AAE333 Fluid Mechanics Fall 2016

Homework #8 Solutions
Due: Friday, October 28, 2016
(4 problems worth 35 points)

1. [5 points] A car manufacturer uses a large wind tunnel for testing their cars at full scale. In the
tunnel, air at standard atmospheric conditions (p0=1.02×105 Pa, T0=20oC) is drawn into a
settling chamber and accelerated through a nozzle into the test section. Calculate the static
pressure, p, in the test section, and the relative pressure drop, (p0-p)/p0, required to generate
the air speed of 150 mph in the test section.
Be sure to list all the assumptions made in your solution and, wherever possible, the rationale
for making them.

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Solution:

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This is a Bernoulli equation problem. If the flow is irrotational, inviscid, steady,

incompressible, and has no body forces, Bernoulli’s equation is
1
𝑃 + 𝜌𝑉 2 = 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡
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2
for our problem, we can make the following assumptions.
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i) Steady - assume there is no time rate of change in the flow.

ii) 1D flow.
iii) Irrotational – assume there is not vorticity in the flow.
iv) Inviscid – assume that the thickness of the viscous boundary layer is negligible
compared with the tunnel width.
v) The flow is incompressible because M<0.3.
vi) No body force: gravity can be neglected assuming the tunnel is horizontal, so that h
(the altitude difference between the settling chamber and the test section) is zero.
vii) The flow is stagnant at the inlet plane of the wind tunnel.

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 AAE333 Fluid Mechanics Fall 2016

We will use Bernouli’s equation to find the pressure in the test section, but first we need to
know the density. Use the ideal gas law
𝑃 = 𝜌𝑅𝑇
where R is the specific gas constant
kg
𝑃0 (1.02×105 ) kg
m.s 2
𝜌= = 2
= 1.21 3
𝑅𝑇0 kg.m m
8314 2
( s .K.kmol) (293K)
kg
28.97
kmol

Now we can solve for the pressure in the test section

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1 1
𝑃0 + 𝜌𝑉0 2 = 𝑃 + 𝜌𝑉 2

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2 2

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V0 = 0, V = 150 mph = 67.1 m/s
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1 kg 1 kg m 2
𝑃 = 𝑃0 − 𝜌𝑉 2 = (1.02×105 ) − (1.21 ) (67.1 ) = 9.93×104Pa
2 m.s 2 2 m3 s
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which means the relative pressure drop is

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𝑃0 − 𝑃 1 2 (1.02×105Pa) − (9.93×104 Pa)

= 𝑃0 − 𝜌𝑉 = = .0318
𝑃0 2 (1.02×105Pa)
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2. [10 points] You learned that the lift per span of a spinning cylinder is the product of air density,
flight velocity, and circulation: L  V  . This is known as the Kutta-Joukowski (or
Zhukovsky) theorem. But students often wonder, “What if we made a spinning cylinder wing,
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how would that wing perform?” Drag predicted by our potential flow model is zero, which of
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course is wrong. So, if we rely on accumulated experimental data in NACA Technical Report
2960 by Gowen and Perkins from 1953, here:

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 AAE333 Fluid Mechanics Fall 2016

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We would quickly decide to approximately bound the drag as being described by a drag

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coefficient of as small as 0.3 and as large as 1.3.
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Consider an aircraft the size of a Next-Gen Boeing 737 but with a spinning cylinder instead of an
ordinary wing. Weight (and thus, the necessary lift) is 750 kN, wing span is 34 m (assume each
part of the span lifts equally well, which is wrong but you’ll learn why and how to correct for
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this in AAE 334), and cruise speed is 830 km/hr at altitude of 12.5 km where the air density is
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0.3 kg per cubic meter. For the spinning cylinder, it is the diameter which is analogous to the
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mean chord of a wing and is 3.68 meters.

a. Compute the circulation,  , necessary for a spinning cylinder of the same wingspan to
create the same lift that this wing does at the given speed and altitude.
b. Estimate the bounds of drag force on the spinning cylinder, in Newtons, based on the
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given bounds of drag coefficient. Note that the drag coefficient for a blunt body, like the
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cylinder, is typically based on frontal area, not planform area as used for wings.
Fortunately, for the circular cylinder, frontal and planform areas are both equal to the
product of span and diameter.
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c. What are the minimum and maximum lift to drag ratios of the spinning cylinder based on
drag in part b?
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d. How do the results of part c compare to the (estimated) actual lift to drag ratio of a Next-
Gen 737 which is around 17?
(Note that you can go to https://ntrs.nasa.gov/ to access the “NASA Technical Report Server” for
your other aerospace needs. You need not visit this site to complete this homework problem.)

Solution:

a) The equation relating lift to circulation, density, and velocity is

𝐿′ = 𝜌𝑉Γ
since the lift necessary is the same for both the wing and spinning cylinder, the density is the
same, and the air speed is the same, the circulation will be the same.

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 AAE333 Fluid Mechanics Fall 2016

1000N
750kN
( kN )
34m
L' m2
Γ= = = 319
𝜌𝑉 (. 3 kg ) (830 km hr 1000m) s
m 3 hr 3600s km

b)
1
𝐷 = 𝜌𝑉 2 𝑏𝑐𝐶𝐷
2

For the minimum and maximum values of the drag coefficient, CD=.3 and 1.3, the drag is:

1 kg km hr 1000m 2
𝐷 = (. 3 3 ) (830 ) (34m)(3.68m)(. 3) = 2.99×105 N
2 m hr 3600s km

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km hr 1000m 2

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1 kg
𝐷 = (. 3 3 ) (830 ) (34m)(3.68m)(1.3) = 1.30×106 N

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2 m hr 3600s km

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c) With the lift L=750 kN and the two limiting drag value, L/D is between 2.51 and 0.58
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d) L/D=0.58-2.51 is much lower than the estimated actual value of 17. Indeed, a well-
designed subsonic aircraft should have L/D=16-20. The very low L/D value we obtained
with the rotating cylinders is the reason that such lift-generation method is not practical.
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3. [10 points] Consider a Rankine Oval composed of a uniform flow with velocity V , a source
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with strength Q , and a sink with strength Q , such that Q  RV , where the distance
2
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between the source and sink on the x-axis is 2R .

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a. Write out the stream function of the system and derive the equation for the stagnation
streamline.
b. Derive the pressure coefficient along the stagnation streamline.
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c. Cast the stream function in nondimensional form with . Draw the

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streamlines with contour function in MATLAB. The stagnation streamline should be

in your figure.
d. If there is a wall below the horizontally-oriented oval, and its vertical distance to the
source is 3R , what is the new stream function?
Solution:

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 AAE333 Fluid Mechanics Fall 2016

a. We put the origin of the coordinates at (x=0, y=0). The source at (x=-R, y=0) and sink
at (x=R, y=0)
y

𝑙1 𝑙2

𝜃1 𝜃2
x
2R

Q Q
  V y  1   2
2 2

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Q  y  Q  y 
 V y  

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arctan 2  arctan 2  
2  x  R  2  xR

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It should be noted that we used atan2 here to account for different branches. Detail can

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be found at https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Atan2
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For example:
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Next, find the components of the velovity:

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 Q Q
u ( x, y )   V  cos 1  cos  2
y 2 ( x  R)  y
2 2
2 ( x  R) 2  y 2
Q( x  R) Q( x  R)
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 V  
2 [( x  R)  y ] 2 [( x  R) 2  y 2 ]
2 2
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 Q Q
v ( x, y )    sin 1  sin  2
x 2 ( x  R)  y 2 2
2 ( x  R) 2  y 2
Qy Qy
 
2 [( x  R)  y ] 2 [( x  R) 2  y 2 ]
2 2

We can now find stagnation points:

 QR  QR
u ( x, y )  0  x1    R2  x2   R2
    V and   V
 v ( x, y )  0  
 y1  0  y2  0

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 AAE333 Fluid Mechanics Fall 2016

One of the stagnation points is upstream of the source. The other one is downstream of
the sink.
Calculate the stream function for the two stagnation points:
Q Q
 ( x1 , y1 )   2   2  0
2 2
Thus, the function of stagnation streamline:
Q
 ( x, y )  V y  (1   2 )  0
2
2 V y 4 V y
 1   2  
Q 3R

b. According to Bernoulli’s equation:

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p  p V2  V 2 u 2  v2

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Cp    1 

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V2 V2 V2

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2

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To make the calculation more concise, we denote l1  ( x  R)2  y 2 , l2  ( x  R)2  y 2
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2 2
 Q  cos 1 cos  2    Q  sin 1 sin  2  
C p  1  1         
 2 V  l1 l2    2 V  l1 l2  
Q2  1 1 2  Q  cos 1 cos  2 
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 2 2  2  2  cos(1   2 )     
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4 V  l1 l2 l1l2   V  l1 l2 
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c. Nondimensional form:
Q  y  Q  y 
  V Ry  arctan 2   arctan 2  
2  x  1  2
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 x 1 
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 AAE333 Fluid Mechanics Fall 2016

Example code:
%% AAE333 HW8
clear
clc
%note: this values given won't influence the shape of streamline if
%coordinates are nondimensionalized
Vinf = 1;
R = 1;
%
Q = 1.5*R*Vinf;
x0 = -sqrt(Q*R/pi/Vinf+R)/R;
y0 = 0;
x = -2:.01:2;
x = sort([x x0]);
y = -1:.01:1;
y = sort([y y0]);
[X,Y] = meshgrid(x,y);
psi = Vinf*R*Y+Q/2/pi*atan2(Y,X+1)-Q/2/pi*atan2(Y,X-1);
v = -5:.1:5; %contour level
figure(2)
contour(X,Y,psi,v)
axis equal
xlabel('x/R')

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ylabel('y/R')

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d. If there is a wall below source and sink, we need to add the mirror images of source

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and sink that are 6R below the original source and sink. We keep the same coordinate

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system, and the new stream function should be:

  V y 
Q 
rs e  y 
arctan 2 
 y 
  arctan 2 
 y  6R 
  arctan 2 
 y  6R  
  arctan 2  
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2   xR  xR  xR   x  R 
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 AAE333 Fluid Mechanics Fall 2016

4. [10 points] We wish to represent flow through the sketched constriction in an otherwise
straight, parallel-wall, two-dimensional channel of height Y. Flow through the channel is
inviscid, incompressible and uniform far upstream with velocity V. One way to study this
problem is to introduce a concentrated vortex at a height Y above the lower wall. You will
need to install an appropriate image to complete the system.

a) Write a formula for the stream function ψ of the complete flow; check that ψ is constant at
the lower wall.
b) Find the strength Γ needed for a given constriction height H.
c) Find the velocities at points A and B. Which one is higher?
d) Is the flow irrotational everywhere? Why?

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Solution:
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a) The channel wall is modeled by including an image of Γ of opposite strength below the wall.
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Γ Γ
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𝜓 = 𝑉∞ 𝑦 + ln(𝑟1 ) − ln(𝑟2 )
2𝜋 2𝜋
Γ 𝑟1
𝜓 = 𝑉∞ 𝑦 + ln ( )
2𝜋 𝑟2
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Check that 𝜓 is constant along the wall. At 𝑦 = 0, 𝑟1 = 𝑟2 :

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𝜓 = 0 + 0 = 0 → 𝜓 = 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡
b) At point B,
Γ 𝑌−𝐻
𝜓 = 𝑉∞ 𝐻 + ln ( )
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2𝜋 𝑌+𝐻
Method 1.
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From the definition of the stream function:

𝜓𝑢𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟−𝑤𝑎𝑙𝑙 − 𝜓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟−𝑤𝑎𝑙𝑙 =Volume flow of the channel
[𝜓𝑢𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟−𝑤𝑎𝑙𝑙 − 𝜓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟−𝑤𝑎𝑙𝑙 ]@𝐵 = 𝑉∞ 𝑌
𝜓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟−𝑤𝑎𝑙𝑙 |@𝐵 = 0 from part (a)
Therefore,
Γ 𝑌−𝐻
𝑉∞ 𝐻 + ln ( ) = 𝑉∞ 𝑌
2𝜋 𝑌+𝐻
1
Γ = 2𝜋𝑉∞ (𝑌 − 𝐻)
𝑌−𝐻
ln (𝑌 + 𝐻 )

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 AAE333 Fluid Mechanics Fall 2016

Method 2.
The point (𝑥 → −∞, 𝑦 = 𝑌) and point B are on the same streamline. Thus they have the
same value of streamline function.
Γ 𝑌−𝐻
𝜓(𝑥 → −∞, 𝑦 = 𝑌) = 𝑉∞ 𝑌 = 𝑉∞ 𝐻 + ln ( )
2𝜋 𝑌+𝐻
The solutions are the same.
c) Velocity at A and B has only x-component. Denote the tangential velocity induced by
the two vortexes are 𝑢𝑟1 and 𝑢𝑟2
Γ −Γ Γ
𝑉𝐴 = 𝑉∞ + 𝑢𝑟1 − 𝑢𝑟2 = 𝑉∞ + (− ) − (− ) = 𝑉∞ −
2𝜋𝑌 2𝜋𝑌 𝜋𝑌
Γ −Γ Γ𝑌 Γ
𝑉𝐵 = 𝑉∞ + (− ) − (− ) = 𝑉∞ − = 𝑉∞ −
2𝜋(𝑌 − 𝐻) 2𝜋(𝑌 + 𝐻) 𝜋(𝑌 2 − 𝐻2 ) 𝐻2
𝜋 (𝑌 − 𝑌 )
𝐻2

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Since 𝑌 > 𝑌 − , <

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𝑌 𝜋𝑌 𝐻2
𝜋(𝑌− )
𝑌

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Γ Γ

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Γ<0→ − <− → 𝑉𝐴 < 𝑉𝐵
𝜋𝑌𝐻2
𝜋 (𝑌 − 𝑌 )

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d) The flow in the channel is the superposition of the elementary potential flow.
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Therefore it is still irrotational flow.
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