I Building Materials:

1 Which test is used to find the rate of wear of stones?

a) Crushing test
b) Abrasion test
c) Attrition test ü
d) Acid test

2 What is Crushing test

Crushing test is used to find cru

3 What is Abrasion test

Abrasion test is to find suitabil

4 What is Acid test

Acid test is used to find the qu

5 In a mortar, the binding material is

a. cement ü
b. sand
c. surkhi
d. cinder.

6 The initial setting time of lime-pozzolana, is

a. 30 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 90 minutes
d. 120 minutes ü
7 The rocks which are formed due to cooling of magma at a considerable depth from earth's surface are called
a. Plutonic rocks ü
b. Hypabyssal rocks
c. Volcanic rocks
d. Igneous rocks.

8 Quartzite is a
a. metamorphic rock
b. argillaceous rock
c. calcareous rock
d. silicious rock. ü
9 Sand stone is
A. sedimentary rock ü
 B. metamorphic rock
C. igneous rock
D. volcanic rock.

10 Geologically, marble is known as

A. sedimentary rock
B. igneous rock
C. metamorphic rock ü
D. stratified rock.

11 The rocks formed by gradual deposition, are called

A. sedimentary rocks ü
B. igneous rocks
C. metamorphic rocks
D. none of these.

12 The rocks in which argil (or clay) predominates, are called

A. sillicious rocks
B. argillaceous rocks ü
C. calcareous rocks
D. igneous rocks.

13 Refractory bricks are used for

A. retaining walls
B. columns
C. piers
D. combustion chambers. ü
14 The rock generally used for roofing, is
A. granite
B. basalt
C. slate ü
D. pumice.

15 Seasoning is
A. a process of removing sap ü
B. creosoting
C. painting with sodium silicate
D. coating with tar.

16 Rocks formed due to alteration of original structure due to heat and excessive pressure are called
A. sedimentary rocks
B. igneous rocks
 C. metamorphic rocks ü
D. none of these.

17 The standard size of masonry bricks, is

A. 18 cm x 8 cm x 8 cm
B. 19 cm x 9 cm x 9 cm ü
C. 20 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm
D. 21 cm x 11 cm x 11 cm
E. none of these.

18 Initial setting of cement is caused due to

A. Tri-calcium silicate
B. Di-calcium silicate
C. Tri-calcium aluminate ü
D. Tetra calcium alumino ferrite.

19 Knots in timber are

A. defects caused by crushing fibres
B. splits radiating from the centre
C. speckled strains
D. signs of branches cut off. ü
20 The hardest rock is
A. marble
B. diamond ü
C. talc
D. quartz.
 Crushing test is used to find crushing strength of stones.

Abrasion test is to find suitability of stone for road work.

Acid test is used to find the quality of the stone.

m earth's surface are called

sure are called
1 The intercept of a staff
A. is maximum if the staff is held truly normal to the line of sight.
B. is minimum if the staff is held truly normal to the line of sight.
C. decreases if the staff is tilted away from normal
D. increases if the staff is tilted towards normal.

2 Hydrographic surveys deal with the mapping of

A. large water bodies
B. heavenly bodies
C. mountaineous region
D. canal system
E. movement of clouds.

3 If a 30 m chain diverges through a perpendicular distance d from its correct alignment, the error in length, is
A. d2 /60
B. d2 /30
C. d2 /40
D. d/30
E. d/30

4 An imaginary line joining the points of equal elevation on the surface of the earth, represents
A. contour surface
B. contour gradient
C. contour line
D. level line
E. none of these

5 Closed contours of decreasing values towards their centre, represent

A. a hill
B. a depression
C. a saddle or pass
D. a river bed.

6 If θ is the vertical angle of an inclined sight, δ is the angle of tilt of the staff, the error

A.

B.

C.
 D. none of these.

7 While viewing through a level telescope and moving the eye slightly, a relative movement occurs between the im
A. correctly focussed
B. not correctly focussed
C. said to have parallax
D. free from parallax.

8 Two hill tops A and B 20 km apart are intervened by a third top C. If the top most contour of the three hill tops ar
A. passes clear of hill top C
B. passes below the hill top C
C. grazes the hill top C
D. none of these

9 Surveys which are carried out to depict mountains, rivers, water bodies, wooded areas and other cultural details
A. cadastral surveys
B. city surveys
C. topographical surveys
D. guide map surveys
E. plane surveys.

10 In levelling operation,
A. The first sight on any change point is a back sight
B. The second sight on any change point is a fore sight
C. The line commences with a fore sight and closes with a back sight
D. The line commences with a back sight and closes with a foresight.

11 Systematic errors are those errors

A. which cannot be recognised
B. whose character is understood
C. whose effects are cumulative and can be eliminated
D. none of these.

12 If L is in kilometres, the curvature correction is

A. 58.2 L2 mm
B. 64.8 L2 mm
C. 74.8 L2 mm
D. 78.4 L2 mm.

13 The horizontal angle between true meridian and magnetic meridian, is known
A. bearing
B. magnetic declination
C. dip
 D. convergence.

14 Accuracy of elevation of various points obtained from contour map is limited to

A. of the contour interval

B. th of the contour interval

C. rd of the contour interval

D. th of the contour interval.

15 If V is the speed of a locomotive in km per hour, g is the acceleration due to gravity,

G is the distance between running faces of the rails and R is the radius of the circular curve,
the required super elevation is

A.

B.

C.

D.

16 What is the procedure for GPS survey

17 Contour lines of different elevations can unite to form one line, only in the case of
A. a vertical cliff
B. a saddle
C. a water shed line
D. a hill top.

18 The boundary of water of a still lake, represents

A. level surface
B. horizontal surface
C. contour line
 D. a concave surface

19 The curvature of the earth's surface, is taken into account only if the extent of survey is more than
A. 100 sq km
B. 160 sq km
C. 200 sq km
D. 260 sq km.

20 The imaginary line passing through the intersection of cross hairs and
the optical centre of the objective, is known as
A. line of sight
B. line of collimation
C. axis of the telescope
D. none of these.

21 Ranging is an operation of
A. reconnaissance
B. judging the distance
C. determination of slope
D. establishing intermediate points between terminals.

22 Straight, parallel and widely spaced contours represent

A. a steep surface
B. a flat surface
C. an inclined plane surface
D. curved surface.

23 The constant vertical distance between two adjacent contours, is called

A. horizontal interval
B. horizontal equivalent
C. vertical equivalent
D. contour interval
E. contour gradient.

24 The bubble in a total station is centralised using:

a) Tripod
b) Levelling screw
c) Tangent screw
d) Foot screw
 ü

ment, the error in length, is

ü

h, represents

ü
ovement occurs between the image of the levelling staff and the cross hairs. The instrument is

contour of the three hill tops are of the same value, state whether the line of sight AB

ü
Due to curvature of the earth

areas and other cultural details, are known as

ü
ü

ü
rvey is more than

ü
1 The minimum water content at which the soil just begins to crumble
when rolled into threads 3 mm in diameter, is known
A. liquid limit
B. plastic limit
C. shrinkage limit
D. permeability limit.

2 The lateral earth pressure on a retaining wall

A. is equal to mass of the soil retained
B. proportional to the depth of the soil
C. proportional to the square of the depth of the soil
D. proportional to the internal friction of the soil
E. none of these.

3 The ratio of the volume of voids to the volume of soil solids in a given soil mass, is known
A. porosity
B. specific gravity
C. void ratio
D. water content

4 The liquid limit and plastic limit exist in

A. sandy soils
B. silty soils
C. gravel soils
D. clay soils.

5 Failure of the stability of slopes, generally occurs along

A. slip plane
B. a horizontal surface
C. a curved surface
D. all the surfaces.

6 Buoyant unit weight equals the saturated density

A. multiplied by unit weight of water
B. divided by unit weight of water
C. plus unit weight of water
D. minus unit weight of water.

7 According to the Indian Standards the specific gravity is the ratio of

the unit weight of soil solids to that of water at a temperature of
A. 17°C
B. 23°C
 C. 27°C
D. 30°

8 The vane shear test is used for the in-situ determination of the
undrained strength of the intact fully saturated
A. sands
B. clays
C. gravels
D. highly organic soils.

9 The plasticity index is the numerical difference between

A. liquid limit and plastic limit
B. plastic limit and shrinkage limit
C. liquid limit and shrinkage limit
D. none of these.

10 The ultimate bearing capacity of a soil, is

A. total load on the bearing area
B. safe load on the bearing area
C. load at which soil fails
D. load at which soil consolidates.

11 Cohesive soils are generally

A. plastic and also compressible
B. elastic and also compressible
C. plastic but incompressible
D. none of these.

12 If the coefficient of the active pressure Ka is 1/3, the coefficient of passive pressure Kp, is
A. 1/3
B. 2/3
C. 1
D. 3/2
E. 3.00

13 The ratio of the volume of water present in a given soil mass to the total volume of its voids, is known
A. porosity
B. void ratio
C. percentage voids
D. degree of saturation.

14 The angle of internal friction, is least for

A. angular-grained loose sand
 B. angular -grained dense sand
C. round-grained loose sand
D. round-grained loose sand
E. clays.

15 The coefficient ka of the active earth pressure, is given by

A.

B.

C.

D.

16 On wetting, cohesive soils,

A. loose permeability
B. gain shear strength
C. loose elasticity
D. decrease their shear strength.

17 Pick up the cohesive soil from the following:

A. Red earth
B. Clay
C. Black cotton soil
D. Compacted ground.

18 The angle of internal friction of clays, is usually

A. 0° to 5°
B. 5° to 20°
C. 20° to 30°
D. 30° to 45°

19 Failure of a slope occurs only when total applied shear force is

A. equal to total shearing strength
B. greater than total shearing strength
C. less than total shearing strength
D. none of these.

20 Cohesionless soil is
A. sand
 B. silt
C. clay
D. clay and silt.

21 The maximum pressure which a soil can carry without shear failure, is called
A. safe bearing capacity
B. net safe bearing capacity
C. net ultimate bearing capacity
D. ultimate bearing capacity.

22 The water content in a soil sample when it continues to loose weight without loosing the volume, is called
A. Shrinkage limit
B. Plastic limit
C. liquid limit
D. semi-solid limit

23 When a cohesionless soil attains quick condition, it looses

A. shear strength
B. bearing capacity
C. both (a) and (b)
D. neither (a) nor (6).

24 What are the various types of foundations

ü

ü
 ü

ü
ds, is known

ü
ü

ü
 ü

volume, is called
ü

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1 What are the various Grades of concrete

2 What is the meaning of grade of concrete

3 What is the ratio of sand, cement and gravel in M20 grade concrete

4 In the ratio 1:4:8, which number indicates the quantity of fine aggregates?
a) 1
b) 4
c) 8
d) None

5 What is the procedure of calcualting the quantity of cement, sand and gravel in x m 3 of conrete

6 With storage, strength of cement

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. none to these.

7 Minimum required water cement ratio for a workable concrete, is

A. 0.3
B. 0.4
C. 0.5
D. 0.6
E. 1.0.

8 The commonly used raw material in the manufacture of cement, is

A. slate
B. sand stone
C. lime stone
D. basalt.

9 Index number expressing the relative sizes of both coarse and fine aggregates, is called
A. proportioning of aggregates
 B. fineness modulus
C. grading of aggregates
D. none of these.

10 Slump test for concrete is carried out, to determine

A. strength
B. durability
C. workability
D. water content.

11 A stone is rejected if it absorbs water more than

A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
E. 25%.

12 The weight of a good quality brick when immersed in water

for a period of 16 hours should not exceed the weight of dry brick
A. 20%
B. 15%
C. 10%
D. None of thes

13 The base material for distemper, is

A. chalk
B. lime
C. lime putty
D. cement wash.

14 To retard the initial setting time of cement, the compound responsible, is

A. Tricalcium silicate
B. Gypsum
C. Di-calcium silicate
D. Tri calcium aluminate.

15 Stones used for rubble masonry must be

A. sof
B. hard
C. light
D. heavy.

16 The coefficient of hardness of stones used in road work should be greater than
 A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. 17

17 According to IS 399-1963, the weight of the timber is specified at

A. 8% moisture content
B. 10% moisture content
C. 12% moisture content
D. 14% moisture content.

18 The rocks formed from molten magma, are called

A. sedimentary rocks
B. igneous rocks
C. metamorphic rocks
D. none of these.

19 Afer how many days is the strength of cement is tested and graded according to the result?
a) 7 days
b) 28 days
c) 1 day
d) 14 days

20 Grade 43 OPC shall be rejected if it remains in bulk storage in the factory for:
a) More than 3 months
b) More than 1 month
c) More than 6 months
d) More than 4 months

21 What is the abbreviation of PPC?

a) Perfect Portland Cement
b) Portland Produced Cement
c) Portland Pozzolana Cement
d) Productive Portland Cement

22 Which of the following types of cement is used in marine structures?

a) Expanding cement
b) High alumina cement
c) Blast furnace slag cement
d) White cement

23 The aggregate sample for the sieve analysis is placed on:

a) Largest sieve
 b) Smallest sieve
c) 40mm IS sieve
d) 4.75mm IS sieve

24 For how long is the mechanical vibrator shaked?

a) 15-20 minutes
b) 5 minutes
c) 10-15 minutes
d) 30 minutes

25 The minimum crushing strength of First, Second & third class brick is:
a) 3.5 N/mm2 3rd Class bricks
b) 7 N/mm2 2nd Class bricks
c) 10 N/mm2 1st Class bricks
d) 20 N/mm2

26 Fine Aggregates should pass through which IS sieve?

a) 2.35mm
b) 45µ
c) 4.75mm
d) 75µ

27 Moist curing of the exposed surfaces of concrete is done at least for

A. 3 days
B. 5 days
C. 7 days
D. 14 days

28 The minimum compressive strength on 15 cm cubes of M 30 grade concrete at 7 days, should be a minimum of
A. 7 N/mm2
B. 10 N/mm2
C. 20 N/mm2
D. 30 N/mm2
ü

ü
ü

ü
ü

ü
have less heat of hydration and are not affected by sea water

ü
 ü

ü
ü
ü

ü
4.75mm IS sieve is the aggregate size deciding sieve.
Anything retained on sieve is coarse aggregate and the ones that pass through sieve are fine aggregates.

ys, should be a minimum of

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ough sieve are fine aggregates.
1 The maximum area of compression reinforcement in a beam of cross section B x D is limited to
A. 0.02 BD
B. 0.03 BD
C. 0.04 BD
D. 0.05 BD

2 If fck is the characteristic cube strength of concrete in N/mm2, the modulus of elasticity of
structural concrete Ec = a times square root of fck where the value of a, is
A. 5900
B. 5800
C. 5700
D. 5600
E. 5500

3 The effective depth of a shallow beam is the distance between

A. maximum compression and tension fibres
B. neutral axis and maximum compression fibre
C. neutral axis and maximum tension fibre
D. maximum compression fibre and the centroid of the tension reinforcement
E. none of these.

4 For all practical purposes, the modulus of elasticity of steel is assumed

A. 200 kN/mm2
B. 225 kN/mm2
C. 250 kN/mm2
D. 275 kN/mm2

5 For spans upto 10 m,

A. the safe span to depth ratio for cantilever is 7
B. the safe span to depth ratio for simply supported beams is 20
C. the safe span to depth ratio for continuous beams is 26

6 The pitch of transverse reinforcement of a column is taken as

A. least lateral diamension of the compression member
B. sixteen times the smallest diameter of the longitudinal reinforcement of the column
C. forty eight times the diameter of the transverse reinforcement
D. least value of the above.

If the ends of the compression flanges of simply supported girders are fully restrained against lateral
7 bending, the effective length is taken as
A. span
B. 0.85 x span
 C. 0.7 x span
D. 0.5 x span

8 The greater clear dimension of web of thickness't' should not exceed

A. 180 t
B. 200 t
C. 240 t
D. 270 t

9 The characteristic strength of concrete is the strength of material if its test result is not less than
A. 2%
B. 3%
C. 4%
D. 5%
E. 10%

10 The staggered pitch is the distance between two consecutive rivets measured
A. parallel to the direction of stress in the member
B. perpendicular to the direction of stress in the member
C. diagonally
D. none of these.

11 The compression in PSC is done by _________ of high-strength tendons.

a) Compression
b) Tensioning
c) Shearing
d) Bending

12 R.C.C. was developed and first used by:

a) Joseph Monier
b) John Smeaton
c) Francois Coignet
d) Joseph Asphadin

13 If W is the load on a circular slab of radius R, the

maximum circumferential moment at the centre of the slab, is

A.

B.
 C.

D. zero
E. none of these.

14 The effective span of a simply supported slab, is

A. distance between the centres of the bearings
B. clear distance between the inner faces of the walls plus twice the thickness of the wall
C. clear span plus effective depth of the slab
D. none of these.

15 f the permissible compressive stress for a concrete in bending is C kg/m2, the modular ratio is
A. 2800/C
B. 2300/2C
C. 2800/3C
D. 2800/C2

16 If d and n are the effective depth and depth of the neutral axis respectively
of a singly reinforced beam, the lever arm of the beam, is
A. d
B. n

C.

D.

E.

17 A continuous beam shall be deemed to be a deep beam

if the ratio of effective span to overall depth, is
A. 2.5
B. 2
C. less than 2
D. less than 2.5

18 The point of contraflexure is the point where

A. B.M. changes sign
B. B.M. is maximum
C. B.M. is minimum
D. S.F. is zero.
19 The radius of gyration of a section of area A
and least moment of inertia I about the centroidal axis, is

A.

B.

C.

D.

20 A simply supported beam carries varying load from zero at one end
and w at the other end. If the length of the beam is a, the maximum bending moment will be

A.

B.

C.

D.

21 A Hoop strain of the walls of a cylinder due to liquid is

Longitudinal strain in the walls of a cylinder due to liquid is

B.

Volumetric change in the cylinderdue to liquid is

C.

22 A truss containing j joints and m members, will be a simple truss if

A. m = 2j - 3
B. j = 2m - 3
C. m = 3j - 2
D. j = 3m - 2
23 A steel rod 1 metre long having square cross section is pulled under a tensile load of 8 tonnes.
The extension in the rod was 1 mm only. If Esteel = 2 x 106 kg/cm2, the side of the rod, is
A. 1 cm
B. 1.5 cm
C. 2 cm
D. 2.5 cm

24 The maximum deflection due to a uniformly distributed load of

w/unit length over entire span of a cantilever of length land of flexural rigidly EI, is

A.

B.

C.

D.

25 The force in AD of the truss shown in given figure, is

A. 4.0t compression
B. 3.0t compression
C. 0.5t compression
D. 0.5t tension
E. zero.

26 W
w t/m

L L

SFD SFD

SF W/2 SF wL2 / 2

BMD BMD
 BM WL BM wL2
4 8
Deflection WL3 Deflection 5wL4
48EI 384EI

27 W
w t/m

L L

SFD SFD

SF W SF wxL

BMD BMD

BM WxL BMD w x L2 / 2

Deflection WL3 Deflection w x L4

3EI 8EI

28 W w t/m

H L
SFD SFD

BMD BMD

Deflection Deflection
n B x D is limited to

s of elasticity of

nforcement ü

ü
ü
ü

ement of the column

restrained against lateral

 ü

ü
result is not less than

ü
 ü

ü
he thickness of the wall

he modular ratio is

ü
 ü

ng moment will be

ü
 e load of 8 tonnes.
e of the rod, is

ü
 Time Score
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Prashant 4 4 3 3 3 4 4