
O
Al(OH)3  Al3   3OH 97. Answer (3)
S 3S 98. Answer (2)
3 Cl
Ksp = ⎡⎣ Al3  ⎤⎦ ⎡⎣OH⎤⎦ F
= (S)(3S)3 S
F
= 27 S4 Cl
84. Answer (1) 99. Answer (2)
100. Answer (1)
Ag2CO3  2Ag  CO32 E = z2 × (–3.41)
2S S = (3)2 × (–3.41)
2 = 9 × (–3.41) = – 30.69
K sp  ⎡⎣ Ag ⎤⎦ ⎡⎣CO32 ⎤⎦ 101. Answer (3)
= (2S)2 (S) z2
E  13.6 ×
= 4S3 = 108 × 10–12 n2
108 (2)2 4
S3  × 10 12 = 13.6 × 2
 13.6 ×  6.04
4 (3) 9
S3 = 27 × 10–12 102. Answer (1)
S=3× 10–4 1 ⎛ 1 1⎞
 RHz2 ⎜ 2  2 ⎟
85. Answer (4)  ⎜ ⎟
⎝ n1 n2 ⎠
Compound pKa
⎛ 1 1 ⎞
NH3 9.25 = RH (2)2 ⎜ 2  ⎟
CH3 – NH2 10.64 ⎝ (2) ( )2 ⎠
(CH3)2NH 10.77 1 1
 RH or 
Ph – NH2 4.62  RH
(6)
Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-01 (Code A)
103. Answer (1) 12
nHe  3
104. Answer (4) 4
nO2  nH2  nHe  2  5  3  10
105. Answer (1)
106. Answer (1) 5
pH2  ×2=1
10
107. Answer (2)
116. Answer (1)
108. Answer (4)
V2
109. Answer (3) W = –2.303nRT log V
1
110. Answer (3)
20
111. Answer (1) = – 2.303 × 2 × 8.314 × 298 log
10
W = – 2.303 × 2 × 8.314 × 298 × log2
PV  nRT  RT
M 117. Answer (3)
PM ⎛ W ⎞ 1 × 32 C 2 H 4 (g) + 3O 2 (g)  2CO 2 (g) + 2H 2 O(l)
   1.43
RT ⎜⎝ V ⎟⎠ 0.082 × 273 U = – 335.8 kcal

112. Answer (1) Number of moles of gaseous reactant = (1 + 3) = 4

Number of moles of gaseous product = 2
P1V1 = P2V2
n = (2 – 4) = – 2
PV 700 × 150
P1  2 2   1050 H = U + ngRT
V1 100
113. Answer (1) = – 335.8 + (–2)(2 × 10–3)(291)

1 1 = – 335.8 – 1.164 = – 336.96

rCH4  
16 4 = 337 kcal
1 1 118. Answer (1)
rSO2  
64 8
Total heat absorbed = Hfus. + Htemp.rise + Hvap
rCH4 1 1 1 8
   × 2 = (100 × 80) + (100 × 1 × 100)
rSO2 4 8 4 1
+ (100 × 540)
114. Answer (3)
= 8000 + 10000 + 54000
115. Answer (2)
= 72000 cal
64
nO2  2 = 72 kcal
32
119. Answer (2)
10
nH2  5 120. Answer (2)
2

BIOLOGY
121. Answer (2) 125. Answer (1)
Planaria (Flatworm) exhibites true regeneration. Red sea is caused by a BGA, Trichodesmium
erythraeum.
122. Answer (3)
126. Answer (3)
Based on study of both external and internal
structure of organism along with development 127. Answer (3)
process, cell structure, and ecological information of 128. Answer (2)
organisms. Perithecium - Neurospora, Claviceps
123. Answer (2) Ascostroma - Pleospora
124. Answer (4) 129. Answer (4)
Klebsiella is free living N2 - fixing bacteria. Laminaria is brown alga.
(7)
Answers & Hints of Test-01 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
130. Answer (4) 150. Answer (2)
131. Answer (4) 151. Answer (1)
Homosporous pteridophytes - Lycopodium, 152. Answer (1)
Dryopteris 153. Answer (1)
132. Answer (1)
Internal fertilisation is not the feature of all arthropods.
Pinus and Cedrus have branched stems.
154. Answer (4)
133. Answer (3)
155. Answer (2)
Future sporophyte - plumule, radicle, suspensor and
156. Answer (1)
cotyledons
157. Answer (4)
Female gametophyte - endosperm
158. Answer (3)
Parental sporophyte - testa, tegmen and perisperm
Birds have unidirectional respiration.
134. Answer (4)
159. Answer (2)
Fucus shows diplontic life cycle.
160. Answer (4)
135. Answer (2)
161. Answer (3)
136. Answer (4)
162. Answer (4)
137. Answer (4)
163. Answer (3)
Tinospora and Trapa - Assimilatory root
164. Answer (3)
138. Answer (3)
165. Answer (2)
139. Answer (4)
166. Answer (2)
Superimposed and opposite phyllotaxy - Guava,
Decussate and opposite phyllotaxy - Calotropis Epithelium tissues are avascular.
140. Answer (2) 167. Answer (4)
141. Answer (3) Erythropoiesis start in human in yolk sac then in
liver and spleen and finally in red bone marrow during
Monoadelphous - China rose.
embryonic development.
142. Answer (1)
168. Answer (2)
143. Answer (4)
169. Answer (3)
Sesbania and Muliathi are found in cruciferae or
brassicaceae. Belladonna is found in solanaceae. 170. Answer (3)
144. Answer (1) 171. Answer (3)
Colchicum autumnale (liliaceae, lily family)
172. Answer (2)
145. Answer (3)
173. Answer (4)
146. Answer (1)
147. Answer (1) 174. Answer (4)

148. Answer (3) 175. Answer (2)

Annual ring = Spring wood + Autumn wood 176. Answer (4)
20 = 10 + 10 177. Answer (2)
2000  2018 = 18 years
Inulin is a polymer of fructose.
18 + 10 = 28
178. Answer (4)
149. Answer (4)
Bark includes periderm, 1° and 2° phloem, pericycle, 179. Answer (2)
1° and 2° cortex. 180. Answer (4)

(8)
Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-01 (Code A)

LOGICAL AND QUANTITATIVE REASONING

181. Answer (4)
Distance
Speed =
182. Answer (2) Time

183. Answer (1)

5m
D = 40 × ×9
184. Answer (1) 18 s
If Rahul age is X years, then Sachin age is X – 7 186. Answer (3)
years.
187. Answer (4)
X 7 7
So,  188. Answer (4)
X 9
189. Answer (1)
185. Answer (4)
190. Answer (2)
We know that

ENGLISH AND COMPREHENSION

191. Answer (1) 198. Answer (3)

192. Answer (3) ‘has’ is required in place of ‘had’.

193. Answer (4) 199. Answer (4)
194. Answer (1) ‘ennobled’ means ‘to lend greater dignity’; ‘demean’
is ‘to discredit’.
195. Answer (4)

196. Answer (2) 200. Answer (2)

197. Answer (3) ‘languid’ means ‘pale, weak’; ‘energetic’ is the

opposite.
‘the’ is required before ‘West’.

(9)