1. What is the practice of branching code in a version control system?

Choose one answer

A) ☐ Releasing a specific codebase into a production environment
B) ☐ Tagging or labeling a particular codebase as ready for distribution
C) ☐ Combining two or more branches of code into a single codebase
D)  Creating a copy of existing code, isolated from the original code
2. Who write tests in a Scrum
Choose one answer
A) ☐ QA Specialists
B) ☐ The Scrum Master
C) ☐ Coders
D)  The Development Team
3. Which metric is LEAST useful when measuring code maintainability?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Depth of inheritance
B) ☐ Cyclomatic Complexity
C) ☐ Function Points
4. A product increment must be released to production at the end of each Sprint
Choose one answer
A) ☐ True
B) ☐ False
5. What is static analysis
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Analysis performed on code
B) ☐ Work performed by a business analyst
C) ☐ Analysis performed on software at runtime
D) ☐ A tool that inspects the correctness of static classes
6. When does the Development Team show their work to the Product Owner?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ During the Sprint Review
B) ☐ Whenever the Product Owner asks
C) ☐ Anytime the Development Team needs feedback from the Product Owner
D) ☐ All of the above.
7. When is performance testing most effectively performed?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ In Production
B) ☐ Often, throughout development of the software
C) ☐ Just before deploying to production.
D) ☐ After coding is complete.
8. Programmers and testers should be included in Product Backlog refinement.
Choose one answer.
A) ☐ True
B) ☐ False
9. Based on “Sprint 7 Burn-Down Chart” would you do anything different in Sprint 8? (Choose 2 answers)

Choose 2 answer
A) ☐ The Scrum Master adds additional developers for Sprint 8
B) ☐ There is nothing wrong, The Development Team will present all Product Backlog Items selected for
Sprint 7 at the end of Sprint
C) ☐ The Development Team may forecast less overall work 8
D) ☐ The Development Team carries over incomplete Sprint Backlog Items from Sprint 7 to Sprint 8 and
monitors 8 burn-down chart. As soon as deviation from trends is detected, the
E) ☐ Stakeholders will encourage the development team to estimate better during the sprint 8 planning
meeting
F) ☐ The Development Team re-estimates incomplete Product Backlog items and puts them back into the
Product Backlog for re-ordering. The Product Owner may ask the development Team to complete the
unfinished Product Backlog Items from Sprint 7 in Sprint 8
10. What are the top 3 benefits of a good definition of “Done”?
Choose 3 answer
A) ☐ Clear communication of the Development Team quality standards
B) ☐ An ongoing strategy or technique for steadily addressing technical debt.
C) ☐ A full description of test steps
D) ☐ Guidance on the specific patterns to the implemented in code
E)  A fully integrated increment by the end of each Sprint
11. Which are three attributes of a bad bug report?
Choose 3 answer
A) ☐ Vague statements or untested assumptions
B) ☐ Simple and repeatable reproduction steps
C) ☐ Assigning blame.
D) ☐ One bug per report.
E) ☐ Generic Titles
12. What describe the practice of expressing requirements as acceptance tests?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Quality Oriented Requirements Definition
B) ☐ Acceptance Test Driven Development
C) ☐ Regression Testing
D) ☐ Object Drive Requirements Definition
13. What is pair programming?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Managers doing performance reviews by comparing one programmer’s code to another’s
B) ☐ A developer and a tester work together to write and test code
C) ☐ Two developers writing code together, providing constant peer review
 D) ☐ Two programmers write code separately. A third programmer integrates the work.
E) ☐ The Scrum Team is divided into several two-person Development Teams that consolidated work in a
Scrum of Scrums.

14. What is a mock object?

Choose one answer
A) ☐ A test object that mimics the behavior of a dependency in the system under test.
B) ☐ A mock helps you create a build script.
C) ☐ A mock is a way to initialize for testing.
D) ☐ Mocks, stubs, dummies, fakes, and shims are all the same.
15. Your Development Team is one of seven teams working on a product. All teams use the same version
control system. Which is the best approach to deliver a high-quality Increment?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Each team’s automated build is integrated toward the end of the Sprint.
B) ☐ Each team should have its own automated build.
C) ☐ Developers should perform a combination of local and private builds.
D) ☐ There is one automated build for all teams.
16. What does Code Coverage show?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ When a feature is done.
B) ☐ Code being exercised by tests.
C) ☐ The absence of defects in code.
D) ☐ The ratio of the number of tests to lines in the system being tested.
E) ☐ The quality of unit tests to lines of code in the system being tested.
17. Why does a test written using TDD (Test Driven Development) always fail?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Because the product code to satisfy the test does not yet exist.
B) ☐ Because it has to be into an automated test harness to be run.
C) ☐ Because the test has not been refactored.
D) ☐ Because the tests are checked in before the product code exists.
18. When can a Development Team cancel a Sprint?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ It can’t only Product Owners can cancel Sprint.
B) ☐ When functional expectations are not well understood.
C) ☐ When the Project Owner is absent too often.
D) ☐ When the selected Product Backlog items for the Sprint become unachievable.
E) ☐ When a technical dependency cannot be resolved.
19. Which of the following describes an architecture spike?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ A fundamental architectural problem found in an existing application.
B) ☐ A small development activity to learn about technical elements of a proposed solution.
C) ☐ The result of an exhaustive architectural planning effort.
D) ☐ A decision made by a systems architect to settle disagreement within a Development team.
20. What is the role of modeling in Scrum Teams?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Models are maintained along with the software as it emerges.
B) ☐ Models are not used by agile teams.
C) ☐ Modeling may be useful to increase shared understanding.
D) ☐ Models are assembly instructions for the Development Team.
21. What is an integration test?
Choose one answer
 A) ☐ A test that runs during a Continuous Integration build
B) ☐ Test of the user interface
C) ☐ Test of multiple units of functionality
D) ☐ Test of a single unit of functionality

22. Which statements are true multiple Development Teams work on a software product at the same time?
Choose 2 answers
A) ☐ Code is merged at the Scrums.
B) ☐ The Development Teams must integrate their work before the end of the Sprint.
C) ☐ The different Development teams coordinate their work to deliver a single increment.
D) ☐ They are all on the same Scrum team.
E) ☐ All teams work in their own version control branch.
23. Which two activities will a Product Owner engage in during a Sprint?
Choose 2 answers.
A) ☐ Answer questions from the development Team about items in the current Sprint.
B) ☐ Prioritize the Development team’s work on the Sprint Backlog.
C) ☐ Work with the stakeholders.
D) ☐ Run the Daily Scrum.
E) ☐ Update the Sprint burn down chart.
24. Product Backlog Items are refined by:
Choose one answer
A) ☐ The Development Team
B) ☐ The Product Owner
C) ☐ The Business Analyst and the Product Owner
D) ☐ The Development Team and the product Owner
25. How do you know that a Development team is cross-functional?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Every member of the Development team is able to perform every task
B) ☐ Development Team has all the skills to create a releasable increment by the end of every Sprint.
C) ☐ A few of the Development Team members pair program and do Test Driven Development.
D)☐ There are no conflicts within the Development team.
26. Why might a Development Team choose to do pair programming?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Improving code quality
B) ☐ It can be a fun way to work
C) ☐ Efficiency
D) ☐ Information sharing and learning
E) ☐ All of the above
27. At the end of a Sprint a Product Backlog item worked on during the Sprint does not meet the definition of
“Done”. What two things should happen with the undone Product Backlog item?
Choose 2 answers.
A) ☐ Do not include the item in the Increment this Sprint.
B) ☐ Put it on the Product Backlog for the Product Owner to decide what to do with it.
C) ☐ Review the item, add the “Done” part of the estimate to the velocity and create a Story for the
remaining work.
D) ☐ If the stakeholders agree, the Product Owner can accept it and release it to the users.
28. What are some disadvantages of code coverage as a measurement for how well a system or product is
tested?
Choose 3 answers.
A) ☐ It only provides insights to programmers.
B) ☐ It does not measure usability.
 C) ☐ It does not ensure that the most important or highest risk areas of the code are being exercised by
tests.
D) ☐ It is too complicated to explain to management.
E) ☐ It could create incentives to write tests that simply increase code coverage, rather than tests that find
bugs without increasing coverage.
29. Are User Stories required in a Scrum Team’s Product Backlog?
Choose one answer.
A) ☐ Yes
B) ☐ No
C)
30. Choose three reasons why architectural layering is Important for emergent systems.
Choose 3 answers.
A) ☐ Layering makes it easier to reuse functionality.
B) ☐ Layering increases maintainability of a system by isolating functional responsibilities.
C) ☐ Layering separates different logical concerns within the system.
D) ☐ Layering assigns clear responsibilities to individual Development Team members.
31. While practicing Test Driven Development, what is done after the test falls?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Refactor the test so the code passes
B) ☐ Write the product code to satisfy the test
C) ☐ Meet with the business analyst to ensure that the test is correct
D) ☐ Run it again to make sure it really fails.
32. What does a test written with Test Driven Development represent?
Choose one answer
E) ☐ An assignment from the lead quality engineer
F) ☐ A bug that will be uncovered
G) ☐ A technical requirement that must be satisfied
H) ☐ Something that completes the test coverage of a system.
33. Which are two benefits of establishing naming conventions for code?
Choose 2 answer
A) ☐ To make it easy to distinguish different software products
B) ☐ To reduce friction in a shared codebase
C) ☐ To communicate the identity of the developer who worked on the code
D) ☐ To ensure that orphan are not created
E) ☐ To make the code more readable.
34. What is the test first development?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Creating tests before satisfying them
B) ☐ Having the tester in the Development Team write the test plans before coding
C) ☐ The continuous restructuring of software to retain flexibility
D) ☐ Testing existing code before adding more code to it.
35. Choose two benefits of Continuous Integration?
Choose 2 answer
A) ☐ It causes team members to consider each other’s work and context
B) ☐ It eliminates bugs completely
C) ☐ The build is executed once every night and least once each weekend
D) ☐ It leads to higher transparency and rapid feedback for the team.
36. While developing new functionality, you find a bug that has already been delivered to the customer. What
do you do?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Fix the bug
 B) ☐ Revise the tests so that the bug no longer appears on the bug report
C) ☐ Talk to the Product Owner
D) ☐ Sub out the code that caused the bug so it no longer occurs.
37. Choose four desirable characteristics of a unit test.
Choose 4 answer
A) ☐ Execution is fast
B) ☐ Makes assertions about only one logical concept.
C) ☐ Independent of others.
D) ☐ Includes exercising the persistence layer.
E) ☐ Test code is as small as possible.

38. When is a system’s architecture decided?

Choose one answer
A) ☐ It is designed along with the vision, before the first Sprint.
B) ☐ Before writing code.
C) ☐ Throughout development, as understanding emerges.
D) ☐ In the beginning of the project, during Sprint 0
39. When does the development Team participates in Product Backing refinement?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Never. It is the sole responsibility of the Product Owner to refine the Product Backlog
B) ☐ Anytime during the Sprint
C) ☐ Only during the Sprint Planning meeting.
D) ☐ Only during refinement meetings planned by the Product Owner
40. Why are automated builds important?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ They are part of your definition of “Done”
B) ☐ They help you find defects and configuration management issues
C) ☐ You are unable to check-in-code without one.
D) ☐ Without them you can’t tell if you code works
41. Who is responsible for engaging the stakeholders?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ The project manager
B) ☐ The team manager
C) ☐ The Development Team
D) ☐ The Business Analyst
E) ☐ The Product Owner
42. What is the best suited structure for Development Teams in order to produce integrated increments?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Each Development Team works only on one technical layer of the system (e.g.GUI, Database, Middle
tier, interfaces)
B) ☐ Each Development Team develops functionality from beginning to end throughout all technical layers
43. Which is a benefit of refactoring code?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ To improve readability and maintainability
B) ☐ To have all code in a single file for easy printing and code reviews
C) ☐ Improves the external contract representing the system under test
D) ☐ To keep the code moving.
44. Which four types of tests can be included in an automated test harness?
Choose 4 answer
A) ☐ Exploratory
B) ☐ Performance
 C) ☐ Integration
D) ☐ Unit
E) ☐ Manual regression
F) ☐ Functional
45. What would NOT be considered refactoring?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Extracting methods
B) ☐ Changing external interfaces or APIs
C) ☐ Extracting interfaces
D) ☐ Reordering method parameters to improve readability
E) ☐ Renaming things to be more logical

46. Who is responsible for the system architecture of a product developed using Scrum?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ The architect chosen by the Development Team
B) ☐ The software architect assigned to the Development Team
C) ☐ The Chief Architect
D) ☐ The Development Team
47. While changing software, you find a bug delivered in a previous Increment. What should you do?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Revise the tests so that the bug no longer appears on the bug report
B) ☐ Talk to the Product Owner about what steps to take
C) ☐ Stub out the code that caused the bug so it no longer occurs
D) ☐ Set aside the Sprint Goal until the bug is fixed
48. When are testers and quality experts ideally included in a project?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ After Sprint Review
B) ☐ After Developer handoff
C) ☐ From the beginning and throughout all Sprints
D) ☐ When the product is feature complete
49. How much time does Product Backlog refinement take per Sprint?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ 10% of a Development Team’s capacity is typical, but it may take more or less time
B) ☐ 25% of a Development Team’s capacity
C) ☐ As much time as is needed, but never more than 10%
D) ☐ 10% of the senior developers capacity in the team
50. Which mode or idea increases code testability?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ PLP (Principle of Least Privilege)
B) ☐ INVEST (Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small Enough, Testable)
C) ☐ SOLID (Single Responsibility, Open-Closed, Liskov Substitution, Interface Segregation and Dependency
Inversion)
D) ☐ CI (Continuous Integration)
51. Is it a good idea to follow each automated build with the execution of automated tests?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ No, It would take too much time
B) ☐ No, if bugs were uncovered they would interrupt the developers
C) ☐ Yes, The tests may identity whether there are bugs that the developers should fix before proceeding
D) ☐ Yes, Code coverage can be used to assess progress.
52. Which is the most reliable form of technical documentation?
Choose one answer
 A) ☐ A passing test harness with clear naming and vocabulary
B) ☐ A UML model
C) ☐ Release notes
D) ☐ A spreadsheet of passing manual tests
E) ☐ The Development Team whiteboard
53. The practice of decomposing a requirement into failing tests is called:
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Behavior Driven Development
B) ☐ Regression testing
C) ☐ Object oriented requirements definition
D) ☐ Acceptance Test Driven Development

54. Who determines how work is performed during the Sprint?

Choose one answer
A) ☐ Architects
B) ☐ The Scrum Master
C) ☐ The Development Team
D) ☐ Subject Matter Experts
E) ☐ Development Team managers
55. Which topics should be discussed in the Sprint Review?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Coding and engineering practices
B) ☐ The Scrum process, and how it was used during the Sprint
C) ☐ Sprint results
D) ☐ All of above
56. Which answer best describes Behavior-Drive Development (BDD)?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ A development style accounts for leadership style among team members
B) ☐ A way to organize unit tests based on class and method structures
C) ☐ A technique for maintaining regression test harnesses
D) ☐ A style of test-driven development focusing on user and system interactions
57. A Development Team is blocked by an impediment in the middle of the Sprint. The impediment is outside
the Development Team’s control. What should the Development Team do?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Complete the work that can be done on as much scope as possible and complete the rest during
“hardening” sprints at the end of the release.
B) ☐ Immediately raise the issue to the Scrum Master
C) ☐ Cancel the Sprint
D) ☐ Complete the work that can be done on as much scope as possible and use the Sprint Review to plant
the rest with stakeholders
58. What is an INAPPROPRIATE activity for a Development Team member with special quality assurance
skills?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Delay test activities until a feature has been coded
B) ☐ Identity tools and techniques to be used in testing the product
C) ☐ Define acceptance criteria for features
D) ☐ Create a plan for testing the application
59. Only technical writers create documentation during a Sprint
Choose one answer
A) ☐ True
 B) ☐ False
60. What are two reasons to use mock objects in unit tests?
Choose 2 answer
A) ☐ TDD is impossible without them
B) ☐ Isolating a particular system component for controlled testing
C) ☐ To decrease cyclomatic complexity
D) ☐ The behavior of a given object can be emulated to the system under test
E) ☐ They are machine-generated and eliminate the need to write code by hand
61. Which three describe Test-Driven Development?
Choose 3 answer
A) ☐ A predictable way to develop working, clean code
B) ☐ A software development technique based an automated tests
C) ☐ Creating a manual test script before writing code
D) ☐ An incremental and emergent approach to software design
E) ☐ Having testers involved in the development process
62. What are two ways a Development Team can ensure a good application architecture?
Choose 2 answer
A) ☐ The Development Team assigns someone to the role of software architect to provide architectural
oversight.
B) ☐ The Development Team focuses only on adding functionally. The architecture will take care of itself as
the development Team adds functionality.
C) ☐ The Development Team uses a Sprint – to create infrastructure that will be needed later
D) ☐ Architecture is an ongoing discussion in the Development Team, focusing on implementing current
Sprint Backlog items
E) ☐ The Development Team has a set of guiding architecture principles that every Development Team
member understands and follows when writing code.
63. Which are NOT appropriate for discussion in a Sprint Retrospective?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ How the team does its work
B) ☐ The value of work currently represented in the Product Backlog
C) ☐ Sprint Backlog for the next Sprint
D) ☐ Team relations
E) ☐ Definition of “DONE”
64. When using Continuous Integration, how often should the build be executed
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Whenever new or changed code is checked into version control
B) ☐ One per day
C) ☐ Once per hour
D) ☐ Before the end of the Sprint
E) ☐ Whenever new tests are created or uncertainly arises about whether old tests will pass.
65. Which are four attributes of a good report?
Choose 4 answer
A) ☐ Includes build or version number when bug was found
B) ☐ Includes code for a proposed fix
C) ☐ Screenshots or other pictures of bug in action
D) ☐ Provides simple and repeatable reproduction steps
E) ☐ Expected results and observed results
F) ☐ Explains some new system functionality desired
66. Choose two common cross-cutting in application architecture?
Choose 2 answer
A) ☐ Scalability
B) ☐ Build
C) ☐ Design pattern selection
D) ☐ Security
67. The Sprint Goal is a result of Spring Planning, as is the Backlog?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ True
B) ☐ False
68. Which two criteria are useful in deciding of something should be documented every Sprint?
Choose 2 answer
A) ☐ It has always been documented in the past
B) ☐ The Scrum Master requires it
C) ☐ The software tool being used requires it
D) ☐ The documentation is used to enhance and maintain the software
E) ☐ It is required by the Definition of Done.
69. Which are the best three criteria to include in a Development Team’s definition of “Done”?
Choose 3 answer
A) ☐ Regression tests pass
B) ☐ No impediments exist
C) ☐ Code review is done
D) ☐ The product is released at the end of every Sprint
E) ☐ Acceptance test pass

70. The right time to refactor code using Test Driven Development is:
Choose one answer
A) ☐ After the test passes
B) ☐ After the test fails
C) ☐ When preparing legacy code for unit tests
D) ☐ When I can see the “debt” building in the code
71. What is a unite test?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ A technique for ensuring that units of co-dependent integrate correctly
B) ☐ A test that isolates and verifies individual units of functionality
C) ☐ A test that ensures a specific method integrates properly with the code calling it
D) ☐ A way to ensure product satisfies the user requirements
72. Cyclomatic complexity is a metric for?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Measuring branching structures and nesting levels in code
B) ☐ Assessing if code is written in as few lines as possible
C) ☐ Determining the number of unit tests required to ensure the correctness
D) ☐ Demonstrating code is well structured and cleanly implemented
73. What is a merge in a version control system?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Copying a portion of a code based to isolate it from the original codebase
B) ☐ Combining two or more versions of code into a sig
C) ☐ Identifying a particular codebase as ready for distribution
D) ☐ Two or more developers working together to ensure proper configuration management
74. What three things happen when refining product backlog items?
Choose 3 answer
A) ☐ Analysis
B) ☐ Feature Testing
C) ☐ Design
D) ☐ Product Backlog item decomposition
E) ☐ Programming
75. When a Continuous Integration build fails, who ideally fixes it?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ The next person who needs the build to complete successfully
B) ☐ The person assigned to the configuration management role within the team
 C) ☐ The person who broke the build
D) ☐ The tester responsible for validating builds
76. What is the time-box for the Sprint Planning meeting?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ 4 Hours for a monthly Sprint
B) ☐ 8 Hours for a monthly Sprint
C) ☐ Whenever it is done
77. How is architecture decided in a Scrum Team during a project?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ The Development Team emerges system architecture as the system is created
B) ☐ Upfront designs are presented to the Scrum Team prior to the first Sprint
C) ☐ The architecture cares for itself as code is written and deployed
D) ☐ An architect on the Development Team undertakes all architecture tasks
E) ☐ The architect works in the early part of each Sprint to define architecture for that Sprint.
78. When should a Development Team create its first automated build?
Choose one answer
A) ☐ Just before the product is released
B) ☐ When the Product Owner asks for a build
C) ☐ Just before the end of Sprint
D) ☐ Before the first check-in
E) ☐ As soon as there is code in the version control system
79. Which three of the following are code quality metrics?
Choose 3 answer
A) ☐ Depth of inheritance
B) ☐ Number of check-ins per day
C) ☐ Unit tests per class
D) ☐ Cycle time per Product Backlog items
E) ☐ Cyclomatic complexity
F) ☐ Class coupling
80. Which of the following are required by Scrum?
Choose all that apply
A) ☐ Release burn-up
B) ☐ Unit Test
C) ☐ Burn-down chart
D) ☐ Critical path analysis
E) ☐ Build automation
F) ☐ Refactoring
G) ☐ None of the above