Sanfoundry:

Computer Fundamentals:

What is a pivot table?

A pivot table is a data summarization tool that is used in the context of data processing. Pivot
tables are used to summarize, sort, reorganize, group, count, total or average data stored in a
database. It allows its users to transform columns into rows and rows into columns. It allows
grouping by any data field. Pivot tables are the perfect solution when you need to summarize and
analyze large amounts of data. In just a few clicks, you have access to a whole new set of
information. As already said, spreadsheets are one solution to create pivot tables, but the best
tools don’t require to write complicated formulas or to start all over again every time you want to
organize the data differently. A drag and drop option to move your fields around is the easiest way
to go.

1. Which unit is responsible for converting the a) Byte

data received from the user into a computer b) Nibble
understandable format? c) Bit
a) Memory Unit d) KB
b) Arithmetic & Logic Unit View Answer
c) Input Unit
d) Output Unit Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: A bit is defined as the smallest unit of
data in a computer system. It is used as a short
Answer: c form of Binary Digit. A bit can have only two
Explanation: The Input Unit converts the data, values 0 or 1. A nibble comprises of 4 bits, a byte
which the user enters into a language which the is a collection of 8 bits whereas KB (Kilobyte) is
computer understands, i.e. it converts the data into equal to 1024 bytes.
binary format. The Output Unit is responsible for
giving the results in user-understandable format. 4. One nibble is equivalent to how many bits?
The Storage Unit is responsible for storing the data a) 2
after immediate results of processing whereas; the b) 4
ALU is responsible for various arithmetic and c) 8
bitwise operations. d) 1
View Answer
2. The only language which the computer
understands is ______________ Answer: b
a) Assembly Language Explanation: A nibble is defined as a unit of data
b) Binary Language which comprises of 4 binary digits or half of 8-bit
c) BASIC byte. Therefore, 1 nibble = 4 bits. A bit is the
d) C Language smallest unit of data in a computer system. A byte
View Answer = 8 bits, therefore, half of a byte=4 bits=a nibble.

Answer: b 5. Which of the following describes the correct

Explanation: The Computer understands only format of an input instruction?
binary language which is written in the form of 0s a) IN 82
& 1s. A computer can understand assembly b) INPUT 82
language but an assembler is required which c) INP 82
converts the assembly language to binary language. d) 82 INP
Similarly, for understanding high level languages, View Answer
compilers/interpreters are required.
Answer: a
3. The smallest unit of data in computer is Explanation: The input/output instructions are used
________________ to transfer information between external
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peripherals and the CPU. The correct format of an
input instruction is: IN 8-bit port address.
Here, IN 82 is the correct option, where 82 is the
designated port address. All the other options are
invalid.
6. The input machine which originated in the
United States around 1880s is a ___________
a) Mouse
b) Joystick
c) Keyboard
d) Bar Code Reader
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A keyboard is an input device which
originated in the 1880s and is used to give
instructions to the computer in the form of letters
and numbers. Mouse is used for the selection of
various objects on the screen, joystick is mainly
used for gaming purpose and bar code readers are
used for reading the bar-codes.
7. What does the COMPUTER stand for?
a) Commonly Operated Machines Used in
Technical and Educational Research
b) Commonly Occupied Machines Used in
Technical and Educational Research
c) Commonly Operated Machines Used in
Technical and Environmental Research
d) Commonly Oriented Machines Used in
Technical and Educational Research
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The word COMPUTER is an
abbreviation for the terms “Commonly Operated
Machines Used in Technical and Educational
Research”. The word COMPUTER also relates to
the word COMPUTE which means to calculate.
So, initially it was thought that a computer is a
device which is used to perform calculations.
8. 1 yottabyte = ______________
a) 1024 TB
b) 1024 EB
c) 1024 ZB
d) 1024 PB
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 1 yottabyte is equal to 1024 ZB,
which stands for zettabyte. Further, 1 ZB=1024 EB
(exabyte) and and 1 EB=1024PB (petabyte).
9. Which of the following is not a function of the
Input Unit?
a) It reads instructions and data from the outside
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world
b) It converts the data into computer acceptable
format
c) It makes the data into user understandable
format
d) It supplies the data and instructions to the
computer for further processing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The input unit converts the data into
computer understandable format i.e. binary format
and not the user understandable format. It is the
duty of the output unit to make the data into user
understandable format.
10. Label the parts 1 and 2:
a) 1.ALU 2. MU
b) 1.Output unit 2.Input Unit
c) 1.MU 2. ALU
d) 1.Input Unit 2.Output Unit
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The above diagram is a simple
explanation which describes how the instruction is
given to the CPU, how it is processed, and then
how the result is obtained.
So here, the input unit is used to give instructions
to the central processing unit and the output unit is
responsible for giving the result to the user.
1. The process of producing useful information
for the user is called ___________
a) Controlling
b) Outputting
c) Inputting
d) Processing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Output Unit is responsible for
giving the results to the user in the form of a
printed report or visual display. The process is
referred to as outputting. Controlling is nothing but
the manner and sequence in which the instructions
are being operated. Inputting means giving
instructions to the system whereas, processing ___________
means performing certain operations and a) Disturbance
calculations. b) Attenuation
c) Interrupt
2. The output unit converts the data entered by the d) Noise
user into computer understandable form. View Answer
a) True
b) False Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: An interrupt is a kind of request
which takes control of the system bus for some
Answer: b time, then performs all the operations and gives
Explanation: The Output unit is responsible for back control to the CPU. It is usually identified by
converting the computer obtained data into user some number and is handled by the interrupt
understandable format. The Input Unit is controller.
responsible for converting the data in computer
understandable format. 7. Line Printers that print one line at a time are
_________
3. VDU stands for __________ a) Laser Printers
a) Virtual Display Unit b) Inkjet Printers
b) Visual Display Unit c) Drum Printers
c) Virtual Detection Unit d) Chain Printers
d) Visual Detection Unit View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: The drum printers have a solid
Explanation: A Visual Display unit is also referred cylindrical drum with characters embossed on its
to as the monitor who basically is used to give the surface in the form of circular bands. It can only
results or outputs to the user. It comprises of a print a predefined set of characters.
cathode ray tube internally.
8. A ___________________ monitor looks like a
4. What does SVGA stand for? television and are normally used with non-portable
a) Standard Visual Graphics Array computer systems.
b) Super Visual Graphics Array a) CRT
c) Standard Video Graphics Array b) LCD
d) Super Video Graphics Array c) LED
View Answer d) Flat Panel Monitors
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Super Video Graphics Array is a type Answer: a
of Visual Display Unit. It supports 1024 by 768 Explanation: A CRT (or the Cathode Ray Tube)
pixels with 60,000 different colors. Monitor looks like a television ideally. The flat
panel monitors are thinner and lighter in
5. The devices that used to give single or multiple comparison.
colored images and drawings are ____________
a) Monitors 9. Which of the following is not a function of the
b) Printers Output Unit?
c) Plotters a) It produces results that can be easily understood
d) VDUs by the user
View Answer b) It accepts the results produced by the computer
c) It supplies the data and instructions to the
Answer: c outside world
Explanation: Plotters are the devices which are d) It supplies the data and instructions to the
used to give colored images. They use ink pens or computer for further processing
ink jets for drawing. Pens of different colors and View Answer
shades are used for shading and styling.
Answer: d
6. A special request originated from some device Explanation: The output unit is responsible for
to the CPU to acquire some of its time is called giving the results to the user in the form of a
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printed report or visual display. It is not
responsible for giving the instructions back to the
CPU for processing.

10. PCI stands for _________

a) Peripheral Component Interconnect
b) Partial Component Interconnect
c) Peripheral Component Interaction
d) Partial Component Interaction
View Answer a) Primary and major
b) Primary and Secondary
Answer: a c) Minor and Major
Explanation: PCI is a high-bandwidth bus that can d) Main and virtual
function as a peripheral bus. Compared with View Answer
others, it delivers better system performance.
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two types of memories in a
1. Components that provide internal storage to the computer system: The Primary Memory and the
CPU are ______ Secondary Memory.
a) Registers The primary memory can be directly accessed by
b) Program Counters the CPU whereas the secondary memory cannot be
c) Controllers directly accessed.
d) Internal chips
View Answer 4. Which of the following is used to hold running
program instructions?
Answer: a a) Primary Storage
Explanation: The Registers are the fast storage b) Virtual Storage
units. They are responsible for storing intermediate c) Internal Storage
computational results in the CPU. The registers can d) Minor Devices
be user accessible or inaccessible. View Answer

2. Saving data and instructions to make them Answer: a

readily available is the job of __________ Explanation: The primary storage is responsible for
a) Storage Unit holding the data, intermediate results and the
b) Cache Unit results of ongoing processes or jobs. Virtual
c) Input Unit storage is the main memory storage required for
d) Output Unit saving a large amount of data for future reference.
View Answer The other options are invalid.

Answer: a 5. Which of the following is non-volatile storage?

Explanation: The storage unit is responsible for a) Backup
storing the data. It makes the instructions readily b) Secondary
available for additional or initial processing c) Primary
whenever required. The cache is a software d) Cache
component that stores data to serve the data View Answer
requests in future. It can contain the result of some
earlier computations. Answer: b
Explanation: The secondary storage is the non-
3. The two basic types of memory in a computer volatile storage unit because the data is not lost
are ________ when the power supply is dissipated. Primary
memory is the volatile memory.

6. Which of the following is used in main

memory?
a) SRAM
b) DRAM
c) PRAM

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d) DDR 1. The ‘heart’ of the processor which performs
View Answer many different operations _____________
a) Arithmetic and logic unit
Answer: b b) Motherboard
Explanation: DRAM stands for dynamic random c) Control Unit
access memory. It is denser than SDRAM (Static) d) Memory
and therefore it is used in the main memory. They View Answer
are in the form of semiconductor RAMs.
Answer: a
7. Which of the following are types of ROMs? Explanation: The Arithmetic and logic unit
a) SROM & DROM performs all the basic operations of the computer
b) PROM & EPROM system. It performs all the arithmetic(+,-,*,/,etc) as
c) Only one type there is no further classification well as the logical operations( AND, OR, NOT,
d) PROM & EROM etc.).
View Answer
2. ALU is the place where the actual executions of
8. RAID stands for __________ instructions take place during the processing
a) Redundant array of independent disks operation.
b) Redundant array of individual disks a) True
c) Reusable Array of independent disks b) False
d) Reusable array of individual disks View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: ALU is a combinational electronic
Explanation: RAID is a multiple-disk database circuit which basically performs all the logical or
design which is viewed as a single logical disk by the bitwise operations and the arithmetic
the operating system. Data are distributed across operations. Therefore, it is the place where the
the physical drives of the array. It guarantees the actual executions of instructions take place.
recovery of data in case of data failure.
3. Which of the following is not a bitwise
9. A non-erasable disk that stores digitized audio operator?
information is _____ a) |
a) CD b) ^
b) CD-ROM c) .
c) DVD-R d) <<
d) DVD-RW View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: All except the dot(.) operator are
Explanation: A compact disk stores digitized audio bitwise operators.
information. The standard system uses 12 cm disks | : Bitwise OR
and can record more than 60 minutes of ^ : Bitwise XOR
uninterrupted playing game. << : Shift Left

10. The first practical form of Random Access 4. The sign magnitude representation of -1 is
Memory was the __________ __________
a) SSEM a) 0001
b) Cathode Ray Tube b) 1110
c) William’s Tube c) 1000
d) Thomas’s Tube d) 1001
View Answer View Answer

Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: The first practical form of RAM was Explanation: The first leftmost bit i.e. the most
William’s Tube made in 1947. It stored data as significant bit in the sign magnitude represents if
electrically charged spots on the face of a Cathode the number is positive or negative. If the MSB is 1,
Ray Tube. the number is negative else if it is 0, the number is
positive. Here, +1=0001 and for -1=1001.
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 5. IEEE stands for ___________ b) Parity
a) Instantaneous Electrical Engineering c) Auxiliary
b) Institute of Emerging Electrical Engineers d) Carry
c) Institute of Emerging Electronic Engineers View Answer
d) Institute of Electrical and electronics engineers
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: The parity flag indicates the number
Answer: d of 1 bit in any operation. The resultant bit is called
Explanation: The IEEE is an organization of the parity bit. The main aim of the parity bit is to
professionals in the field of electronics and check for errors.
electrical engineering. IEEE has given certain
standards of its own which are followed in the field 10. The bitwise complement of 0 is ___________
of computer science and electrical engineering. a) 00000001
b) 10000000
6. The ALU gives the output of the operations and c) 11111111
the output is stored in the ________ d) 11111110
a) Memory Devices View Answer
b) Registers
c) Flags Answer: c
d) Output Unit Explanation: Bitwise complement is basically used
View Answer to convert all the 0 digits to 1 and the 1s to 0s.
So, for 0 = 00000000(in 8-bits) ::: 11111111(1s
Answer: b complement). The bitwise complement is often
Explanation: Any output generated by the ALU referred to as the 1s complement.
gets stored in the registers. The registers are the
temporary memory locations within the processor
that are connected by signal paths to the CPU. 1. ____________ is the raw material used as input
and __________ is the processed data obtained as
7. The process of division on memory spaces is output of data processing.
called ______________ a) Data, Instructions
a) Paging b) Instructions, Program
b) Segmentation c) Data, Program
c) Bifurcation d) Program, Code
d) Dynamic Division View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: Data can be assumed as a raw
Explanation: The memory space is divided into material which, in turns after processing gives the
segments of dynamic size. The programmer is desired output in the form of instructions. Further,
aware of the segmentation and can reallocate the a set of ordered and meaningful instructions is
segments accordingly. known as a program.

8. Number of bits in ALU is _________ 2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of

a) 4 a computer?
b) 8 a) Diligence
c) 16 b) I.Q.
d) 2 c) Accuracy
View Answer d) Versatility
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Arithmetic and Logic Unit consists of Answer: b
16bits. They perform certain Arithmetic and Explanation: The Computer system has no I.Q. of
bitwise operations (add, subtract, AND, OR, XOR, its own. It does only what it is programmed to do.
Increment, decrement, shift). It cannot take decisions of its own.
A computer is diligent because it can work
9. Which flag indicates the number of 1 bit that continuously for hours without getting any errors
results from an operation? or without getting grumbled.
a) Zero The accuracy of a computer is consistently high
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and its level of accuracy depends on its design. A
computer can perform any task if, it can be broken
down into a series of logical steps. Therefore, a
computer is versatile.
3. Fill in the blank in the diagram.
Answer: d
Explanation: MAR is a type of register which is
responsible for the fetch operation. MAR is
connected to the address bus and it specifies the
address for the read and write operations.
6. If the control signals are generated by
combinational logic, then they are generated by a
type of _______________ controlled unit.
a) Micro programmed
b) Software
c) Logic
d) Hardwired
View Answer

Answer: d
a) Input Unit Explanation: The main task of a control unit is to
b) Memory Unit generate control signals. There are two main types
c) Control Unit of control units:
d) I/O Unit A hardwired control unit generates control signals
View Answer by using combinational logic circuits and the
Micro programmed control unit generates control
signals by using some softwares.
Answer: c
Explanation: The control unit manages and
coordinates the operations of a computer system. 7. Which is the simplest method of implementing
The ALU is responsible for performing all the hardwired control unit?
arithmetic and bitwise operations . Therefore, both a) State Table Method
these units combine to form the brain of the b) Delay Element Method
computer ,which is the central processing unit. c) Sequence Counter Method
d) Using Circuits
View Answer
4. The part of a processor which contains
hardware necessary to perform all the operations
required by a computer: Answer: a
a) Data path Explanation: There are 3 ways of implementing
b) Controller hardwired control unit:
c) Registers A state table is the simplest method in which a
d) Cache number of circuits are designed based on the cells
View Answer in the table.
A delay element method consists of a flowchart
drawn for the circuit. A D-flip flop is used as a
Answer: a
delay element.
Explanation: A processor is a part of the computer
A sequence counter method used k-modulo counter
which does all the data manipulation and decision
as a replacement for k delay elements.
making. A processor comprises of:
A data path which contains the hardware necessary
to perform all the operations. A controller tells the 8. A set of microinstructions for a single machine
data path what needs to be done. instruction is called ___________
The registers act as intermediate storage for the a) Program
data. b) Command
c) Micro program
d) Micro command
5. What does MAR stand for?
View Answer
a) Main Address Register
b) Memory Access Register
c) Main Accessible Register Answer: c
d) Memory Address Register Explanation: For every micro-operation, a set of
View Answer microinstructions are written which indicate the
control signals to be activated. A set of
microinstructions is a micro program. The address

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of the next microinstruction is given by a Micro- Answer: a
program counter. Explanation: In a non-positional number system, 1
is represented as I, 2 as II, 3 as III, 4 as IIII and
9. Micro-program consists of a set of therefore, 5 is represented as IIIII. This number
microinstructions which are strings of 0s and 1s. system uses symbols for the representation of
a) True digits.
b) False
View Answer 3. The base is the total number of digits in a
number system.
Answer: a a) True
Explanation: The computer understands only b) False
binary language. So, the micro-program should View Answer
have instructions which are in the form of 0s and
1s. Each output line of the micro-program Answer: a
corresponds to one control signal. Explanation: The statement is true. In a positional
number system, base is the number of digits the
10. A decoder is required in case of a system comprises. For example, a binary number
______________ system comprises of only 2 digits, 0 and 1,
a) Vertical Microinstruction therefore its base is 2. Similarly, the decimal
b) Horizontal Microinstruction system comprises 10 digits 0 to 9, therefore its
c) Multilevel Microinstruction base is 10.
d) All types of microinstructions
View Answer 4. The LSB and MSB of 1243247 are ____ and
____
Answer: a a) 1, 7
Explanation: There are two types of b) 4, 7
microinstructions: Horizontal and Vertical. c) 7, 1
In a horizontal microinstruction, each bit represents d) 4, 1
a signal to be activated whereas, in case of vertical View Answer
microinstruction bits are decoded and, the decoder
then produces signals. Answer: c
Explanation: The LSB or the least significant bit is
1. Which of the following is not a type of number the rightmost digit at the zeros position. The MSB
system? or the most significant bit is the leftmost digit.
a) Positional
b) Non-Positional 5. A device that uses positional notation to
c) Octal represent a decimal number.
d) Fractional a) Abacus
View Answer b) Calculator
c) Pascaline
Answer: d d) Computer
Explanation: There are two main types of number View Answer
systems : Positional & Non-positional.
Positional System uses digits for the representation Answer: a
whereas, non-positional number systems use Explanation: Abacus was used to doing arithmetic
certain symbols for the representation of numbers. calculations around 2500 years ago. Pascaline was
Octal is a type of positional number systems with the pascal’s calculator by Blaise Pascal invented
base 8. for doing laborious calculations.

2. How is the number 5 represented in non- 6. The 2’s complement of 5 is ______________

positional number system? a) 1011
a) IIIII b) 0101
b) 5 c) 1010
c) V d) 0011
d) v View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 2’s complement is obtained by
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adding 1 to the 1s complement of a number. The codes are allotted to digits, special characters and
1’s complement of 5(0101) is 1010. For 2’s alphabets for data communication purpose.
complement : 1010+1=1011.
1. The value of base in a decimal number system
7. What does BCD stand for? is ____________
a) Bitwise coded decimal a) 8
b) Binary coded decimal b) 2
c) Binary converted decimal c) 10
d) Bitwise Converted Decimal d) 16
View Answer View Answer

Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: BCD is the binary coded decimal Explanation: A decimal number system consists of
form of representation of numbers in 4 bits.E.g. 10 digits from 0 to 9.
The BCD representation of 5 is 0101. BCD The definition of base describes it as a quantity to
representation of 22 is 00100010. represent the number of digits present in that
particular number system.
8. 1 zettabyte = ______________ Therefore, here, the base is 10.
a) 1024 TB
b) 1024 EB 2. Convert : (110)2 = ( __ )10.
c) 1024 ZB a) 4
d) 1024 PB b) 5
View Answer c) 6
d) 9
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: 1 ZB=1024 EB(exabyte)
1 EB=1024PB(petabyte) Answer: c
1 YB(yottabyte)=1024ZB. Explanation: The base 2 represents that the number
is binary ,whereas, the base 10 represents that it is
9. Perfrom BCD addition: 2+3= to be converted to the decimal format.
_______________ Conversion: 22 * 1 + 21 * 1 + 20 *0 = 6.
a) 0010
b) 0011 3. The 2’s complement of 15 is ____________
c) 0101 a) 0000
d) 1010 b) 0001
View Answer c) 0010
d) 0100
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: BCD of 2 =0010
BCD of 3=0011 Answer: b
0010+0011=0101 Explanation: 2’s complement is obtained by adding
Therefore, 2+3=0101(5). 1 to the 1’s complement of the number.
Here, Binary of 15 = 1111
10. ASCII stands for _____________________ 1’s complement of 15= 0000
a) American standard code for information 2’s complement of 15= 0000+1=0001.
interchange
b) American scientific code for information 4. Another name for base is __________
interchange a) root
c) American scientific code for international b) radix
interchange c) entity
d) American standard code of international d) median
interchange View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: Another name for base is radix. Base
Explanation: ASCII is an encoding standard which refers to the number of digits that a particular
is used for communications worldwide. ASCII number system consists of.

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The base of decimal number system is 10, binary is 10 : A
2 and so on. 11 : B
12 : C
5. The decimal equivalent of (0.101)2 will be 13 : D
____________ 14 : E
a) 0.5 15 : F.
b) 0.625
c) 0.25 9. Which of the following is not a decimal
d) 0.875 number?
View Answer a) 114
b) 43.47
Answer: b c) 99.9A
Explanation: Since the base is 2 , it could be easily d) 10101
guessed that the number is binary. Conversion: 2-1 View Answer
* 1 + 2-2 * 0 + 2-3 * 1 = 0.625.
Answer: c
6. The signed magnitude for -3 will be Explanation: All the numbers except 99.9A are
___________ decimal numbers.
a) 00000011 This number has a hexadecimal component A in it,
b) 10000011 therefore , it is not a valid decimal number.
c) 11111101 The decimal equivalent of A is 10.
d) 11111100
View Answer 10. Select the incorrect option:
a) (101)10 = (1100101)2
Answer: b b) G is valid in hexadecimal system.
Explanation: Signed Magnitude of a number is a c) C represents 12
representation to determine if the number is d) The base of a decimal number system is 10.
positive or negative. View Answer
If the MSB of a number is 0, the number is
positive, else if it is 1 the number is negative. Answer: b
Here, +3 = 00000011 Explanation: G is not a valid hexadecimal number.
-3= 100000011. In this system, only representations from A to E
are used to represent the numbers from 10 to 15.
7. A number with both integer and a fractional The base of the hexadecimal number system is 16.
part has digits raised to both positive and negative
powers of 2 in a decimal number system. 1. Which of the following is not a positional
a) True number system?
b) False a) Roman Number System
View Answer b) Octal Number System
c) Binary Number System
Answer: b d) Hexadecimal Number System
Explanation: In a decimal number system, a View Answer
number with both integer and a fractional part has
digits raised to both positive and negative powers Answer: a
of 10 and not 2. Explanation: The Roman number system isn’t a
e.g. 22.34 = 2 * 101 + 2 * 100 + 3 * 10-1 + 4 * 10-2. positional number system since it uses symbols to
represent numbers.
8. The hexadecimal representation of 14 is The octal number system uses digits from 0-7, the
_______________ binary number system uses digits from 0-1
a) A whereas, the hexadecimal number system uses
b) F digits from 0-15.
c) D
d) E 2. The value of radix in binary number system is
View Answer _____________
a) 2
Answer: d b) 8
Explanation: The hexadecimal representations are c) 10
as follows:
10
d) 1 before decimal and from right to left after the
View Answer decimal place.
Here,
Answer: a
Explanation: In a binary number system, the value
of base or radix is 2. The binary system uses only
two digits for the representation of numbers,
therefore its base id has chosen to be 2.

3. The binary equivalent of the decimal number

10 is __________
a) 0010
b) 10
c) 1010 i.e. 145.12 is the octal equivalent of the number.
d) 010
View Answer 6. The input hexadecimal representation of 1110
is _______________
Answer: c a) 0111
Explanation: To get the binary equivalent of any b) E
number, we need to divide the number by 2 and c) 15
obtain the remainders as : d) 14
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In hexadecimal number system, 1110
= 15, which is represented by the alphabet E.
Some representations are:
A 10
B 11
We then write the remainders in the reverse order
C 12
as 1010 .
D 13
E 14
4. A computer language that is written in binary F 15.
codes only is _____
a) machine language
7. A bit in a computer terminology means either 0
b) C
or 1.
c) C#
a) True
d) pascal
b) False
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: a
Explanation: Machine Language is written in
Explanation: A bit stands for a binary digit. A
binary codes only. It can be easily understood by
binary digit can have only two digits i.e. 0 or 1. A
the computer and is very difficult for us to
binary number consisting of n-bits is called an n-
understand. A machine language, unlike other
bit number.
languages, requires no translators or interpreters.
8. Convert the binary equivalent 10101 to its
5. The octal equivalent of 1100101.001010 is
decimal equivalent.
______
a) 21
a) 624.12
b) 12
b) 145.12
c) 22
c) 154.12
d) 31
d) 145.21
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b
Explanation: To convert a binary number to its
Explanation: The octal equivalent is obtained by
decimal equivalent follow these steps :
grouping the numbers into three, from right to left

11
24 * 1 + 23 * 0 + 22 *1 + 21 * 0 + 20 * 1 = 21. represented as :
Therefore, the answer is 21. 82 * 1 + 81 * 1 + 80 *3.

9. Which of the following is not a binary number? 3. The maximum number of bits sufficient to
a) 1111 represent an octal number in binary is _______
b) 101 a) 4
c) 11E b) 3
d) 000 c) 7
View Answer d) 8
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A binary number can have only two Answer: b
possible digits, 0 and 1. In the third option, there is Explanation: The octal number system comprises
an alphabet E present which makes it an invalid of only 8 digits. Hence, three bits (23 = 8) are
binary number. Alphabets are only allowed in the sufficient to represent any octal number in the
hexadecimal number system. binary format.

10. Which of the following is the correct 4. The binary number 111 in octal format is
representation of a binary number? ________________
a) (124)2 a) 6
b) 1110 b) 7
c) (110)2 c) 8
d) (000)2 d) 5
View Answer View Answer

Answer: d Answer: b
Explanation: The binary numbers should comprise Explanation: Certain binary to octal representations
only two digits 0 and 1. are :
Also, for the base, the value should be 2 and it 000=0
should be written as a subscript enclosing the 001=1
entire number. Here, the fourth option gives the 010=2
correct representation. 011=3
100=4
1. What could be the maximum value of a single 101=5
digit in an octal number system? 110=6
a) 8 111=7.
b) 7
c) 6 5. Convert (22)8 into its corresponding decimal
d) 5 number.
View Answer a) 28
b) 18
Answer: b c) 81
Explanation: The maximum value in any number d) 82
system is one less than the value of the base. The View Answer
base in an octal number system is 8, therefore, the
maximum value of the single digit is 7. It takes Answer: b
digits from 0 to 7. Explanation: To convert an octal number to
decimal number:
2. In a number system, each position of a digit 81 * 2 + 80 * 2 = 16 + 2 = 18.
represents a specific power of the base. Hence, the decimal equivalent is 18.
a) True
b) False 6. The octal equivalent of the binary number
View Answer (0010010100)2 is ______________
a) 422
Answer: a b) 242
Explanation: In a number system, every digit is c) 224
denoted by a specific power of base. Like in an d) 226
octal system, consider the number 113, it will be View Answer
12
 Answer: c 1011 0000 0001 (
Explanation: To obtain the octal equivalent, we groups of 4)
take numbers in groups of 3, from right to left as : B 0 1 (
000 010 010 100 hexadecimal equivalent)

0 2 2 4 = Therefore, the hexadecimal equivalent is (B01)16.

(224)₈.
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7. Octal subtraction of (232)8 from (417)8 will
give ______________ 10. Express the decimal format of the signed
a) 165 binary number (10010)2 .
b) 185 a) 2
c) 815 b) 12
d) 516 c) -12
View Answer d) -2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Octal subtraction is done as follows: Answer: d
417 Explanation: The first bit is the sign bit whereas
– 232 the rest of the bits are magnitude bits. So the
________ number is: 0010 = 21 * 1 =2
165 But, the sign bit is 1, Therefore the answer is : (-
The octal subtraction is the same as that of any 2)10.
other number system. The only difference is, like
in a decimal number system, we borrow a group of 1. What does the symbol D represent in a
10, in a binary system we borrow a group of 2, in hexadecimal number system?
an octal number system, we borrow in groups of 8. a) 8
b) 16
8. The 1’s complement of 0.101 is c) 13
_________________ d) 14
a) 1.010 View Answer
b) 0.010
c) 0.101 Answer: c
d) 1.101 Explanation: The symbols A, B, C, D, E and F
View Answer represent 10, 11, 12, 13, 14 and 15 respectively in
a hexadecimal system. This system comprises of
Answer: a 15 numbers in total: digits from 0-9 and symbols
Explanation: The 1’s complement of a number is from A to F.
obtained by reversing the bits with value 1 to 0 and
the bits with value 0 to 1. 2. ABC is a valid hexadecimal number.
Here, 0.101 gets converted to 1.010 in its 1’s a) True
complement format. b) False
View Answer
9. Convert (5401)8 to hexadecimal.
a) A01 Answer: a
b) A02 Explanation: In a hexadecimal number system,
c) B01 alphabets are used for the representation of
d) C01 numbers from 10 to 15. Here, A represents 10, B
View Answer represents 11 and C represents 12. Therefore, it is a
valid hexadecimal number.
Answer: c
Explanation: To convert octal to hexadecimal, we 3. The maximum number of bits sufficient to
first write binary format of the number and then represent a hexadecimal number in binary:
make groups of 4 bits from right to left, as follows: a) 4
5 4 0 1 b) 3
101 100 000 001 (octal c) 7
-> binary) d) 8
View Answer
13
 Answer: a 7. Hexadecimal Addition of (3A5)16 and (1B2)16
Explanation: The hexadecimal number system will give :
comprises of only 15 symbols: 10 digits and 5 a) 165
symbols. Hence, three bits (24 = 16 ) are sufficient b) 185
to represent any hexadecimal number in the binary c) 815
format. d) 516
View Answer
4. The binary number 1110 in hexadecimal format
is _____________ Answer: a
a) 6 Explanation: Octal subtraction is done as follows:
b) E 3A5
c) 14 + 1B2
d) 15 ________
View Answer 557
In hexadecimal addition of alphabets, we add the
Answer: b corresponding numbers they represent and then
Explanation: Certain binary to hexadecimal subtract the result from 16, then generate a carry of
representations are : 1 to the next set of numbers.
1010=A Here, 5+2=7
1011=B A+B=10+11=21-16=5
1100=C 3+1+1(carry)=5.
1101=D
1110=E 8. The 2’s complement of 10.11 :
1111=F. a) 10
b) 0.010
5. Convert (52)16 into its decimal equivalent. c) 01.01
a) 28 d) 10.01
b) 83 View Answer
c) 80
d) 82 Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: The 1’s complement of a number is
obtained by reversing the bits with value 1 to 0 and
Answer: d the bits with value 0 to 1. Here, 10.11 gets
Explanation: To convert a hexadecimal number to converted to 01.00 in its 1’s complement format.
decimal number: Further, to convert 1’s complement into 2’s, we
161 * 5 + 160 * 2 = 80 + 2 = 82 add 1 to the result. Here, 01.00+1=10.00.
Hence, the decimal equivalent is 82.
9. Convert (6532)8 to hexadecimal.
6. The hexadecimal equivalent of the binary a) A01
number (0010010100)2 is : b) A02
a) 0B4 c) B01
b) 0A4 d) C01
c) 224 View Answer
d) 0114
View Answer Answer: c
Explanation: To convert octal to hexadecimal, we
Answer: c first write binary format of the number and then
Explanation: To obtain the octal equivalent, we make groups of 4 bits from right to left, as follows:
take numbers in groups of 3, from right to left as : 6 5 3 2
110 101 011 010 (octal ->
binary)
1101 0101 1010 ( groups of 4)
D 5 A ( hexadecimal
equivalent)

Therefore, the hexadecimal equivalent is (D5A)16.

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14
 10. What do we call the point(decimal) in any a) Constants
hexadecimal number of the form 111.A3? b) Variables
a) radix c) Modules
b) hexadecimal point d) Tokens
c) decimal View Answer
d) octal point
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: Variables are the data entities whose
Answer: b values can be changed. Constants have a fixed
Explanation: The decimal is often referred to as the value. Tokens are the words which are easily
hexadecimal point in hexadecimal representation identified by the compiler.
of numbers.
It is referred to as the octal point in octal numbers. 5. Which of the following is not a basic data type
in C language?
1. Which of the following is not a data type? a) float
a) Symbolic Data b) int
b) Alphanumeric Data c) real
c) Numeric Data d) char
d) Alphabetic Data View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: There are 5 basic data types in C
Explanation: Data types are of three basic types: language: int, char, float, double, void.
Numeric, Alphabetic and Alphanumeric. Numeric Int is for the representation of integers, char is for
Data consists of only numbers. strings and characters, float and double are for
Alphabetic Data consists of only letters and a blank floating point numbers whereas void is a valueless
character and alphanumeric data consists of special data type.
symbols.
6. BOOLEAN is a type of data type which
2. *@Ac# is a type of ________________ data. basically gives a tautology or fallacy.
a) Symbolic a) True
b) Alphanumeric b) False
c) Alphabetic View Answer
d) Numeric
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: A Boolean representation is for
Answer: b giving logical values. It returns either true or false.
Explanation: Alphanumeric data consists of If a result gives a truth value, it is called tautology
symbols. Alphanumeric data may be a letter, either whereas if it returns a false term, it is referred to as
in uppercase or lowercase or some special symbols fallacy.
like #,^,*,(, etc.
7. What does FORTRAN stands for?
3. Which of the following is not a valid a) Formula Transfer
representation in bits? b) Formula Transformation
a) 8-bit c) Formula Translation
b) 24-bit d) Format Transformation
c) 32-bit View Answer
d) 64-bit
View Answer Answer: c
Explanation: FORTRAN is a type of computer
Answer: b language. It was developed for solving
Explanation: There are no criteria like the 24-bit mathematical and scientific problems. It is very
representation of numbers. Numbers can be written commonly used among the scientific community.
in 8-bit, 16-bit, 32-bit and 64-bit as per the IEEE
format. 8. The program written by the programmer in high
level language is called _____________
4. What are the entities whose values can be a) Object Program
changed called? b) Source Program
15
c) Assembled Program Answer: a
d) Compiled Program Explanation: In a Binary Coded Decimal format,
View Answer 64 characters i.e. 26 different characters can be
represented. It is one of the early computer codes.
Answer: b
Explanation: The program written by the 3. Which of the following is not a type of
programmer is called a source program. The computer code?
program generated by the compiler after a) EBCDIC
compilation is called an object program. The object b) BCD
program is in machine language. c) ASCII
d) EDIC
9. A standardized language used for commercial View Answer
applications.
a) C Answer: d
b) Java Explanation: There is no coding scheme like
c) COBOL EDIC. EBCDIC stands for Extended Binary Coded
d) FORTRAN Decimal Interchange Code. BCD stands for Binary
View Answer Coded Decimal. ASCII stands for American
Standard Code for information interchange.
Answer: c
Explanation: COBOL is a language used in 4. The BCD representation of (34)10 is
business and commercial applications. It stands for _______________
Common Business Oriented Language. It is a) 6
imperative, procedural as well as object oriented b) 7
language. c) 8
d) 5
10. ______________ define how the locations can View Answer
be used.
a) Data types Answer: b
b) Attributes Explanation: BCD numbers are represented as:
c) Links 34 = (0011 0100)BCD.
d) Data Objects Each digit is individually taken and an equivalent
View Answer standard 4 bit term is written for the respective
digit.
Answer: b
Explanation: Attributes can determine how any 5. Perform BCD addition of (23)BCD + (20)BCD .
location can be used. Attributes can be type, name, a) 00110100
component, etc. Data objects are the variables and b) 01000011
constants in a program. c) 10011
d) 11100
1. A group of bits used to represent a symbol is View Answer
called a ____________
a) byte Answer: b
b) memory Explanation: To add any two BCD numbers :
c) nibble Simply perform the addition : 23+20=43.
d) code Then, write the equivalent BCD number = (0100
View Answer 0011)BCD.

Answer: a 6. The weights used in Binary coded decimal code

Explanation: In binary coding, every symbol that are:
appears in data is represented by a group of bits, a) 4,2,1
which are called bytes. Computer codes use binary b) 8,4,2,1
coding schemes. c) 6,4,2,1
d) 2,1
2. BCD uses 6 bits to represent a symbol. View Answer
a) True
b) False Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: BCD is a weighted code and it uses
16
the weights 8,4,2,1 respectively. It is often called 1. What does EBCDIC stand for?
the 8421 code. Since, it uses 4 bits for the a) Extended Binary Converted Decimal
representation therefore the weights are assigned as Intermediate Code
: 23 = 8, 22 = 4, 21 = 2, 20 = 1. b) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Intermediate
Code
7. Write the decimal equivalent for (110001)BCD. c) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange
a) 31 Code
b) 13 d) Extended Binary Converted Decimal
c) C1 Interchange Code
d) 1C View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: EBCDIC is the Extended BCD
Explanation: To obtain the decimal equivalent : interchange code. It uses 8 bits to represent a
We start from the rightmost bit and make groups of symbol. It can represent 256 different characters.
4, then write the decimal equivalent accordingly.
0011 0001 = (31)10. 2. In EBCDIC, a maximum of 128 different
characters can be represented.
8. The 9’s complement of 45 is _____________ a) True
a) 45 b) False
b) 54 View Answer
c) 64
d) 46 Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: EBCDIC uses 8 bits for
representation. Therefore, 28 i.e., 256 different
Answer: b characters can be represented and not 128. Thus,
Explanation: The 9’s complement of a number is the above statement is false.
obtained by subtracting each digit from 9. Here,
99-45=54. Therefore, the 9’s complement is 54. 3. The EBCDIC code for the character A is
______________
9. The 10’s complement of 455 is _________ a) digit : 1100 zone : 0001
a) 543 b) digit : 1111 zone : 0001
b) 544 c) digit : 1100 zone : 1010
c) 545 d) digit : 1111 zone : 1010
d) 546 View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: The character A is represented by the
Explanation: To obtain the 10’s complement, we digit 1100 and the zone 0001. The hex
first obtain the 9’s complement and then add 1 to representation for the same is C1. Similarly for B it
it. is C2 and so on.
999-455=544 (9’s)
544+1=545(10’s). 4. The hex representation for F is
_______________
10. The Excess-3 representation of (0100)BCD is a) C6
__________ b) C5
a) 0110 c) D6
b) 1110 d) D1
c) 0111 View Answer
d) 1100
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: Certain hex representations are :
Answer: c C1=A
Explanation: The excess-3 code is obtained by C2=B
adding 3 to the BCD code. C3=D
Here, 0100+0011=0111. C4=E
Also, 4+3=7. C5=F
C6=G
17
C7=H numbers. Here, 0.101 gets converted to 1.010 in its
C8=I 1’s complement format.
C9=J.
9. The EBCDIC is mainly used in ___________
5. In EBCDIC, D5 is used to represent ________ a) Programming
character. b) Machine Codes
a) J c) Mainframes
b) N d) Super Computers
c) O View Answer
d) K
View Answer Answer: c
Explanation: This concept of EBCDIC was
Answer: b invented by IBM. It is mainly used in the IBM
Explanation: D5 is used to represent N in this mainframe environment. So basically, mainframes
system. The representations D1 to D9 are used for use EBCDIC codes.
the characters J to R respectively.
10. Which of the following character is available
6. Which of the following is not a character of the in EBCDIC but not in ASCII?
digit 1110? a) cent sign
a) S b) dollar sign
b) Z c) comma
c) O d) punctuation
d) X View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: The cent sign wasn’t available in
Explanation: All the alphabets from S to Z have ASCII which is the American Standard Code for
their digit as 1110. Here, O has the digit 1101 and Information interchange. It was available in
therefore is the incorrect option. Example: S has EBCDIC though and thus was considered better.
the digit as 1110 and zone 0010.
1. What does ASCII stand for?
7. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the digit a) American Standard Code for Information
9? Interchange
a) E9 b) American Scientific Code for Information
b) F9 Interchange
c) G9 c) American Scientific Code for Interchanging
d) H9 Information
View Answer d) American Standard Code for Interchanging
Information
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: For digits in EBCDIC, the hex
equivalent starts from F0 to F9. Answer: a
F0=0 Explanation: The ASCII codes are used to
F1=1 represent the bits into symbols and vice versa.
F2=2 ASCII is the American Standard Code which is
F3=3 and so on. used to exchange information.

8. The characters from 0 to 9 have their common 2. The decimal representation for the character ‘!’
digit as ___________ in ASCII is ____________
a) 1111 a) 31
b) 0000 b) 32
c) 0001 c) 33
d) 1000 d) 34
View Answer View Answer

Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: The digits are 1111 in case of Explanation: The decimal representation of a few
basic characters are:
18
33 : ! 7. The zone of alphabetic characters from A to O
34 : ” in ASCII is _____________
35: # a) 1000
36 :$. b) 0100
c) 0010
3. The two types of ASCII are _____________ d) 0001
and ____________ View Answer
a) ASCII-4 and ASCII-8
b) ASCII-8 and ASCII-16 Answer: b
c) ASCII-7 and ASCII-8 Explanation: The zone used by ASCII for
d) ASCII-4 and ASCII-16 alphabets is 0100. For e.g. A is represented as
View Answer 0100(zone)0001(digit). The hex equivalent is 41
for A. The zone used by numbers is 0011.
Answer: c
Explanation: The two types of ASCII are ASCII-7 8. The representation of the number 8 in binary in
and ASCII-8. ASCII-7 uses 7 bits for the ASCII-8 format _________
representation of numbers and ASCII-8 uses 8-bits. a) 00111000
b) 01001000
4. Any set of digits or alphabets are generally c) 1000
referred as ______________ d) 00011000
a) Characters View Answer
b) Symbols
c) Bits Answer: a
d) Bytes Explanation: The ASCII-8 format will have 8 bits.
View Answer The zone for the character 8 is 0011 and the digit is
1000. Therefore, its representation is 00111000.
Answer: a
Explanation: We refer to the digits and alphabets 9. Binary Coding for the letter X is
generally as characters. A character is generally a ______________
unit of information in computers. a) 01011000
b) 00111000
5. The first 128 characters are the same in both the c) 10001000
types of ASCII i.e. ASCII-7 and ASCII-8. d) 00010100
a) True View Answer
b) False
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: The binary coding for the letter X is
Answer: a 01011000. Here, 0101 is the zone whereas 1000 is
Explanation: There are two types of ASCII codes: the digit. The alphabets from P to Z have the zone
ASCII-7 and ASCII-8. ASCII-7 uses 7 bits to 0101.
represent a number whereas ASCII-8 uses 8-bits to
represent a number. 10. Express the ASCII equivalent of the signed
binary number (00110010)2.
6. The number of characters that can be a) 2
represented in ASCII-8 are ______________ b) 1
a) 128 c) A
b) 256 d) ,
c) 32 View Answer
d) 64
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: The ASCII characters for the
Answer: b remaining options are:
Explanation: ASCII-8 can represent 256 different 1 : 00110001
characters. ASCII-8 uses 8-bits for the A : 01000001
representation of numbers i.e. it can represent 28 = , : 00101100.
256 different characters.
1. The numbers used to represent numeric values
in EBCDIC are _______
19
a) zoned d) F3F4D5
b) unsigned View Answer
c) packed
d) eb Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: F is used for the representation of
unsigned numbers therefore, F3F4F5 represents
Answer: a 345. F3F4C5 represents +345 . F3F4D5 represents
Explanation: Zoned numbers represent the numeric -345.
values under EBCDIC (Extended Binary Coded
Decimal Interchange Code). In zoned format, there 6. Which of the following is a valid encoding
is only one digit per byte. format?
a) UTF-1
2. Unicode provides a consistent way of encoding b) UTF-8
multilingual plain text. c) UTF-A
a) True d) UTF-4
b) False View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: The various encoding formats are
Explanation: Unicode defines codes for characters UTF-8, UTF-16 and UTF-32. UTF stands for
used in all major languages of the world. Unicode Transformation Format. It is basically an
It is a coding system which supports almost all the encoding system that supports all languages.
languages. It defines special codes for different
characters, symbols, diacritics, etc. 7. _________________ defines the assigned
ordering among the characters used by the
3. Which of the following is not a type of numeric computer.
value in zoned format? a) Unicode
a) Positive b) Collating Sequence
b) Negative c) Accumulation
c) Double d) Sorting
d) Unsigned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: Collating sequence is the term used
Explanation: The zoned format can represent for ordering among characters. It may vary
numeric values of type Positive, negative and depending upon the type of code used by a
unsigned numbers. A sign indicator is used in the computer.
zone position of the rightmost digit.
8. The sorting sequence of the strings A1,23,1A
4. The sign indicator of unsigned numbers is will be ______________
____________ a) 23 > A1 > 1A
a) C b) 23 < 1A > A1
b) D c) A1 > 1A > 23
c) F d) A1 < 1A < 23
d) X View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: c Explanation: The sorting order is A1, 1A, 23.
Explanation: A sign indicator is used in the zone Numeric characters are given a greater preference
position of the rightmost digit. A sign indicator C in EBCDIC as compared to the alphabets.
is used for positive, D for negative and F is used
for negative numbers. 9. The default character coding in HTML-5 is
_____________
5. The EBCDIC value of the number 345 in zoned a) UTF-8
format is __________ b) UTF-16
a) F3F4F5 c) UTF-4
b) E3E4E5 d) UTF-32
c) F3F4C5 View Answer
20
 Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: HTML5 which is the hypertext Explanation: 1’s complement is obtained by
markup language generally uses the UTF-8 format reversing the bits from 0 to 1 and vice-versa.
as its default encoding. Unicode covers all the Binary of 1 is : 0001 and 1’s complement is : 1110.
characters and symbols in all the different
languages. 4. The binary number 111 in its 2’s complement
form is ____________
10. Numbers used in packed decimal format can a) 010
be used for _____________ operations. b) 001
a) logical c) 000
b) relational d) 111
c) arithmetic View Answer
d) bitwise
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: 2’s complement is obtained by adding
Answer: c 1 to the 1’s complement. 1’s complement of 111:
Explanation: The packed numbers can be used for 000 and 2’s complement:001.
arithmetic operations. The packed numbers also
require the lesser number of bytes as compared to 5. The sign magnitude representation of -9 is
zoned numbers. ___________
a) 00001001
1. __________________ is a straightforward b) 11111001
method of representing positive and negative c) 10001001
numbers. d) 11001
a) Radix View Answer
b) Complement
c) Sign Magnitude Answer: c
d) Encode Explanation: In case of a negative number, the
View Answer leftmost digit is 1 if the number is negative.
Therefore, +9=00001001 and -9=10001001.
Answer: c Similarly for all other negative numbers.
Explanation: Sign Magnitude is used for the
representation of positive and negative numbers. If 6. If you are given a word of size n bits, the range
the leftmost digit is 0, the number is positive. If the of 2’s complement of binary numbers is ________
leftmost digit is 1, the number is negative. a) -2n+1 to +2n+1
b) -2n-1 to +2n-1
2. The additive inverse of a number is the number c) -2n-1 to +2n+1
which when added to the original number gives 1 d) -2n-1 to +2n-1-1
as a result. View Answer
a) True
b) False Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: 2’s complement is obtained by adding
1 to the 1’s complement. For e.g. 5 :0101 and 1’s
Answer: b complement=1010 and 2’s complement=1011.
Explanation: Additive Inverse of a number is the
number which gives 0 and not 1 when added to the 7. In both signed magnitude and 2’s complement ,
original number. e.g. number=45, additive inverse positive and negative numbers are separated using
=-45, after addition they give 0. ______________
a) LSB
3. The 1’s complement of 1 in 4 bits is b) MSB
__________ c) 0
a) 0001 d) 1
b) 0 View Answer
c) 1001
d) 1110 Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: The positive and negative numbers
are separated using the MSB. MSB is the Most
Significant Bit. MSB is the leftmost bit. e.g. If
21
1000 is the number then 1 is the most significant 2. One extra bit is added on the left of a binary
bit. number, in case of Binary Multiplication using
Booth’s Algorithm.
8. Single Precision format comprises of a) True
_________ bits. b) False
a) 4 View Answer
b) 8
c) 16 Answer: a
d) 32 Explanation: The statement is true as an extra bit is
View Answer added when we multiply 2 binary numbers by
using Booth’s.
Answer: d Let us take an example if we multiply 2 * – 3.
Explanation: The single precision format The first step is to obtain the binary equivalents.
comprises of 32-bits. It has 1 sign bit, 8 bits for Hence, 2=10 and -3=01.
exponent and 23 for the mantissa. Now after adding the extra bit 2=010 and -3=101.
We add 0 in case of positive numbers whereas 1 in
9. If m is the 2’s complement and n is the binary negative numbers.
number, then ______________
a) m=n’ 3. The binary number obtained after applying
b) m=n’+1 RSC on 11010 will be ___________
c) m=n’-1 a) 11101
d) m=n b) 10100
View Answer c) 01101
d) 01000
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: 2’s complement is simply obtained by
addition of 1. So if n is the number and we take the Answer: c
2’s complement, add 1 to it, we get the 2’s Explanation: RSC stands for Right-Shift Circulant.
complement. Therefore, m=n’+1. So, whenever the numbers are shifted to the right
an extra 0 bit is added to the left. Here, after the
10. The possible number of bit patterns with 8 bits right shift of 11010, the number obtained will be
________________ 01101.
a) 128
b) 8 4. The result of >> of 11001 by 3-bits will be
c) 24 ______________
d) 256 a) 01000
View Answer b) 01111
c) 00011
Answer: d d) 11111
Explanation: The total number of patterns that can View Answer
be formed using n-bits are 2n. Here, possible
patterns are: 28=256. Answer: a
Explanation: >> is the bitwise left shift operator in
1. Which of the following is used for binary binary arithmetic.
multiplication? Applying >>(left-shift) by 3-bits on the number
a) Restoring Multiplication 11001 will result in 3 zeroes on the right, i.e.,
b) Booth’s Algorithm 01000.
c) Pascal’s Rule
d) Digit-by-digit multiplication 5. Booth’s Algorithm is applied on
View Answer _____________
a) decimal numbers
Answer: b b) binary numbers
Explanation: The Booth’s Algorithm is used for the c) hexadecimal numbers
multiplication of binary numbers. It is basically d) octal Numbers
used for the multiplication of 2 signed numbers. View Answer
This is a very important algorithm in binary
arithmetic. Answer: b
Explanation: Booth’s Algorithm is applied only on
22
signed and unsigned binary numbers. c) -2
Although, the values of other number systems can d) -3
be converted to binary, and then the multiplication View Answer
could be performed.
Answer: a
6. If Booth’s Multiplication is performed on the Explanation: After applying the procedure of
numbers 22*3, then what is 3 referred to as Booth’s Algorithm, the value obtained will be 6.
__________ Even though the result is obtained in its 2’s
a) accumulator complement for but then it is reconverted to its
b) multiplicand normalized form. Also, the value obtained after
c) quotient decimal multiplication is the same as the value
d) multiplier obtained after binary multiplication.
View Answer
10. What does the data transfer instruction STA
Answer: d stand for?
Explanation: It is referred to as the multiplier. a) Store Accumulator
Multiplier is denoted by Q in booth’s algorithm. 22 b) Send Accumulator
is called the multiplicand. These numbers are first c) Send Action
converted to their binary equivalents and further d) Store Action
the multiplication is performed. View Answer

7. What is the default value of accumulator in Answer: a

booth’s multiplication of two 4-bit binary Explanation: STA is a data transfer instruction
numbers? given whenever a value is to be copied on the
a) 0 accumulator. It is used for the fetch operation.
b) 1
c) 0000 1. What is the 1’s complement of 11010?
d) 00000 a) 11010
View Answer b) 11011
c) 00110
Answer: d d) 00101
Explanation: The correct answer is d because in View Answer
case of Booth’s algorithm an extra bit is always
added to the binary numbers. The 4-bit binary Answer: d
numbers become 5-bit numbers after adding the Explanation: The 1’s complement of a number is
extra bit. Accumulator is always assigned 0 bits of obtained by converting all the 0 bits to 1 and all 1’s
the order of the binary numbers whose to 0’s. Here, 11010 gets converted to 00101.
multiplication is to be performed.
2. 2’s complement is obtained by adding 1 to 1’s
8. What is the value of n in multiplication of 110* complement of a number.
1000? a) True
a) 2 b) False
b) 3 View Answer
c) 4
d) 0 Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: The statement is true. Let us take an
example: Consider the number 110000.
Answer: c 1’s complement of the number is 001111. 2’s
Explanation: In Booth’s, n denotes the number of complement=001111+1=010000.
bits that the higher binary number has when
multiplication is performed. Here, since there are 4 3. The 10’s complement of 562 is __________
bits in 1000, the answer is n=4. a) 4
b) 3
9. What will be the value obtained after c) 7
multiplication of (-2) * (-3) using Booth’s d) 8
Algorithm? View Answer
a) 6
b) -6
23
 Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: 10’s complement is obtained by Explanation: Firstly, the 2’s complement of the
adding 1 to the 9’s complement of a number. 2nd number is obtained.
Here, 9’s complement=999-562=436. Then, if carry is generated, it is discarded and the
Therefore, 10’s complement=436+1=437. number is positive.
Otherwise, 2’s complement of the result is
4. The 9’s complement of 6578 is ___________ obtained and the answer is negative.
a) 1234 Here, 1111+1110=1, 1101. Since carry is
b) 3421 generated, it is discarded and the answer is
c) 3124 positive.
d) 3420
View Answer 8. The 1’s complement of 1111111110.101 is
_______________
Answer: b a) 1.010
Explanation: 9’s complement is obtained by b) 0000000000.010
subtracting 9 from each bit of the number. c) 1111111110.101
Here, 9999-6578=3421. d) 1.101
Therefore, the 9’s complement is 3421. View Answer

5. >> operator is used to denote _________ Answer: a

a) left shift Explanation: The 1’s complement of a number is
b) right shift obtained by reversing the bits with value 1 to 0 and
c) greater than the bits with value 0 to 1. Here, 11111111110.101
d) less than gets converted to 000000001.010 in its 1’s
View Answer complement format.

Answer: b 9. 7’s complement of 432 is _________________

Explanation: >> operator denotes the right shift in a) 432
binary arithmetic. b) 543
E.g. If we say, >>110 by 2-bits, the value obtained c) 345
will be 001. d) 777
Similarly, << denotes the right shift operator. View Answer

6. The subtraction using 1’s complement of 110 – Answer: c

100 will give the result ___________ Explanation: To find the 7’s complement of any
a) -011 number, we simply subtract 7 from each of the bits.
b) 011 Here, 777-432=345. So, the 7’s complement is
c) 010 345.
d) -010
View Answer 10. The 16’s complement of 74E will be
__________
Answer: c a) 8B2
Explanation: To subtract using 1’s complement: b) F8B2
Take the 1’s complement of the 2nd number (here, c) 2B8
011) and add it to the first number. d) 8C2
(110+011=1,001). View Answer
If the carry is generated, it is added to the result
(001+1=010). Answer: b
If a carry is not generated then it is converted to its Explanation: The 16’s complement is obtained by
1’s complement form. subtracting 16 from each of the bits of that number.
Here, 16’s complement of 074E will be F8B2.
7. The result obtained on subtraction using 2’s
complement of 1111-0010 will be _________ 1. Binary addition of 1 + 1 gives the result
a) 11101 _____________
b) 11011 a) 0
c) 1101 b) 1
d) 1011 c) 2
View Answer
24
d) 10 Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: Most computers follow the IEEE 754
bit format for floating point arithmetic. IEEE
Answer: a stands for electrical and electronic engineers. It has
Explanation: The result obtained is 0 with a carry all the floating point arithmetic specifications.
of 1. This carry obtained is added to the next
higher column. Binary system can have only two 6. Which of the following is often called the
numbers 0 and 1. double precision format?
a) 64-bit
2. 4-bit is a valid IEEE- format. b) 8-bit
a) True c) 32-bit
b) False d) 128-bit
View Answer View Answer

Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: The two main IEEE formats are 16- Explanation: The 64-bit format is referred to as the
bit and 32-bit. No format of 4-bit exists. Further, 8- double precision format. It has 1 sign bit, 8
bit format also exists. exponent bits and 23 bits for the mantissa.
In IEEE format, there are certain bits allotted to
sign, exponent and mantissa. 7. What is NaN in IEEE standards?
a) Not arithmetic
3. The result of 0 – 1 in binary is b) Not a negation
______________ c) Not a number
a) 0 d) Not a Node
b) 1 View Answer
c) 11
d) 10 Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: It stands for not a number in IEEE
standards. A NaN is obtained whenever a result id
Answer: b indeterminate like whenever anything is divided by
Explanation: The binary subtraction 0 – 1 gives the 0.
result 1. A borrow of 1 is although generated and is
removed from the next higher column. 8. The result that is smaller than the smallest
number obtained is referred to as ___________
4. The complement of any number can be given a) NaN
by a general term _______________ b) Underflow
a) Bn – 1 – N c) Smallest
b) Bn -1 + N d) Mantissa
c) Bn +1 – N View Answer
d) Bn +1 + N
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: It is referred to as underflow. Nan
Answer: a stands for not a number. The mantissa is the part
Explanation: Complement of a number can be after the decimal.
given by the term :
C= Bn – 1 – N. 9. The number of sign bits in a 32-bit IEEE format
Here, _________
B= base a) 1
n= number of digits b) 11
N= the number. c) 9
d) 23
5. The IEEE standard followed by almost all the View Answer
computers for floating point arithmetic _____
a) IEEE 260 Answer: a
b) IEEE 488 Explanation: There is only 1 sign bit in all the
c) IEEE 754 standards. In a 32-bit format, there is 1 sign bit, 8
d) IEEE 610 bits for the exponent and 23 bits for the mantissa.
View Answer
25
 10. Express the decimal format of the signed c) Multiplicand
binary number (101010)2 . d) Multiplier
a) 10 View Answer
b) 12
c) -12 Answer: d
d) -10 Explanation: 111 is called the multiplier.
View Answer Whenever a multiplication is performed the second
term is called the multiplier whereas the first term
Answer: d is called the multiplicand.
Explanation: The first bit is the sign bit whereas
the rest of the bits are magnitude bits. So the 5. The result obtained on binary multiplication of
number is: 01010 =23 * 1 + 21 * 1 =8+2 =10. 1010 * 1100 is _____________
But, the sign bit is 1 , a) 0001111
Therefore the answer is : (-2)10. b) 0011111
c) 1111100
1. Perform binary addition of 1101 + 0010 is d) 1111000
________ View Answer
a) 1110
b) 1111 Answer: d
c) 0111 Explanation: The solution is as follows :
d) 1,1101 1010
View Answer * 1100
________
Answer: b 0000
Explanation: The addition is performed as : 0000
1101 1010
+ 0010 1010
_______ _______
1111 1111000
Therefore, the result is 1111.
6. Which of the following is often called the
2. The addition 1+1 gives 0 as a result. double precision format?
a) True a) 64-bit
b) False b) 8-bit
View Answer c) 32-bit
d) 128-bit
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: The two result obtained is 0 with a
carry of 1. This carry is transferred to the next Answer: a
higher column. Explanation: The 64-bit format is referred to as the
double precision format. It has 1 sign bit, 8
3. The result of 0*1 in binary is ____________ exponent bits and 23 bits for the mantissa.
a) 0
b) 1 7. What do you call the intermediate terms in
c) invalid binary multiplication?
d) 10 a) Multipliers
View Answer b) Mid terms
c) Partial Products
Answer: a d) Multiplicands
Explanation: The binary multiplication of any View Answer
number with 0 will give the result 0 itself. Any
binary number when multiplied by 0 gives 0 only. Answer: c
e.g. 1101 * 0000 = 0000. Explanation: The intermediate terms are called
partial terms. The mid terms obtained in the binary
4. The multiplication of 110 * 111 is performed. multiplications are the partial ones whereas the
What is a general term used for 111? answer obtained is called the final product.
a) Dividend
b) Quotient
26
 8. The result that is smaller than the smallest 2. Boolean Algebra can deal with any number
number obtained is referred to as ___________ system.
a) NaN a) True
b) Underflow b) False
c) Smallest View Answer
d) Mantissa
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: Boolean Algebra can only be used
Answer: b with the binary number system. Boolean deals with
Explanation: It is referred to as underflow. Nan only two values 0 and 1. In Boolean System, if the
stands for not a number. Mantissa is the part after result is tautology it returns 1 otherwise 0.
the decimal.
3. The symbol + in Boolean is also known as the
9. The number of sign bits in a 32-bit IEEE format ____________ operator.
is _______ a) AND
a) 1 b) OR
b) 11 c) ADD
c) 9 d) SUMMATION
d) 23 View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: The symbol + is also called as the OR
Explanation: There is only 1 sign bit in all the operator. It is used for logical addition. It follows
standards. In a 32-bit format, there is 1 sign bit, 8 the law of binary addition.
bits for the exponent and 23 bits for the mantissa.
advertisement 4. Which operator has the highest precedence?
a) +
10. Express the decimal format of the signed b) .
binary number (101010)2 . c) !
a) 10 d) *
b) 12 View Answer
c) -12
d) -10 Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: The NOT operator has the highest
precedence. It is denoted by ! or – sign. Further,
Answer: d AND (.) operations are performed and then the OR
Explanation: The first bit is the sign bit whereas terms are evaluated.
the rest of the bits are magnitude bits. So the
number is: 01010 =23 * 1 + 21 * 1 =8+2 =10. 5. In the expression Y + X’.Y, which operator will
But , the sign bit is 1, be evaluated first?
Therefore the answer is : (-2)10. a) ‘
b) +
c) .
1. The number of values applicable in Boolean d) ,
Algebra. View Answer
a) 1
b) 2 Answer: a
c) 3 Explanation: In Boolean Algebra, complement of a
d) 4 number is given the highest precedence. Therefore,
View Answer complement which is denoted by the ‘ (apostrophe)
symbol is evaluated first.
Answer: b
Explanation: Boolean algebra is based on binary 6. Which of the following is false?
number system. It therefore comprises only 2 bits : a) x+y=y+x
0 and 1. Hence, only two values are applicable to b) x.y=y.x
Boolean algebra. c) x.x’=1
d) x+x’=1
View Answer
27
 Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: The first and second option describes Explanation: The Boolean functions are
the commutative law. The fourth option holds true represented using the truth tables. Truth tables
since if x=1, then x’=0, and x+x’=1. Third option represent the tautology and fallacy for terms.
is incorrect because on multiplication of a boolean
value with its complement the result will always be 1. Boolean Function is of the form of ________
0. a) Truth values
b) K=f(X,Y,X)
7. As per idempotent law, X + X will always be c) Algebraic Expression
equal to ________ d) Truth Table
a) 0 View Answer
b) 1
c) X Answer: a
d) 2X Explanation: The boolean function is of the form
View Answer of algebraic expressions or truth table. A boolean
function is of the form as that of option 2. The
Answer: c result obtained from a boolean function can be a
Explanation: It will always return the same value truth value or a fallacy.
X. Since, boolean deals with only two numbers 0
and 1, if we add 0+0, the answer is 0. Similarly, if 2. The result of X+X.Y is X.
we add 1+1 the answer is 1. a) True
b) False
8. The expression for involution law is _________ View Answer
a) x+y=y+x
b) x+1=1 Answer: a
c) (x’)’=x Explanation: This is a boolean expression. It can be
d) x.x=x evaluated as :
View Answer X+X.Y = X(1+Y) = X.
Since 1+Y=1 by boolean laws.
Answer: c
Explanation: The involution law states that the 3. In the boolean function w=f(X,Y,Z), what is the
complement of complement of a number is the RHS referred to as ________
number itself. The third option justifies the a) right hand side
statement. Thus, (x’)’=x. b) expression
c) literals
9. Who proposed the use of Boolean algebra in d) boolean
the design of relay switching circuits? View Answer
a) George Boole
b) Claude E. Shannon Answer: b
c) Claude E. Boole Explanation: The RHS is commonly referred to as
d) George Shannon the expression. The symbols X, Y and Z are
View Answer commonly referred to as the literals of the function.

Answer: b 4. The general form for calculating the number of

Explanation: Claude E Shannon suggested the use rows in a truth table is ________
of Boolean in relay switching circuits. George a) 2n
Boole, a mathematician introduced it for b) 2n+1
simplifying representations and manipulation of c) 2n
propositional logic. d) 2n+1
View Answer
10. Truth table is used to represent Boolean
__________ Answer: c
a) functions Explanation: The general form for the calculation
b) algebra of rows in a truth table is 2n . Here, n= number of
c) operators literals in the function.
d) addition
View Answer 5. The number of literals in the expression
F=X.Y’ + Z are _____________
28
a) 4 d) x+y+z
b) 3 View Answer
c) 2
d) 1 Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: There minterm expression is obtained
using the AND term. Here, when X=Y=Z=0, the
Answer: b expression obtained is x’y’z’.
Explanation: Literals the generally the number of
variables used in any boolean expression. Here, 10. The max term when X=Y=Z=1 is ________
since there are 3 variables X, Y and Z, therefore a) x’+y’+z’
the answer is 3. b) xyz
c) x’y’z’
6. The complement term for X’.Y’.Z + X.Y will d) x+y+z
be _____________ View Answer
a) XYZ’+X’Y’
b) (X+Y+Z’)(X’+Y’) Answer: a
c) (X+Y+Z’)(X’+Y) Explanation: The max term consists of variables
d) (X+Y+Z’)(X’+Y) forming an OR term. Here, when X=Y=Z=1, the
View Answer expression is x’+y’+z’.

Answer: b 1. The terms in SOP are called ___________

Explanation: The OR and AND operators are a) max terms
interchanged. The complement terms are reduced b) min terms
to normal terms and the result is obtained. c) mid terms
d) sum terms
7. What is the complement of X’Y’Z? View Answer
a) X+YZ
b) X’+Y+’Z’ Answer: b
c) X+Y+Z’ Explanation: The SOP is the sum of products. It
d) XYZ’ consists of min terms often called the product
View Answer terms.
Similarly, POS consists of max terms.
Answer: c
Explanation: The complement is obtained by 2. A sum of products expression is a product term
converting the complement terms to normal terms (min term) or several min terms ANDed together.
and vice versa. Also, the OR and AND operators a) True
are interchanged. Here, X’Y’Z gets converted to b) False
X+Y+Z’. View Answer

8. The minterm of any expression is denoted by Answer: b

___________ Explanation: The statement is partially correct.
a) Mt A sum of products expression is a product term
b) m (min term) or several min terms OR ed(i.e. added)
c) M together.
d) min
View Answer 3. Which of the following is an incorrect SOP
expression?
Answer: b a) x+x.y
Explanation: The variables forming an AND term b) (x+y)(x+z)
is generally the minterm. It is denoted by m. (lower c) x
case letter). d) x+y
View Answer
9. The min term when X=Y=Z=0 is
_____________ Answer: b
a) x’+y’+z’ Explanation: The second expression is incorrect
b) xyz because it consists of two maxterms ANDed
c) x’y’z’ together.
This makes it a POS or the product of sum
29
expression. Here, n=3 since there are 3 variables therefore, min
Other options are valid SOP expressions. terms=23=8.

4. The corresponding min term when x=0, y=0 8. The number of cells in a K-map with n-
and z=1. variables.
a) x.y.z’ a) 2n
b) X’+Y’+Z b) n2
c) X+Y+Z’ c) 2n
d) x’.y’.z d) n
View Answer View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The min term is obtained by taking
the complement of the zero values and taking the
term with value 1 as it is.
Here, x=0,y=0 and z=1, then the min term is x’y’z.
Answer: c
Explanation: K-map is nothing but Karnaugh map.
SOP and POS expressions can be simplified using
the K-map.
The number of cells in case of n-variables=2n.

5. LSI stands for ___________ 9. The output of AND gates in the SOP
a) Large Scale Integration expression is connected using the ________ gate.
b) Large System Integration a) XOR
c) Large Symbolic Instruction b) NOR
d) Large Symbolic Integration c) AND
View Answer d) OR
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It stands for large scale integration. Answer: d
This is the abstraction level of the integrated Explanation: Since the product terms or the min
circuits. terms are added in an SOP expression.
It can also be small scale, medium, large or very Therefore, the OR gate is used to connect the AND
large scale integration. gates.

6. Which operation is shown in the following 10. The expression A+BC is the reduced form of
expression: (X+Y’).(X+Z).(Z’+Y’) ______________
a) NOR a) AB+BC
b) ExOR b) (A+B)(A+C)
c) SOP c) (A+C)B
d) POS d) (A+B)C
View Answer View Answer

Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: The expression comprises of max Explanation: The second option is correct.
terms. It can simplified as follows: (A+B)(A+C)
Also, the terms are ANDed together, therefore it is =AA+AC+AB+BC
a POS term. =A+AC+AB+BC
=A(1+C)+AB+BC
7. The number of min terms for an expression =A+AB+BC
comprising of 3 variables? =A(1+B)+BC
a) 8 =A+BC.
b) 3
c) 0 1. Electronic circuits that operate on one or more
d) 1 input signals to produce standard output _______
View Answer a) Series circuits
b) Parallel Circuits
Answer: a c) Logic Signals
Explanation: If any expression comprises of n d) Logic Gates
variables, its corresponding min terms are given by View Answer
2n.

30
 Answer: d output from 0 to 1 and vice-versa.
Explanation: The logic gates operate on one or The Boolean expression for NOT gate is Y=A’.
more input signals to produce a standard output. Therefore, it gives the complement of the result
Logic gates give the output in the form of 0 and 1. obtained.
The Boolean algebra can be applied to the logic
gates. 6. Which of the following gate will give a 0 when
both of its inputs are 1?
2. Logic Gates are the building blocks of all a) AND
circuits in a computer. b) OR
a) True c) NAND
b) False d) EXOR
View Answer View Answer

Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: The statement is true. Explanation: The NAND gate gives 0 as the output
Logic gates are idealized to implement a boolean when both of its inputs are 1 or any one of the
function in all circuits of a computer. input is 1.
The signals are directed as per the outputs of the It returns a 1 only if both the inputs are 0.
logic gates in the form of 0 and 1.
7. When logic gates are connected to form a
3. A __________ gate gives the output as 1 only if gating/logic network it is called as a
all the inputs signals are 1. ______________ logic circuit.
a) AND a) combinational
b) OR b) sequential
c) EXOR c) systematic
d) NOR d) hardwired
View Answer View Answer

Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: The AND gate gives a 1 only if all Explanation: It is referred to as a combinational
the input signals are 1. circuit as it comprises a number of gates.
The Boolean expression for evaluating an AND It is connected to evaluate a result of a Boolean
signal is: Y=A.B. expression.

4. The boolean expression of an OR gate is 8. The universal gate that can be used to
_______ implement any Boolean expression is __________
a) A.B a) NAND
b) A’B+AB’ b) EXOR
c) A+B c) OR
d) A’B’ d) AND
View Answer View Answer

Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: An OR gate gives the result as 1 if Explanation: NAND gate can be used to implement
any one of the inputs is one. any Boolean expression.
Its expression is A+B. It is a universal gate. A universal gate can be used
An OR gate gives a 0 only if both the inputs are 0. to implement any other Boolean function without
using any other logic gate.
5. The gate which is used to reverse the output
obtained is _____ 9. The gate which is called an inverter is called
a) NOR _________
b) NAND a) NOR
c) EXOR b) NAND
d) NOT c) EXOR
View Answer d) NOT
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: NOT gate is used to reverse the
31
 Answer: d It gives a HIGH output only in one case when all
Explanation: Inverter is used to reverse the output. the inputs given to it are LOW.
A NOT gate is used to invert or change the output
from 0 to 1 and vice-versa. 4. The following figure shows a ___________
gate.
10. The expression of an EXOR gate is
____________
a) A’B+AB’
b) AB+A’B’
c) A+A.B
d) A’+B’
a) NOR
View Answer
b) NAND
c) EXOR
Answer: a d) OR
Explanation: The expression for an EXOR gate is View Answer
A’B+AB’.
An EXOR gate is nothing but an exclusive OR
Answer: a
gate.
Explanation: The figure is that of a NOR gate.
The bubble signifies that it is a NOR gate.
1. A ____________ is a circuit with only one It is a type of universal gate and can be used to
output but can have multiple inputs. implement all the boolean expressions.
a) Logic gate
b) Truth table
5. The complement of the input given is obtained
c) Binary circuit
in case of:
d) Boolean circuit
a) NOR
View Answer
b) AND+NOR
c) NOT
Answer: a d) EX-OR
Explanation: A logic gate is used to evaluate a View Answer
Boolean expression.
It can have multiple inputs but can have only one
Answer: c
output.
Explanation: The NOT gate, also called as the
The different types of logic gates are AND, OR,
inverter gate is used to reverse the input which is
NOT etc.
given.
It gives an inverted output, thus gives the
2. There are 5 universal gates. complement.
a) True Expression for NOT gate: Y=A’, where A is the
b) False input.
View Answer
6. How many AND gates are required to realize
Answer: b the following expression Y=AB+BC?
Explanation: There are only 2 main universal a) 4
gates: NAND and NOR. b) 8
A NAND gate as well as the NOR gate can be used c) 1
to implement any other Boolean expression thus it d) 2
is called as a universal gate. View Answer
3. The Output is LOW if any one of the inputs is Answer: d
HIGH in case of a _________ gate. Explanation: 2 AND gates are required to realize
a) NOR the expression.
b) NAND 1 AND gate will be used to connect the inputs A
c) OR and B whereas the other will be used to connect the
d) AND inputs B and C.
View Answer
7. Number of outputs in a half adder
Answer: b _____________
Explanation: In case of a NAND gate the output is a) 1
LOW if any one of the inputs is HIGH (i.e. 1).
32
b) 2 c) Central Processing Unit
c) 3 d) Memory
d) 0 View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: The CPU is referred to as the brain of
Explanation: A half adder gives two outputs. a computer.
One is called the sum and the other is carry. It consists of a control unit and the arithmetic and
Half adder can be implemented using an EXOR logic unit. It is responsible for performing all the
gate and an AND gate. processes and operations.

8. The ________ gate is an OR gate followed by a 2. Control Unit acts as the central nervous system
NOT gate. of the computer.
a) NAND a) True
b) EXOR b) False
c) NOR View Answer
d) EXNOR
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: The control unit is referred to as the
Answer: c central nervous system because it selects and
Explanation: A NOR gate is a universal gate which interprets the instructions and coordinates
is an OR gate followed by a NOT gate. execution.
It therefore reverses the output obtained by an OR
gate. 3. What does MBR stand for?
It can be used to implement any Boolean a) Main Buffer Register
expression. b) Memory Buffer Routine
c) Main Buffer Routine
9. The expression of a NAND gate is_______ d) Memory Buffer Register
a) A.B View Answer
b) A’B+AB’
c) (A.B)’ Answer: d
d) (A+B)’ Explanation: The binary subtraction 0 – 1 gives the
View Answer result 1.
A borrow of 1 is although generated and is
Answer: c removed from the next higher column.
Explanation: A NAND gate is an AND gate
followed by a NOT gate. 4. In the instruction ADD A, B, the answer gets
It therefore inverts the output of an AND gate. stored in ___________
NAND gate is also a universal gate. a) B
b) A
10. Which of the following correctly describes the c) Buffer
distributive law. d) C
a)( A+B)(C+D)=AB+CD View Answer
b) (A+B).C=AC+BC
c) (AB)(A+B)=AB Answer: b
d) (A.B)C=AC.AB Explanation: In any instruction of the form ADD
View Answer A, B; the answer gets stored in the A register. The
format is: ADD Destination, Source.
Answer: b
Explanation: The second option correctly describes 5. What does PC stand for?
the distributive law. a) Program Changer
(A+B).C =AC+BC. b) Program Counter
Boolean Laws are used to implementing and c) Performance Counter
simplifying Boolean expression. d) Performance Changer
View Answer
1. Brain of computer is ____________
a) Control unit Answer: b
b) Arithmetic and Logic unit Explanation: The Program counter contains the
33
address of the next instruction which is to be Sequencing is traversing each and every operation
fetched by the control unit. whereas execution causes the performance of each
All other options are invalid. operation.

6. Which of the following holds the last 10. What does D in the D-flip flop stand for?
instruction fetched? a) Digital
a) PC b) Direct
b) MAR c) Delay
c) MBR d) Durable
d) IR View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: d Explanation: In the hardwired control unit, the
Explanation: The IR which stands for the delay element method uses D-flip flop which
instruction register contains the last instruction causes a delay. Since, in the delay element method,
fetched. there must be a finite time gap between the 2 steps.
All the others options are registers which are used
for the fetch operation. 1. CPU has built-in ability to execute a particular
set of machine instructions, called as __________
7. The portion of the processor which contains the a) Instruction Set
hardware required to fetch the operations is b) Registers
_______ c) Sequence Set
a) Datapath d) User instructions
b) Processor View Answer
c) Control
d) Output unit Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: An instruction is any task which is to
be performed by the processor. Instructions are
Answer: a stored in the register. Instruction set is the set of
Explanation: The datapath contains the hardware machine instructions.
required to fetch the operations. The control tells
the data path what needs to be done. 2. Opcode indicates the operations to be
performed.
8. Causing the CPU to step through a series of a) True
micro operations is called _________ b) False
a) Execution View Answer
b) Runtime
c) Sequencing Answer: a
d) Pipelining Explanation: Every instruction has an opcode.
View Answer Additionally, it may have one or more operands
and the op code indicates the operation to be
Answer: c performed.
Explanation: Sequencing is the process of causing
the CPU to step through a series of micro 3. The length of a register is called _______
operations. Execution causes the performance of a) word limit
each micro operation. b) word size
c) register limit
9. The functions of execution and sequencing are d) register size
performed by using ______________ View Answer
a) Input Signals
b) Output Signals Answer: b
c) Control Signals Explanation: The length of a register is called word
d) CPU size. It tells the number of bits a register can store.
View Answer Registers are a part of the CPU.

Answer: c 4. The _________ holds the contents of the

Explanation: Sequencing followed by the process accessed memory word.
of execution is performed by the Control signals. a) MAR
34
b) MBR Answer: b
c) PC Explanation: Sign flag is a type of status register or
d) IR the flag register. It is used to indicate the sign of
View Answer certain bits.

Answer: b 9. The number of sign bits in a 32-bit IEEE format

Explanation: The MBR holds the contents of the __________
accessed (read/written) memory word. a) 1
MBR stands for Memory Buffer Register. b) 11
c) 9
5. Which of the following is not a visible register? d) 23
a) General Purpose Registers View Answer
b) Address Register
c) Status Register Answer: a
d) MAR Explanation: There is only 1 sign bit in all the
View Answer standards. In a 32-bit format, there is 1 sign bit, 8
bits for the exponent and 23 bits for the mantissa.
Answer: d
Explanation: MAR or the memory address register 10. New CPU whose instruction set includes the
is not a visible register. This register is user instruction set of its predecessor CPU is said to be
inaccessible. It contains the address of the memory ___________ with its predecessor.
block to be read or written to. a) fully compatible
b) forward compatible
6. Which of the following is a data transfer c) compatible
instruction? d) backward compatible
a) STA 16-bit address View Answer
b) ADD A, B
c) MUL C, D Answer: d
d) RET Explanation: The CPU is called backward
View Answer compatible since it contains the instruction set of
its predecessor. Manufacturers tend to group their
Answer: a CPUs into families having similar instruction set.
Explanation: The instruction STA 16-bit address is
a data transfer instruction. 1. What is the high speed memory between the
STA means Store in Accumulator. main memory and the CPU called?
a) Register Memory
7. What is correct instruction if you want the b) Cache Memory
control to go to the location 2000h? c) Storage Memory
a) MOV 2000h d) Virtual Memory
b) MOV A, 2000h View Answer
c) JMP 2000h
d) RET 2000h Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: It is called the Cache Memory. The
cache memory is the high speed memory between
Answer: c the main memory and the CPU.
Explanation: The JMP instruction is used to move
to a particular location. In 8085 microprocessor, 2. Cache Memory is implemented using the
JMP statement tells the processor to go to location DRAM chips.
2000h (here). a) True
b) False
8. What kind of a flag is the sign flag? View Answer
a) General Purpose
b) Status Answer: b
c) Address Explanation: The Cache memory is implemented
d) Instruction using the SRAM chips and not the DRAM chips.
View Answer SRAM stands for Static RAM. It is faster and is
expensive.

35
 3. Whenever the data is found in the cache c) Write within
memory it is called as _________ d) Buffered write
a) HIT View Answer
b) MISS
c) FOUND Answer: a
d) ERROR Explanation: Snoopy writes is the efficient method
View Answer for updating the cache. In this case, the cache
controller snoops or monitors the operations of
Answer: a other bus masters.
Explanation: Whenever the data is found in the
cache memory, it is called as Cache HIT. CPU first 8. In ____________ mapping, the data can be
checks in the cache memory since it is closest to mapped anywhere in the Cache Memory.
the CPU. a) Associative
b) Direct
4. LRU stands for ___________ c) Set Associative
a) Low Rate Usage d) Indirect
b) Least Rate Usage View Answer
c) Least Recently Used
d) Low Required Usage Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: This happens in the associative
mapping. In this case, a block of data from the
Answer: c main memory can be mapped anywhere in the
Explanation: LRU stands for Least Recently Used. cache memory.
LRU is a type of replacement policy used by the
cache memory. 9. The number of sign bits in a 32-bit IEEE format
is ____
5. When the data at a location in cache is different a) 1
from the data located in the main memory, the b) 11
cache is called _____________ c) 9
a) Unique d) 23
b) Inconsistent View Answer
c) Variable
d) Fault Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: There is only 1 sign bit in all the
standards. In a 32-bit format, there is 1 sign bit, 8
Answer: b bits for the exponent and 23 bits for the mantissa.
Explanation: The cache is said to be inconsistent.
Inconsistency must be avoided as it leads to serious 10. The transfer between CPU and Cache is
data bugs. ______________
a) Block transfer
6. Which of the following is not a write policy to b) Word transfer
avoid Cache Coherence? c) Set transfer
a) Write through d) Associative transfer
b) Write within View Answer
c) Write back
d) Buffered write Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: The transfer is a word transfer. In the
memory subsystem, word is transferred over the
Answer: b memory data bus and it typically has a width of a
Explanation: There is no policy which is called as word or half-word.
the write within policy. The other three options are
the write policies which are used to avoid cache 1. Computer has a built-in system clock that emits
coherence. millions of regularly spaced electric pulses per
_____ called clock cycles.
7. Which of the following is an efficient method a) second
of cache updating? b) millisecond
a) Snoopy writes c) microsecond
b) Write through
36
d) minute Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: CISC is a large instruction set
computer. It has variable length instructions. It also
Answer: a has variety of addressing modes.
Explanation: The regularly spaced electric pulses
per second are referred to as the clock cycles. All 6. Which of the following processor has a fixed
the jobs performed by the processor are on the length of instructions?
basis of clock cycles. a) CISC
b) RISC
2. It takes one clock cycle to perform a basic c) EPIC
operation. d) Multi-core
a) True View Answer
b) False
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: The RISC which stands for Reduced
Answer: a Instruction set computer has a fixed length of
Explanation: It takes exactly one clock cycle to instructions. It has a small instruction set. Also has
perform a basic operation, such as moving a byte reduced references to memory to retrieve operands.
of memory from a location to another location in
the computer. 7. Processor which is complex and expensive to
produce is ________
3. The operation that does not involves clock a) RISC
cycles is _________ b) EPIC
a) Installation of a device c) CISC
b) Execute d) Multi-core
c) Fetch View Answer
d) Decode
View Answer Answer: c
Explanation: CISC stands for complex instruction
Answer: a set computer. It is mostly used in personal
Explanation: Normally, several clock cycles are computers. It has a large instruction set and a
required to fetch, execute and decode a particular variable length of instructions.
program.
Installation of a device is done by the system on its 8. The architecture that uses a tighter coupling
own. between the compiler and the processor is
____________
4. The number of clock cycles per second is a) EPIC
referred as ________ b) Multi-core
a) Clock speed c) RISC
b) Clock frequency d) CISC
c) Clock rate View Answer
d) Clock timing
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: EPIC stands for Explicitly parallel
Answer: a instruction computing. It has a tighter coupling
Explanation: The number of clock cycles per between the compiler and the processor. It enables
second is the clock speed. It is generally measured the compiler to extract maximum parallelism in the
in gigahertz(109 cycles/sec) or megahertz (106 original code.
cycles/sec).
9. MAR stands for ___________
5. CISC stands for ____________ a) Memory address register
a) Complex Information Sensed CPU b) Main address register
b) Complex Instruction Set Computer c) Main accessible register
c) Complex Intelligence Sensed CPU d) Memory accessible register
d) Complex Instruction Set CPU View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The MAR stands for memory address
37
register. It holds the address of the active memory a) Cache
location. b) Main
c) Secondary
10. A circuitry that processes that responds to and d) Registers
processes the basic instructions that are required to View Answer
drive a computer system is ________
a) Memory Answer: b
b) ALU Explanation: The main memory is implemented
c) CU using semiconductor chips. Main memory is
d) Processor located on the motherboard. It mainly consists of
View Answer RAM and small amount of ROM.

Answer: d 5. Size of the ________ memory mainly depends

Explanation: The processor is responsible for on the size of the address bus.
processing the basic instructions in order to drive a a) Main
computer. The primary functions of a processor are b) Virtual
fetch, decode and execute. c) Secondary
d) Cache
1. Any electronic holding place where data can be View Answer
stored and retrieved later whenever required is
____________ Answer: a
a) memory Explanation: The size of the main memory depends
b) drive on the size of the address bus of the CPU. The
c) disk main memory mainly consists of RAM and ROM,
d) circuit where RAM contains the current data and
View Answer programs and ROM contains permanent programs
like BIOS.
Answer: a
Explanation: Memory is the place where data can 6. Which of the following is independent of the
be stored and later retrieved. Memory can be of address bus?
classified into register, cache, main memory, etc. a) Secondary memory
b) Main memory
2. Cache memory is the onboard storage. c) Onboard memory
a) True d) Cache memory
b) False View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: The secondary memory is
Explanation: Cache Memory is the memory closest independent of the address bus. It increases the
to the CPU. Registers, Cache and the main storage space. It is implemented in the form of
memory are the means of onboard storage in the magnetic storage devices.
computer system.
7. ____________ storage is a system where a
3. Which of the following is the fastest means of robotic arm will connect or disconnect off-line
memory access for CPU? mass storage media according to the computer
a) Registers operating system demands.
b) Cache a) Secondary
c) Main memory b) Virtual
d) Virtual Memory c) Tertiary
View Answer d) Magnetic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Registers are the fastest means of Answer: c
access for CPU. Registers are the small memory Explanation: The tertiary storage is the correct
locations which are present closest to the CPU. option. It is used in the realms of enterprise storage
and scientific computing on large computer
4. The memory implemented using the systems and business computer networks and is
semiconductor chips is _________
38
something a typical personal computer never sees the jobs performed by the processor are on the
firsthand. basis of clock cycles.

8. What is the location of the internal registers of 2. It takes one clock cycle to perform a basic
CPU? operation.
a) Internal a) True
b) On-chip b) False
c) External View Answer
d) Motherboard
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: It takes exactly one clock cycle to
Answer: b perform a basic operation, such as moving a byte
Explanation: The internal registers are present on- of memory from a location to another location in
chip. They are therefore present inside the CPU. the computer.
L1 cache is also present on-chip inside the CPU.
3. The operation that does not involves clock
9. MAR stands for ___________ cycles is ____________
a) Memory address register a) Installation of a device
b) Main address register b) Execute
c) Main accessible register c) Fetch
d) Memory accessible register d) Decode
View Answer View Answer

Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: The MAR stands for memory address Explanation: Normally, several clock cycles are
register. It holds the address of the active memory required to fetch, execute and decode a particular
location. program. Installation of a device is done by the
system on its own.
10. If M denotes the number of memory locations
and N denotes the word size, then an expression 4. The number of clock cycles per second is
that denotes the storage capacity is referred as ______
______________ a) Clock speed
a) M*N b) Clock frequency
b) M+N c) Clock rate
c) 2M+N d) Clock timing
d) 2M-N View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: The number of clock cycles per
Explanation: Storage capacity is the product of a second is the clock speed. It is generally measured
number of memory locations that is the number of in gigahertz(109 cycles/sec) or megahertz (106
words and the word size or the number of bits cycles/sec).
stored per location. Storage capacity should be as
large as possible. 5. CISC stands for ___________
a) Complex Information Sensed CPU
1. Computer has a built-in system clock that emits b) Complex Instruction Set Computer
millions of regularly spaced electric pulses per c) Complex Intelligence Sensed CPU
_____ called clock cycles. d) Complex Instruction Set CPU
a) second View Answer
b) millisecond
c) microsecond Answer: b
d) minute Explanation: CISC is a large instruction set
View Answer computer. It has variable length instructions. It also
has a variety of addressing modes.
Answer: a
Explanation: The regularly spaced electric pulses 6. Which of the following processor has a fixed
per second are referred to as the clock cycles. All length of instructions?
a) CISC
39
b) RISC c) 8 bits
c) EPIC d) 32 bits
d) Multi-core View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: The word length which is the size of a
Explanation: The RISC which stands for Reduced word is generally 8 bits in a personal computer.
Instruction set computer has a fixed length of Word Size is generally the number of bits that can
instructions. It has a small instruction set. Also has be processed in one go by the CPU.
reduced references to memory to retrieve operands.
1. ________________ is also called auxiliary
7. Processor which is complex and expensive to storage.
produce _________ a) secondary memory
a) RISC b) tertiary memory
b) EPIC c) primary memory
c) CISC d) cache memory
d) multi-core View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: The secondary memory which allows
Explanation: CISC stands for complex instruction us to store a large amount of data is often referred
set computer. It is mostly used in personal to as the auxiliary memory. It generally stores large
computers. It has a large instruction set and a amount of data on a permanent basis.
variable length of instructions.
2. Secondary storage virtually has an unlimited
8. The architecture that uses a tighter coupling capacity because the cost per bit is very low.
between the compiler and the processor. a) True
a) EPIC b) False
b) Multi-core View Answer
c) RISC
d) CISC Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: The statement is true as secondary
storage devices can store large amounts of data
Answer: a temporarily. It is used to overcome the limitations
Explanation: EPIC stands for Explicitly parallel of primary storage.
instruction computing. It has a tighter coupling
between the compiler and the processor. It enables 3. Magnetic tape is a type of _________ access
the compiler to extract maximum parallelism in the device.
original code. a) Sequential
b) Direct access
9. HLDA stands for _______ c) Step
a) High level data d) Indirect
b) High level data acknowledgment View Answer
c) Hold Acknowledgement
d) Hold Data Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Magnetic tapes are sequential access
devices. They are the secondary storage devices
Answer: c and are used to store large amounts of data. In
Explanation: The HOLD signal is given to the sequential access, data can be retrieved in the same
CPU whenever an interrupt is to be served. If the sequence in which it is stored.
CPU is ready to give the control of the bus, it gives
the HLDA command which is Hold 4. The magnetic tape is generally a plastic ribbon
Acknowledgement. coated with ______
a) Magnesium oxide
10. Word length of a personal computer b) Chromium dioxide
___________ c) Zinc oxide
a) 64bits d) Copper oxide
b) 16 bits View Answer
40
 Answer: b d) Data mode
Explanation: Plastic ribbon is coated with a View Answer
magnetizable recording material. Iron oxide and
chromium dioxide is generally used in magnetic Answer: a
tapes. Data are recorded on the tape in the form of Explanation: Transfer rate measurement unit is
tiny invisible dots. bytes/second(bps). Value depends on the data
recording density and the speed with which the
5. The dots on the magnetic tape represent tape travels under the read/write head.
________
a) Binary digits 9. The typical value of data transfer rate is
b) Decimal digits __________
c) Hex digits a) 7.7 MB/s
d) Oct digits b) 6.6 MB/s
View Answer c) 5.5 MB/s
d) 10 MB/s
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: The data recorded on the tape is the
form of tiny invisible magnetized and non- Answer: a
magnetized spots (representing 1s and 0s) on its Explanation: Data transfer rate is defined as the
coated surface. number of characters per second that can be
transmitted to the memory from tape. The typical
6. Which of the following is the correct value is 7.7 megabytes per second.
representation for a storage capacity of a tape?
a) Data recording density = Storage capacity 10. Tape drive is connected to and controlled by
b) Length = Storage capacity _______
c) Storage capacity= Length * data recording a) Interpreter
density b) Tape controller
d) Storage capacity= Length + data recording c) CPU
density d) Processor
View Answer View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Storage capacity is nothing but the
product of length and the data recording density.
Magnetic tape is commonly used sequential-access
secondary device. Data recording density is
measured in bytes per inch.
Answer: b
Explanation: The tape drive is connected to and
controlled by a tape controller that interprets the
commands for operating the tape drive. Certain
commonly used commands are read, write, erase
tape, etc.

7. __________________ is the amount of data 1. ________________ is used for writing/reading

that can be stored on a given length of tape. of data to/from a magnetic ribbon.
a) Storage capacity a) Magnetic disk
b) Length b) Magnetic tape
c) Data recording density c) Magnetic frames
d) Tape density d) Magnetic Ribbon
View Answer View Answer

Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: Data recording density is the amount Explanation: The magnetic tape ribbon is used for
of data that can be stored on a given length of the the same. It has read/write heads for
tape. It is measured in bytes per inch. Bytes per reading/writing of data on the tape. When
inch=bpi. processing is complete, the tape is removed from
the tape drive for off-line storage.
8. The number of characters/second that can be
transmitted to the memory from the tape is denoted 2. Magnetic disk is a sequential access device.
by the term. a) True
a) Data transfer rate b) False
b) Transmission mode View Answer
c) Transmission rate
41
 Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: It is a direct access secondary storage Explanation: Disk address represents the physical
device. In case of direct access devices, the storage location of the record on the disk. It is comprised
location may be selected and accessed at random. of the sector number, track number, and surface
number (when double-sided disks are used).
3. The disk’s surface is divided into a number of
invisible concentric circles called: 7. What does CHS stand for?
a) Drives a) Cylinder-high-sector
b) Tracks b) Concentric-head-sector
c) Slits c) Cylinder-head-sector
d) References d) Concentric-high-sector
View Answer View Answer

Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: The concentric circles are called as Explanation: CHS stands for cylinder-head-sector.
tracks. The tracks are numbered consecutively The scheme is called CHS addressing. The same is
from outermost to innermost starting from zero. also referred to as disk geometry.
The number of tracks on a disk may be as few as
40 on small-capacity disks to several thousand on 8. The interval between the instant a computer
large capacity disks. makes a request for the transfer of data from a disk
system to the primary storage and the instance this
4. The number of sectors per track on a magnetic operation is completed is called _________
disk ________ a) Disk arrival time
a) less than 5 b) Disk access time
b) 10 or more c) Drive utilization time
c) 8 or more d) Disk utilization time
d) less than 7 View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: The interval is referred to as the disk
Explanation: Each track of a disk is subdivided arrival time. It depends on several parameters.
into sectors. There are 8 or more sectors per track. Generally, a computer makes a request and the
Disk drives are designed to read/write only whole operation is served.
sectors at a time.
9. Disk access time does not depends on which of
5. Generally there are __________bytes in a the following factors __________
sector. a) Seek time
a) 64 b) Latency
b) 128 c) Transfer rate
c) 256 d) Arrival rate
d) 512 View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: d Explanation: The disk access time depends on the
Explanation: Each track of a disc is divided into seek time, latency and transfer rate. Wherein, seek
sectors. A sector typically contains 512 bytes. Disk time is the time required to position the read/write
drives are designed to read/write only whole head over the desired track.
sectors at a time.
10. The time required to spin the desired sector
6. Which of the following is not a part of disk under the read/write head, once the read/write head
address? is positioned on the desired track.
a) Sector size a) Seek time
b) Sector number b) Arrival rate
c) Track number c) Latency
d) Surface number d) Transfer rate
View Answer View Answer

42
 Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: It is called latency. It is one of the Explanation: The storage capacity is given by the
factors on which the disk access time depends. formula in option a. The most popular disk uses a
Disk access time is the interval between the instant disk of 5.25 inch diameter with a storage capacity
a request is made and the instance operation is of around 650 megabytes.
completed.
5. Rotation of the disk must vary __________
1. A ____________ disk consists of a circular with the radius of the disk.
disk, which is coated with a thin metal or some a) directly
other material that is highly reflective. b) inversely
a) magnetic c) concurrently
b) optical d) accordingly
c) compact View Answer
d) hard
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: The rotation speed is inversely
Answer: b proportional to the radius of the disk.
Explanation: Optical disks are highly reflective. Optical drives use a constant linear velocity
They can be used to store extremely large amounts encoding scheme often referred to as the CLV
of data in a limited space. scheme.

2. Optical disks are proved to be a promising 6. Which of the following correctly represents the
random access medium for high capacity track pattern of an optical disk ?
secondary storage.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Optical disks can store large amounts a)
of data. The storage capacity depends on the
sectors and the number of bytes.

3. The technology used in optical disks is ______

a) Reflective
b) Refractive
c) Laser Beam b)
d) Diffraction
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Laser beam technology is used in
optical disks for recording or reading of data on the c)
disk.
It is sometimes called the laser disk/optical laser
disk due to the use of laser beam technology.

4. The storage capacity of an optical disk is given

by:
a) Number of sectors * number of bytes per sector d)
b) Number of sectors * 2(number of bytes per View Answer
sector)
c) Number of sectors * 3(number of bytes per Answer: a
sector) Explanation: Option a correctly represents the track
d) Number of sectors * 0.5(number of bytes per pattern of an optical disk. The second option shows
sector) the track pattern of a magnetic disk. The last two
View Answer options are invalid.

43
 7. The tracks are divided into sectors whose size 1. Winchester disks are a type of _______
_______ a) optical disks
a) remains the same b) magnetic disks
b) keeps increasing c) compact disks
c) keeps decreasing d) magnetic drives
d) remains uneven View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: The regularly spaced electric pulses
Explanation: The tracks in an optical disk are per second are referred to as the clock cycles. All
divided into equal size sectors. Optical disk has the jobs performed by the processor are on the
one long spiral track, which starts at the outer edge basis of clock cycles.
and spirals inward to the center. Each sector is of
the same length regardless of whether it is located 2. Bernoulli disks are a type of magnetic floppy
near or away from the disk’s center. disks.
a) True
8. CLV stands for, in terms of rotation of the b) False
optical disk ___ View Answer
a) Concurrent lines value
b) Constant Linear velocity Answer: b
c) constant linear value Explanation: Bernoulli disks are a type of magnetic
d) concurrent linear velocity hard disks and not floppy disks. They are also
View Answer called as zip disks. It uses a single hard disk platter
encased in a plastic cartidge.
Answer: a
Explanation: It stands for constant linear velocity. 3. A plug and play storage device that simply
The optical disk uses the CLV encoding scheme. plugs in the port of a computer is __________
Rotation speed depends on the radius of the disk. a) Flash drive
b) Compact disk
9. The range of access times of optical disks is c) Hard disk
generally ______ d) CD
a) 100 to 300 milliseconds View Answer
b) 10 to 30 milliseconds
c) 200 to 400 milliseconds Answer: a
d) 20 to 40 milliseconds Explanation: A flash drive often called as a pen
View Answer drive enables easy transport of data from one
computer to another. It comes in various shapes
Answer: a and sizes and may have different added features.
Explanation: The access times of optical disks are
typically in the range of 100 to 300 milliseconds 4. What does USB stand for?
and that of hard disks are in the range of 10 to 30 a) Universal Signal Board
milliseconds. b) Universal Signal Bus
c) Universal Serial Bus
10. Which of the following is not a type of optical d) Universal Serial Board
disk? View Answer
a) DVD
b) CD Answer: c
c) WORM Explanation: USB stands for universal serial bus.
d) Winchester A flash drive simply plugs in the USB port of a
View Answer computer.

Answer: d 5. A device similar to a flash drive

Explanation: The Winchester disk is a type of hard ______________
disk. Others are all optical disks. WORM is a) Memory card
nothing but CD-R i.e., CD recordable. Stands for b) Compact drive
write once read many. c) Compact disk
d) Memory disk
View Answer
44
 Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: Memory card serves a similar Explanation: Disk packs use a number of hard disk
purpose as that of a flash drive. It is in the shape of platters. Also, they are mounted on a single central
a card. Useful in electronic devices like Camera, shaft.
music player, etc.
10. Which of the following is not a magnetic
6. What does RAID stand for? disk?
a) Redundant array of independent disks a) Floppy
b) Redundant array of inexpensive disks b) Winchester
c) Redundant array of intermediate disks c) Zip
d) Redundant array of improper disks d) FLASH
View Answer View Answer

Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: RAID is Redundant array of Explanation: Flash drives are a type of memory
inexpensive disks. It is an array of disks which can storage devices. It is a relatively newer type of
store data bits. secondary storage device which enables easy
transfer of data from one computer to another.
7. A set of hard disk drives with a controller
mounted in a single box, forming a single large 1. These devices provide a means of
storage unit is ____________ communication between a computer and outer
a) Disk array world.
b) Drives a) I/O
c) Compact drives b) Storage
d) Multi-cores c) Compact
View Answer d) Drivers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is disk array. It is Answer: a
commonly known as RAID. As a secondary Explanation: The I/O i.e. the input/output devices
storage device, provides enhanced performance, provide a means of communication between the
enhanced storage capacity and reliability. computer and the outer world. They are often
referred to as the peripheral devices sometimes.
8. The process in which a file is partitioned into
smaller parts and different parts are stored in 2. The I/O devices are sometimes called the
different disks is ____________ peripheral devices because they surround the CPU
a) RAID and memory of the computer system.
b) Mirroring a) True
c) Stripping b) False
d) RAID classification View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: The statement is true. The input
Explanation: Enhanced reliability is achieved by devices are used to enter data from the outside
using techniques like mirroring and stripping in world into primary storage. The output devices
case of disk arrays. Stripping is the division of a supply results of processing from primary storage
large file into smaller parts and then storing them to users.
on different disks.
3. Identify the blank space in the diagram.
9. Which of the following uses multiple hard disk
platters mounted on a single central shift?
a) Disk drives
b) Hard disks
c) Disk packs a) Processor
d) Compact disks b) Memory
View Answer c) CPU

45
d) Storage d) Kiaks
View Answer View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Firstly, the input is given to the input
device, then the data in coded in internal form and
is sent to the CPU. Further, the processed data is
sent to the output device and the result is obtained.
Answer: a
Explanation: The term information kiosks are used
for the same. Touch screens are used the most
preferred human-computer interface used in
information kiosks.

4. What does GUI stand for? 8. Which are the input devices that enable direct
a) Graphical User Instruction data entry into a computer system from source
b) Ground User Interface documents?
c) General User Instruction a) Data Scanning devices
d) Graphical User Interface b) Data retrieving devices
View Answer c) Data acquiring devices
d) System Access devices
Answer: d View Answer
Explanation: GUI stands for a graphical user
interface. Graphical user interface basically Answer: a
provides a set of graphical elements on the screen Explanation: They are referred to as data scanning
to the users. Commonly used for point-and-draw devices. They eliminate the need to key in text data
devices. into the computer. It demands the high quality of
input documents.
5. Which of the following is not a point-and-draw
device? 9. Which of the following is a type of image
a) Keypad scanner?
b) Trackball a) Flat-held
c) Touch screen b) Hand-led
d) Mouse c) Flat-bed
View Answer d) Compact
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All except the keypad are point-and- Answer: c
draw devices. They are used to rapidly point to and Explanation: Image scanners are the input devices
select a graphic icon or menu item from multiple that translate the paper documents into an
options displayed on the GUI of a screen. electronic format for storage in a computer. Stored
image can be altered or manipulated with image-
6. A device used for video games, flight processing software.
simulators, training simulators and for controlling
industrial robots. 10. Which of the following is capable of
a) Mouse recognizing a pre-specified type of mark by pencil
b) Light pen or pen?
c) Joystick a) OMR
d) Keyboard b) Winchester
View Answer c) Bar code reader
d) Image Scanner
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: Joystick is the device used for the
same. It is a point-and-draw device. It has a click Answer: a
button, a stick, a ball, a socket as well as a light Explanation: OMR stands for optical mark reader.
indicator. These are very useful for grading tests with
objective type questions or for any input data that
7. The unattended interactive information systems is of choice or selection nature.
such as automatic teller machine or ATM is called
as _________ 1. Input Devices that use a special ink that
a) Kiosks contains magnetizable particles of iron oxide are
b) Sioks ____
c) Cianto a) Optical disks
46
b) Magnetic disks d) Voice systems
c) MICR View Answer
d) Magnetic drives
View Answer Answer: c
Explanation: A speech synthesizer converts text
Answer: c information into spoken sentences. It is used for
Explanation: MICR reads data on cheques and reading out text information to blind people.
sorts them for distribution to other banks or for Allowing people to communicate effectively.
further processing. MICR stands for Magnetic-Ink-
Character Recognition. 6. Which of the following is not a part of a
digitizer?
2. MICR character set consists of only 2 digits 0 a) Digitizing tablet
and 1. b) Cursor
a) True c) Stick
b) False d) Stylus
View Answer View Answer

Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: The statement is false. It consists of Explanation: A digitizer consists of a digitizing
numerals from 0 to 9 and 4 special characters. It tablet, a stylus in the form of a cross-hair cursor. A
supports only 14 symbols. digitizer is used in the areas of GIS.

3. A printer that prints one line at a time and has a 7. Which is the device used for converting maps,
predefined set of characters is called _______ pictures and drawings into digital form for storage
a) Laser in computers?
b) Drum a) Digitizer
c) Inkjet b) Scanner
d) Impact c) Image Scanner
View Answer d) MICR
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The drum printers print one line at a Answer: a
time. They have a cylindrical drum with characters Explanation: A digitizer serves the purpose given
embossed on its surface in the form of circular in the question. Digitizers are generally used in the
bands. area of Computer Aided Design by architects and
engineers to design cars, buildings, etc.
4. Which of the following is a name of plotter as
well as a printer? 8. The process in which a file is partitioned into
a) Flatbed smaller parts and different parts are stored in
b) Laser different disks is called _________
c) Drum a) RAID
d) Impact b) Mirroring
View Answer c) Stripping
d) RAID classification
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: Drum is the name of a plotter as well
as a printer. Drum printers have a predefined set of Answer: c
characters and print one line at a time. Drum Explanation: Enhanced reliability is achieved by
plotters is an ideal device for architects and others using techniques like mirroring and stripping in
who need to generate high-precision hard copy case of disk arrays. Stripping is the division of a
graphics output of widely varying sizes. large file into smaller parts and then storing them
on different disks.
5. Name the device that converts text information
into spoken sentences. 9. Which of the following Printers have a speed in
a) Speech Sensors the range of 40-300 characters per second?
b) Compact convertors a) Inkjet
c) Speech Synthesizers b) Laser
c) Dot matrix
47
d) Drum Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: A digitizer converts analog signals to
digital images. Due to this, it is compatible with
Answer: a both scanners and mice.
Explanation: The inkjet printers are non-impact
printers. Hence, they cannot produce multiple 4. Which of the following term is used when
copies of a document in a single printing. Can be different forms of information like text, sound is
both monochrome and color. converted to a binary code?
a) Digitalization
10. Which of the following is a temporary output? b) Digitization
a) Hard copy c) Binarization
b) Soft copy d) Digization
c) Duplicate copy View Answer
d) On paper
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: Digitization is the term that is used. It
Answer: b converts the input which is in the form of an
Explanation: There are only two types of outputs: image, sound or text into a binary format and
hard copy and soft copy. Soft copy output is further makes it easier for the computer to
temporary and vanishes after use. Hard copy understand and process.
output is permanent in nature and can be kept in
paper files, etc. 5. Which of the following isn’t a phase of
digitization?
1. Input Devices that use a special ink that is used a) Discretization
for converting pictures, maps and drawings into b) Quantization
digital format. c) Discretization + Quantization
a) Digitizers d) Analog conversion
b) Digital pens View Answer
c) Light Pens
d) MICR Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: There is no phase called analog
conversion. Discretization means the reading of an
Answer: a analog signal. Quantization is the rounding of
Explanation: The digitizer is used for digitizing samples to numbers.
pictures, maps and drawings into digital form for
storage in computers. It is used in CAD by 6. Which of the following is not a part of a
architects and engineers. digitizer?
a) Digitizing tablet
2. GIS stands for Graphical Information System. b) Cursor
a) True c) Stick
b) False d) Stylus
View Answer View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. GIS stands for
Geographical Information System. Digitizers are
used in the area of GIS for digitizing maps
available in paper form.
Answer: c
Explanation: A digitizer consists of a digitizing
tablet, a stylus in the form of a cross-hair cursor. A
digitizer is used in the areas of Geographical
Information Systems.

3. A digitizer converts __________ input into 7. The process of making digital information work
digital input. for you is called ___________
a) Laser a) Digitization
b) Digital b) Digital Transformation
c) Analog c) Digitalization
d) Complex d) Analogization
View Answer View Answer

48
 Answer: c Answer: c
Explanation: The process of making digitized data Explanation: TTS stands for Text to speech. It is a
or information work for you is called digitalization. commonly used term with Speech Synthesis. Often
The conversion of analog signal to digital signal is called as text to speech synthesis.
called digitization. Digital signals are in the form
of 0s and 1s. 2. Text analysis is all about converting the input
text into a ‘speakable’ form.
8. What is the full form of FSM? a) True
a) Field Service Management b) False
b) Frequent Service Management View Answer
c) Final Service Management
d) Field Service Master Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: The statement is true. This process
has two phases: firstly the text goes through
Answer: a analysis and then the result is used to generate a
Explanation: FSM is Field Service Management. speech signal.
FSM soft wares are used for making proper use of
the digitized information. Therefore, they are 3. A concept that contains rhythm of speech,
basically responsible for digitalization. stress patterns and intonation is ________
a) Text synthesis
9. Which of the following Techniques are used to b) Prosody
optimize field services? c) Speech Synthesis
a) AI d) Formant Synthesis
b) ML View Answer
c) CC
d) Reality tools Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Prosody is the correct term. It
contains three main parts: the rhythm of speech,
Answer: a the stress patterns and the intonation. Intonation is
Explanation: AI or Artificial Intelligence is a term used for the rise and fall when a person
optimizing the field services. It ensures that the speaks.
fastest service is performed by the person in
charge. Artificial intelligence is nothing but 4. Which of the following does not come under
machine intelligence. text analysis?
a) Document Structure Detection
10. Obtaining services from a rapidly evolving b) Speech Synthesis
group of internet users __________ c) Prosonic Analysis
a) Outsourcing d) Prosodic Analysis
b) Crowd Sourcing View Answer
c) Human collaboration
d) Human Computation Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: For TTS, the main concepts involved
are :
Answer: b 01) Text Analysis
Explanation: Crowd sourcing is the appropriate 02) Phonetic Analysis
term which is to be used. Though human 03) Prosodic Analysis
collaboration, outsourcing and computation mean 04) Speech Synthesis.
the same. Crowd Sourcing means collaboration of
a group of internet users for the same purpose. 5. What is the medium to convert text information
into spoken sentences?
1. What is the full form of TTS? a) Speech Sensors
a) Typically Typed Speech b) Compact convertors
b) Typographic Text Speech c) Speech Synthesizers
c) Text to Speech d) Voice systems
d) Typography to speech View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A speech synthesizer converts text
49
information into spoken sentences. It is used for Answer: a
reading out text information to blind people. This Explanation: IPA(International phonetic
allows people to communicate effectively. association) contains some symbols that are
complicated and cannot be found in typewriters.
6. Pitch and duration attachment comes under SAMPA is an example of alphabets which are
_____ compatible with computers and based on ASCII
a) Prosody characters.
b) Phonetic Analysis
c) Speech Synthesis 10. A speech synthesis model which tries to
d) Text Analysis model the human speech production mechanisms is
View Answer _________
a) Articulatory Synthesis
Answer: a b) Formant Synthesis
Explanation: Pitch and duration attachment comes c) Summative Synthesis
under Prosodic analysis. Other three terms are also d) Concatenative Synthesis
used when we consider the text to speech View Answer
conversion.
Answer: a
7. Which of the following is not a speech Explanation: Articulative Synthesis tries to model
synthesis method? the human speech production mechanisms. It is by
a) Formant far the most complicated speech synthesis method.
b) Summative Its implementation is difficult and therefore is not
c) Articulator widely used.
d) Concatenative
View Answer 1. The physical devices of a computer :
a) Software
Answer: b b) Package
Explanation: Summative isn’t a Speech Synthesis c) Hardware
method. Formant Synthesis is the oldest method. d) System Software
Concatenative is the cut-and-paste method. View Answer
Whereas, Articulative tries to model the human
speech production mechanisms. Answer: c
Explanation: Hardware refers to the physical
8. Speech Synthesis method based on the devices of a computer system. Software refers to a
generation of periodic and non-periodic signals is collection of programs. A program is a sequence of
____________ instructions.
a) Formant
b) Summative 2. Software Package is a group of programs that
c) Conactenative solve multiple problems.
d) Articulative a) True
View Answer b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Formant synthesis is based on the Answer: b
same. It is based on the well known source-filter Explanation: The statement is false. The software
model whose idea is to generate periodic and non- package is a group of programs that solve a
periodic signals. specific problem or perform a specific type of job.

9. What is the full form of SAMPA? 3. ____________ refer to renewing or changing

a) Speech Assessment Methods-Phonetic Alphabet components like increasing the main memory, or
b) Speech Assessment Methods-Prosodic Access hard disk capacities, or adding speakers, or
c) Speech Assessment Methods-Phonetic modems, etc.
Arrangement a) Grades
d) Speech Assessment Methods- Prosodic b) Prosody
Alphabet c) Synthesis
View Answer d) Upgrades
View Answer

50
 Answer: d solving a specific problem. System software is
Explanation: Upgrades is the right term to be used. designed for controlling the operations of a
Upgrades are installed to renew or implement a computer system.
new feature. Except for upgrades, hardware is
normally one-time expense. 8. Assembler is used as a translator for?
a) Low level language
4. Which of the following is designed to control b) High Level Language
the operations of a computer? c) COBOL
a) Application Software d) C
b) System Software View Answer
c) Utility Software
d) User Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Assembler is used in case of low
level languages. It is generally used to make the
Answer: b binary code into an understandable format.
Explanation: Software is basically classified into Interpreter is used with the high level languages
two: System and application. System Software is similarly.
designed to control the operations and extend the
processing capability of a computer system. 9. What do you call a program in execution?
a) Command
5. Which of the following is not an example of b) Process
system software? c) Task
a) Language Translator d) Instruction
b) Utility Software View Answer
c) Communication Software
d) Word Processors Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Option Process is correct. A program
is a set of instructions. A program in execution is
Answer: d called a process.
Explanation: A system software is responsible for
controlling the operations of a computer system. 10. Which of the following is not a process state?
Word Processor is an application software since it a) Terminated
is specific to its purpose. b) Running
c) Blocked
6. A person who designs the programs in a d) Execution
software package is called : View Answer
a) User
b) Software Manager Answer: c
c) System Developer Explanation: There is no blocked state in a process
d) System Programmer model. The different states are ready, running,
View Answer executing, waiting and terminated.

Answer: d 1. The software designed to perform a specific

Explanation: The programs included in a system task:
software package are called system programs. The a) Synchronous Software
programmers who design them and prepare them b) Package Software
are called system programmers. c) Application Software
d) System Software
7. ___________________ is designed to solve a View Answer
specific problem or to do a specific task.
a) Application Software Answer: c
b) System Software Explanation: Software refers to a collection of
c) Utility Software programs. Software designed to do a specific task
d) User are referred to as the application software. Eg:
View Answer Inventory management, banking, etc.

Answer: a 2. Word processing software is a type of

Explanation: An application software is specific to application software.
51
a) True Answer: c
b) False Explanation: The public domain software is
View Answer generally community supported. It is community
supported as author does not support users directly.
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Since, 7. Set of programs which consist of full
application software are designed to do a specific documentation.
job, word processing is a type of application a) Software Package
software used for the designing of text documents. b) System Software
c) Utility Software
3. Developing software __________ means a d) File package
major commitment of time, money and resources. View Answer
a) In-house
b) In-sync Answer: a
c) On-date Explanation: It is called a software package. A
d) On-duration software is nothing but a collection of programs. A
View Answer software package can solve a specific problem or
perform a specific type of job.
Answer: a
Explanation: Developing software in-house means 8. Interpreter is used as a translator for
the same. It is easier to carry out changes in the __________
software if it is developed in-house a) Low level language
b) High Level Language
4. Which of the following is not a way of c) COBOL
acquiring software? d) C
a) Buying pre-written software View Answer
b) Ordering customized software
c) Downloading public-domain Software Answer: b
d) Duplicating the software Explanation: It is generally used to make the code
View Answer into an machine understandable format. Interpreter
is used with the high level languages similarly.
Answer: d Assembler is used in case of low level languages.
Explanation: Duplication is not a correct way of
acquiring the software. All the other options are 9. What do you call a specific instruction designed
valid. Apart from these, another option could be to do a task?
development of a customized software. a) Command
b) Process
5. OSS stands for: c) Task
a) Open System Service d) Instruction
b) Open Source Software View Answer
c) Open System Software
d) Open Synchronized Software Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: A program is a set of instructions. A
command is given to do a specific job. A program
Answer: b in execution is called a process.
Explanation: OSS stands for open source software.
OSS allows any user to download, view, modify 10. They normally interact with the system via
and redistribute the software. Also, the user can fix user interface provided by the application software.
bugs according to needs. a) Programmers
b) Developers
6. Public domain software is usually: c) Users
a) System supported d) Testers
b) Source supported View Answer
c) Community supported
d) Programmer supported Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: Users interact with the system via
user interface that is given by the application

52
software. An application software is a set of b) RAM
instructions designed to serve a particular purpose. c) External
d) ROM
1. The software substituted for hardware and View Answer
stored in ROM.
a) Synchronous Software Answer: d
b) Package Software Explanation: Firmware is stored in ROM which is
c) Firmware the read only memory. Firmware basically acts as a
d) Middleware link between the hardware and the system.
View Answer
6. DNS stands for?
Answer: c a) Domain Name System
Explanation: Software refers to a collection of b) Direct Name System
programs. Firm wares act as a link between the c) Direct Network System
hardware and the system. It is stored in read only d) Domain Network System
memory. View Answer

2. Middleware has enabled the production of Answer: a

various types of smart machines having Explanation: DNS stands for Domain Name
microprocessor chips with embedded software. System. Domain name system is the way in which
a) True the internet domain names are traced and then
b) False translated into IP addresses.
View Answer
7. A software that lies between the OS and the
Answer: b applications running on it.
Explanation: The statement is false. Firmware is a) Firmware
designed for this purpose and not middleware. A b) Middleware
middleware is for providing abstraction in c) Utility Software
programming. d) Application Software
View Answer
3. A “glue” between client and server parts of
application. Answer: b
a) Middleware Explanation: It is called as middleware.
b) Firmware Middleware enables the interaction between the
c) Package Operating System and the applications running on
d) System Software it.
View Answer
8. A type of middleware that allows for between
Answer: a the built-in applications and the real-time OS?
Explanation: A middleware acts as a glue between a) Firmware
client and server parts of application. It provides b) Database middleware
programming abstraction which means hiding all c) Portals
the relevant details. d) Embedded Middleware
View Answer
4. MOM stands for?
a) Message oriented middleware Answer: d
b) Mails oriented middleware Explanation: It is called the embedded middleware
c) Middleware of messages since it activates the communication link between
d) Main object middleware the built-in applications and the real time operating
View Answer system.

Answer: a 9. What is the other name for object middleware?

Explanation: MOM is message-oriented a) Object request interface
middleware. It is basically responsible for sending b) Object enabled interface
and receiving messages across distributed systems. c) Object Request broker
d) Object enabled broker
5. Storage of firmware is ___________ View Answer
a) Cache Memory
53
 Answer: c 4. OSI stands for?
Explanation: It is also called as object request a) Open Source Index
broker. It gives the applications ability to send the b) Open Source Image
objects and receive services through an object. c) Open Source Initiative
d) Open Source Instant
10. The _______ calls certain procedures on View Answer
remote systems and is used to perform
synchronous or asynchronous interactions between Answer: c
systems. Explanation: OSI is open source initiative. It is a
a) Procedure leading authority on OSS. OSS is a computer
b) RPC software distributed along with its source code.
c) Message Oriented
d) DB 5. Which of the following is not an open source
View Answer software?
a) LibreOffice
Answer: b b) Microsoft Office
Explanation: It is called the RPC or the Remote c) GNU image manipulation
Procedure Call. The functioning is to call certain d) MySQL
procedures on remote applications. This is View Answer
generally utilized in a software application.
Answer: b
1. A software that can be freely accessed and Explanation: MS-office is not open source
modified. software since its source code isn’t shared publicly.
a) Synchronous Software Others like Libre office, MySQL are open source
b) Package Software softwares through which is distributed along with
c) OSS its source code.
d) Middleware
View Answer 6. The users must agree to the _______ terms and
agreements when they use an open source
Answer: c software.
Explanation: Software refers to a collection of a) System
programs. OSS stands for Open Source Software. b) License
It can be freely accessed, edited and modified c) Community
according to our needs. d) Programmer
View Answer
2. Open Source Software can be used for
commercial purpose. Answer: b
a) True Explanation: The users must agree to the license
b) False terms and agreement in order to access an open
View Answer source software. There is a limitation of OSS that
the users cannot modify the terms and conditions
Answer: a of any software.
Explanation: The statement is true. The definition
of open source guarantees the use of open source 7. Which of the following is not a downside of
software for commercial purposes. It is commercial OSS?
but not proprietary. a) Lack of personalized support
b) Restricted choice
3. PNG is a _________ c) No warranty
a) image format d) Multiple choices
b) file format View Answer
c) internet format
d) html format Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: An OSS is nothing but an open
source software. It has restricted choices, i.e., there
Answer: a are fewer choices available for open source. Also,
Explanation: PNG is an image format. It stands for speed of change is an important downside, since
portable network graphics. PNG supports palette the software keeps on updating itself, we cannot
based images. ensure if it is compatible with other applications.
54
 8. An example of a web design OSS. b) False
a) Nvu View Answer
b) KOffice
c) AbiWorld Answer: a
d) Open Office Explanation: The statement is true. GPL is the
View Answer general public license. In the 90s, GPL+Internet,
many new open source projects started.
Answer: a
Explanation: Nvu is an example of an open source 3. Richard Stallman from MIT, established a
software for web designing. Others like KOffice, special license, the ________ license.
Open Office and AbiWorld are OSS examples for a) GNU
Office Automation. b) Free
c) Package
9. An image editor similar to Adobe Photoshop. d) Commercial
a) Nvu View Answer
b) Open Office
c) Bluefish Answer: a
d) GIMPshop Explanation: It was called the GNU license. It
View Answer ensured that software is free and open to anyone.
He was from MIT and his main motive was to
Answer: d develop a free alternative to Unix.
Explanation: GIMPshop is an image editor similar
to adobe photoshop. Nvu is intended for those with 4. In 1969 AT&T laboratories developed ______
no technical expertise. which supported and worked on different hardware
platforms.
10. An OSS for communication purpose. a) Linux
a) Virtue Mart b) Unix
b) Drupal c) Windows
c) Pidgin d) Ubuntu
d) ZenCart View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: Linux was found in that year. It
Explanation: Pidgin is used for Free Instant worked well on different hardware platforms.
Messaging(IIM) client. Virtue mart and emart are Commercial users had to pay a license fee.
for e-commerce purpose. Drupal is for content
management. 5. OSS stands for ___________
a) Open System Service
1. A guideline for the OSS licenses other than the b) Open Source Software
GPL. c) Open System Software
a) OSI d) Open Synchronized Software
b) OSD View Answer
c) OSE
d) OSL Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: OSS stands for open source software.
OSS allows any user to download, view, modify
Answer: b and redistribute the software. Also, the user can fix
Explanation: OSS is the open source software. In bugs according to needs.
1997, OSI or the open source initiative was
founded and it developed the OSD (Open Source 6. Public domain software is usually __________
Definition). OSD is a guideline for OSS licenses a) System supported
other than the GPL. b) Source supported
c) Community supported
2. GPL of GNU says that every copy of a program d) Programmer supported
governed by GPL license, even if modified, must View Answer
be subject to GPL again.
a) True Answer: c
Explanation: The public domain software is
55
generally community supported. It is community 1. The word ____________comes from the name
supported as an author does not support users of a Persian mathematician Abu Ja’far Mohammed
directly. ibn-i Musa al Khowarizmi.
a) Flowchart
7. Set of a program which consists of full b) Flow
documentation. c) Algorithm
a) Software Package d) Syntax
b) System Software View Answer
c) Utility Software
d) File package Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: The word algorithm comes from the
name of a Persian mathematician Abu Ja’far
Answer: a Mohammed ibn-i Musa al Khowarizmi.
Explanation: It is called a software package.
Software is nothing but a collection of programs. A 2. In computer science, algorithm refers to a
software package can solve a specific problem or special method usable by a computer for the
perform a specific type of job. solution to a problem.
a) True
8. Interpreter is used as a translator for? b) False
a) Low level language View Answer
b) High Level Language
c) COBOL Answer: a
d) C Explanation: The statement is true. This word
View Answer algorithm refers to a special method usable by a
computer for the solution to a problem. The
Answer: b statement of the problem specifies in general terms
Explanation: It is generally used to make the code the desired input/output relationship.
into a machine understandable format. Interpreter
is used with the high level languages similarly. 3. This characteristic often draws the line between
Assembler is used in case of low level languages. what is feasible and what is impossible.
a) Performance
9. What do you call a specific instruction designed b) System Evaluation
to do a task? c) Modularity
a) Command d) Reliability
b) Process View Answer
c) Task
d) Instruction Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Algorithms help us to understand
scalability. Performance often draws the line
Answer: a between what is feasible and what is impossible.
Explanation: A program is a set of instructions. A
command is given to do a specific job. A program 4. The time that depends on the input: an already
in execution is called a process. sorted sequence that is easier to sort.
a) Process
10. They normally interact with the system via b) Evaluation
user interface provided by the application software. c) Running
a) Programmers d) Input
b) Developers View Answer
c) Users
d) Testers Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: The running time depends on the
input: an already sorted sequence is easier to sort.
Answer: c The running time is given by the size of the input,
Explanation: Users interact with the system via since short sequences are easier to sort than the
user interface that is given by the application longer ones. Generally, we seek upper bounds on
software. Application software is a set of the running time, because it is reliable.
instructions designed to serve a particular purpose.

56
 5. Which of the following is incorrect? Answer: a
Algorithms can be represented: Explanation: Linear arrays are the 1-Dimensional
a) as pseudo codes arrays wherein only one row is present and the
b) as syntax items are inserted.
c) as programs
d) as flowcharts 10. A data structure that follows the FIFO
View Answer principle.
a) Queue
Answer: b b) LL
Explanation: Representation of algorithms: c) Stack
-As programs d) Union
-As flowcharts View Answer
-As pseudo codes.
Answer: c
6. When an algorithm is written in the form of a Explanation: The answer is Stack. A stack follows
programming language, it becomes a _________ the FIFO principle. FIFO stands for First In First
a) Flowchart Out.
b) Program
c) Pseudo code 1. The symbol denotes _______
d) Syntax
View Answer

Answer: b a) I/O
Explanation: An algorithm becomes a program b) Flow
when it is written in the form of a programming c) Terminal
language. Thus, any program is an algorithm. d) Decision
View Answer
7. Any algorithm is a program.
a) True Answer: c
b) False Explanation: The symbol denotes a terminal. It is
View Answer used for indication of start and stop nodes of a
program.
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. An algorithm 2. In computer science, algorithm refers to a
is represented in the form of a programming pictorial representation of a flowchart.
language is called a program. Any program is an a) True
algorithm but the reverse is not true. b) False
View Answer
8. A system wherein items are added from one
and removed from the other end. Answer: b
a) Stack Explanation: The statement is false. The correct
b) Queue statement would be: In computer science,
c) Linked List flowchart refers to a pictorial representation of an
d) Array algorithm.
View Answer
3. The process of drawing a flowchart for an
Answer: b algorithm is called __________
Explanation: In a queue, the items are inserted a) Performance
from the rear end and deleted from the front end. b) Evaluation
c) Algorithmic Representation
d) Flowcharting
9. Another name for 1-D arrays.
View Answer
a) Linear arrays
b) Lists
c) Horizontal array Answer: d
d) Vertical array Explanation: It is called as flowcharting. A
View Answer flowchart is nothing but a pictorial representation
of an algorithm.

57
 4. Actual instructions in flowcharting are c) Micro
represented in __________ d) Union
a) Circles View Answer
b) Boxes
c) Arrows Answer: c
d) Lines Explanation: A detailed flowchart or a flowchart
View Answer with more details is called as micro flowchart. It
represents all the components of the algorithm that
Answer: b is followed.
Explanation: The actual instructions are written in
boxes. Boxes are connected by using arrows to 9. Which of the following is not an advantage of a
indicate the exact flow of a flowchart and the order flowchart?
in which they are to be executed. a) Better communication
b) Efficient coding
5. The following box denotes? c) Systematic testing
d) Improper documentation
View Answer

Answer: d
a) Decision Explanation: Flowcharts provide a proper
b) Initiation documentation. It also provides systematic
c) Initialization debugging.
d) I/O
View Answer 10. A flowchart that outlines the main segments of
a program.
Answer: a a) Queue
Explanation: A diamond shape box denotes the b) Macro
decision making statements. It jumps to a truth c) Micro
value or a false value. d) Union
View Answer
6. A box that can represent two different
conditions. Answer: b
a) Rectangle Explanation: The answer is Macro Flowchart. A
b) Diamond macro flowchart outlines the important
c) Circle components of a program. It therefore shows fewer
d) Parallelogram details.
View Answer
1. A ______________ is diagram that depicts the
Answer: b flow of a program.
Explanation: A diamond shape box denotes either a a) Algorithm
truth value or a false value. It jumps onto two b) Hash Table
different statements following it via flow lines. c) Graph
d) Flowchart
7. There should be certain set standards on the View Answer
amount of details that should be provided in a
flowchart. Answer: d
a) True Explanation: A flowchart is a diagram that helps us
b) False determine the flow of the program. Other options
View Answer are irrelevant.

Answer: b 2. Terminals are represented by diagonals in a

Explanation: The statement is false. There should flowchart.
be no set standards on the amount of details that a) True
should be provided in a flowchart. b) False
View Answer
8. A detailed flowchart is called ______
a) Stack Answer: b
b) Macro Explanation: The statement is false. Terminals are
58
represented by rounded rectangles. They indicate terminal is denoted by a rounded rectangle. I/O
the starting or ending point in a flowchart. operation by a parallelogram and process by a
rectangle.
3. The operation represented by parallelograms.
a) Input/Output 7. What type of structure is this?
b) Assignment
c) Comparison
d) Conditions
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The input/output operations are
represented by parallelograms. They generally are a) sequence
used to display messages during input and output b) case
part of a program. c) repetition
d) process
4. Which of the following is not a flowchart View Answer
structure?
a) Process Answer: c
b) Sequence Explanation: This is a repetition structure. The
c) Repetition action performed by a repetition structure must
d) Case eventually cause the loop to terminate. Otherwise,
View Answer an infinite loop is created.

Answer: a 8. What type of a structure is this?

Explanation: There are basically four flowcharting
structures:
• Decision
• Repetition
• Case
• Sequence.

5. The action performed by a ___________

structure must eventually cause the loop to
terminate.
a) sequence a) sequence
b) case b) case
c) repetition c) repetition
d) process d) process
View Answer View Answer

Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: The action performed by a repetition Explanation: This is a case structure. Certain cases
structure must eventually cause the loop to are given along with a default case in the case
terminate. Otherwise, an infinite loop is created. structure.

6. The following symbol denotes: 9. A _______ is a connector showing the

relationship between the representative shapes.
a) line
b) arrow
a) Module c) Process
b) Terminal d) box
c) Process View Answer
d) i/o operation
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: Arrows are the connectors that show
Answer: a the relationship between different shapes. They
Explanation: This symbol is that of a module. The also show the flow of the program.
59
 10. The following box denotes? d) Semicolon
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Each design structure uses a
particular indentation pattern.
a) Decision
Indentation should be considered in the following
b) Input/Output
cases:
c) Process
Sequence
d) Module
Selection
View Answer
Loop.
Answer: a
5. The statement that tells the computer to get a
Explanation: The answer is decision. Conditions
value from an input device and store it in a
are given in this box and then the result is checked
memory location.
accordingly if the condition is true or false.
a) read
b) write
1. Keep the statement language ______________ c) READ
while writing a pseudo code. d) WRITE
a) Dependent View Answer
b) Independent
c) Case sensitive
Answer: c
d) Capitalized
Explanation: The READ statement is used to take
View Answer
the input. READ being a keyword should be in
capital letters.
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement’s language should be
6. _____________ are identified by their
independent. Other rules are to write only one
addresses, we give them names (field names /
statement per line and end multiline structures.
variable names) using words.
a) Memory variables
2. Capitalize initial keyword – This is a rule while b) Memory Locations
writing a pseudo code. c) Memory Addresses
a) True d) Data variables
b) False View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: Memory locations are identified by
Explanation: The statement is true. It is an their addresses, we give them names (field
important rule to capitalize the initial keyword names/variable names) using words descriptive to
while writing a pseudo code. us such as ctr as opposed to a location addresses
such as 19087.
3. Which of the following is not a keyword?
a) Read 7. ____________ begins with lower case letters.
b) Write a) Keywords
c) start b) Variables
d) endif c) Tokens
View Answer d) Functions
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Start is not a Keyword. Other words Answer: b
like read, write, if, else, etc are keywords and Explanation: Variables begin with a lowercase.
convey a special meaning. They contain no spaces. They also involve the
consistent use of names.
4. ______________ is used to show hierarchy in a
pseudo code. 8. Another notation for exponentiation.
a) Indentation a) *
b) Curly Braces b) **
c) Round Brackets c) ***
60
d) *^ 3. A ________ is a directed graph that describes
View Answer the flow of execution control of the program.
a) Flowchart
Answer: b b) Flow graph
Explanation: Double asterisk sign is also used for c) Complexity curve
exponentiation. The general notation is ^ sign. d) Algorithm
View Answer
9. A symbol used for grouping.
a) () Answer: a
b) {} Explanation: A flowchart is a directed graph. It
c) []. simply describes the flow of execution control of
d) ” ” the program.
View Answer
4. A program should be ________
Answer: a a) Secure
Explanation: Parenthesis is used for grouping b) Sequential
while working with fields. There are other symbols c) Ordered
like *, +, -, **, etc. d) Simple
View Answer
10. A statement used to close the IF block.
a) ELSE Answer: b
b) ELSEIF Explanation: It is natural to write a program as a
c) END sequence of program structures such as sequences,
d) ENDIF choices and loops.
View Answer
5. The following is the syntax for:
Answer: d
Explanation: The answer is ENDIF. It is used to ____(condition)
close the IF block. ENDIF statement should be in action
line with the IF statement.
a) Else
1. Programming based on stepwise refinement b) Elif
process. c) If
a) Structural d) Switch
b) C programming View Answer
c) Procedural
d) Fine Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: The if statement follows that syntax.
If is a choice statement. Else is also a choice
Answer: a statement.
Explanation: Structured programming is based on
the stepwise refinement process-a method of 6. Which of the following is a loop statement?
problem decomposition common to all engineering a) IF
disciplines and the physical, chemical, and b) ELSE
biological sciences. c) WHILE
d) DO
2. Top-down approach is followed in structural View Answer
programming.
a) True Answer: c
b) False Explanation: WHILE is a loop statement.
View Answer Syntax : while(condition)
action.
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Structural 7. What is the correct syntax of for statement?
programming follows the top – down approach. a) for(initialization;condition;update)
Each module is further divided into sub modules. b) for(initialization,condition,update)
c) for(condition;initialization;update)

61
d) for(initialization;condition;) particular computer and used directly by the
View Answer computer is machine language.

Answer: a 2. Binary code comprises of digits from 0 to 9.

Explanation: The correct syntax is : a) True
for(initialization;condition;update) b) False
For is another loop statement. View Answer

8. Semicolon is used after : Answer: b

a) Function definition Explanation: The statement is false. Binary as the
b) Function call word suggests contains only 2 digits : 0 and 1.
c) for loop 0 denotes false and 1 denotes a truth value.
d) while loop
View Answer 3. The ___________ contains the address of the
next instruction to be executed.
Answer: b a) IR
Explanation: Semicolon is used after function call b) PC
otherwise it leads to compile-time errors. It c) Accumulator
shouldn’t be used after definitions. It should also d) System counter
not be used after loops. View Answer
advertisement
Answer: b
9. The number of values a function can return at a Explanation: PC stands for program counter (It
time? contains the address of the next instruction to be
a) 1 executed).
b) 0
c) 2 4. The memory unit is made up of _____ bytes.
d) more than 2 a) 256
View Answer b) 124
c) 4096
Answer: a d) 3096
Explanation: A function can return only one value View Answer
at a time.
Syntax : return (x,12); Answer: c
Explanation: The memory unit is made up of 4,096
10. Which of the following isn’t a loop statement? bytes. Memory unit is responsible for the storage
a) for of data. It is an important entity in the computer
b) elif system.
c) while
d) do-while 5. A document that specifies how many times and
View Answer with what data the program must be run in order to
thoroughly test it.
Answer: b a) addressing plan
Explanation: The answer is elif. Elif isn’t a loop b) test plan
statement. It is a part of a choice statement. c) validation plan
d) verification plan
1. The language made up of binary coded View Answer
instructions.
a) Machine Answer: b
b) C Explanation: Test plan is the A document that
c) BASIC specifies how many times and with what data the
d) High level program must be run in order to thoroughly test it.
View Answer It comes under testing.

Answer: a 6. An approach that designs test cases by looking

Explanation: The language made up of binary at the allowable data values.
coded instructions built into the hardware of a a) Maintenance
b) Evaluation
62
c) Data coverage Answer: a
d) Validation Explanation: The answer is semantics. They are the
View Answer rules that give meaning to the instructions. The
syntax is the formal rules that ensure validation of
Answer: c code.
Explanation: Data coverage is the term used. It is
responsible for designing the test cases. 1. Each personal computer has a _________ that
manages the computer’s arithmetical, logical and
7. The formal grammar rules governing the control activities.
construction of valid instruction. a) Microprocessor
a) test case b) Assembler
b) syntax c) Microcontroller
c) program d) Interpreter
d) semantics View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: Microprocessor handles all these
Explanation: Syntax determines the grammatical activities. Each family of processors has its own set
rules in a code. Semantics give meaning to the of instructions for handling various operations like
instructions. getting input from keyboard, displaying
information on a screen and performing various
8. A program that reads each of the instructions in other jobs.
mnemonic form and translates it into the machine-
language equivalent. 2. Assembly Language requires less memory and
a) Machine language execution time.
b) Assembler a) True
c) Interpreter b) False
d) C program View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: The statement is true.
Explanation: Assembler does this job. A language Advantages of using assembly language are:
that uses mnemonic codes for the representation of • It requires less memory and execution time.
machine-language instructions is called assembly • It allows hardware-specific complex jobs in an
language. easier way.
• It is suitable for time-critical jobs.
9. An approach that designs test cases by looking
at the allowable data values. 3. The data size of a word is _________
a) Data coverage a) 2-byte
b) Code Coverage b) 4-byte
c) Debugging c) 8-byte
d) Validation d)16-byte
View Answer View Answer

Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: Data coverage is an approach that Explanation: The processor supports the following
designs test cases by looking at the allowable data data sizes:
values. Code coverage is an approach that designs • Word: a 2-byte data item
test cases by looking at the code. • Double word: a 4-byte (32 bit) data item, etc.

10. The rules that give meaning to the 4. A direct reference of specific location.
instructions. a) Segment Address
a) Semantics b) Absolute Address
b) Syntax c) Offset
c) Code d) Memory Address
d) Cases View Answer
View Answer

63
 Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: There are two kinds of memory Explanation: The processor has some internal
addresses: memory storage locations, known as registers. The
• An absolute address – a direct reference of registers stores data elements for processing
specific location. without having to access memory.
• The segment address (or offset) – starting address
of a memory segment with the offset value. 9. To locate the exact location of data in memory,
we need the starting address of the segment, which
5. A Borland Turbo Assembler. is found in the DS register and an offset value. This
a) nasm offset value is also called?
b) tasm a) Effective Address
c) gas b) Direct offset address
d) asm c) Memory address
View Answer d) General Address
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tasm is the borland turbo assembler. Answer: a
Nasm is used with linux generally. Gas is the GNU Explanation: When operands are specified in
assembler. memory addressing mode, direct access to main
memory, usually to the data segment, is required.
6. The instructions that tell the assembler what to This way of addressing results in slower processing
do. of data. To get the exact location of data in
a) Executable instructions memory, we need segment start address, which is
b) Pseudo-ops found in the DS register and an offset value. This
c) Logical instructions offset value is called an effective address.
d) Macros
View Answer 10. Each byte of character is stored as its ASCII
value in _______
Answer: a a) Hexadecimal
Explanation: The executable instructions or simple b) Binary
instructions tell the processor what to do. Each c) Octal
instruction consists of an operation code (opcode). d) Decimal
Each executable instruction generates one machine View Answer
language instruction.
Answer: a
7. The segment containing data values passed to Explanation: Assembly language deals with
functions and procedures within the program. hexadecimal values only. Each decimal value is
a) Code automatically converted to its 16-bit binary
b) Data equivalent and stored as a hexadecimal number.
c) Stack
d) System 1. Prolog comes under ___________
View Answer a) Logic Programming
b) Procedural Programming
Answer: c c) OOP
Explanation: The stack segment contains data d) Functional
values passed to functions and procedures within View Answer
the program. The code segment defines an area in
memory that stores the instruction codes. Answer: a
Explanation: Prolog stands for Programming in
8. To speed up the processor operations, the Logic. The options mentioned are the four
processor includes some internal memory storage categories of programming. Prolog is a type of
locations, called ___________ logic programming.
a) Drives
b) Memory 2. Java is procedural programming.
c) Units a) True
d) Registers b) False
View Answer View Answer

64
 Answer: b 7. JIT stands for?
Explanation: The statement is false. Java is a type a) Just in time
of object oriented programming language. It b) Jump in time
involves solving real-life problems as well. c) Jump in text
d) Jump in terms
3. A program that can execute high-level language View Answer
programs.
a) Compiler Answer: a
b) Interpreter Explanation: JIT stands for Just in time. JVMs
c) Sensor actually compile each bytecode instruction to
d) Circuitry native code the first time it is used.
View Answer
8. JVM stands for?
Answer: b a) Java virtual machine
Explanation: Interpreter is a program that can b) Java visual machine
execute high-level language programs “directly,” c) JRE virtual machine
without first being translated into machine d) JRE visual machine
language. View Answer

4. Executables might be called ________ Answer: a

a) native code Explanation: JVM stands for Java Virtual Machine.
b) executable code Other related terms are JRE which is java runtime
c) complex code environment and JDK which is java development
d) machine code kit.
View Answer
9. A language supported by MS. Net platform.
Answer: a a) C
Explanation: The executables are sometimes called b) C++
native code. HLL are translated to Machine c) java
language called the native code. d) C#
View Answer
5. Source program is compiled to an intermediate
form called ___________ Answer: d
a) Byte Code Explanation: C# is supported by MS. Net platform.
b) Smart code JAVA was originally designed for web purposes.
c) Executable code
d) Machine code 10. Which of the following isn’t a characteristic of
View Answer High level languages?
a) machine code
Answer: a b) platform independent
Explanation: The Source program is compiled to c) interactive execution
an intermediate form called byte code. For each d) user-friendly
supported platform, write a “virtual machine” View Answer
emulator that reads byte code and emulates its
execution. Answer: a
Explanation: HLL isn’t in machine language. It is
6. _______________ is the assembly language for converted to machine language for further
an imaginary architecture. processing.
a) Byte code
b) Machine code 1. Which is interpreted language?
c) Native code a) C++
d) Executable code b) C
View Answer c) MATLAB
d) Fortran
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: Source program is compiled to an
intermediate form – byte code. Byte code is the Answer: c
assembly language for an imaginary architecture. Explanation: MATLAB is an interpreted language.
65
All the other languages are compiled languages. In 6. A Fortran is not ___________
the case of Interpreted language, the translation to a) System supported
machine-language is performed incrementally at b) Source supported
run-time. c) Case Sensitive
d) Programmer supported
2. In compiled language, the translation to View Answer
machine-language is performed incrementally at
run-time. Answer: c
a) True Explanation: Fortran is not a case sensitive
b) False language. For e.g. PROGRAM xyz also works.
View Answer Also, multiple consecutive blank spaces are
ignored.
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. The translation 7. The delimiter in a FORTRAN code.
is performed once, then executable file is run as a) Semicolon
frequently as needed without further translation. b) Blank space
c) Colon
3. The first widely-used high level language d) Comma
developed in 1957. View Answer
a) C
b) Java Answer: b
c) Fortran Explanation: Delimiter separates the tokens we use
d) Cobol in our code. In a FORTRAN code, single blank
View Answer space serves as a delimiter. Though, multiple blank
spaces are ignored.
Answer: c
Explanation: Fortran which stands for Formula 8. A program that reads the source code and
Translation was the first widely-used high level converts it to a form usable by the computer.
language. It was developed by IBM for scientific a) Interpreter
applications. The program was entered as punch b) Compiler
cards. c) Linker
d) Assembler
4. A text file that contains our program is called as View Answer
__________
a) Exe file Answer: b
b) Doc file Explanation: A compiler does this task. Internally,
c) Obj file 3 steps are performed: preprocessing, checking and
d) Source file compiling. Further, assembler and linker do the
View Answer work.

Answer: d 9. A valid variable declaration in FORTRAN is

Explanation: A file that contains the code or the __________
main program is called as the source file. Source a) real :: Celsius
code must be processed by a compiler to create an b) real Celsius;
executable file. c) Celsius real;
d) real : Celsius
5. First statement in a fortran code is _________ View Answer
a) include statement
b) import statement Answer: a
c) program statement Explanation: A variable declaration has the
d) @data statement following syntax:
View Answer Data type :: variable name

Answer: c 10. In FORTRAN, the declarations of variables

Explanation: It is the program statement. program can be modified using the _____ parameter.
statement is followed by the program name. a) kind
Syntax : program xyz b) make
c) select
66
d) change Entries
View Answer Clauses.

Answer: a 5. D in COBOL stands for _________

Explanation: Kind can be used for this purpose. It a) Data
can often be used for the precision of reals. If you b) Draft
want to change the precision, it can easily be done c) Debugger
using one line of code. d) Debugging lines
View Answer
1. COBOL stands for _________
a) Common Business Oriented Language Answer: d
b) Common Business Object Language Explanation: It stands for debugging lines.
c) Common Beneficial Oriented Language Compiler fills in with the sequence numbers. There
d) Common Beneficial Object Language are certain coding rules that must be followed in
View Answer COBOL.

Answer: a 6. Comment in COBOL is denoted by ________

Explanation: COBOL stands for Common a) *
Business Oriented Language. It is designed for b) /
business purpose. It is fast and relatively simple to c) //
learn. d) ;
View Answer
2. COBOL is a language that keeps evolving.
a) True Answer: a
b) False Explanation: Comment is denoted by asterisk. (*)
View Answer It denotes the comment line. Hyphen – denotes
continuation.
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. COBOL has 7. The data division is used to ________
billions of lines of existing code with more added a) Declare program id
each year. It thus keeps updating itself. b) Declare variables
c) File control
3. Which of the following is not a part of the d) Input-Output section
program division in COBOL? View Answer
a) Identification
b) Environment Answer: b
c) Procedure Explanation: The data division is used to declare
d) Compilation and create variables and constant fields. There are
View Answer 3 basic data types in COBOL.

Answer: d 8. Which is not a data type in COBOL?

Explanation: COBOL has 4 basic parts in the a) numeric
division section: Identification, Environment, data b) alphanumeric
and procedure. Each program is organized like a c) alphabetic
book. d) float
View Answer
4. Which of the following is not a part of the
Identification division? Answer: d
a) Paragraphs Explanation: There is no data type called as float in
b) Entries COBOL. It has only 3 basic data types: numeric,
c) Phrases alphabetic and alphanumeric. Variables are created
d) Clauses in the data division.
View Answer
9. What does S denote in a picture clause?
Answer: c a) A symbol
Explanation: The order of identification division is: b) A character
Paragraphs c) A sign

67
d) Alphanumeric sign 4. Which of the following is a common testing
View Answer conducted by the developers?
a) Unit testing
Answer: b b) Entry testing
Explanation: It denotes a sign in a picture clause. c) Phrase testing
Picture clause values usually use 9, X, V, S, A. d) Code testing
View Answer
10. _____________ denotes the format in which
data is stored in memory. Answer: a
a) kind Explanation: Unit testing is commonly performed
b) attach by the developers. It is difficult to perform testing
c) select at any time during its cycle. An early start
d) usage decreases the time and cost.
View Answer
5. SDLC stands for ________
Answer: d a) Software development life cycle
Explanation: Usage denotes the format in which b) System development life cycle
data is stored in the memory. Normally the phrase c) Software design life cycle
usage is omitted in COBOL. d) System design life cycle
View Answer
1. Another name for white-box testing is
___________ Answer: a
a) Control testing Explanation: It stands for Software development
b) Graybox life cycle. In SDLC, the testing can be started from
c) Glassbox the software gathering requirement phase. And can
d) Black box be carried over till the deployment phase.
View Answer
6. Which of the following is a myth in testing?
Answer: c a) Tester can find bugs
Explanation: Sometimes it is called the glass box b) Any user can test software
testing. It is a type of testing in which the internal c) Missed defects are not due to testers
structure of any application is tested and examined. d) Complete testing is not possible
View Answer
2. Test cases ensure that all the statements are
executed atleast once. Answer: b
a) True Explanation: Any user can test software is a myth.
b) False Anyone cannot test the software. A person who has
View Answer no knowledge cannot test the software.

Answer: a 7. A process to determine how the actual testing is

Explanation: The statement is true. Test cases are done _______
written to check if all the statements are executed a) Audit
at least once. It also checks the logicality of the b) Inspection
code. c) Control
d) Monitoring
3. Which of the following divides the input View Answer
domain into classes containing data?
a) Equivalent partitioning Answer: a
b) Environment partitioning Explanation: Audit is the systematic process which
c) Procedure division can determine how the actual process of testing is
d) Compilation division done. Audit is generally done with a team.
View Answer
8. Gathering formal or informal technical
Answer: a feedback is called _________
Explanation: Equivalent partitioning divides the a) Audit
input domain into classes containing data. They b) Testing
basically exercise on a specific functionality of a c) Inspection
software.
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d) Unit testing 3. A freeware GNU Debugger is __________
View Answer a) GDB
b) GNB
Answer: c c) FDB
Explanation: The term used is inspection. d) FNB
Inspection helps in getting a formal or an informal View Answer
feedback of a particular product. The errors can be
easily examined. Answer: a
Explanation: GDB is a free GNU debugger which
9. Which is not involved in debugging? runs on most of the Unix-like platforms. It works
a) Identifying for multiple programming languages. GNU is free
b) Isolating software.
c) Test
d) Fixing 4. Which of the following is written for getting
View Answer help in GDB?
a) he
Answer: c b) h
Explanation: Testing is a different process and is c) assist
different from debugging. Debugging involves d) assistant
identifying, isolating and fixation of the problems View Answer
or errors.
Answer: b
10. A standard for unit testing. Explanation: In this h stands for help. h or help
a) IEEE 1008 both commands can be used. Help lists all the
b) IEEE 1005 commands.
c) IEEE 1009
d) IEEE 1000 5. h command gives ___________
View Answer a) A list of all the commands starting from h
b) Describes all the commands
Answer: a c) Displays a short description of the command
Explanation: IEEE 1008 is a standard defined for d) Displays all the programs
unit testing. Rest all the other standards mentioned View Answer
are invalid. There are certain standards defined for
Quality assurance. Answer: c
Explanation: h command displays a short
1. Examination of the program step by step is description of the command. If simply help is
called ______________ written it gives a list of all the commands.
a) Controlling
b) Tracing 6. ____________ creates an inferior process that
c) Stepping runs your program.
d) Testing a) run
View Answer b) exit
c) execute
Answer: c d) e
Explanation: Debuggers perform the task of step View Answer
by step examination of the code which is called
stepping. They also perform tracing. Answer: a
Explanation: run or r command creates an inferior
2. The examination of changing values of process that runs your program. If there are no
variables is called stepping. errors the program will finish and results will be
a) True displayed accordingly.
b) False
View Answer 7. Which of the following does not affects the
execution of the program?
Answer: b a) Arguments
Explanation: The statement is false. It is called b) Environment
tracing. In tracing, the variables are examined c) Control
wherever it value is changing.
69
d) I/o documents is a part of Software Process
View Answer Documentation. Several other terms used in
documentation are SDP, SRS, etc.
Answer: c
Explanation: Execution is affected by : 2. The SRS describes what the system should do
-> arguments with words and figures.
-> environment a) True
-> Working directory b) False
-> standard I/O. View Answer

8. ‘set args ‘ without arguments can ___________ Answer: a

a) initialize all the arguments Explanation: The statement is true. SRS stands for
b) remove all the arguments Software Requirements Specifications. It describes
c) no change what the system should do in theoretical terms.
d) show all the arguments
View Answer 3. _______ is part of user documentation.
a) Class diagram
Answer: b b) Use case
Explanation: set args command can remove all the c) Code comment
arguments. d) Installation guide
Syntax: set args arg1 arg2 … View Answer
If the arguments are not given it deletes all the
arguments. Answer: d
Explanation: Installation guide is a part of user
9. Which is not involved in debugging? documentation. It also comprises of user manual,
a) Identifying installation guide, Wiki and the online
b) Isolating documentation and help.
c) Test
d) Fixing 4. The process of maintaining a record of project
View Answer development and maintenance.
a) Process documentation
Answer: c b) Product documentation
Explanation: Testing is a different process and is c) User documentation
different from debugging. Debugging involves d) System documentation
identifying, isolating and fixation of the problems View Answer
or errors.
Answer: a
10. run > outfile command is used to _________ Explanation: It is called as process documentation
a) direct output to the file outfile only. It contains the plans, schedules, etc. It also
b) jump to a file outfile contains the gantt chart.
c) enter a file outfile
d) edit a file outfile 5. This describes the objectives of a product and
View Answer set out the constraints.
a) SDP
Answer: a b) SRS
Explanation: run > outfile directs the output to the c) SDD
file outfile. Certain commands like ‘ cd dir ‘ are d) STD
used to change the working directory. View Answer

1. STD stands for ____________ Answer: a

a) Software Test Documents Explanation: Software development plan describes
b) System Test Documents the objectives of the project and sets the
c) Software Traced Documents constraints. It comprises risk analysis, work
d) System Traced Documents breakdown, monitoring and reporting mechanisms,
View Answer etc.

Answer: a 6. ____________ provide the detailed, specific

Explanation: STD which stands for Software test application being developed.
70
a) System models environment.
b) Appendices a) System models
c) Index b) Software models
d) Glossary c) Class models
View Answer d) User models
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Appendices provide the detailed, Answer: a
specific application being developed. It includes Explanation: System models describe the
hardware and database descriptions. Hardware relationships between various entities. It comprises
requirements include minimal and optimal of various models like data flow, use case,
configurations of a system. semantic data models etc.

7. Which of the following should describe the 1. Maintenance and review add to the useful life
technical terms used in the document? of the system but can consume large amounts of
a) glossary __________
b) index a) Documents
c) user requirements b) Soft wares
d) system architecture c) Devices
View Answer d) Resources
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Glossary should describe the Answer: d
technical terms used in the document. In this, the Explanation: They consume a large amount of
writer shouldn’t make assumptions about the resources. They can benefit from the methods and
experience and expertise of the reader. project management techniques though which are
applied to the systems development.
8. The services provided for the user are described
in which section? 2. File and database contains the frequency
a) System requirements component.
b) User requirements a) True
c) System models b) False
d) Appendices View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: The statement is false. Frequency is a
Explanation: The services provided by the software part of output design. File design contains
for the user are described in this section. The non- capabilities and organization.
functional requirements should also be described in
this section. 3. This is not a part of the signing on the
procedure.
9. ______________ architecture provides a high- a) Identification
level overview of the anticipated system b) Verification
architecture. c) Execution
a) System d) Authorization
b) User View Answer
c) Test
d) Software Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: Signing on is a part of special system
design considerations. It does not involve a step of
Answer: a execution. It involves identification, verification
Explanation: System architecture shows the and authorization.
description and distribution functions across
system modules. Architectural components that are 4. A __________ is a noted set of activities that
reused should be highlighted. are executed on the software in order to confirm its
behavior to certain set of inputs.
10. The graphical models showing the a) Process
relationships between the system and its b) Document
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c) Use case d) V(G) = E + N – 2
d) Test case View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: The option V(G) = E – N + 2 denotes
Explanation: A test case is basically a documented the correct expression. Here, E is the number of
set of activities that are carried out on the software flow graph edges. N is the number of flow graph
in order to confirm its functionality to certain given nodes.
inputs. Each test case would in turn have steps to
address how we can check a particular test 9. The probability of failure-free operation of a
condition is satisfied or not. software application in a specified environment for
a specified time.
5. A type of testing that is conducted at the a) Software Reliability
software interface. b) Software Quality
a) gray box c) Software availability
b) black box d) Software Safety
c) red box View Answer
d) white box
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is software reliability. It
Answer: b is estimated using historical and development data.
Explanation: Black box testing is conducted at the
software interface. White box testing is predicted 10. SCM stands for __________
on close examination of procedural details. a) Software configuration monitoring
b) System configuration management
6. A simple notation for the representation of c) Software configuration management
control flow. d) System configuration monitoring
a) System flow View Answer
b) Flow graph
c) Flow program Answer: a
d) System program Explanation: Software configuration management
View Answer (SCM), also called change management, is a set of
activities designed to manage change by
Answer: b identifying the work products that are likely to
Explanation: The flow graph depicts logical change.
control flow. Each circle in a flow graph is called a
flow graph node, represents one or more 1. ______________ is done in the development
procedural statements. phase by the developers.
a) Deployment
7. A software metric that provides a quantitative b) Debugging
measure of the logical complexity of a program. c) Verification
a) Cyclomatic complexity d) Validation
b) Index matrix View Answer
c) Quantitative complexity
d) System complexity Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Debugging is done in the
development phase by the developer. In
Answer: a development phase developer fixes the bug (i.e)
Explanation: The number of regions of the flow called debugging.
graph corresponds to the cyclomatic complexity.
All other options are invalid. 2. Testing is conducted by the developers in
testing phase.
8. An expression for the calculation of cyclomatic a) True
complexity. b) False
a) V(G) = E – N + 2 View Answer
b) V(G) = E + N + 2
c) V(G) = E – N – 2 Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Testing is
72
conducted by the testers in testing phase. Testing is in an existing system to enhance, update, or
a process of finding the defects from a user upgrade its features is called system maintenance.
perspective(Black Box Testing). On an average, maintenance cost of a computerized
system is two to four times more than the initial
3. Process of evaluating a system to verify development cost.
whether or not it is meeting its objectives.
a) System Maintenance 7. _____________ Conducted at developer’s site.
b) System Evaluation a) Alpha Testing
c) System validation b) Beta Testing
d) System authorization c) Unit testing
View Answer d) System testing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Process of evaluating a system (after Answer: a
it is put in operation) to verify whether or not it is Explanation: Alpha testing is conducted at the
meeting its objectives is called as system developer’s site. It is conducted by a customer (end
evaluation. users) in developer’s presence before software
delivery.
4. A point not considered in system evaluation.
a) Process control 8. ___________ Conducted at customers’ site.
b) Performance evaluation a) Alpha Testing
c) User Satisfaction b) Beta Testing
d) Failure Rate c) Unit testing
View Answer d) System testing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Points considered for evaluating a Answer: b
system are: Explanation: Beta testing is conducted at the
-> Performance evaluation customer’s site. Generally, developer is not
-> Cost analysis present. Customer records all problems (defects)
-> Time analysis and reports it to developer.
-> User satisfaction
-> Ease of modification 9. The probability of failure-free operation of a
-> Failure rate. software application in a specified environment for
a specified time.
5. A type of testing that is conducted at the a) Software Reliability
software interface. b) Software Quality
a) gray box c) Software availability
b) black box d) Software Safety
c) red box View Answer
d) white box
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is software reliability. It
Answer: b is estimated using historical and development data.
Explanation: Black box testing is conducted at the
software interface. White box testing is predicated 10. The probability that a software application is
on close examination of procedural details. operating according to requirements at a given
point in time.
6. Incorporating changes in an existing system to a) Software Reliability
enhance, update, or upgrade its features. b) Software Quality
a) Maintenance c) Software availability
b) Evaluation d) Software Safety
c) Deployment View Answer
d) Validation
View Answer Answer: c
Explanation: Software availability marks the
Answer: a proper functioning of the software at a given point
Explanation: The Process of incorporating changes
73
of time. Reliability, availability and safety are three c) Q
important factors. d) &
View Answer
1. A __________is a set of instructions which is
prepared to perform a specific assignment if Answer: a
executed by a computer. Explanation: Wait fraction of a processor is
a) Browser represented by w. It is also known as the processor
b) Internet wait ratio.
c) Program
d) Code 6. Processor wait ratio is given by ________
View Answer a) w=b/e+b
b) w=b/e-b
Answer: c c) #=b/e-b
Explanation: A set of meaningful instructions is d) #=b/e+b
called a program. A program is basically designed View Answer
to perform any function assigned to it.
Answer: b
2. A program is an active entity. Explanation: Processor wait ratio is represented by
a) True w. It is given by :
b) False w=b/b+e.
View Answer
7. What does ‘b’ represent in a processor wait
Answer: b ratio?
Explanation: The statement is false. A program is a) input ratio
not an active entity. It is completely passive. b) output ratio
c) average time
3. What is responsible for creating a process from d) average I/O time
a program? View Answer
a) OS
b) Web Answer: d
c) Internet Explanation: It represents the average I/O time.
d) Firewall Average execution time with single programming
View Answer is given by e.

Answer: a 8. A technique that allows more than one program

Explanation: OS is responsible for creating a to be ready for execution and provides the ability
process from a program. OS stands for operating to switch from one process to another.
system. A process is created in order to be a) multitasking
executed by using computer facilities. b) multiprocessing
c) multitasking
4. This cycle, of going through __________ states d) multiprogramming
of running and input/output, may be repeated over View Answer
and over until the job is completed.
a) evaluation Answer: d
b) process Explanation: Multiprogramming is the concept
c) program implemented for execution and provides the ability
d) data to switch from one task to the other.
View Answer
9. Multiprogramming is mainly accomplished by:
Answer: b a) os
Explanation: The answer is process states. The b) software
cycle of going through process states can be c) hardware
repeated over and over again until the job is d) program
completed or the process gets aborted. View Answer

5. The wait fraction is represented by __________ Answer: a

a) w Explanation: The OS is mainly responsible for
b) # multiprogramming. The hardware provides the
74
specific circuitry that may be used by the operating d) Network
system. View Answer

10. The technique that increases the system’s Answer: b

productivity. Explanation: The answer is TCP. TCP stands for
a) multiprogramming Transmission Control Protocol. Servers receive
b) multitasking requests from clients.
c) multiprocessing
d) single-programming 5. Java extension used in threads?
View Answer a) java.lang.Thread
b) java.language.Thread
Answer: a c) java.lang.Threads
Explanation: Multiprogramming increases the d) java.Thread
productivity. By increasing the CPU utilization View Answer
other devices’s utilization is also increased.
Answer: a
1. Multithreading is also called as ____________ Explanation: java.lang.Thread is the class that is
a) Concurrency extended if any user wants to extend threads.
b) Simultaneity
c) Crosscurrent 6. A method that must be overridden while
d) Recurrent extending threads.
View Answer a) run()
b) start()
Answer: a c) stop()
Explanation: Concurrency is often used in place of d) paint()
multithreading. Multitasking allows multiple View Answer
threads to run at a time.
Answer: a
2. Multiprocessing allows single processor to run Explanation: run()method must be overridden (It is
several concurrent threads. similar to main method of sequential program).
a) True
b) False 7. An interface that is implemented while using
View Answer threads.
a) java.lang.Run
Answer: a b) java.lang.Runnable
Explanation: The statement is false. Multitasking c) java.lang.Thread
allows single processor to run several concurrent d) java.lang.Threads
threads. View Answer

3. A single sequential flow of control within a Answer: b

program is ________ Explanation: java.lang.Runnable is correct. Any
a) Process thread class implements runnable.
b) Task
c) Thread 8. A thread becomes non runnable when?
d) Structure a) Its stop method is invoked
View Answer b) Its sleep method is invoked
c) Its finish method is invoked
Answer: c d) Its init method is invoked
Explanation: A thread is a sequential flow of View Answer
control within a program. Single-threaded program
can handle one task at any time. Answer: b
Explanation: A thread becomes Not Runnable
4. Both client and server release _________ when one of these events occurs:
connection after a page has been transferred. • Its sleep method is invoked.
a) IP • The thread calls the wait method to wait for a
b) TCP specific condition to be satisfied.
c) Hyperlink • The thread is blocking on I/O.

75
 9. A method used to temporarily release time for d) Simple
other threads. View Answer
a) yield()
b) set() Answer: a
c) release() Explanation: The secondary memory is the long
d) start() term store for programs and data while main
View Answer memory holds program and data currently in use.
This is a physical organization.
Answer: a
Explanation: We can use the yield() method to 4. Memory organization in which users write
temporarily release time for other threads. It is programs in modules with different characteristics.
static by default. a) Physical
b) Logical
10. A method used to force one thread to wait for c) Structural
another thread to finish. d) Simple
a) join() View Answer
b) connect()
c) combine() Answer: b
d) concat() Explanation: The answer is Logical. To handle
View Answer user programs properly, the operating system and
the hardware should support a basic form of
Answer: a module to provide protection and sharing.
Explanation: The answer is join(). We can use the
join() method to force one thread to wait for 5. An executing process must be loaded entirely in
another thread to finish. main memory. What kind of a memory
organization is this?
1. A task carried out by the OS and hardware to a) Physical
accommodate multiple processes in main memory. b) Logical
a) Memory control c) Structural
b) Memory management d) Simple
c) Memory sharing View Answer
d) Memory usage
View Answer Answer: d
Explanation: This is simple memory organisation.
Answer: b An executing process must be loaded entirely in
Explanation: Memory management is carried out main memory (if overlays are not used).
by the OS and hardware to accommodate multiple
processes in main memory. 6. FTP stands for?
a) File Text Protocol
2. An HTML file is a text file containing small b) File Transfer Protocol
markup tags. c) Firm Transfer Protocol
a) True d) File Transplant Protocol
b) False View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol.
Explanation: The statement is true. HTML stands It is a type of internet service use for the
for Hyper Text Markup Language. It is a text file transmission of files.
containing small markup tags.
7. A set of overlapping divisions in the main
3. Secondary memory is the long term store for memory are called _______
programs and data while main memory holds a) Partitions
program and data currently in use. What kind of an b) Divisions
organization is this? c) Blocks
a) Physical d) Modules
b) Logical View Answer
c) Structural

76
 Answer: a 2. Logical Address space can be larger than
Explanation: Partition main memory into a set of physical address space.
non overlapping regions called partitions. a) True
Partitions can be of equal or unequal sizes. b) False
View Answer
8. Any program, no matter how small, occupies an
entire partition. This is called ____________ Answer: a
a) fragmentation Explanation: The statement is true. Since, a part of
b) prior fragmentation the program needs to be in memory for the process
c) internal fragmentation of execution, the logical space can therefore be
d) external fragmentation much larger than the physical address space.
View Answer
3. Virtual Memory can be implemented via
Answer: c __________
Explanation: It is called as internal fragmentation. a) Demand Paging
Main memory use is inefficient. Any program, no b) Logical paging
matter how small, occupies an entire partition. This c) Structural way
is called internal fragmentation. d) Simple division
View Answer
9. __________ is used to shift processes so they
are contiguous and all free memory is in one block. Answer: a
a) Fragmentation Explanation: Demand paging can implement
b) Compaction virtual memory. Another way is demand
c) External Fragmentation segmentation.
d) Division
View Answer 4. COW stands for?
a) Copy over write
Answer: b b) Convert over write
Explanation: Use compaction to shift processes so c) Count over write
they are contiguous and all free memory is in one d) Copy over write
block. View Answer

10. _______ searches for smallest block. The Answer: d

fragment left behind is small as possible. Explanation: COW stands for Copy over write.
a) best fit COW allows both parent and child processes to
b) first fit share the same pages initially.
c) next fit
d) last fit 5. LRU stands for?
View Answer a) Least Recently used
b) Less Recently used
Answer: a c) Least Recurrently used
Explanation: Best fit searches for the smallest d) Least Randomly used
block. The fragment left behind is as small as View Answer
possible.
Answer: a
1. Separation of user logical memory and physical Explanation: LRU stands for Least Recently used.
memory is ___________ LRU is least recently used. It replaces page with
a) Memory control the smallest count.
b) Memory management
c) Memory sharing 6. An allocation that uses a proportional allocation
d) Virtual memory scheme using priorities rather than size.
View Answer a) Priority allocation
b) File allocation
Answer: d c) Preference allocation
Explanation: The separation of user logical d) Simple allocation
memory and physical memory is called virtual View Answer
memory. Only part of the program needs to be in
memory for execution.
77
 Answer: a c) Field
Explanation: Priority allocation uses a proportional d) Value
allocation scheme using priorities rather than size. View Answer

7. A process selects a replacement frame from the Answer: c

set of all frames. Explanation: Fields are the basic elements of data
a) Local replacement in a file. e.g. student’s last name. It contains a
b) Global replacement single value.
c) Block replacement
d) Module replacement 2. Records are treated as a unit.
View Answer a) True
b) False
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: Global replacement process selects a
replacement frame from the set of all frames; one Answer: a
process can take a frame from another. Explanation: The statement is true. Records are a
collection of related fields. They are treated as a
8. Any program, no matter how small, occupies an unit.
entire partition. This is called _____________
a) fragmentation 3. __________________ refers to the logical
b) prior fragmentation structuring of records.
c) internal fragmentation a) Physical organisation
d) external fragmentation b) Logical organisation
View Answer c) Structural organisation
d) File organisation
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: It is called as internal fragmentation.
Main memory use is inefficient. Any program, no Answer: d
matter how small, occupies an entire partition. This Explanation: File organisation refers to the logical
is called internal fragmentation. structuring of records. It is determined bi the way
in which files are accessed.
9. A process is busy swapping pages in and out.
a) Thrashing 4. Which of the following is not an appropriate
b) Compaction criterion for file organisation?
c) External Fragmentation a) Larger access time
d) Division b) ease of update
View Answer c) simple maintenance
d) economy of storage
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: Thrashing is the term used whenever
a process is busy swapping pages in and put. Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is Larger access time.
10. ____________ is one or more physically The access time should be short. It is an important
contiguous pages. criteria for file organisation.
a) Slab
b) Cache 5. ___________ itself is a file owned by the
c) Object operating system
d) Allocator a) Logical file
View Answer b) Record
c) Database
Answer: a d) Directory
Explanation: Slab is one or more physically View Answer
contiguous pages. Cache consists of one or more
slabs. Answer: d
Explanation: Directory is the file owned by the
1. A basic element of data in a file. operating system. File directory contains various
a) Memory important information.
b) Record
78
 6. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file b) Appending
directory? c) Reading
a) Attributes d) Updating
b) Protocol View Answer
c) Location
d) Ownership Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Execution is a process that user can
load and execute a program but cannot copy it.
Answer: b Other processes are updation, changing protection,
Explanation: File directory contains important etc.
information like: Attributes, Location and
Ownership. 1. Category of software that comprises word
processing, graphics, databases etc.
7. Allocated size of a file comes under? a) System
a) basic information b) Application
b) address information c) General purpose
c) access control information d) OS
d) usage information View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: Application software comprises of all
Explanation: Allocated size comes under the these things like graphics, database, word
address information of a file. Address information processing softwares, etc. There are mainly two
consists of volume, starting address, size used and categories of softwares- System and application.
size allocated.
2. There are two basic structures in text
8. Which of the following is not a part of the documents.
usage information? a) True
a) data created b) False
b) identity of creator View Answer
c) owner
d) last date modified Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: The statement is true. There are two
structures in text documents- logical and physical.
Answer: c
Explanation: Owner is a part of the access control 3. MS-Word comes under __________
information. Other options are a part of usage a) Document production
information of a file. b) Graphics
c) Databases
9. When access is granted to append or update a d) Numerical Analysis
file to more than one user, the OS or file View Answer
management system must enforce discipline. This
is _________ Answer: a
a) Simultaneous access Explanation: Ms- Word is an application based
b) Compaction software. It comes under document production.
c) External Fragmentation Ms-Word, frontPage, Frame maker come under
d) Division this category.
View Answer
4. A ______________is an application that allows
Answer: a the user to compose and edit simple documents.
Explanation: When access is granted to append or a) Word processor
update a file to more than one user, the OS or file b) Spreadsheet
management system must enforce discipline. It is c) Email utility
referred as simultaneous access. d) Browsers
View Answer
10. The user can load and execute a program but
cannot copy it. This process is? Answer: a
a) Execution Explanation: A word processor software is an
79
application that allows the user to compose and c) Nano
edit all simple documents. d) Physical
E.g. MS-Word. View Answer

5. In text documents, a structure which stays the Answer: d

same no matter how the document is represented. Explanation: The correct option is physical. The
a) Logical physical structure of a document is system-
b) Smart dependent; i.e., fonts and tab spacing vary among
c) Nano systems.
d) Physical
View Answer 10. The _____________ in a document and the
order in which it is presented is referred to as the
Answer: a document’s logical structure.
Explanation: There are two basic structures- logical a) data
and physical. A logical structure stays the same no b) information
matter how the document is represented. c) features
d) functions
6. When the document gets put out : the best fit is View Answer
calculated from ___________ structure.
a) Logical Answer: b
b) Smart Explanation: The information in a document and
c) Nano the order in which it is presented is referred to as
d) Physical the document’s logical structure. Information and
View Answer the order are two most important things in a
document.
Answer: a
Explanation: A logical structure stays the same no 1. In a spreadsheet, letters are used to represent
matter how the document is represented. The best _____________
fit is thus calculated from the logical structure. a) Cells
b) Rows
7. This can change the physical structure of the c) Columns
document. d) Blocks
a) Font View Answer
b) Formatting
c) Approach Answer: c
d) Debug Explanation: In any spreadsheet, the letters are
View Answer used to represent columns. The numbers are used
to represent rows.
Answer: b
Explanation: Formatting can change the physical 2. Cells are identified by a combination of letters
structure. It includes indentation, text color, style, and numbers.
etc. of the document. a) True
b) False
8. An example of e-mail utility. View Answer
a) Word
b) Outlook Answer: a
c) Explorer Explanation: The statement is true. A combination
d) Excel of the row number and column letter gives us the
View Answer cell address.

Answer: b 3. A numeric data analysis tool that allows us to

Explanation: Outlook is an example of email create a computerized ledger.
utility. Word is a word processor, Excel is a a) Word processing package
spreadsheet software. b) Spreadsheet package
c) Graphics package
9. A structure that is system- dependent. d) Mathematical Package
a) Logical View Answer
b) Smart
80
 Answer: b b) Main cell
Explanation: A spreadsheet package is the numeric c) Active cell
data analysis tool. It is useful for any numerical d) Formula cell
analysis problem whose data can be organized as View Answer
rows and columns.
Answer: c
4. Which of the following isn’t a part of a Explanation: It is called the active cell. The address
spreadsheet? of the active cell is shown in the formula bar.
a) row number
b) column number 9. The placement of information within a cell at
c) column letter the left edge, right edge, or centered is :
d) cell address a) Indentation
View Answer b) Placement
c) Identification
Answer: b d) Alignment
Explanation: The answer is column number. There View Answer
are no column numbers in a spreadsheet. Columns
are represented using letters. Answer: d
Explanation: The correct option is Alignment. The
5. Spreadsheets cannot: left, right and center positioning is defined by the
a) do calculations alignment.
b) create graphics
c) plot graphs 10. A change in the appearance of a value or label
d) plot charts in a cell.
View Answer a) Alteration
b) Format
Answer: b c) Indentation
Explanation: Spreadsheets are not meant to create d) Design
graphics. They can do all sorts of calculations, plot View Answer
charts and graphs, etc.
Answer: b
6. ______________ help us to see patterns. Explanation: Formatting is the term used whenever
a) Spreadsheets there are changes in the appearance of a value or
b) Calculations label.
c) Charts
d) Graphs 1. CAD stands for?
View Answer a) Computer Aided Design
b) Calculation Aided Design
Answer: c c) Computer Aided Draft
Explanation: Charts in spreadsheets give us a d) Calculation Aided Draft
picture of our data. It can help us to see patterns as View Answer
well.
Answer: a
7. An easier way to set up complicated Explanation: CAD stands for Computer Aided
calculations. Design. It is used in design of buildings,
a) Decimals automobiles, aircrafts, etc.
b) Fractions
c) Booleans 2. In CAD, objects are displayed in block format.
d) Functions a) True
View Answer b) False
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Functions make it easier to set up Answer: b
complicated calculations. Various formulae can Explanation: The statement is false. In CAD,
also be used. Objects are displayed in wire frame outline form.

8. The cell that is in use.

a) Highlighted cell
81
 3. Used to produce illustrations for reports or for 7. A simple technique of X-ray photography.
generation of slides. It allows cross-sectional views of physiological
a) Animation Graphics systems to be displayed.
b) Spreadsheet graphics a) Photography
c) Graphics package b) Image processing
d) Presentation graphics c) Visualization
View Answer d) Tomography
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The presentation graphics are used to Answer: d
produce illustrations for reports or generation of Explanation: Tomography can be Computed X-
slides for use with projectors Commonly used to Ray or position emission tomography. It allows
summarize financial, statistical, mathematical, cross-sectional views of physiological systems to
scientific, economic data for research reports, be displayed.
managerial reports & customer information
bulletins. 8. The major component of GUI.
a) Icons
4. A graphics method in which one object is b) Links
transformed into another. c) Window Manager
a) animation d) Cells
b) morphing View Answer
c) designing
d) graphics art Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: GUI stands for Graphical User
Interface. The major component is the window
Answer: b manager. To make a particular window active,
Explanation: Morphing is a graphics method in click in that window (using an interactive pointing
which one object is transformed into another. device).

5. Producing graphical representations for 9. GKS stands for?

scientific, engineering, and medical data sets. a) General Kernel System
a) Scientific Analysation b) Graphics Kernel System
b) Scientific Visualization c) Graphics Kernel Software
c) Plot analysation d) General Kernel Software
d) Plot visualization View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: GKS-Graphics Kernel System is the
Explanation: Scientific visualization is the term first graphics package. It was accepted by ISO &
used for doing the same. It is used in various ANSI.
science related fields.
10. A set of libraries that provide
6. ________________applies techniques to programmatically access to some kind of graphics
modify or interpret existing pictures such as 2D functions.
photographs and TV scans. a) Graphics Package
a) Scientific Analysation b) Formatting Package
b) Scientific Visualization c) Animation Package
c) Image processing d) Design Package
d) Business visualization View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: A set of libraries that provide
Explanation: Image processing is used in medical programmatically access to some kind of graphics
applications for picture enhancements, 2D functions comes under the graphics package.
tomography, etc. It is also used to improve picture Their types are GKS, PHIGS, etc.
quality.
1. A package that allows individuals to use
personal computers for storing and retrieving their
82
personal information. contact management. The Palm Os is smaller,
a) Animation package cheaper and have vastly better battery life.
b) Spreadsheet package
c) Graphics package 6. MCTI stands for Mobile community ________
d) Personal assistance package inventory.
View Answer a) task
b) trade
Answer: d c) tree
Explanation: It is a personal assistance package d) tele
that allows for the same. It helps in planning and View Answer
managing their schedules, contacts, finances and
inventory of important terms. Answer: c
Explanation: MCTI stands for Mobile community
2. PDAs have permanent rechargeable batteries. tree inventory. It is a freeware tree inventory
a) True software. It uses palm OS and windows platforms.
b) False
View Answer 7. Forms that do not require any programming.
a) vector form
Answer: a b) hanDbase forms
Explanation: The statement is true. PDAs have c) pendragon forms
permanent rechargeable batteries. They are d) html forms
standard alkaline batteries. View Answer

3. PDA stands for? Answer: b

a) Personal digital assistants Explanation: The answer is hanDbase forms. The
b) Personal digital additionals handBase forms do not require any programming.
c) Personal digital advantage Pendragon forms can be used for a variety of
d) Public digital assistants applications like inventory for golf course.
View Answer
8. The forms that can be used for a variety of
Answer: a inventory applications.
Explanation: PDA stands for Personal digital a) vector form
assistants. They are generally hand held computers. b) hanDbase forms
They store, access and organize information. c) pendragon forms
d) html forms
4. You can expand the memory of some PDAs View Answer
with ________ that can be inserted into the PDA.
a) hard disks Answer: c
b) storage cards Explanation: The pendragon forms can be used for
c) pendrives the same. It can be used for a variety of
d) floppy disks applications like inventory for golf course, street,
View Answer park, etc.

Answer: b 9. Graphic object composed of patterns of lines,

Explanation: The answer is storage cards. You can points, circles etc.
expand memory of some PDAs with small storage a) CAD
cards that can be inserted into the PDA. b) Vector
c) Animation
5. The devices that work the best with contact d) Raster
management. View Answer
a) Palm OS
b) Pocket PC Answer: b
c) Plot PC Explanation: A vector is a graphic object that can
d) Drives utilize various geometric shapes that can be
View Answer represented using a few geometric parameters.

Answer: a 10. Graphics composed of patterns of dots called

Explanation: The palm pocket PC works best with pixels.
83
a) CAD information. It appears in the directory listings,
b) Vector folders.
c) Animation
d) Raster 5. Two or three characters appended to relative
View Answer filename separated by a period.
a) status
Answer: d b) identifier
Explanation: The answer is Raster. Patterns of dots c) extension
are called pixels. The raster graphics are generally d) descriptor
designed in such a way. View Answer

1. MFD stands for? Answer: c

a) Main File Directory Explanation: Extensions are added to filenames.
b) Memory File Directory The extensions help in identifying the file type.
c) Master File Directory
d) Master Format Directory 6. Files that maintain the hierarchical structure of
View Answer the file system.
a) Descriptors
Answer: c b) Directories
Explanation: MFD is Master File Directory. MFD c) Modifiers
lists names and characteristics of every file in d) Relative files
volume. It also lists any subdirectories. View Answer

2. The users are allowed to read information in Answer: b

directories. Explanation: Directories are the files that maintain
a) True the hierarchical structure of the file system. The
b) False users are allowed to read information in
View Answer directories.

Answer: a 7. Files in which users store information?

Explanation: The statement is true. Directories a) Info files
maintain the hierarchical structure of the file b) Ordinary files
system. c) Special files
d) Complex files
3. ___________ is created when a user opens an View Answer
account in the computer system.
a) RFD Answer: b
b) Subdirectory Explanation: The answer is Ordinary files. Users
c) MFD store information in ordinary files. Their
d) SFD protections is based on user requests and are
View Answer related to various file functions.

Answer: b 8. The files that appear as entries in the

Explanation: A subdirectory is created when a user directories.
opens an account in the computer system. It is a) Ordinary files
treated as a file, though flagged in MFD as b) Special files
subdirectory. c) Duplicate files
d) Sub directories
4. A filename without path information. View Answer
a) File name
b) Complete filename Answer: b
c) Directory name Explanation: The special files appear as entries in
d) Relative filename the directories. They are the device drivers
View Answer providing i/O hardware interface.

Answer: d 9. Number of regions of the disk in a UNIX files

Explanation: The answer is Relative filename. A management system.
relative filename is a name without path a) 1
84
b) 2 between the end users and the database. End users
c) 3 are the final users that interact with the database.
d) 4
View Answer 4. Which of the following is not involved in
DBMS?
Answer: d a) End Users
Explanation: There are 4 regions in which the disk b) Data
is divided. The first is for booting, second contains c) Application Request
the disk size, third includes the list of definitions d) HTML
and the remaining region contains the free blocks View Answer
available.
Answer: d
10. Several instructions execution simultaneously Explanation: HTML isn’t involved in Database
in _________ Management System. Other things like the data
a) processing and application request are a part of the DBMS.
b) parallel processing
c) serial processing 5. Database is generally __________
d) multitasking a) System-centered
View Answer b) User-centered
c) Company-centered
Answer: b d) Data-centered
Explanation: The answer is parallel processing. In View Answer
parallel processing, the several instructions are
executed simultaneously. Answer: b
Explanation: Database is user-centered. The
1. A collection of related data. perspective is that the user is always right. If there
a) Information is a problem with the use of the system, the system
b) Valuable information is the problem, not the user.
c) Database
d) Metadata 6. A characteristic of an entity.
View Answer a) Relation
b) Attribute
Answer: c c) Parameter
Explanation: Database is the collection of related d) Constraint
data and its metadata organized in a structured View Answer
format. It is designed for optimized information
management. Answer: b
Explanation: An attribute is a characteristic of an
2. DBMS is software. entity. The association among the entities is
a) True described by the relationship.
b) False
View Answer 7. The restrictions placed on the data.
a) Relation
Answer: a b) Attribute
Explanation: The statement is true. DBMS stands c) Parameter
for Database Management System. It enables easy d) Constraint
creation and access of the database. View Answer

3. DBMS manages the interaction between Answer: d

__________ and database. Explanation: Constraint is a restriction that is
a) Users placed on the data. Attribute is the characteristic
b) Clients and the relation describes the association.
c) End Users
d) Stake Holders 8. IMS stands for?
View Answer a) Information Mastering System
b) Instruction Management System
Answer: c c) Instruction Manipulating System
Explanation: DBMS manages the interaction
85
d) Information Management System 3. Which of the following isn’t a level of
View Answer abstraction?
a) physical
Answer: d b) logical
Explanation: IMS stands for Information c) user
Management System. It is developed to manage d) view
large amounts of data for complex projects. View Answer

9. A model developed by Hammer and Mc Leod Answer: c

in 1981. Explanation: There are three levels of abstraction:
a) SDM physical, logical and the view level. These three
b) OODBM levels are involved in DBMS.
c) DDM
d) RDM 4. A level that describes how a record is stored.
View Answer a) physical
b) logical
Answer: a c) user
Explanation: SDM stands for Semantic Data d) view
Model. It models both data and their relationships View Answer
in a single structure.
Answer: a
10. Object=_________+relationships. Explanation: The answer is physical. The physical
a) data level describes how the record gets stored.
b) attributes e.g. Customer.
c) entity
d) constraints 5. The ______level helps application programs
View Answer hide the details of data types.
a) physical
Answer: c b) logical
Explanation: The answer is entity. It is a part of c) user
OODBM (Object-Oriented Database Model). It d) view
maintains the advantages of ER-model but adds View Answer
more features.
Answer: d
1. DBMS is a set of __________ to access the Explanation: The application programs hide details
data. of datatypes. Views can also hide information for
a) Codes security purposes.
b) Programs
c) Information 6. A logical structure of the database.
d) Metadata a) Schema
View Answer b) Attribute
c) Parameter
Answer: b d) Instance
Explanation: Database is a set of programs View Answer
designed to access the data. It contains information
about a particular enterprise. Answer: a
Explanation: A schema is the logical structure of
2. DBMS provides a convenient and efficient the database. e.g A set of customers and accounts
environment. and their relationship.
a) True
b) False 7. The actual content in the database at a
View Answer particular point.
a) Schema
Answer: a b) Attribute
Explanation: The statement is true. DBMS stands c) Parameter
for Database Management System. It provides an d) Instance
efficient and easy to use environment. View Answer

86
 Answer: d 2. Transmission mode controls the direction of
Explanation: The answer is Instance. Instance is signal flow.
the actual content of the database at a particular a) True
point of time. b) False
View Answer
8. Which of the following is not an object-based
logical model? Answer: a
a) ER Explanation: The statement is true. The term
b) Network transmission mode defines the direction of flow of
c) Semantic information between two communication devices.
d) Functional It tells the direction of signal flow between two
View Answer devices.

Answer: b 3. Which of the following isn’t a type of

Explanation: Network model is a part of record- transmission mode?
based logical model and not object-based. Others a) physical
are object based models. ER stands for Entity- b) simplex
relationship. c) full duplex
d) half duplex
9. SQL is _______ View Answer
a) Relational
b) Network Answer: a
c) IMS Explanation: There are three modes of
d) Hierarchical transmission: simplex, half duplex and full duplex.
View Answer Transmission modes tell the direction of signal
flow between two devices.
Answer: a
Explanation: SQL or structured query language is a 4. A transmission that generally involves
relational model. It comes under record-based dedicated circuits.
logical models. a) simplex
b) half duplex
10. A level that describes data stored in a database c) full duplex
and the relationships among the data. d) semi-duplex
a) physical View Answer
b) logical
c) user Answer: a
d) view Explanation: The answer is simplex. Simplex
View Answer generally involves dedicated circuits. TV
broadcasting is an example.
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is logical. The logical 5. A transmission mode that can transmit data in
level describes the relationships between the data. both the directions but transmits in only one
Physical level describes how the data is stored. direction at a time.
a) simplex
1. A term that defines the direction of flow of b) half duplex
information between devices. c) full duplex
a) interconnectivity d) semi-duplex
b) intra connectivity View Answer
c) transmission mode
d) transmission Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: The half duplex mode supports two
way traffic but only in one direction at a time. The
Answer: c interactive transmission of data within a time
Explanation: The term transmission mode defines sharing system may be best suited to half-duplex
the direction of flow of information between two lines.
communication devices. It tells the direction of
signal flow. 6. A communication between a computer and a
keyboard involves ____________ duplex
87
transmission. Answer: b
a) simplex Explanation: A walkie-talkie operates in half
b) half duplex duplex mode. It can only send or receive a
c) full duplex transmission at any given time.
d) semi-duplex
View Answer 1. A coaxial cable has a bandwidth of _________
of megahertz.
Answer: a a) 100
Explanation: It involves simplex duplex b) 150
transmission. Another example of a simplex duplex c) 1000
transmission is loudspeaker system. d) 10000
View Answer
7. Telephone networks operate in this mode.
a) simplex Answer: a
b) half duplex Explanation: A coaxial cable has a bandwidth of
c) full duplex 100’s of Mhz. Baseband speed is in a few KHz.
d) semi-duplex Multiplexing improves channel bandwidth
View Answer utilization.

Answer: c 2. In TDM, the samples occupy adjacent time

Explanation: Telephone networks operate in full slots.
duplex mode. It can transmit data in both the a) True
directions. b) False
View Answer
8. Fire alarms are based on this type of
transmission: Answer: a
a) direct Explanation: The statement is true. The TDM
b) network technique is based on sampling and they occupy
c) analog adjacent slots and are transmitted in a sequence.
d) multiple
View Answer 3. The carrier wave is a _________
a) tan wave
Answer: c b) cosec wave
Explanation: Analog transmission is a technique of c) sine wave
transmitting voice, data, image, signal or video d) cot wave
information. Fire alarm systems work in the same View Answer
way.
Answer: c
9. A technique of transmitting data or images or Explanation: The carrier wave is generally a sine
videos (information) using a continuous signal. wave. Carrier wave is used to transfer the signal
a) direct from source to destination.
b) network
c) analog 4. Controlling the phase is referred as
d) multiple __________
View Answer a) modulation
b) half modulation
Answer: c c) amplitude modulation
Explanation: Analog is a technique of transmitting d) phase modulation
data or images or videos (information) using a View Answer
continuous signal, which varies in amplitude,
phase or some other property. Answer: d
Explanation: It is referred to as phase modulation.
10. A walkie-talkie operates in ____________ When there is a change in amplitude, it is referred
a) simplex to as amplitude modulation.
b) half duplex
c) full duplex 5. A transmission mode that can transmit data in
d) semi-duplex both the directions but transmits in only one
View Answer direction at a time.
88
a) simplex technique that improves channel bandwidth
b) half duplex utilization.
c) full duplex
d) semi-duplex 10. The purpose of communication system is to
View Answer transfer information from _______ to the
destination.
Answer: b a) user
Explanation: The half duplex mode supports two b) source
way traffic but only in one direction at a time. c) system
d) station
6. A multiplexing technique based on sampling. View Answer
a) FDM
b) TDM Answer: b
c) SDM Explanation: The answer is source. A
d) FM communication system transfers information from
View Answer source to the destination.

Answer: b 1. WDM stands for?

Explanation: TDM which stands for Time division a) Wave division multiplexing
multiplexing is based on sampling which is a b) Wavelength division multiplexing
modulation technique. c) Wavelength dependent multiplexing
d) Wave dependent multiplexing
7. An example of FDM: View Answer
a) broadcast radio
b) telephone Answer: b
c) machines Explanation: It stands for Wavelength division
d) semi-duplex multiplexing. It has same general architecture as
View Answer FDM. FDM is frequency division multiplexing.

Answer: a 2. In TDM, the samples occupy adjacent time

Explanation: Broadcast radio is an example of slots.
FDM. This allows several messages to be a) True
translated from baseband. b) False
View Answer
8. FDM stands for?
a) Frequency Division Multiplexing Answer: a
b) Frequency Dependent Multiplexing Explanation: The statement is true. The TDM
c) Frequency Diverged Multiplexing technique is based on sampling and they occupy
d) Frequency Derived Multiplexing adjacent slots and are transmitted in a sequence.
View Answer
3. In this type of multiplexing time slots are
Answer: a preassigned to sources and fixed.
Explanation: FDM stands for Frequency Division a) TDM
Multiplexing. This allows several messages to be b) Synchronous TDM
translated from baseband, where they are all in the c) Asynchronous TDM
same frequency. d) FDM
View Answer
9. A modulation technique that improves channel
bandwidth utilization. Answer: b
a) direct Explanation: TDM is time division multiplexing.
b) modulation Data rate of medium exceeds data rate of digital
c) demodulation signal to be transmitted.
d) multiplexing
View Answer 4. Controlling the frequency is referred as
_________
Answer: d a) frequency modulation
Explanation: Multiplexing is a modulation b) hertz modulation
c) amplitude modulation
89
d) phase modulation dynamically. They are allocated based on demand.
View Answer Multiplexer scans input lines and collects data until
the frame is full.
Answer: a
Explanation: It is referred to as frequency 9. A system in which two channels are dedicated
modulation. When there is a change in frequency, to transfer data.
it is referred to as frequency modulation. a) TV
b) Cable
5. A technique that can be a solution to the c) Modem
problem of synchronizing data sources. d) Cable modem
a) framing View Answer
b) data link control
c) full link control Answer: d
d) pulse stuffing Explanation: A cable modem has two dedicated
View Answer channels from cable TV provider dedicated to data
transfer. One in each direction.
Answer: d
Explanation: Pulse stuffing is a technique that can 10. In this technique, there is a link between
be a solution to the problem of synchronizing data subscriber and network and a local loop.
sources. In pulse stuffing, the outgoing data rate is a) SSDL
higher than sum of incoming rates. b) DSDL
c) ASDL
6. For voice, each channel contains a ___ word of d) TSDL
digitized data. View Answer
a) 2
b) 1 Answer: c
c) 0 Explanation: In ASDL, there is a link between the
d) 4 subscriber and the network. It uses currently
View Answer installed twisted pair cable.

Answer: b 1. A topology that is responsible for describing

Explanation: In digital carrier systems, for voice the geometric arrangement of components that
each channel contains one word of digitized data. make up the LAN.
The data rate is 1.544 Mbps. Five out of six frames a) Complex
have 8 bit PCM samples. b) Physical
c) Logical
7. Many time slots are wasted in __________ d) Incremental
a) TDM View Answer
b) Synchronous TDM
c) Asynchronous TDM Answer: b
d) FDM Explanation: It is referred to as a physical LAN
View Answer topology. LAN stands for Local Area Network.

Answer: b 2. Bus is a type of topology.

Explanation: In Synchronous TDM, many time a) True
slots are wasted. Other techniques can help b) False
overcome this problem. View Answer

8. A technique that allocates time slots Answer: a

dynamically. Explanation: The statement is true. Bus topology is
a) TDM an arrangement where all nodes are interconnected
b) WDM using a single-cable.
c) Dynamic TDM
d) Statistical TDM 3. _____ LAN topology describes the possible
View Answer connections between pairs of networked end-points
that can communicate.
Answer: d a) Complex
Explanation: Statistical TDM assigns time slots b) Physical
90
c) Logical receiving of data with the help of tokens. Ring
d) Incremental started out as a simple peer-to-peer LAN topology.
View Answer
8. A ____________WAN can be developed using
Answer: c leased private lines or any other transmission
Explanation: A logical LAN topology describes the facility
possible connections. LAN stands for Local Area a) Hybrids
Network. b) peer-to-peer
c) Two-tiered
4. A term that refers to the way in which the d) Three-tiered
nodes of a network are linked together. View Answer
a) network
b) topology Answer: b
c) connection Explanation: A peer-to-peer WAN topology is a
d) interconnectivity relatively simple way of interconnecting a small
View Answer number of sites. It has the least-cost solution for
WANs that contain a small number of
Answer: b internetworked locations.
Explanation: Topology is a term that refers to the
way in which the nodes are connected. There are 4 9. A serially connected system of all the hubs of
major topology networks. networks.
a) Bus
5. A network comprising o multiple topologies. b) Ring
a) Complex c) Daisy chains
b) Hybrid d) Star
c) Bus View Answer
d) Star
View Answer Answer: c
Explanation: The correct option is Daisy chain.
Answer: b This simple approach uses ports on existing hubs
Explanation: A hybrid network consists of multiple for interconnecting the hubs.
topologies. It can comprise a ring, a star and other
topologies. We call this arrangement as a hybrid 10. A piece of information which is sent along
network. with the data to the source computer.
a) data
6. The participating computers in a network are b) module
referred to as: c) token
a) Clients d) element
b) Servers View Answer
c) Nodes
d) CPUs Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: Token is the information that is sent
to the source computer along with the data. This
Answer: c token is then passed to the next node.
Explanation: They are referred to as the nodes.
There are several topologies designed for 1. Configuration where many independent
arrangements of these nodes like bus, star, etc. computer systems are connected.
a) Complex
7. A topology that involves Tokens. b) Distributed
a) Star c) Cloud
b) Ring d) Incremental
c) Bus View Answer
d) Daisy Chaining
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: Distributed configuration has many
Answer: b systems connected, and messages, programs, etc
Explanation: Ring topology involves sending and are transmitted between cooperating computer
systems.
91
 2. Partial mesh is a highly flexible topology that 6. Components that operate at the network layer
can take a variety of very different configurations. of the OSI model.
a) True a) Switches
b) False b) Servers
View Answer c) Routers
d) Gateways
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: The statement is true. Partial mesh is
a highly flexible topology that can take a variety of Answer: c
very different configurations. The routers are Explanation: They are referred to as the routers.
tightly coupled than the basic topologies. But they They are used for interconnecting those networks
are not fully interconnected, as would be the case that use the same high-level protocols above
in a fully meshed network. network layer.

3. Components used for interconnecting dissimilar 7. A topology that involves Tokens.

networks that use different communication a) Star
protocols. b) Ring
a) Switches c) Bus
b) Gateways d) Daisy Chaining
c) Routers View Answer
d) Bridges
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: Ring topology involves sending and
Answer: b receiving of data with the help of tokens. Ring
Explanation: Gateways are used for this purpose. started out as a simple peer-to-peer LAN topology.
Gateways interconnect dissimilar networks,
protocol conversion is performed by them. 8. ____________ operate at bottom two layers of
the OSI model.
4. A topology is a modified version of the basic a) Bridges
star topology. b) Switches
a) network c) Models
b) two-tiered d) Modules
c) bus View Answer
d) ring
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: Bridges operate at the bottom two
Answer: b layers of the OSI model. It connects networks that
Explanation: A two-tiered topology is a modified use the same communication protocols above data-
version of the basic star topology. Rather than link layer.
single concentrator routers, two or more routers are
used. 9. Connecting two or more networks to form a
single network is called :
5. WANs that need to interconnect a very large a) Internetworking
number of sites. b) Intranetworking
a) bus c) Interconnecting
b) two-tiered d) Intraconnectivity
c) three-tiered View Answer
d) ring
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: Connecting two or more networks to
Answer: c form a single network is called internetworking
Explanation: Wide Area Networks that need to and the resultant network is called internetwork.
interconnect a very large number of sites, or are
built using smaller routers that can support only a 10. OSI stands for?
few serial connections, may find the two-tiered a) Open Site Interconnection
architecture insufficiently scalable. b) Open System Interdependence
c) Open System Interconnection

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d) Open Site Interdependence computer and could share its information
View Answer processing resources.

Answer: c 5. A type of technique in which dumb terminals

Explanation: OSI is open system interconnection. are connected to a central computer system.
It is a framework for defining standards for linking a) Time Sharing
heterogeneous computers in a packet switched b) Message passing
network. c) Batch environment
d) User environment
1. ARPANET stands for? View Answer
a) Advanced Research Project Agency Network
b) Advanced Research Programmed Auto Network Answer: a
c) Advanced Research Project Automatic Network Explanation: This happens in time sharing. In this,
d) Advanced Research Project Authorized Network users were able to interact with the computer and
View Answer could share its information processing resources.

Answer: a 6. TCP stands for?

Explanation: ARPANET stands for Advanced a) Transmission control program
Research Project Agency Network. It was b) Transmission control protocol
developed in late 1960s under ARPA (Advanced c) Transfer control program
Research Projects Agency). d) Transfer control protocol
View Answer
2. Internet can help you find the shortest route.
a) True Answer: b
b) False Explanation: TCP stands for transmission control
View Answer protocol. It basically allows different networks to
interconnect.
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Obviously, 7. The “Victorian internet” is actually?
Internet is so widespread; it can help us in all the a) Telegraph
possible ways. It can predict the weather, play b) Batch Environment
music, etc. c) Unit Environment
d) System Environment
3. In this technique, there is no direct contact View Answer
between users and their programs during
execution. Answer: a
a) Time Sharing Explanation: It was a telegraph. Invented in the
b) Batch Processing 1840s. Used extensively by the U.S. Government.
c) System Processing
d) Message Passing 8. Packet switching was invented in?
View Answer a) 1960s
b) 1980s
Answer: b c) 2000s
Explanation: In the Batch Environment, there is no d) 1990s
direct interaction between users and their programs View Answer
during execution.
Answer: a
4. A technique that marked the beginning of Explanation: Packet switching was developed in
computer communications. 1964. In packet switching, the message is broken
a) Batch Environment into parts and then sent over independently.
b) Message passing
c) User Environment 9. The probability of failure-free operation of a
d) Time Sharing software application in a specified environment for
View Answer a specified time.
a) Software Reliability
Answer: d b) Software Quality
Explanation: The answer is time sharing. In time c) Software availability
sharing, Users were able to interact with the
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d) Software Safety 4. An internet service that allows the user to move
View Answer a file.
a) FTP
Answer: a b) Telnet
Explanation: The answer is software reliability. It c) UseNet
is estimated using historical and development data. d) Time Sharing
View Answer
10. DARPA stands for?
a) Data Advanced Research Projects Agency Answer: a
b) Defense Advanced Research Product Agency Explanation: The answer is FTP. FTP stands for
c) Data based Advanced Research Product Agency File Transfer Protocol. It allows the user to move a
d) Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency file from one computer to another on the internet.
View Answer
5. Anonymous FTP files are called ___________
Answer: d accessible files.
Explanation: DARPA (Defense Advanced a) Privately
Research Projects Agency) contracted with BBN b) Publicly
(Bolt, Beranek & Newman) to create ARPAnet. c) Batch
d) User
1. A network that links many different types of View Answer
computers all over the world.
a) Intranet Answer: b
b) Internet Explanation: Anonymous FTP files are called
c) Arpanet publicly accessible files because they can be
d) LAN accessed by any user on the Internet.
View Answer
6. TCP stands for?
Answer: b a) Transmission control program
Explanation: Internet is a network of computers b) Transmission control protocol
that links many different types of computers. It is a c) Transfer control program
network of network sharing a common mechanism d) Transfer control protocol
for addressing computers. View Answer

2. Internet was evolved from the basic ideas of Answer: b

ARPANET. Explanation: TCP stands for transmission control
a) True protocol. It basically allows different networks to
b) False interconnect.
View Answer
7. Any system that uses the HTTP protocol is
Answer: a called _________
Explanation: The statement is true. ARPANET is a) Web Browser
the first WAN i.e., Wide Area network that had b) Web Server
only four sites in 1969 for interconnecting c) WWW
computers. d) TCP/IP
View Answer
3. A service that allows a user to log in into
another computer somewhere on the Internet. Answer: b
a) Telnet Explanation: The system is the web server. HTTP
b) FTP stands for Hypertext transmission protocol.
c) e-mail
d) UseNet 8. Any computer that can access the server is
View Answer called?
a) Web Server
Answer: a b) Web Browser
Explanation: Telnet is the answer. It is a service c) User
that enables the user to log into another computer d) Web Client
somewhere on the Internet. View Answer

94
 Answer: d d) Browsers
Explanation: Any computer that has access to the View Answer
web server is called the web client. Web server is
any computer that uses the HTTP protocol. Answer: d
Explanation: Browser is the answer. Browser is a
9. Allows the user to create and maintain a type of client and it is not a server. File, web and
personal list of favorite URL addresses. name are the types of servers.
a) Software
b) Web Servers 4. This determines the type of protocol to be used.
c) Web Browsers a) <scheme>
d) WWW b) <pathname>
View Answer c) <server name>
d) <server domain name>
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: Web Browsers help the user to
maintain a personal favorite list of URLs. Also, Answer: a
allows the user to download information on various Explanation: The answer is <scheme>. In general,
formats. http is used. Others like file and ftp can also be
used.
10. URL stands for?
a) Uniform Resource Locator 5. The location of file is determined by ________
b) Uniform Research Locator a) <scheme>
c) Uniform Resource Link b) <pathname>
d) Uniform Research Link c) <server name>
View Answer d) <server domain name>
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: WWW specifies the URL of a Answer: b
website and allows the user to access information. Explanation: <pathname> tells the server where to
URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator. find the file name. It is an important part of the
URL format.
1. The web works on this model.
a) Intranet 6. Apache is a type of ________
b) Internet a) Transmission control program
c) Client-Server b) Web Server
d) Server c) Web Browser
View Answer d) DBMS
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Web works on the client server Answer: b
model. Client and server operate on machines Explanation: Apache is a type of web server. It is
which are able to communicate through a network. an application which waits for client requests,
fetches requested documents from disk and
2. In the Client-server model, the client receives a transmits them to the client.
request from the server.
a) True 7. A small data file in the browser.
b) False a) Cookie
View Answer b) Web Server
c) FTP
Answer: b d) Database
Explanation: The statement is false. The server View Answer
receives a request from the client. It then performs
the requested work. Answer: a
Explanation: Cookie is a small data file in the
3. Which of the following is not a type of server? browser. Most browsers nowadays allow the user
a) File to decide if they want the cookies or not.
b) Web
c) Name
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 8. Any computer that can access the server is Answer: a
called? Explanation: The statement is true. HTML stands
a) Web Server for Hyper Text Markup Language. It is a text file
b) Web Browser containing small markup tags.
c) User
d) Web Client 3. Which of the following is not a type of
View Answer browser?
a) Netscape
Answer: d b) Web
Explanation: Any computer that has access to the c) IE
web server is called the web client. Web server is d) Mozilla
any computer that uses the HTTP protocol. View Answer

9. Allows the user to create and maintain a Answer: b

personal list of favorite URL addresses. Explanation: Others except web are web browsers.
a) Software Web is a type of server. Application that works on
b) Web Servers client requests.
c) Web Browsers
d) WWW 4. Both client and server release _________
View Answer connection after a page has been transferred.
a) IP
Answer: c b) TCP
Explanation: Web Browsers help the user to c) Hyperlink
maintain a personal favorite list of URLs. Also, d) Network
allows the user to download information on various View Answer
formats.
Answer: b
10. SGML stands for? Explanation: The answer is TCP. TCP stands for
a) Standard Granted Markup Language Transmission Control Protocol. Servers receive
b) System Generalized Markup Language requests from clients.
c) Standard Generalized Markup Language
d) System Granted Markup Language 5. In HTML, the tags that tell the browser how to
View Answer display the page.
a) markup
Answer: c b) style
Explanation: HTML(Hypertext Markup language) c) body
is based on SGML. SGML stands for Standard d) head
Generalized Markup Language. View Answer

1. A program that can retrieve files from the Answer: a

world wide web and render text, images or sounds Explanation: Markup is a general term used to
encoded in the files. refer the types of tags in HTML. The markup tags
a) Browser tell the browser how to display the page.
b) Internet
c) Server 6. FTP stands for?
d) Web Server a) File Text Protocol
View Answer b) File Transfer Protocol
c) Firm Transfer Protocol
Answer: a d) File Transplant Protocol
Explanation: A browser or a web browser is a View Answer
program that can retrieve files from the world wide
web. Certain examples are IE, Mozilla, etc. Answer: b
Explanation: FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol.
2. An HTML file is a text file containing small It is a type of internet service use for the
markup tags. transmission of files.
a) True
b) False 7. A section in HTML that contains generic
View Answer information about the document.
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a) body Answer: b
b) title Explanation: XML stands for Extensible Markup
c) head Language. It allows information to be shared
d) style among different computer systems on the Internet.
View Answer
2. AAA stands for Anonymous Administrative
Answer: c Authority.
Explanation: The head segment contains a generic a) True
info about the document. The head section must b) False
come before the body section in an HTML View Answer
document.
Answer: b
8. A tag similar to that of the italic tag. Explanation: The statement is false. AAA stands
a) <strong> for Autonomous Administrative Authority.
b) <cite>
c) <code> 3. API is?
d) <i> a) Advanced Processing Information
View Answer b) Application Processing Information
c) Application Programming interface
Answer: b d) Application Processing Interface
Explanation: <cite> is a container tag in html that View Answer
is citation generally in italics. Other tags like
<em>or emphasize is also used for this purpose. Answer: c
Explanation: API is the application programming
9. A _________ partitions a web browser window interface. It is a set of instructions that allow the
so that multiple web documents can be displayed creation of applications.
simultaneously.
a) Frame 4. GSM stands for?
b) set a) Global System for Monitoring
c) Frameset b) Graphical System for Mobile
d) div Telecommunications
View Answer c) Graphical System for Monitoring
d) Global System for Mobile Telecommunications
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: A frameset partitions a web browser
window so that multiple web documents can be Answer: d
displayed simultaneously. Frameset can have Explanation: The answer is Global System for
attributes like cols. Mobile Telecommunications. It uses a variation of
multiple access on the basis of time and is widely
10. The _________ attribute specifies the web used in Europe.
page to be placed in the frame initially.
a) name 5. IN stands for?
b) src a) Input
c) cols b) InterNet
d) rows c) Intelligent Network
View Answer d) IntraNet
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The src attribute or the source Answer: c
specifies the web page to be placed in the frame Explanation: IN stands for Intelligent Network. It
initially. It may be subsequently overwritten. is a telephone network that provides technical
services.
1. XML stands for?
a) Extensions Made Language 6. FTP stands for?
b) Extensible Markup Language a) File Text Protocol
c) Extensible Major Language b) File Transfer Protocol
d) Extensible Minor Language c) Firm Transfer Protocol
View Answer
97
d) File Transplant Protocol a) Literacy
View Answer b) Internet
c) Media
Answer: b d) Media Literacy
Explanation: FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol. View Answer
It is a type of internet service use for the
transmission of files. Answer: d
Explanation: It is media literacy. It is the ability to
7. PDU stands for? access, analyze, evaluate and produce media. It is
a) Protocol Data Unit the process of becoming active, rather than passive,
b) Professional Data Unit consumers of media.
c) Protocol Distributed Unit
d) Professional Distributed Unit 2. Media literacy can help youth and adults
View Answer understand how media shapes our culture.
a) True
Answer: a b) False
Explanation: PDU stands for Protocol Data Unit. It View Answer
is transmitted as a single unit to other units in a
computer network. Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Media literacy
8. A tag similar to that of the bold tag. also develops our critical thinking. It also helps in
a) <strong> the better understanding of how media shapes our
b) <cite> culture.
c) <code>
d) <i> 3. The analysis of _________ is a process of
View Answer deconstruction that investigates the operations of
texts, their constructions, the ways they produce
Answer: a meanings, what those meanings may be.
Explanation: <strong> is a container tag in html a) Media
that is similar to bold. It makes the text more b) Web
valuable as well as bold. c) IE
d) Text
9. ISP is? View Answer
a) Intranet System Processing
b) Internet Service Provider Answer: d
c) Intelligent System Processing Explanation: The analysis of texts is a process of
d) Intranet Service Provider deconstruction that investigates the operations of
View Answer texts, their constructions, the ways they produce
meanings, what those meanings may be. However,
Answer: b they also warn of the dangers of making
Explanation: ISR stands for Internet Service assumptions about the validity of any one analytic
provider. It is a service that provides access to the method.
internet.
4. A type of analysis that attends to the repetition
10. NE stands for __________ element. and frequency of features, their proportions within
a) name the text, and consequent assumptions about
b) network significance.
c) new a) Media
d) normal b) Content
View Answer c) Linguistic
d) Network
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: The answer is network. NE is the
network element. It is any logical entity. Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is Content. Linguistic
1. ______________the ability to access, analyzes, analysis might concentrate on the potential effects
evaluate and produce media. of style of address. Content analysis attends to the
repetition and frequency of features, their
98
proportions within the text, and consequent d) storyline
assumptions about significance. View Answer

5. __________ analysis regards texts as Answer: a

collections of signs or paradigms and possible Explanation: Narratives are about storytelling and
meanings, operating within the bounds of various story meaning. Media texts tell stories; they have a
codes. narrative.
a) Semiotic
b) Style 9. __________ describes the effect of involving
c) Linguistic the reader with the story, of constructing it as truth.
d) Text a) Narration
View Answer b) Identification
c) Plot
Answer: a d) Characters
Explanation: Semiotic analysis regards texts as View Answer
collections of signs or paradigms and possible
meanings, operating within the bounds of various Answer: b
codes. Explanation: Identification describes the effect of
involving the reader with the story, of constructing
6. This part of image analysis refers to those it as truth. It produces a meaning of truth, a belief
primary signs, often part of the technique of in the validity of the text and of all the other
photography, which are about how the image is meanings that we make from it.
made.
a) Treatment 10. The notion of norms also links to the idea that
b) Position representations are given force through a process
c) Content of:
d) Media a) naturalization
View Answer b) identification
c) media
Answer: a d) casting
Explanation: Treatment in image analysis refers to View Answer
those primary signs, often part of the technique of
photography, which is about how the image is Answer: a
made. Explanation: The notion of norms also links to the
idea that representations are given force through a
7. In image analysis, this part refers to objects process of naturalization.
represented within the image, which may signify to
us because of, for example, their symbolic power 1. The media texts may throw up discourses and
or because of their composition in relation to each are called ____________
other. a) Binary oppositions
a) Treatment b) Violations
b) Position c) Oppositions
c) Content d) Media Illiteracy
d) Media View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: Some texts may also throw up
Explanation: Content refers to objects represented discourses and their meanings if you attend to what
within the image. Treatment in image analysis are called binary oppositions. The discourse is also
refers to those primary signs, often part of the marked by what it is not, by what it is opposed to.
technique of photography, which are about how the
image is made. 2. In terms of image analysis, it is important to
attend to primary level signs in visual codes, most
8. _________ are about storytelling and story obviously for examples of still photography.
meaning. a) True
a) narratives b) False
b) plot View Answer
c) content
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 Answer: a accessed through the Internet. Since these links are
Explanation: The statement is true. This approach not physical or mechanical, they are called `virtual’
categorizes the image analysis into three: position, links or `hyperlinks’.
treatment and content.
7. In image analysis, this part refers to objects
3. The notion of __________ is one which is represented within the image, which may signify to
especially associated with semiotics and with us because of, for example, their symbolic power
genres. or because of their composition in relation to each
a) Media other.
b) Web a) Treatment
c) codes b) Position
d) Text c) Content
View Answer d) Media
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The notion of codes is one which is Answer: c
especially associated with semiotics and with Explanation: Content refers to objects represented
genres. The textual codes may be summarized into: within the image. Treatment in image analysis
written, spoken, non-verbal and visual. refers to those primary signs, often part of the
technique of photography, which are about how the
4. The idea of _________is central to image is made.
understanding the production of meaning through
texts. 8. A dedicated website for providing specialized
a) Identity information in a particular field.
b) Content a) Website
c) Represntation b) Blog
d) Network c) Web directories
View Answer d) Corporate Websites
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The idea of representation is central Answer: c
to understanding the production of meaning Explanation: Web directory is a dedicated website
through texts. Texts are nothing but representations for providing specialized information in a
in both a material and an ideological sense. particular field. Such directories are useful for
educational purpose.
5. ICT stands for?
a) Interaction, Communication and Technology 9. _________ are the web-based interactive
b) Information, Communication and Technology applications to express and share your ideas and
c) Interaction, Communication and Text thoughts with interested people.
d) Information, Communication and Text a) Website
View Answer b) Blog
c) Web directories
Answer: b d) Corporate Websites
Explanation: ICT stands for Information, View Answer
Communication and Technology. ICT is
responsible for providing access to information. Answer: b
Explanation: Blogs are the web-based interactive
6. A system of interlinked documents, websites, applications to express and share your ideas and
portals etc. accessed through the Internet. thoughts with interested people. It is an open
a) WWW platform that can be used as on-line diaries, a
b) Internet journal, or editorial.
c) Web
d) Media 10. A term used in the context of web design to
View Answer suggest the path that user takes while browsing a
website.
Answer: a a) navigation
Explanation: World Wide Web a system of b) identification
interlinked documents, websites, portals etc. c) graphics media
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d) casting 5. A term for Illusion of immersion by projecting
View Answer stereo images on the walls and floor of a room.
a) CAVE
Answer: a b) BOOM
Explanation: Navigation is a term used in the c) GUI
context of web design to suggest the path that user d) HMD
takes while browsing a website. View Answer

1. HMD stands for? Answer: a

a) Head Mounted Display Explanation: CAVE is the term. CAVE stands for
b) Head Masked Display Cave Automatic Virtual Environment.
c) Head Made Display
d) Head Mounted Detection 6. It is a mediated environment which creates the
View Answer sensation in a user of being present in a (physical)
surrounding.
Answer: a a) WWW
Explanation: It stands for Head Mounted Display. b) VR
A kind of stereo display with two miniature c) HMD
screens and depth perception. d) GUI
View Answer
2. In terms of image analysis, it is important to
attend to primary level signs in visual codes, most Answer: b
obviously for examples of still photography. Explanation: VR or virtual reality is a mediated
a) True environment which creates the sensation in a user
b) False of being present in a (physical) surrounding.
View Answer
7. A term to describe the extent to which a user
Answer: a can modify form and content of a mediated
Explanation: The statement is true. This approach environment.
categorizes the image analysis into three: position, a) Vividness
treatment and content. b) Richness
c) Interactivity
3. ______________ keep track of position. d) Mapping
a) Motion analyzers View Answer
b) Motion Trackers
c) HMD Answer: c
d) SMD Explanation: Interactivity is the extent to which a
View Answer user can modify form and content of a mediated
environment. It comprises speed and mapping.
Answer: b
Explanation: Motion trackers keep track of 8. A type of VR environment in which subjects
position. Other devices are like head trackers and are visually isolated from the real environment.
body trackers. a) Immersive
b) Semi immersive
4. BOOM stands for? c) Non immersive
a) Binocular Omni-Orientation Manager d) Augmented
b) Binary Omni-Orientation Manager View Answer
c) Binocular Omni-Orientation Monitor
d) Binary Omni-Orientation Monitor Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: In immersive VR, subjects are
visually isolated from the real environment. A
Answer: c virtual scene is responding to the subjects actions.
Explanation: BOOM stands for Binocular Omni-
Orientation Monitor. It is a type of Stereoscopic 9. In this type of VR environment, the three-
display. Guidance of the box by the users. dimensional scene is considered as a part of the
physical environment.
a) Immersive
b) Semi immersive
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c) Non immersive d) SMD
d) Augmented View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: It refers to simulated motion pictures
Explanation: This happens in non-immersive showing movement of drawn objects. Animation is
Virtual environment. Also, the subjects do fully a form of pictorial presentation.
respond in the real environment.
4. A ____________(invented by Paul Roget in
10. In this type of VR environment, the subjects 1828) is a simple mechanical toy which creates the
can perform both in the real and virtual illusion of movement.
environment. a) Binocular
a) Immersive b) Zoetrope
b) Semi immersive c) Thaumatrope
c) Non immersive d) BOOM
d) Augmented View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: A thaumatrope (invented by Paul
Explanation: The subjects perceive a strong Roget in 1828) is a simple mechanical toy. It
involvement into the VE. Also, the subjects may creates the illusion of movement. Thaumatrope
perform less in the real environment. means “wonder turner”.

1. ____________is basically a form of pictorial 5. A device produces an illusion of movement

presentation. from a rapid succession of static pictures.
a) Photography a) Zoetrope
b) Animations b) Thaumatrope
c) Drawing c) Phenakistoscope
d) Creativity d) HMD
View Answer View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Animation is basically a form of
pictorial presentation. It has become the most
prominent feature of technology-based learning
environments.
Answer: a
Explanation: In 1843, William Horner, a British
mathematician invented the zoetrope. A zoetrope
produces an illusion of movement from a rapid
succession of static pictures.

2. Multiplane camera was introduced by Walt 6. The ____________ is a piece of equipment

Disney. designed to make cartoons more realistic and
a) True enjoyable. It uses stacked panes of glass each with
b) False different elements of the animation.
View Answer a) Multiplane camera
b) VR
Answer: a c) Thaumatrope
Explanation: The statement is true. Walt Disney d) Phenakistoscope
along with his colleagues had a problem with View Answer
creating realistic animation and how to conserve
time while creating it. Therefore, they came up Answer: a
with a great solution which can be considered Explanation: Walt Disney had a problem with
another innovation in the field of animation called creating realistic animation and how to conserve
the multiplane camera. time while creating it. Hence, they came up with a
great solution which can be considered another
3. It refers to simulated motion pictures showing innovation in the field of animation called the
movement of drawn objects. multiplane camera.
a) Motion
b) Animation 7. He made the first animated film in 1906.
c) VR a) Walt Disney
b) J. Stuart Blackton
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c) William Horner Answer: b
d) J.A. Ferdinand Plateau Explanation: Generation in computer terminology
View Answer is a change in technology a computer is/was being
used. The term is used to distinguish between
Answer: b various hardware technologies.
Explanation: J. Stuart Blackton made the first
animated film in 1906. Humorous Phases of Funny 2. The fourth generation was based on integrated
Faces was the first animation film. circuits.
a) True
8. Name of the first animation film. b) False
a) Humorous Phases of Funny Faces View Answer
b) Tom and Jerry
c) Mickey Mouse Answer: b
d) How i learnt animations Explanation: The statement is false. The third
View Answer generation was based on integrated circuits.

Answer: a 3. The generation based on VLSI microprocessor.

Explanation: Humorous Phases of Funny Faces a) 1st
was the first animation film made by J. Stuart b) 2nd
Blackton. He was using a blackboard as his c) 3rd
workplace together with chalk and an eraser as his d) 4th
main tools. View Answer

9. ___________ animation is used to animate Answer: d

things that are smaller than life size. Explanation: The 4th gen was VLSI
a) Immersive microprocessor based. The period of fourth
b) Claymotion generation: 1972-1990.
c) Stop motion
d) Augmented 4. ______ generation of computer started with
View Answer using vacuum tubes as the basic components.
a) 1st
Answer: c b) 2nd
Explanation: Stop motion animation is used to c) 3rd
animate things that are smaller than life size. Willis d) 4th
Harold O’Brian pioneered motion picture special View Answer
effects, which were perfected in stop motion.
Answer: a
10. The father of animation? Explanation: First generation of computer started
a) Walt Disney with using vacuum tubes as the basic components
b) J. Stuart Blackton for memory and circuitry for CPU(Central
c) William Horner Processing Unit).
d) J.A. Ferdinand Plateau
View Answer 5. Batch processing was mainly used in this
generation.
Answer: b a) 1st
Explanation: J. Stuart Blackton made the first b) 2nd
animated film in 1906. The film was entitled c) 3rd
Humorous Phases of Funny Faces, and with this, d) 4th
he became known as the father of animation. View Answer

1. A term in computer terminology is a change in Answer: a

technology a computer is/was being used. Explanation: Batch processing was mainly used in
a) development the 1st generation. In this generation Punched
b) generation cards, Paper tape, Magnetic tape Input & Output
c) advancement device were used.
d) growth
View Answer 6. ___________ is an emerging branch in
computer science, which interprets means and
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method of making computers think like human d) 4th
beings. View Answer
a) Block chain
b) VR Answer: b
c) AI Explanation: The period of the 2nd generation is
d) Cloud computing 1952-1964. The period of the first generation was
View Answer 1942-1954.

Answer: c 1. Execution of several activities at the same time.

Explanation: AI is an emerging branch in computer a) processing
science, which interprets means and method of b) parallel processing
making computers think like human beings. c) serial processing
d) multitasking
7. ULSI stands for? View Answer
a) Ultra Large Scale Integration
b) Under Lower Scale Integration Answer: b
c) Ultra Lower Scale Integration Explanation: Execution of several activities at the
d) Under Large Scale Integration same time is referred to as parallel processing.
View Answer Like, Two multiplications at the same time on 2
different processes.
Answer: a
Explanation: It stands for Ultra Large Scale 2. Parallel processing has single execution flow.
Integration. It is a part of the fifth generation a) True
computers. b) False
View Answer
8. In this generation Time sharing, Real time,
Networks, Distributed Operating System was used. Answer: b
a) 1st Explanation: The statement is false. Sequential
b) 2nd programming specifically has single execution
c) 5th flow.
d) 4th
View Answer 3. A term for simultaneous access to a resource,
physical or logical.
Answer: d a) Multiprogramming
Explanation: The fourth generation of computers is b) Multitasking
marked by the use of Very Large Scale Integrated c) Threads
(VLSI) circuits. In this generation Time sharing, d) Concurrency
Real time, Networks, Distributed Operating View Answer
System was used.
Answer: d
9. HLL stands for? Explanation: Concurrency is the term used for the
a) High Level Language same. When several things are accessed
b) High Layman’s Language simultaneously, the job is said to be concurrent.
c) High Level Lesson
d) High Layman’s Lesson 4. ______________ leads to concurrency.
View Answer a) Serialization
b) Parallelism
Answer: a c) Serial processing
Explanation: High Level Language(HLL) has d) Distribution
languages like FORTRAN, COBOL. HLL isn’t in View Answer
machine language. It is converted to machine
language for further processing. Answer: b
Explanation: Parallelism leads naturally to
10. The period of ________ generation was 1952- Concurrency. For example, Several processes
1964. trying to print a file on a single printer.
a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 5th
104
 5. A parallelism based on increasing processor Answer: a
word size. Explanation: Isoefficiency is the rate at which the
a) Increasing problem size need to be increased to maintain
b) Count based efficiency.
c) Bit based
d) Bit level 10. Several instructions execution simultaneously
View Answer in ________________
a) processing
Answer: d b) parallel processing
Explanation: Bit level parallelism is based on c) serial processing
increasing processor word size. It focuses on d) multitasking
hardware capabilities for structuring. View Answer

6. A type of parallelism that uses micro Answer: b

architectural techniques. Explanation: In parallel processing, the several
a) instructional instructions are executed simultaneously.
b) bit level
c) bit based 1. RMI stands for?
d) increasing a) Remote Mail Invocation
View Answer b) Remote Message Invocation
c) Remaining Method Invocation
Answer: a d) Remote Method Invocation
Explanation: Instructional level uses micro View Answer
architectural techniques. It focuses on program
instructions for structuring. Answer: d
Explanation: The RMI (Remote Method
7. MIPS stands for? Invocation) is an API that provides a mechanism to
a) Mandatory Instructions/sec create distributed applications.
b) Millions of Instructions/sec
c) Most of Instructions/sec 2. A remote object is an object whose method can
d) Many Instructions / sec be invoked from another virtual environment.
View Answer a) True
b) False
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: MIPS stands for Millions of
Instructions/sec. MIPS is a way to measure the cost Answer: a
of computing. Explanation: The statement is true. JVM is java
virtual environment. RMI uses stub and skeleton
8. The measure of the “effort” needed to maintain object for communication with the remote object.
efficiency while adding processors. A remote object is an object whose method can be
a) Maintainablity invoked from another virtual environment.
b) Efficiency
c) Scalabilty 3. A typical _________ program creates some
d) Effectiveness remote objects, makes references to these objects
View Answer accessible, and waits for clients to invoke methods
on these objects.
Answer: c a) Server
Explanation: The measure of the “effort” needed to b) Client
maintain efficiency while adding processors is c) Thread
called as scalabilty. d) Concurrent
View Answer
9. The rate at which the problem size need to be
increased to maintain efficiency. Answer: a
a) Isoeffciency Explanation: A server program creates remote
b) Efficiency objects. It gives reference to these objects and then
c) Scalabilty waits for clients to invoke methods on these
d) Effectiveness objects.
View Answer
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 4. A typical __________ program obtains a b) stub
remote reference to one or more remote objects on c) remote
a server and then invokes methods on them. d) server
a) Server View Answer
b) Client
c) Thread Answer: b
d) Concurrent Explanation: The stub is an object that acts as a
View Answer gateway for the client side. The outgoing requests
are passed through the stub.
Answer: b
Explanation: A client program obtains a remote 9. A gateway for the server side object.
reference to one or more remote objects on a a) skeleton
server. It then invokes methods on them. b) stub
c) remote
5. The ___________ layer, which provides the d) server
interface that client and server application objects View Answer
use to interact with each other.
a) Increasing Answer: a
b) Count Explanation: The skeleton is an object, acts as a
c) Bit gateway for the server side object. All the
d) Stub/skeleton incoming requests are routed through it.
View Answer
10. RMI uses stub and skeleton for
Answer: d communication with the ________ object.
Explanation: The stub or skeleton layer provides a) client
the interface that client and server application b) remote
objects use for interaction with each other. c) server
d) any
6. A layer which is the binary data protocol layer. View Answer
a) stub layer
b) skeleton layer Answer: b
c) remote layer Explanation: RMI uses stub and skeleton object for
d) transport protocol communication with the remote object. A remote
View Answer object is an object whose method can be invoked
from another JVM.
Answer: d
Explanation: The transport protocol layer is the 1. ________________ is a paradigm of distributed
binary data protocol that sends remote object computing to provide the customers on-demand,
requests over the wire. A client is any remote utility based computing service.
application that communicates with these server a) Remote Sensing
objects. b) Remote Invocation
c) Cloud Computing
7. A middleware layer between the stub skeleton d) Private Computing
and transport. View Answer
a) remote layer
b) instruction layer Answer: c
c) reference layer Explanation: Cloud computing is a paradigm of
d) remote reference layer distributed computing to provide the customers
View Answer with on-demand, utility based computing services.
Cloud users can provide more reliable, available
Answer: d and updated services to their clients in turn.
Explanation: The remote reference layer is the
middleware between the stub/skeleton layer and 2. Cloud providers provide cloud services to the
underlying transport protocol. cloud users.
a) True
8. An object acting as a gateway for the client b) False
side. View Answer
a) skeleton
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 Answer: a a) Private
Explanation: The statement is true. There are three b) Public
types of users often called as cloud stakeholders. c) Protected
d) Hybrid
3. Which of the following is not a cloud View Answer
stakeholder?
a) Cloud providers Answer: d
b) Clients Explanation: The hybrid cloud is composed of
c) End users multiple internal or external clouds. This is the
d) Cloud users scenario when an organization moves to public
View Answer cloud computing domain from its internal private
cloud.
Answer: b
Explanation: There are three types of stakeholders 8. _____________ enables the migration of the
cloud providers, cloud users and the end users. virtual image from one physical machine to
another.
4. These cloud services are of the form of utility a) visualization
computing i.e. the _________ uses these services b) virtualization
pay-as-you-go model. c) migration
a) Cloud providers d) virtual transfer
b) Clients View Answer
c) End users
d) Cloud users Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Virtualization enables the migration
of the virtual image from one physical machine to
Answer: d another. This feature is useful for cloud as by data
Explanation: The cloud users use these services locality lots of optimization is possible.
pay-as-you-go model. The cloud users develop
their product using these services and deliver the 9. Most of the cloud architectures are built on this
product to the end users. type of architecture.
a) skeleton
5. Which of the following is not a type of cloud? b) grid
a) Private c) linear
b) Public d) template
c) Protected View Answer
d) Hybrid
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: Most of the cloud architectures are
Answer: c built on Grid architecture. Grid is a type of
Explanation: There is no protected cloud. There are distributed computing architecture where
three types of cloud-private, public and hybrid. organizations owning data centers collaborate with
each other to have common benefits.
6. In this type of cloud, an organization rents
cloud services from cloud providers on-demand 10. Saas stands for?
basis. a) Software as a service
a) Private b) System Software and services
b) Public c) Software as a system
c) Protected d) System as a service
d) Hybrid View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: SAAS is Software as a service. It
Explanation: This happens in public cloud. delivers a single application through the web
Services are provided to the users using utility browser to thousands of customers using a
computing model. multitenant architecture.

7. In this type of cloud, the cloud is composed of 1. Which of the following is not a type of
multiple internal or external cloud. computer on the basis of operation?
107
a) Remote Answer: a
b) Hybrid Explanation: Super computers are used with
c) Analog complex applications like Global Weather
d) Digital Forecasting, Creating graphic images, engineering
View Answer design and testing, space exploration, etc.

Answer: a 6. The invention of _______________ gave birth

Explanation: There are three types of computers to the much cheaper micro computers.
basically on the basis of operation: a) Mainframes
Analog, Digital and Hybrid. b) Microcomputers
c) Microprocessors
2. Remote computers work on continuous range d) PDAs
of values. View Answer
a) True
b) False Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: The invention of microprocessor (also
called as single chip CPU) gave birth to the much
Answer: b cheaper microcomputers.
Explanation: The statement is false. Analog
Computer is a computing device that works on 7. They can operate on batteries and hence are
continuous range of values. The results that are very popular with travelers.
given by the analog computers will mostly be a) Mainframes
approximate since they deal with quantities that b) Laptops
keep on varying. c) Microprocessors
d) Hybrid
3. A computer that operates on digital data. View Answer
a) remote
b) hybrid Answer: b
c) analog Explanation: Laptops can operate on batteries and
d) digital hence are very popular with travelers. The screen
View Answer folds down onto the keyboard when not in use.

Answer: d 8. PDA stands for?

Explanation: The digital computer uses binary a) personal digital applications
number system in which there are only two digits 0 b) private digital applications
and 1. Each one is called a bit. c) personal digital assistants
d) private digital assistants
4. This type of computer is mostly used for View Answer
automatic operations.
a) remote Answer: b
b) hybrid Explanation: PDA stands for Personal Digital
c) analog Assistants. They are pen-based and also battery
d) digital powered.
View Answer
9. PDAs are also called?
Answer: b a) PCs
Explanation: Hybrid computer is mostly used with b) Laptops
automatic operations of complicated physical c) Tablets
processes and the machines. d) Handheld
View Answer
5. ______________ are used for solving complex
application such as Global Weather Forecasting. Answer: d
a) Super Computers Explanation: PDAs are also called as Personal
b) Public computers Digital Assistants. They are small and can be
c) Mobile computers carried anywhere.
d) Hybrid computers
View Answer 10. ______computers are lower to mainframe
computers in terms of speed and storage capacity.
108
a) Mini Answer: b
b) Super Explanation: Hybrid computer is mostly used with
c) Mainframes automatic operations of complicated physical
d) Hybrid processes and the machines.
View Answer
5. ______________ are used for solving complex
Answer: a application such as Global Weather Forecasting.
Explanation: The answer is a. Mini computers are a) Super Computers
compared to mainframe computers in terms of: b) Public computers
1. speed and, 2. storage capacity. c) Mobile computers
d) Hybrid computers
1. Which of the following is not a type of View Answer
computer on the basis of operation?
a) Remote Answer: a
b) Hybrid Explanation: Super computers are used with
c) Analog complex applications like Global Weather
d) Digital Forecasting, Creating graphic images, engineering
View Answer design and testing, space exploration, etc.

Answer: a 6. The invention of _______________ gave birth

Explanation: There are three types of computers to the much cheaper micro computers.
basically on the basis of operation: a) Mainframes
Analog, Digital and Hybrid. b) Microcomputers
c) Microprocessors
2. Remote computers work on continuous range d) PDAs
of values. View Answer
a) True
b) False Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: The invention of microprocessor (also
called as single chip CPU) gave birth to the much
Answer: b cheaper microcomputers.
Explanation: The statement is false. Analog
Computer is a computing device that works on 7. They can operate on batteries and hence are
continuous range of values. The results that are very popular with travelers.
given by the analog computers will mostly be a) Mainframes
approximate since they deal with quantities that b) Laptops
keep on varying. c) Microprocessors
d) Hybrid
3. A computer that operates on digital data. View Answer
a) remote
b) hybrid Answer: b
c) analog Explanation: Laptops can operate on batteries and
d) digital hence are very popular with travelers. The screen
View Answer folds down onto the keyboard when not in use.

Answer: d 8. PDA stands for?

Explanation: The digital computer uses binary a) personal digital applications
number system in which there are only two digits 0 b) private digital applications
and 1. Each one is called a bit. c) personal digital assistants
d) private digital assistants
4. This type of computer is mostly used for View Answer
automatic operations.
a) remote Answer: b
b) hybrid Explanation: PDA stands for Personal Digital
c) analog Assistants. They are pen-based and also battery
d) digital powered.
View Answer

109
 9. PDAs are also called? identification was a prerequisite for Internet of
a) PCs Things.
b) Laptops
c) Tablets 4. Which of the following is not involved in
d) Handheld working of IoT?
View Answer a) RFID
b) Sensor
Answer: d c) Nano tech
Explanation: PDAs are also called as Personal d) Server
Digital Assistants. They are small and can be View Answer
carried anywhere.
Answer: d
10. ______computers are lower to mainframe Explanation: IoT works from RFID to Sensor, to
computers in terms of speed and storage capacity. Smart tech and then to Nano tech.
a) Mini
b) Super 5. Making the smaller and smaller things have the
c) Mainframes ability to connect and interact.
d) Hybrid a) Micro Tech
View Answer b) Smart tech
c) Nano tech
Answer: a d) RFID
Explanation: The answer is a. Mini computers are View Answer
compared to mainframe computers in terms of:
1. speed and, 2. storage capacity. Answer: c
Explanation: Nano Tech is the term used when
1. A network of physical objects or things smaller things are made to interact and
embedded with electronics or softwares. communicate. It is involved in the working of Iot
a) AI also.
b) ML
c) IOT 6. Wi-Fi stands for?
d) Internet a) Wireless fidelity
View Answer b) Wireless Flexibility
c) Wide Fidelity
Answer: c d) WAN Flexibility
Explanation: IoT is a network of physical objects View Answer
or things embedded with electronics or softwares.
Iot allows objects to be controlled remotely across Answer: a
existing network. Explanation: Wi-Fi stands for Wireless Fidelity. It
is widely used in both outdoor and indoor
2. RFID is a part of IoT. environments.
a) True
b) False 7. Diagnostics service for Cars.
View Answer a) MIPS
b) AutoBot
Answer: a c) IoT Assistant
Explanation: The statement is true. RFID is Radio d) IoT
frequency identification. Radio frequency View Answer
identification is a part of IoT.
Answer: b
3. RFID stands for? Explanation: Autobot is a diagnostics service for
a) Random frequency identification cars. This service is integrated with several web
b) Radio frequency identification services.
c) Random frequency information
d) Radio frequency information 8. The father of ioT.
View Answer a) Kevin Atrun
b) Kevin Atrhur
Answer: b c) Kevin Ashton
Explanation: Earlier, RFID or Radio frequency
110
d) Kevin Thomas 3. The first neural network computer.
View Answer a) RFD
b) SNARC
Answer: c c) AM
Explanation: Kevin Ashton is the father of IoT. He d) AN
believed IoT could turn the world into data. View Answer

9. Collect->Communicate->__________->Act Answer: b
a) Acknowledge Explanation: SNARC was the first neural network
b) Analyze computer. it was built by Minsky and Edmonds in
c) Examine 1956.
d) Rectify
View Answer 4. A hardware based system that has autonomy,
social ability and reactivity.
Answer: a a) AI
Explanation: The correct option is analyze. This b) Autonomous Agent
shows the lifecycle of IoT. c) Agency
Collect->Communicate->Analyze->Act. d) Behavior Engineering
View Answer
10. Several instructions execution simultaneously
in? Answer: b
a) processing Explanation: The answer is Autonomous Agent.
b) parallel processing Autonomous agent has autonomy i.e. ability to
c) serial processing operate without the direct intervention of humans
d) multitasking or others.
View Answer
5. A particular system that contains intelligent
Answer: b agents.
Explanation: In parallel processing, the several a) AI systems
instructions are executed simultaneously. Parallel b) Agency
processing system provides the concurrent data c) Autonomous systems
processing to increase the execution time. d) Company
View Answer
1. The technology that has the ability to interact
with the world. Answer: b
a) AI Explanation: It is called an agency. A particular
b) ML system consisting of intelligent agents like
c) IOT computers or robots that cooperate to find the
d) IT solution to a problem.
View Answer
6. A methodology used to develop behavior-based
Answer: a autonomous agents.
Explanation: AI which is artificial intelligence is a) Descriptors
the ability to interact with the world. It is the b) Behavior engineering
ability to model the world and to learn and adapt. c) Behavior modeling
d) Auto engineering
2. The goal of AI is to build systems that exhibit View Answer
intelligent behavior.
a) True Answer: b
b) False Explanation: The answer is behavior engineering.
View Answer Autonomous agent implements autonomy, social
ability and reactivity.
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. There are 2 7. An international research effort to promote
main goals in AI: to exhibit intelligent behavior autonomous robots.
and understand intelligence in order to model it. a) Fresh Kitty
b) RoboCup
c) AICup
111
d) SPOT Everyday jobs like conducting transactions and
View Answer communications among business and government
agencies etc.
Answer: b
Explanation: RoboCup is designed to promote 2. Network Security provides authentication and
autonomous robots. It is based on multi agent access control for resources.
collaboration. a) True
b) False
8. A type of non-monotonic reasoning. View Answer
a) Ordinary
b) Special Answer: a
c) Duplicate Explanation: The statement is true. AFS is an
d) Default example. It helps us protect vital information.
View Answer
3. Which is not an objective of network security?
Answer: d a) Identification
Explanation: Default reasoning is a type of non- b) Authentication
monotonic reasoning. Default logic is a non- c) Access control
monotonic logic proposed by Raymond Reiter to d) Lock
formalize reasoning with default assumptions. View Answer

9. The performance of an agent can be improved Answer: d

based on this. Explanation: The Identification, Authentication
a) Observe and Access control are the objectives of network
b) Learn security. There is no such thing called lock.
c) Improvise
d) Implement 4. Which of these is a part of network
View Answer identification?
a) UserID
Answer: b b) Password
Explanation: An AI system is designed to learn and c) OTP
improve. The same is implemented on its agents. d) fingerprint
View Answer
10. Face recognition system is based on
_____________ Answer: a
a) applied AI Explanation: The answer is UserID. UserID is a
b) parallel AI part of identification. UserID can be a combination
c) serial AI of username, user student number etc.
d) strong AI
View Answer 5. The process of verifying the identity of a user.
a) Authentication
Answer: a b) Identification
Explanation: The answer is applied AI. It is based c) Validation
on applied artificial intelligence. It is an approach d) Verification
to develop commercially smart systems. View Answer

1. The field that covers a variety of computer Answer: a

networks, both public and private, that are used in Explanation: It is called an authentication. It is
everyday jobs. typically based on passwords, smart card,
a) Artificial Intelligence fingerprint, etc.
b) ML
c) Network Security 6. A concern of authentication that deals with user
d) IT rights.
View Answer a) General access
b) Functional authentication
Answer: c c) Functional authorization
Explanation: Network security covers a variety of d) Auto verification
computer networks, both private and public. View Answer
112
 Answer: c 1. The process of transforming plain text into
Explanation: Functional authorization is concerned unreadable text.
with individual user rights. Authorization is the a) Decryption
function of specifying access rights to resources b) Encryption
related to information security. c) Network Security
d) Information Hiding
7. CHAP stands for? View Answer
a) Challenge Handshake authentication protocol
b) Challenge Hardware authentication protocol Answer: b
c) Circuit Hardware authentication protocol Explanation: Encryption is the process of
d) Circuit Handshake authentication protocol transforming readable text i.e. plain text to make it
View Answer unreadable to anyone except those possessing
special knowledge, usually referred to as a key.
Answer: a
Explanation: CHAP stands for Challenge 2. An algorithm used in encryption is referred to
Handshake authentication protocol. Features of as cipher.
CHAP: plaintext, memorized token. Protocol uses a) True
Telnet, HTTP. b) False
View Answer
8. Security features that control that can access
resources in the OS. Answer: a
a) Authentication Explanation: The statement is true. Cipher is the
b) Identification algorithm used in encryption. Encryption is making
c) Validation readable text as unreadable to keep it secured.
d) Access control
View Answer 3. A process of making the encrypted text
readable again.
Answer: d a) Decryption
Explanation: Access control refers to the security b) Encryption
features. Applications call access control to c) Network Security
provide resources. d) Information Hiding
View Answer
9. An algorithm in encryption is called
_____________ Answer: a
a) Algorithm Explanation: The reverse process is called
b) Procedure decryption. It is the process of making the
c) Cipher information readable again.
d) Module
View Answer 4. WTLS stands for?
a) Wireless Transport Security Layer
Answer: c b) Wireless Transfer System Layer
Explanation: An algorithm used in encryption is c) Wireless Transfer Security Layer
referred to as a cipher. cipher is an algorithm for d) Wireless Transport System Layer
performing encryption or decryption View Answer

10. The information that gets transformed in Answer: a

encryption is ____________ Explanation: WTLS is Wireless Transport Security
a) Plain text Layer. It provides security between the mobile
b) Parallel text device and the WAP gateway to internet.
c) Encrypted text
d) Decrypted text 5. The protocol designed to make the security of
View Answer wireless LAN as good as that of wired LAN.
a) WTLS
Answer: a b) WEP
Explanation: The text that gets transformed is c) RSN
called plain text. The algorithm used is called d) WP
cipher. View Answer

113
 Answer: b 10. An attack in which the site is not capable of
Explanation: WEP stands for Wired Equivalent answering valid request.
Privacy. WEP has been broken already in 2001. a) Smurfing
WEP protocol designed to make the security of b) Denial of service
wireless LAN as good as that of wired LAN. c) E-mail bombing
d) Ping storm
6. A person who enjoys learning details about View Answer
computers and how to enhance their capabilities.
a) Cracker Answer: b
b) Hacker Explanation: The answer is Denial of service. In
c) App controller case of denial of service attacks, a computer site is
d) Site controller bombarded with a lot of messages.
View Answer
1. A cipher in which the order is not preserved.
Answer: b a) Polyalphabetic substitution based
Explanation: The person is called hacker. A person b) Transposition-based
who enjoys learning the details of computer c) Substitution based
systems and how to stretch their capabilities is d) Public key based
called hacker. View Answer

7. A program created by Farmer and Venema for Answer: b

auditing capability. Explanation: In transposition-based cipher, the
a) SAAS order of the plain text is not preserved. They can be
b) SATAN very simple to identify.
c) SAN
d) SAT 2. Plain text is the data after encryption is
View Answer performed.
a) True
Answer: b b) False
Explanation: SATAN is the Security analysis tool View Answer
for auditing networks. It is created by farmer and
venema. Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Cipher is the
8. A small program that changes the way a algorithm used in encryption. Ciphertext is the data
computer operates. after encryption is performed.
a) Worm
b) Trojan 3. A unique piece of information that is used in
c) Bomb encryption.
d) Virus a) Cipher
View Answer b) Plain Text
c) Key
Answer: d d) Cipher
Explanation: The program is called virus. It alters View Answer
the way that the computer operates. It often does
damages like deleting and corrupting files and Answer: c
data. Explanation: The key is the unique piece of
information. It is used to create the cipher text and
9. A program that copies itself. decrypt it back.
a) Worm
b) Virus 4. Study of creating a d using encryption and
c) Trojan decryption techniques.
d) Bomb a) Cipher
View Answer b) Cryptography
c) Encryption
Answer: a d) Decryption
Explanation: A worm copies itself from one system View Answer
to another over a network without the assistance of
human.
114
 Answer: b operations.
Explanation: It is called as cryptography. It is the a) Smurfing
study of creating and using the encryption b) Denial of service
techniques. c) E-mail bombing
d) Ping storm
5. Creating a computer or paper audit that can View Answer
help detect wrong doings.
a) Auditing Answer: a
b) Validation Explanation: Smurfing is a technique in which a
c) RSN program attacks a network by exploiting IP
d) Verification broadcast addressing operations.
View Answer
10. An attack in which the user receives unwanted
Answer: a amount of e-mails.
Explanation: The answer is auditing. It is done to a) Smurfing
keep an eye on wrong doings. Auditing can be b) Denial of service
used as a deterrent. c) E-mail bombing
d) Ping storm
6. An indirect form of surveillance. View Answer
a) Honey pot
b) Logical Answer: c
c) Security Explanation: In the case of denial of e-mail
d) Intrusion bombing, a user sends an excessive amount of
View Answer unwanted e-mail to someone.

Answer: a 1. These ciphers replace a character or characters

Explanation: Honey pot is an indirect form of with a different character or characters, based on
surveillance. Network personnel create a trap, some key.
watching for unscrupulous acts. a) Polyalphabetic substitution based
b) Transposition-based
7. A malicious code hidden inside a seemingly c) Substitution based
harmless piece of code. d) Mono alphabetic substitution based
a) Worm View Answer
b) Bomb
c) Trojan Horse Answer: d
d) Virus Explanation: In mono alphabetic substitution-based
View Answer cipher, a character is replaced with some other
character or multiple characters, based on some
Answer: c key.
Explanation: The answer is Trojan horse. Trojan
horse is a code that is present in a program that 2. Encryption is the study of creating and using
appears harmless. decryption techniques.
a) True
8. Attack in which a user creates a packet that b) False
appears to be something else. View Answer
a) Smurfing
b) Trojan Answer: b
c) E-mail bombing Explanation: The statement is false. Cryptography
d) Spoofing is the study of creating and using encryption and
View Answer decryption techniques.

Answer: d 3. A type of cipher that uses multiple alphabetic

Explanation: The attack is a spoofing attack. It is strings.
when a user creates a packet that appears to be a) Substitution based
something else or from someone else. b) Transposition-based
c) Polyalphabetic substitution based
9. A technique in which a program attacks a d) Mono alphabetic substitution based
network by exploiting IP broadcast addressing View Answer
115
 Answer: c 8. Triple-DES has ______ keys.
Explanation: These ciphers are similar to that of a) 1
mono alphabetic ciphers. Multiple strings are used b) 2
to encode the plain text. c) 5
d) 4
4. An encryption technique with 2 keys is View Answer
______________
a) Monoalphabetic Cipher Answer: b
b) Cryptography Explanation: There are 2 keys in triple DES as
c) Private key cryptography well. The private and the public key. It can also
d) Public key cryptography have 3 unique keys.
View Answer
9. Encryption standard that is selected by the US
Answer: d government to replace DES.
Explanation: It is called as public key a) AES
cryptography. It has 2 keys: a private key and a b) BES
public key. c) CES
d) DES
5. In public key cryptography, a key that decrypts View Answer
the message.
a) public key Answer: a
b) unique key Explanation: AES is Advanced Encryption
c) private key Standard. It was selected by the US government. It
d) security key is used to replace DES.
View Answer
10. An electronic document that establishes your
Answer: c credentials when you are performing transactions.
Explanation: Public key cryptography has 2 keys. a) Digital code
They are private key and a public key. The public b) OTP
key encrypts the message. The private key decrypts c) E-mail
the message. d) Digital certificate
View Answer
6. DES stands for?
a) Data Encryption Standard Answer: d
b) Data Encryption Statistics Explanation: Digital certificate is an electronic
c) Data Encryption System document that is responsible for secure internet
d) Data Encryption Sequence transactions.
View Answer
1. A field of technology that deals with a
Answer: a combination of real world and the data generated
Explanation: DES stands for Data Encryption from computer.
Standard. It was created in 1977 and went into a) ML
operation from 1990s. b) AI
c) AR
7. Under DES, the data encryption standard took a d) IoT
64-bit block of data and subjected it to ______ View Answer
levels of encryption.
a) 64 Answer: c
b) 8 Explanation: AR that is Augmented Reality is a
c) 16 field of technology that deals with a combination
d) 4 of real world and the data generated from
View Answer computer.

Answer: c 2. AR is interactive in real-time.

Explanation: The answer is 16. It was subjected to a) True
16 levels of encryption. DES is the data encryption b) False
standard. View Answer

116
 Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Augmented
Reality is the field of computer research that deals
with the combination of real-world and computer
generated data.
Answer: c
Explanation: Smart glasses are also called as
optical head mounted displays. (OHMD), it has the
capability of reflecting projected images as well as
allowing users to see through it.

3. Technologies that completely involve a user 7. A tracking based on geo-location information.

inside a synthetic environment. a) Location based
a) AR b) Markerless
b) VR c) Marker based
c) AI d) GPS
d) ML View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: Location based tracking is based on
Explanation: The answer is VR or Virtual Reality. geo-location information obtained from device’s
VR technologies are known for immersing a user location sensors. (Longitude, latitude, altitude etc).
inside a synthetic environment. While immersed,
the user cannot see the real world around him. 8. SLAM stands for?
a) Simultaneous localization and mapping
4. Technologies that allow the user to see the real b) System localization and mapping
world, with virtual objects composited in the real c) Simultaneous localization and maintenance
world. d) System localization and maintenance
a) AR View Answer
b) VR
c) AI Answer: a
d) SR Explanation: SLAM is abbreviated for
View Answer Simultaneous localization and mapping. It is a
technique used by robots and autonomous vehicles
Answer: a to build a map within the unknown environment.
Explanation: Augmented Reality (AR) allows a
user to see real world, with virtual objects 9. A technique that enables light field which is
superimposed or composited with the real world. generally the product of a light source scattered off
objects.
5. A ______________________ is a display a) AES
device, worn on head as a part of helmet that has a b) Holography
small display optic. c) Cryptography
a) HD d) Gyrography
b) MD View Answer
c) HMD
d) ARD Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Holography enables a light field. It is
to be recorded and later reconstructed when the
Answer: c original light field is no longer present.
Explanation: HMD is the head-mounted display,
worn on head as a part of helmet that has a small 10. A _______ can be recorded using a normal
display optic. HTC Vive, Samsung GearVR are light source.
examples of HMDs available today. a) Holograph
b) Photography
6. Wearable computing device in the form of c) Holography
computerized eyeglasses. d) Photograph
a) HMD View Answer
b) Helmets
c) Smart Glasses Answer: d
d) VR Glasses Explanation: A photograph can be captured using a
View Answer normal light source. A laser is required to record a
hologram.

117
 1. A model that is the demo implementation of the c) editing
system. d) implementation
a) waterfall View Answer
b) prototype
c) incremental Answer: d
d) agile Explanation: The requirements are broken down
View Answer for ease of implementation. Hardware and software
requirements are identified and designed
Answer: b accordingly.
Explanation: Prototype is the demo implementation
so that the customer gets a brief idea of his 6. What do you call a technical person who is
product. It is generally used when the customer capable of understanding the basic requirements?
requirements are not clear. a) team leader
b) analyst
2. Maintenance is the final phase in waterfall c) engineer
model. d) stakeholder
a) True View Answer
b) False
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: The person is called an analyst. An
Answer: a analyst is a software engineering who is
Explanation: The statement is true. This is the responsible for requirements gathering.
phase in which the completed software product is
handed over to the client. 7. A step in waterfall model that involves a
meeting with the customer to understand the
3. A stage in which individual components are requirements.
integrated and ensured that they are error-free to a) Requirement Gathering
meet customer requirements. b) SRS
a) Coding c) Implementation
b) Testing d) Customer review
c) Design View Answer
d) Implementation
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: A waterfall model involves
Answer: b requirement gathering as its first step. This is the
Explanation: Hardware and software components most important phase. It is important to understand
are tested individually. Testing stage in which the customer requirements.
individual components are integrated and ensured
that they are error-free to meet customer 8. Methodology in which project management
requirements. processes were step-by step.
a) Incremental
4. ___________ is a step in which design is b) Waterfall
translated into machine-readable form. c) Spiral
a) Design d) Prototyping
b) Conversion View Answer
c) Debugging
d) Coding Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Waterfall model is based on step-by
step completion of the project. Every step is done
Answer: d individually.
Explanation: Coding is the step in which design in
translated into machine-readable form. If design is 9. An individual who plans and directs the work.
efficient, coding can be done effectively. a) Stakeholder
b) Project manager
5. The customer requirements are broken down c) Team leader
into logical modules for ease of _______________ d) Programmer
a) inheritance View Answer
b) design
118
 Answer: b 4. Locating or identifying the bugs is known as
Explanation: Project planner is the one who plans ___________
and designs the project. Team leader is the one a) Design
who provides guidance, instruction, direction and b) Testing
leadership to a group of individuals. c) Debugging
d) Coding
10. A planned program if work that requires a View Answer
definitive amount of time, effort and planning to
complete. Answer: b
a) Problem Explanation: Testing is conducted by the testers.
b) Project They locate or identify the bugs. In debugging
c) Process developer fixes the bug. Coding is done by the
d) Program developers.
View Answer
5. Which defines the role of software?
Answer: b a) System design
Explanation: The answer is Project. A project is a b) Design
program which is something which is planned and c) System engineering
needs effort and time to complete. d) Implementation
View Answer
1. A set of activities that ensure that software
correctly implements a specific function. Answer: c
a) verification Explanation: The answer is system engineering.
b) testing System engineering defines the role of software.
c) implementation
d) validation 6. What do you call testing individual
View Answer components?
a) system testing
Answer: a b) unit testing
Explanation: Verification ensures that software c) validation testing
correctly implements a specific function. It is a d) black box testing
static practice of verifying documents. View Answer

2. Validation is computer based. Answer: b

a) True Explanation: The testing strategy is called unit
b) False testing. It ensures a function properly works as a
View Answer unit.

Answer: a 7. A testing strategy that test the application as a

Explanation: The statement is true. Validation is a whole.
computer based process. It uses methods like black a) Requirement Gathering
box testing, gray box testing, etc. b) Verification testing
c) Validation testing
3. ___________ is done in the development phase d) System testing
by the debuggers. View Answer
a) Coding
b) Testing Answer: d
c) Debugging Explanation: Validation testing tests the
d) Implementation application as a whole against the user
View Answer requirements. In system testing, it tests the
application in the context of an entire system.
Answer: c
Explanation: Coding is done by the developers. In 8. A testing strategy that tests the application in
debugging, the developer fixes the bug in the the context of an entire system.
development phase. Testing is conducted by the a) System
testers. b) Validation
c) Unit

119
d) Gray box abstraction involves hiding the details and giving
View Answer only the necessary information to the user.

Answer: a 3. The process of forming a new class from an

Explanation: In system testing, it tests the existing class.
application in the context of an entire system. The a) Abstraction
software and other system elements are tested as a b) Polymorphism
whole. c) Inheritance
d) Implementation
9. A ________ is tested to ensure that information View Answer
properly flows into and out of the system.
a) module interface Answer: c
b) local data structure Explanation: The answer is inheritance. The base
c) boundary conditions class is the parent class and the new class is called
d) paths the child class.
View Answer
4. This concept allows routines to use data again
Answer: a at different times.
Explanation: A module interface is tested to ensure a) Abstraction
that information properly flows into and out of the b) Polymorphism
system. c) Inheritance
d) Implementation
10. A testing conducted at the developer’s site View Answer
under validation testing.
a) alpha Answer: b
b) gamma Explanation: Polymorphism is a concept in OOP
c) lambda wherein different functions can be used again at
d) unit different times.
View Answer
5. The ability for programmers to use the same
Answer: a written and debugged existing class.
Explanation: Alpha testing is conducted at a) Reusability
developer’s site. It is conducted by customer in b) Design
developer’s presence before software delivery. c) Debugging
d) Implementation
1. A ______________ represents the need of View Answer
information in the program without the presenting
the details. Answer: a
a) abstraction Explanation: The programmer can add features to
b) polymorphism the existing class. The programmer on further
c) implementation developing the application, and allowing users to
d) class achieve increased performance.
View Answer
6. A concept that combines data and functions
Answer: a into a single unit called class.
Explanation: Abstraction is a concept that involves a) inheritance
hiding the details and giving only the necessary b) encapsulation
information to the user. It increases the power of a c) polymorphism
programming language. d) abstraction
View Answer
2. Abstraction combines the data and functions
into a single unit called a class. Answer: b
a) True Explanation: Encapsulation enables the important
b) False concept of data hiding possible. It combines data
View Answer and functions into a single unit.

Answer: b 7. __________ represents a particular instance of

Explanation: The statement is false. Data a class.
120
a) module D
CONFIG.SYS
b) block .
c) object E
None of the above
d) token .
View Answer
Answer: Option A
Answer: c
Explanation: An object is an instance of the class. Explanation:
The data members are accessed with the help of
objects. No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss.
8. A basic unit of object-oriented programming. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
a) module Report
b) block
c) object 2 What could cause a fixed disk error.
d) token . A
View Answer No-CD installed
.
B
bad ram
Answer: c .
Explanation: In OOP, the basic unit is an object. C
slow processor
Objects are identified by its unique name. .
D
Incorrect CMOS settings
9. A procedural programming follows .
___________ approach. E
None of the above
a) top-down .
b) bottom-up
c) left-right Answer: Option D
d) right-left
View Answer Explanation:

Answer: a No answer description available for this

Explanation: A procedural programming follows question. Let us discuss.
top-down approach. The main focus is on the View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
functions. It has a lot of global variable. Report

10. A programming technique in which the focus 3 Missing slot covers on a computer can cause?
is on doing things. . A
over heat
a) object oriented .
b) procedural B
power surges
c) logical .
d) structural C
EMI.
View Answer .
D
incomplete path for ESD
Answer: b .
Explanation: In procedural programming, the focus E
None of the above
is on doing things(functions). It follows top-down .
approach.
Answer: Option A
Computer Hardware:
Explanation:
1 From what location are the 1st computer
. instructions available on boot up? No answer description available for this
A question. Let us discuss.
ROM BIOS
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
B Report
CPU
.
C 4 When installing PCI NICS you can check the
boot.ini
. . IRQ availability by looking at
121
 A A
dip switches clusters
. .
B B
CONFIG.SYS sectors
. .
C C
jumper settings vectors
. .
D D
motherboard BIOS heads
. .
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option D Answer: Option B

Explanation: Explanation:

No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Report

5 With respect to a network interface card, the 8 A wrist grounding strap contains which of the
. term 10/100 refers to . following:
A A
protocol speed Surge protector
. .
B B
a fiber speed Capacitor
. .
C C
megabits per seconds Voltmeter
. .
D D
minimum and maximum server speed Resistor
. .
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option C Answer: Option D

6 Which Motherboard form factor uses one 20 pin
. connector Explanation:
A
ATX
. No answer description available for this
B question. Let us discuss.
AT
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
C Report
BABY AT
.
D 9 Which standard govern parallel
All of the above
. . communications?
E A
None of the above RS232
. .
B
Answer: Option A RS-232a
.
C
CAT 5
Explanation: .
D
IEEE 1284
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
None of the above
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option D
7 A hard disk is divided into tracks which are
. further subdivided into:
122
 Explanation: Explanation:

No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Report

10 In laser printer technology, what happens 13 To view any currently running Terminate Stay
. during the conditioning stage? . Resident (TSR's) programs you could type:
AThe corona wire places a uniform positive A
Memory
. charge on the paper .
BA uniform negative charge is placed on the B
MEM
. photosensitive drum .
CA uniform negative charge is placed on the C
SYS /M
. toner .
D D
All of the above Memmaker
. .
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option B Answer: Option B

11 What product is used to clean smudged keys on
. a keyboard? Explanation:
A
TMC solvent
. No answer description available for this
B question. Let us discuss.
Silicone spray
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
C Report
Denatured alcohol
.
D 14 Which type of system board is the MOST
All-purpose cleaner
. . likely candidate for processor upgrading if you
E want maximum performance and future
None of the above
. compatibility?
A
Answer: Option D ML
.
B
PCI
Explanation: .
C
ISA
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. D
EISA
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report E
None of the above
.
12 ESD would cause the most damage to which
. component? Answer: Option B
A
Power supply
. Explanation:
B
Expansion board
. No answer description available for this
C question. Let us discuss.
Monitor
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
D Report
Keyboard
.
E 15 Suppose that you have a the maintenance
None of the above
. . package identifies several possible field
replaceable units (FRUs) that will resolve the
Answer: Option B problem. What should you do after turning the
power off?
123
 Replace the indicated parts, one at a time in
A
the recommended sequence, until the problem 19 Voltage is measured:
.
is resolved; return unused FRUs to stock . A
in parallel
Replace all of the indicated FRUs at once and .
B
return the machine to the customer if the B
. in series
problem is resolved .
Follow the same procedure as in ays replace C
after breaking the circuit
the system board first if it is on the list of .
C
possible FRUs If multiple FRUs are indicated, D
. after checking resistance
then software is the most likely source of the .
problem E
after checking current
D .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
17 Which peripheral port provides the FASTEST Explanation:
. throughput to laser printers?
A No answer description available for this
RS-232
. question. Let us discuss.
B View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
SCSI
. Report
C
Parallel
. 20 Your customer tells you the print quality of
D . their dot matrix printer is light then dark. Which
Serial
. of the following could cause the problem.
E A
None of the above Paper slippage
. .
B
Answer: Option C Improper ribbon advancement
.
C
Paper thickness
Explanation: .
D
Head position
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
None of the above
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option B
18 The mouse pointer moves erratically, what is 21 The 34-pin connection on an I/O card is for?
. the possible cause? The mouse . A
Floppy drive
A .
ball is dirty
. B
SCSI drive
B .
is not connected
. C
IDE drive
C .
driver is not installed properly
. D
Zip drive
D .
has an incorrect IRQ setting
. E
None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
question. Let us discuss. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Report
124
 22 The terms "red book", "yellow book", and
. "orange book" refer to: Answer: Option E
A
SCSI
. Explanation:
B
ide
. No answer description available for this
C question. Let us discuss.
floppy drive technology
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
D Report
CD-ROM standards
.
E 25 To view any currently running Terminate Stay
All of the above
. . Resident (TSR's) programs you could type:
A
Answer: Option D Memory
.
B
Explanation: MEM
.
C
SYS /M
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. D
Memmaker
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report E
None of the above
.
23 On the 16-bit ISA bus, IRQ2 is elevated to
. which higher level Interrupt? Answer: Option B
A 26 Which part of the laser printer should NOT be
9
. . exposed to sunlight?
B A
11 Transfer corona assembly
. .
C B
13 PC drum
. .
D C
15 Primary corona wire
. .
E D
None of the above Toner cartridge
. .
E
None of the above
Answer: Option A .

Explanation: Answer: Option B

No answer description available for this Explanation:

question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace No answer description available for this
Report question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
24 What beep codes could indicate a system board Report
. or power supply failure?
A 27 After doing a low-level format, what would be
steady short beep
. . the next step in configuring the hard drive in a
B system?
no beep
. A
C Format DOS partition
one long continuous beep tone .
. B
D Install operating system
steady long beeps .
. CConfigure DMA channel and back-up
E . interrupt
All of the above
. D
Partition had disk
.
ENone of the above
125
 . B
An unused SCSI address
.
Answer: Option A CThe same address as the SCSI device before
. the CD-ROM
Explanation: D
SCSI ID=1
.
No answer description available for this E
None of the above
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Answer: Option B
31 Pick the correct choice for the 80386SXCPU.
28 Resistance is measured in ? . A
16 bit word size, 16 bit data path
. A .
Volts B
. 32 bit word size, 16 bit data path
B .
Amps C
. 8 bit word size, 32 bit data path
C .
Watts D
. 32 bit word size, 8 bit data path
D .
Ohms E
. 32 bit word size, 32 bit data path
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
question. Let us discuss. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Report
32 In Inkjet technology the droplets of ink are
29 What command is used to reset a MODEM . deflected by?
. when using the "AT Command Set"? A
multi directional nozzles
A .
ATR B
. electronically charged plates
B .
ATZ C
. high pressure plates
C .
DTR D
. electro static absorbtion
D .
DCE E
. None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
question. Let us discuss. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Report
33 When your hard drive crashes from any of the
30 When installing a SCSI CD-ROM drive, you . correct selections in the question above, or from
. must set the CD-ROM SCSI adapter to: dropping it, it is known as head-to-disk
A interference, or HDL
B0007 ATrue
.
126
 . .
B E
False None of the above
. .

Answer: Option A Answer: Option D

Explanation: Explanation:

No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Report

34 What tool is used to test serial and parallel 37 What voltage does a Pentium system use?
. ports? . A
+12 volts
A .
high volt probe
. B
+ 5 volts
B .
cable scanner
. C
+ 8 volts
C .
loop backs (wrap plugs)
. D
+3.3 volts
D .
sniffer
. E
None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
question. Let us discuss. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Report
38 A numeric error code check: A 17xx indicates a
35 ESD would cause the most damage to which . problem with:
. component? A
CMOS
A .
Power supply
. B
ROM BIOS
B .
Expansion board
. C
DMA controller
C .
Monitor
. D
hard drive or controller
D .
Keyboard
. E
power supply
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
36 What is the highest binary number that can be Explanation:
. referred to on a three position jumper block?
A No answer description available for this
4
. question. Let us discuss.
B View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
6
. Report
C
F
. 39 Which provides the fastest access to large
D1 . video files?
127
 A .
Optical drives
. B
press alt + Ctrl + delete, and end task
B .
IDE hard drives
. C
press the reset button on the computer
C .
SCSI hard drives
. D
turn off computer and boot from a floppy disk
D .
EIDE hard drives
. E
None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
question. Let us discuss. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Report
43 RS-232 is a standard that applies to:
40 A 25-pin female connector on the back of your . A
serial ports
. computer will typically be: .
A B
Serial port 1 parallel ports
. .
B C
A parallel port game ports
. .
C D
Docking networks
. .
D E
COM2 port digital frequencies
. .
E
None of the above
. Answer: Option A

Answer: Option B Explanation:

41 On the PC side, the printer port is a:
. A No answer description available for this
25 pin female serial connector
. question. Let us discuss.
B View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
15 pin female parallel connector
. Report
C
25 pin male serial connector
. 44 You just installed a new IDE hard drive, but
D . your system BIOS will not recognize the new
15 pin female serial connector
. drive, what should you check first.
E A
25 pin female parallel connector cable sequence
. .
B
Answer: Option E jumpers on the hard drive
.
C
drivers that need to be loaded
Explanation: .
D
hard drive manufacturer web site information
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
None of the above
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option B
42 You were installing an application in Windows
. 95, and the computer crashes, what do you do? Explanation:
Apress alt + Ctrl + delete, twice
128
 No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
question. Let us discuss. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Report
48 What is the first thing you could do to check
45 During boot-up, the memory test: . for damage to a printer after receiving it?
. A A
Is a superfluous step that should be ignored Run MSD diagnostics
. .
BChecks and verifies that contiguous memory B
Attach it to a PC and print something
. is installed .
C C
Is an operational error Check the cables
. .
DDisplays what memory is installed, but D
Unbox it and examine it for physical damage
. nothing else .
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option B Answer: Option D

46 What is the best ground for a conductive work
. bench? Explanation:
A
AC outlet
. No answer description available for this
B question. Let us discuss.
Ground to bend
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
C Report
To another device
.
D 49 You have a system that periodically locks up.
Chassis ground
. . You have ruled out software, and now suspect
E that it is hardware. What should you do first that
None of the above
. could help you narrow it down to the component
at fault?
Answer: Option A A
rotate the RAM
.
Explanation: B
replace the RAM
.
No answer description available for this C
replace the level 2 cache SIMM
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace D
disable the CPU cache in CMOS
Report .
E
replace the CPU
47 Topically, how many type III PC cards can you .
. insert in a laptop
A Answer: Option D
1
. 1. What's the best way to protect your hard drive
B data?
2
. A
regular backups
C .
3
. B
periodically defrag it
D .
4
. C
run chkdsk at least once a week
E .
None of the above
. D
run scandisk at least once a week
.
Answer: Option A E
run a regular diagnostic
.
Explanation:
Answer: Option A
No answer description available for this
129
 Explanation: C
Uses expanded memory on a 80386 processor
.
No answer description available for this D
Supports code page switching
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace E
None of the above
Report .

2 On a dot matrix printer, you should never Answer: Option B

. lubricate which part?
A Explanation:
carriage rails
.
B No answer description available for this
printhead pins
. question. Let us discuss.
C View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
paper advance bearings
. Report
D
carriage bearings
. 5 _____ help prevent power surges.
E . A
None of the above Surge suppressor
. .
B
Answer: Option B Spike protector
.
C
UPS system
Explanation: .
D
High-grade multi-meter
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
None of the above
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option A
3 How many devices can be used on a single SCSI 6 The digital multimeter is set for DC, Ohm and
. bus? Keep in mind that the SCSI host adapter . 20k. You will read _____ while measuring a
counts as a device. good 2 amp fuse.
A A
1 0.00
. .
B B
8 0.02
. .
C C
20 0.20
. .
D D
10 2.00
. .
E E
All of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option B Answer: Option A

Explanation: Explanation:

No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
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Report Report

4 Match the device driver HIMEM.SYS to its 7 An anti static strap uses a small _____ to make
. operation. . sure you do not become the least path of
A resistance to the ground?
Supports (ANSI) terminal emulation
. A
capacitor
B .
Manages the use of extended memory
. Bdiode
130
 . question. Let us discuss.
C View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
transistor
. Report
D
resistor
. 10 Which values are held in CMOS for the hard
E . drive
None of the above
. A
size (heads, cylinders, sectors)
.
Answer: Option D B
IRQ
.
Explanation: C
Free space
.
No answer description available for this D
Virus alert
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace E
None of the above
Report .

8 If the memory slots have 30 pins then the chip is Answer: Option A
. a? 11 Which of the following would be a logical first
A . step in troubleshooting a PC?
DIMM A
. Check the computer CMOS
B .
SIMM B
. Define the circumstances of the problem
C .
SDRAM C
. Call the vendor
D .
All of the above D
. Define what applications are being used
E .
None of the above E
. None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. No answer description available for this
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace question. Let us discuss.
Report View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report
9 Laser Jet printer speeds are measured in pages
. per minute (ppm) what do we use to measure dot- 12 Which DOS driver is used to emulate expanded
matrix printers? . memory?
A A
lines per inch Himem.sys
. .
B B
lines per sheet EMM386.exe
. .
C C
characters per inch Mem386.sys
. .
D D
characters per second Ramdrive.sys
. .
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option D Answer: Option B

Explanation: Explanation:

No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
131
 question. Let us discuss. E
None of the above
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option C
13 For a Macintosh to print successfully, the 16 When is the risk for electrostatic discharge the
. System Folder must contain: . greatest?
A A
File sharing software Day time
. .
B B
A printer enabler High humidity
. .
C C
The apple Garamond font set Low humidity
. .
D D
A printer driver Night time
. .
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option D Answer: Option C

Explanation: Explanation:

No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
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Report Report

14 Which component must be vacuumed or 17 A modem could be attached to which port?

. replaced during preventative maintenance on a . A
laser printer? Parallel port
.
A B
Scanning mirror ASYNC port
. .
B C
Toner cartridge Keyboard connector
. .
C D
Ozone filter Video port
. .
D E
All of the above None of the above
. .
E
None of the above
. Answer: Option A

Answer: Option C Explanation:

Explanation: No answer description available for this

question. Let us discuss.
No answer description available for this View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
question. Let us discuss. Report
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report 18 What device prevents power interruptions,
. resulting in corrupted data?
15 Which device uses a DMA channel? A
. A Battery back-up unit
Modem .
. B
B Surge protector
Network Card .
. C
C Multiple SIMMs strips
Sound Card .
. D
D Data guard system
All of the above .
. ENone of the above
132
 .
Answer: Option E
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
question. Let us discuss. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Report
22 What is the highest binary number that can be
19 SCSI must be terminated with? . referred to on a three position jumper block?
. A A
Dip switch 4
. .
B B
Resistor 6
. .
C C
BNC F
. .
D D
All of the above 1
. .
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option B Answer: Option D

Explanation: Explanation:

No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
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Report Report

20 In a computer with an eide adapter, where 23 During boot-up, the memory test:
. should you connect an ATA CD-ROM drive? . A
Is a superfluous step that should be ignored
A .
on the floppy bus
. BChecks and verifies that contiguous memory
B . is installed
on the primary IDE
. C
Is an operational error
C .
on the secondary IDE
. DDisplays what memory is installed, but
D . nothing else
on the SCSI bus
. E
None of the above
E .
All of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
21 What's the best way to prevent damaging your Explanation:
. PC with static electricity?
A No answer description available for this
place your PC on a rubber mat
. question. Let us discuss.
B View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
wear leather soled shoes
. Report
Cperiodically touch a safe ground point on the
. PC to discharge yourself 24 IRQ6 is typically reserved for:
D . A
static electricity doesn't really hurt a PC The floppy
. .
E B
wear an ESD wrist strap The keyboard controller
. .
133
 C CThe map statement is not in the autoexec.bat
LPT2
. . file
D D
The modem The last drive was not set correctly
. .
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option A Answer: Option C

Explanation: Explanation:

No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
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Report Report

25 Which would you do first when 28 What do you need to check serial and parallel
. troubleshooting a faulty monitor? . port?
ACheck its connections to the computer and A
Port adapter
. power source .
BUse a meter to check the CRT and internal B
Logic probe
. circuitry for continuity .
CPower down the monitor, then turn it on again C
Loopback plug
. to see if that corrects the problem .
DPower down the computer, then turn it on D
All of the above
. again to see if that corrects the problem .
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option A Answer: Option C

26 To install a second IDE drive into a computer,
. you must: Explanation:
ASet the master-slave jumper to slave on the
. second drive No answer description available for this
BUse the IDE configuration software to set the question. Let us discuss.
. new drive as slave View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
CVerify that you define the new drive as D: in Report
. the CMOS setup
DVerify that you attach the drive to the 29 You have a PC with no video* Which of the
. connector at the end of the ribbon cable . following is LEAST likely to be causing the
E problem?
None of the above
. A
defective RAM (bank zero)
.
Answer: Option A B
defective microprocessor
.
Explanation: C
crashed hard drive
.
No answer description available for this D
loose video card
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace E
low AC outlet power
Report .

27 Why does a successfully mapped network drive Answer: Option C

. disappear every time you boot the computer?
AThe computer you are connected to has Explanation:
. moved
B No answer description available for this
You didn't click reconnect on log on
. question. Let us discuss.
134
 View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Report

30 To test for AC ripple on a PC power supply, 33 When measuring AC (Alternating Current)

. you would set the volt/ohm meter for: . with a multimeter, it is important to maintain the
A proper polarity.
DC voltage scale
. A
True
B .
AC voltage
. B
False
C .
OHM scale
.
D Answer: Option B
Farad scale
.
E Explanation:
None of the above
.
No answer description available for this
Answer: Option B question. Let us discuss.
31 You get a CMOS checksum error during View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
. bootup. What is most likely the cause? Report
A
power supply is bad
. 34 After trying to unload a TSR, you get an error
B . message saying that other TSRs were loaded
BIOS needs updating
. after the one you tried to remove. Which of the
C following commands could you use to see the
CMOS battery is nearing end of life
. current load order?
D A
hard drive types are incorrectly defined MEM /P
. .
E B
None of the above MEMMAKER
. .
C
Answer: Option C MEM /C
.
D
SYS:
Explanation: .
E
None of the above
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Answer: Option D
Report
Explanation:
32 On the 16-bit ISA bus, IRQ2 is elevated to
. which higher level interrupt? No answer description available for this
A question. Let us discuss.
9
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
B Report
11
.
C 35 What is a common language that computers use
13
. . to talk with one another on a network
D A
15 client
. .
E B
None of the above adapter
. .
C
Answer: Option A protocol
.
D
operating systems
Explanation: .
E
None of the above
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss.
135
 Explanation:
Answer: Option C
36 When measuring AC (Alternating Current) No answer description available for this
. with a multimeter, it is important to maintain the question. Let us discuss.
proper polarity. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
A Report
True
.
B 39 What could cause a fixed disk error?
False
. . A
No-CD installed
.
Answer: Option B B
Bad RAM
.
Explanation: C
Slow processor
.
No answer description available for this D
Incorrect CMOS settings
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace E
None of the above
Report .

37 Which DOS driver is used to emulate expanded Answer: Option D

. memory?
A Explanation:
Himem.sys
.
B No answer description available for this
EMM386.exe
. question. Let us discuss.
C View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Mem386.sys
. Report
D
Ramdrive.sys
. 40 ESD potential decreases with the use of:
E . A
None of the above De-ionizing fans
. .
B
A wrist strap
Answer: Option B .
C
Rubber gloves with matching cap
Explanation: .
D
A static meter
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
None of the above
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option B
38 Which should you use for cleaning Mylar- 41 Which of the following FRUs would be
. protected LCD screens? . considered both an input/output device?
A A
Ammonia window cleaner Video board
. .
B B
Non-abrasive cleanser SCSI host adapter
. .
C C
Anti-static wipes System board CPU
. .
D D
Alcohol-impregnated wipes All of the above
. .
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option B Answer: Option B

Explanation:

136
 No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
None of the above
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option B
42 A COM port is a _____ port.
. A Explanation:
parallel
.
B No answer description available for this
serial
. question. Let us discuss.
C View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
static
. Report
D
multi
. 45 What is the most significant difference between
E . the USB and IEEE1394 standards?
SCSI
. A
IEEE 1394 is faster
.
Answer: Option B B
USB does not support USB
.
Explanation: C
USB is plug and play
.
No answer description available for this D
IEEE 1394 is hot swappable
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace E
None of the above
Report .

43 Which device is on IRQ 6? Answer: Option A

. A 41 Which of the following FRUs would be
Keyboard
. . considered both an input/output device?
B A
IDE Video board
. .
C B
Floppy drive SCSI host adapter
. .
D C
Video card System board CPU
. .
E D
None of the above All of the above
. .
E
None of the above
Answer: Option C .

Explanation: Answer: Option B

No answer description available for this Explanation:

question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace No answer description available for this
Report question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
44 A system has two IDE hard drives that are each Report
. divided into primary and extended partitions,
which drive letter is assigned to the primary 42 A COM port is a _____ port.
partition of the second drive? . A
A parallel
C .
. B
B serial
D .
. C
C static
E .
. D
DF multi
.
137
 E . the USB and IEEE1394 standards?
SCSI
. A
IEEE 1394 is faster
.
Answer: Option B B
USB does not support USB
.
Explanation: C
USB is plug and play
.
No answer description available for this D
IEEE 1394 is hot swappable
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace E
None of the above
Report .

43 Which device is on IRQ 6? Answer: Option A

. A 46 When connecting two internal SCSI hard disks
Keyboard . to a computer, where do you connect the second
.
B hard drive?
IDE A
. Any open SCSI port on the computer
C .
Floppy drive B
. A Serial port on the first host adapter
D .
Video card C
. An open parallel port on the computer
E .
None of the above D
. An open SCSI port on the first hard drive
.
Answer: Option C E
None of the above
.
Explanation:
Answer: Option A
No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. Explanation:
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss.
44 A system has two IDE hard drives that are each View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
. divided into primary and extended partitions, Report
which drive letter is assigned to the primary
partition of the second drive? 47 When connecting a ribbon cable to a connector,
A . how do you know which direction to plug it in?
C AThe red line in the cable goes to the highest
.
B . pin number
D B
. The colored line in the cable goes to pin #1
C .
E C
. It does not matter
D .
F DThe blue or red line in the cable goes away
.
E . from the power connector
None of the above E
. None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. No answer description available for this
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace question. Let us discuss.
Report View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report
45What is the most significant difference between
138
 48 What is the first step in diagnosing a 2 Modems use transmission.
. completely dead computer at the client site that . A
synchronous
was working the day before. .
A B
Test the power supply asynchronous
. .
B C
replace the CMOS battery timed interval
. .
C D
check the AC outlet ata
. .
D E
reseat the hard drive controller cable bank
. .
E
None of the above
. Answer: Option B

Answer: Option C Explanation:

Explanation: No answer description available for this

question. Let us discuss.
No answer description available for this View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
question. Let us discuss. Report
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report 3 A 6xx indicates a problem with the:
. A
floppy drive
49 What specification covers PC hard cards? .
. A B
SCSI hard drive
. .
B C
ISA keyboard
. .
C D
PCMCIA CD ROM
. .
D E
MFM All of the above
. .
E
None of the above
. Answer: Option A

Answer: Option C Explanation:

1. Which common bus specification provides the
fastest data transfer rate? No answer description available for this
A question. Let us discuss.
VL bus
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
B Report
ISA
.
C 4 A sound card typically uses which IRQ?
PCI
. . A
D 6
All of the above .
. B
E 5
None of the above .
. C
15
.
Answer: Option C D
1
.
Explanation: E
it doesn't use an IRQ
.
No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. Answer: Option B
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Explanation:

139
 No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
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Report Report

5 During preventative maintenance on a dot 8 What expansion types do most pll/plll

. matrix printer, do NOT lubricate: . motherboards support?
A A
Platen assembly MCA, PCI
. .
B B
Print head pulley ISA, EISA
. .
C C
Print head pins ISA, PCI, AGP
. .
D D
Paper advance gear bushings ISA, VESA, PCI
. .
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option C Answer: Option C

6 You see the message "invalid media device"
. after installing a new hard drive. What do you do Explanation:
next?
A No answer description available for this
Format
. question. Let us discuss.
B View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Fdisk
. Report
C
Partition
. 9 When installing an internal modem, all of the
D . following IRQ's can be used except?
Add the OS
. A
E 5
None of the above .
. B
10
.
Answer: Option A C
14
.
Explanation: D
All of the above
.
No answer description available for this E
None of the above
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Answer: Option C

7 What is the modem hang up command? Explanation:

. A
ATHU
. No answer description available for this
B question. Let us discuss.
ATH
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
C Report
ATZ
.
D 10 An IRQ allow interface cards to:
ATX
. . A
E Interrupt the CPU to request service
None of the above .
. B
Pass data to the CPU to be processed
.
Answer: Option B C
Pass data from one card to another
.
Explanation: D
Pass data to the computers memory
.
140
 E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
11 A workstation has just been installed on an Explanation:
. Ethernet LAN, but cannot communicate with the
network. What should you check first? No answer description available for this
A question. Let us discuss.
reinstall the network protocols
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
B Report
reinstall the network interface card driver
.
C 14 The ESD wrist strap is designed to protect PC
verify the ip configuration on the workstation
. . Components or Service Technicians ?
Dverify the link status on the computer's A
. network card PC Components
.
E B
None of the above Service Technicians
. .
C
Answer: Option D Both
.

Explanation: Answer: Option C

No answer description available for this Explanation:

question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace No answer description available for this
Report question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
12 One of the major components of a PC is the Report
. Central Processing Unit (CPU) which can be
best described as: 15 You can have EISA and MCA devices in the
AThe device that sends the monitor signals . same PC.
. telling it what to display A
BThe area that regulates all of the system True
.
. power usage B
CThe area where ail the of the Basic False
.
. input/output routines are stored
DThe area where all of the processing takes Answer: Option B
. place 16 The floppy drive uses which DMA (direct
E . memory access) channel?
None of the above
. A
5
.
Answer: Option D B
4
.
Explanation: C
1
.
No answer description available for this D
9
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace E
2
Report .

13 What is the i/o address for com2? Answer: Option E

. A
2vb
. Explanation:
B
2f8
. No answer description available for this
C question. Let us discuss.
8f8
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
D330
141
 Report View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report
17 The DC voltage on most circuit boards is:
. A 20 What device protects against line deficiencies?
-12 volts
. . A
Surge protector
B .
0 volts
. B
UPS
C .
+5 volts
. C
Logic probe
D .
+12 volts
. D
Capacitor
E .
None of the above
. E
None of the above
.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
Explanation: 21 Which monitor would provide the highest level
. of performance?
No answer description available for this A
VGA
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace B
XGA
Report .
C
CGA
18 A customer attached an external drive to his .
. notebook computer but the computer is not D
SVGA
recognizing it. What should be considered? .
A E
The cables are attached firmly None of the above
. .
BThe external drive has been pre¬loaded with
. the appropriate software Answer: Option D
CThe external drive was attached before the
. computer was on Explanation:
D
The external drive is turned on
. No answer description available for this
E question. Let us discuss.
All of the above
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report
Answer: Option E
22 Which of the following items would require
Explanation: . you to comply with EPA disposal guidelines?
A
Keyboard
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. B
System board
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report C
Power supply
.
19 "Parity" errors usually indicate bad memory. D
Battery
. A .
True E
. None of the above
B .
False
.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
question. Let us discuss. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
142
 Report
Answer: Option B
23 A hard disk is divided into tracks which are 26 Which step should you perform first before
. further subdivided into: . discharging a CRT?
A A
clusters Remove the CRT from its housing
. .
B B
sectors Disconnect the CRT from the computer
. .
C C
vectors Remove the video assembly
. .
D DTurn power off before removing power
heads
. . source
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option B Answer: Option D

Explanation: Explanation:

No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Report

24 What is the paper feeding technology most 27 A capacitor is measured in which of the
. commonly associated with dot-matrix printers? . following units?
A A
sheet feed Volts
. .
B B
tractor feed Ohms
. .
C C
friction feed Farads
. .
D D
manual feed Resistance
. .
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option B Answer: Option C

Explanation: Explanation:

No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
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Report Report

25 COM1 is typically represented by which of the 28 UART is a type of serial chip. Its letters stand
. following? . for:
A A
15 pin port unidirectional access regarding transmission
. .
B B
9 pin male port universal asynchronous receiver/ transmitter
. .
C C
9 pin female port upper advanced real transfer
. .
D D
25 pin male port unable all restore t-bits
. .
E E
None of the above use all ROM types
. .
143
 .
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. No answer description available for this
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace question. Let us discuss.
Report View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report
29 A system has two IDE hard drives that are each
. divided into primary and extended partitions, 32 In the Binary numbering system, a (1)
which drive letter is assigned to the primary . represents a jumper being shorted and a (0)
partition of the second drive? represents a jumper being open. On a three-bit
A jumper block on a SCSI drive, how would an ID
C
. of logical 3 be set?
B A
D 100
. .
C B
E 010
. .
D C
F 011
. .
E D
None of the above . 101
. .
E
None of the above
Answer: Option B .

Explanation: Answer: Option C

No answer description available for this Explanation:

question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace No answer description available for this
Report question. Let us discuss.
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30 What would you ask to determine if the display Report
. is working?
AIs there a video cursor or action on the 33 After installing a sound card, the system locks
. screen? . up when a parallel port tape backup unit is also
B used. What is most likely the problem?
Did the computer beep or chime?
. A
IRQ
C .
Is there high voltage static on the screen
. B
DMA
D .
All of the above
. C
defective LPT port
E .
None of the above
. D
defective tape driver
.
Answer: Option D E
defective sound card.
31 Your CD-ROM audio cable connects to the: .
. A
speaker
. Answer: Option A
Bsound card (or motherboard if sound is
. integrated with it) Explanation:
C
power supply
. No answer description available for this
D question. Let us discuss.
hard drive
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
EBIOS Report
144
 34 You are testing the resistance in Ohms of a fuse 37 In laser technology, what happens during the
. on a 15K amp system. If the fuse is good, the . transfer stage?
meter should read? AResidual toner is transferred to the waste
A . receptacle
0.0
. BThe laser transfers the image from the drum
B . to the paper
0.2
. CThe image is transferred from the drum to the
C . paper
5.0
. DA negative charge is transferred to the surface
D . of the drum
2.0
. E
None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
question. Let us discuss. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
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Report
38 _____ is the term used to refer to the process of
35 Type one PC cards: . two modems establishing communications with
. A each other.
are used only in desktops
. A
interacting
B .
are no longer being produced
. B
handshaking
C .
are the thinnest of the PC cards
. C
connecting
D .
don't exist
. D
linking
E .
have their own power source
. E
pinging
.
Answer: Option C
36 14.4 modem should transmit _____ bits per Answer: Option B
. second
A Explanation:
14,400-15,000
.
B No answer description available for this
140-150
. question. Let us discuss.
C View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
1400-1500
. Report
D
140,000-150,000
. 39 Resistance is measured in ohm.
E . A
None of the above True
. .
B
Answer: Option A False
.

Explanation: Answer: Option A

No answer description available for this Explanation:

question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace No answer description available for this
Report question. Let us discuss.
145
 View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace question. Let us discuss.
Report View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report
40 Suppose that the power lamp in on, but the
. printer will not print. What can you do to correct 43 Capacitance is measured in units of:
the problem? . A
volts
A .
Make sure the printer is on line
. B
amps
B .
Replace the AC line fuse
. C
farads
C .
Turn the printer on and off
. D
neutrinos
D .
Replace the ribbon
. E
anti-neutrinos
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
41 The ATAPI compliance is stands for? Explanation:
. A
CDROM
. No answer description available for this
B question. Let us discuss.
Bus mastering
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
C Report
Mass storage device
.
D 44 When not in use, it is very important to keep 5
All of the above
. . 1/4 diskettes in _____.
E A
None of the above Their protective sleeves
. .
B
Answer: Option C In a plastic bag
.
C
On a shelf in an upright position
Explanation: .
D
In the floppy drive
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
None of the above
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option A
42 A dialog box with a bomb appears on a
. Macintosh screen. What type of problem has Explanation:
occurred?
A No answer description available for this
A RAM problem
. question. Let us discuss.
B View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
A software problem
. Report
C
A ROM problem
. 45 What can you use to ensure power is not
D . interrupted, resulting in corrupted data?
An ADB problem
. A
E UPS
None of the above .
. B
Propergrounding
.
Answer: Option B C
Surge protector
.
Explanation: D
Sag protector
.
No answer description available for this ENone of the above
146
 . .
E
None of the above
Answer: Option A .
46 A 25-pin female connector on the back of your
. computer will typically be: Answer: Option A
A
Serial port 1
. Explanation:
B
A parallel port
. No answer description available for this
C question. Let us discuss.
Docking
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
D Report
COM2 port
.
E 49 What can you use to ensure power is not
None of the above
. . interrupted, resulting in corrupted data?
A
Answer: Option B UPS
.
B
Proper grounding
Explanation: .
C
Surge protector
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. DNuclear powered thermal protective
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace . underwear
Report E
None of the above
.
47 In the Binary numbering system, a (1)
. represents a jumper being shorted and a (0) Answer: Option A
represents a jumper being open. On a three-bit
jumper block on a SCSI drive, how would an ID Explanation:
of logical 3 be set?
A No answer description available for this
100
. question. Let us discuss.
B View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
010
. Report
C
011
. 50 The POST routine, which counts system board
D . RAM first, is stored in:
101
. A
E RAM
None of the above .
. B
microprocessor
.
Answer: Option C C
ROM BIOS
.
Explanation: D
CMOS
.
No answer description available for this E
8259 POST controller
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Answer: Option C
1. The digital multimeter is set for DC, Ohm and
48 _____ help prevent power surges. 20k. You will read _____ while measuring a
. A good 2 amp fuse.
Surge suppressor
. A
0.00
B .
Spike protector
. B
0.02
C .
UPS system
. C
0.20
DHigh-grade multi-meter .
147
 D . description for the printer driver
2.00
. A
Delete the spool file
E .
None of the above
. BRun regedit.exe and remove any reference to
. the printers
Answer: Option A CRun sysedit.exe and remove any reference to
. the printers
Explanation: D
Remove the printer driver and re¬install it
.
No answer description available for this E
None of the above
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Answer: Option D

2 IDE cables have how many pins? Explanation:

. A
25
. No answer description available for this
B question. Let us discuss.
50
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
C Report
100
.
D 5 An important first step in troubleshooting which
40
. . component in a laser printer is causing a jam is
E to:
65
. A
note where in the paper path the paper stops
.
Answer: Option D B
check all voltages
.
Explanation: C
look up error codes
.
No answer description available for this D
turn the printer off, then on again
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace E
remove the jammed paper
Report .

3 Which of the following statements is true? Answer: Option A

. Two SCSI devices connected to a computer 6 Which of the following items would require you
A . t.o comply with EPA disposal guidelines?
can have the same ID if they are both hard
. A
drives. Keyboard
B .
Each SCSI device must have its own ID B
. System board
C .
All SCSI devices must have the same ID C
. Power supply
D .
SCSI ID's are irrelevant D
. Battery
E .
None of the above E
. None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. No answer description available for this
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace question. Let us discuss.
Report View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report
4What is the recommended way to fix the registry
148
 7 What should you replace if the brightness or .
. contrast adjustments were malfunctioning on a
laptop? Answer: Option B
A
fuse
. Explanation:
B
led display
. No answer description available for this
C question. Let us discuss.
adjustment switch
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
D Report
led display cable
.
E 10 What IRQ is used for COM 2?
None of the above
. . A
4
.
Answer: Option B B
3
.
Explanation: C
2
.
No answer description available for this D
1
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace E
None of the above
Report .

8 One of the major components of a PC is the Answer: Option B

. Central Processing Unit (CPU) which can be best 11 What is the size of the reserved memory area?
described as: . A
AThe device that sends the monitor signals 64 kb
.
. telling it what to display B
BThe area that regulates all of the system power 384 kb
.
. usage C
CThe area where all the of the Basic input/output 640 kb
.
. routines are stored D
DThe area where all of the processing takes 1024 kb
.
. place E
E None of the above
None of the above .
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
question. Let us discuss. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
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Report
12 Which would you have to upgrade to install an
9 On a leased line installation a known good . EIDE drive?
. external modem shows no carrier detect light. A
Where is the problem most likely to be? RAM BIOS
.
A B
In the modem A 286 CPU
. .
B C
In the phone line Controller board
. .
C D
In the computer ISA motherboard
. .
D E
In the DTC equipment None of the above
. .
ENone of the above
149
 B
3bc
Answer: Option C .
C
5f8
Explanation: .
D
3f8
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
008
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option D
13 Dust in a computer actually increases the size 16 The monitor power LED is 'on' but the monitor
. of the magnetic fields inside it. This is not good, . screen is completely dark. The least likely cause
so you must occasionaiy dust, I trust. What's the of the problem is:
best way to do this? A
Defect in the computers video circuitry
A .
reverse vacuum B
. Disconnected video cable
B .
any small vacuum device C
. Defective monitor
C .
blow real hard on the system board D
. System RAM problem
D .
use a lint-free cloth and wipe gently E
. None of the above
E .
non-static compressed air
.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
question. Let us discuss. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
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Report
17 You are about to install a second IDE hard
14 A parity error usually indicates a problem with: . drive in a PC that has only one IDE adapter.
. A Your first hard drive will still be the boot drive.
memory How should the second drive be configured?
.
B A
hard drive as a master
. .
C B
hard drive controller as a secondary
. .
D C
I/O controller as a slave
. .
E D
power supply as a primary
. .
E
as auto-select
Answer: Option A .

Explanation: Answer: Option C

No answer description available for this Explanation:

question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace No answer description available for this
Report question. Let us discuss.
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15 What is the i/o address for com1? Report
. A
3e8 18What is your first action when windows reports
.
150
. that your hard drive is developing bad sectors? . A
ohms
A .
replace the hard drive
. B
farads
B .
run secclean from dos
. C
helids
C .
run defrag on the hard drive
. D
amperes
D .
run scandisk with the "thorough" option
. E
volts
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
question. Let us discuss. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
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Report
22 Which provides the fastest data access time?
19 In laser technology, what happens during the . A
RAM
. transfer stage? .
AResidual toner is transferred to the waste B
ROM
. receptacle .
BThe laser transfers the image from the drum C
CD-ROM
. to the paper. .
CThe image is transferred from the drum to the D
Hard disk
. paper .
DA negative charge is transferred to the surface E
Floppy disk
. of the drum .
E
None of the above
. Answer: Option A

Answer: Option C Explanation:

Explanation: No answer description available for this

question. Let us discuss.
No answer description available for this View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
question. Let us discuss. Report
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report 23 How is ink transferred to paper in common ink
. jet printers?
20 How many IRQs does a chain of USB devices A
Boiling ink
. require? .
A B
1 Crystal
. .
B C
2 Motorized pump
. .
C DScreens deflect ink on the paper into the
3
. . proper positions
D EInk is sprayed on to the paper and managed
4
. . by a nozzle
E
None of the above
. Answer: Option B

Answer: Option A Explanation:

21Resistance is measured in units of:
151
 No answer description available for this Explanation:
question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace No answer description available for this
Report question. Let us discuss.
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24 Which component must be vacuumed or Report
. replaced during preventative maintenance on a
laser printer? 27 A customer calls and says her computer won't
A . boot, she can hear noises and can see lights on
Scanning mirror
. the box, but nothing comes up on the screen,
B what should you take to the site to fix the
Toner cartridge
. problem?
C A
Ozone filter hard drive
. .
D B
All of the above video card
. .
E C
None of the above power cable
. .
D
power supply
Answer: Option C .
E
None of the above
Explanation: .

No answer description available for this Answer: Option B

question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Explanation:
Report
No answer description available for this
25 Which controller would support an external question. Let us discuss.
. CD-ROM drive? View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
A Report
ESDI
.
B 28 The DC voltage on most circuit boards is:
ARLL
. . A
C -12 volts
MFM .
. B
D 0 volts
SCSI .
. C
E +5 volts
None of the above .
. D
+12 volts
.
Answer: Option D E
None of the above
26 In inkjet printers, what is the most common .
. problem with the paper tray?
A Answer: Option C
inconsistent printing
.
B Explanation:
malfunctioning pick-up rollers
.
C No answer description available for this
misalignment of the sheet feeder
. question. Let us discuss.
D View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
paper jamming on the ink cartridge
. Report
E
None of the above
. 29 On a dot-matrix printer, regular lube
. maintenance should be followed, but this
Answer: Option B component should never be lubed:
A
Platten bearings
.
152
 B C
Carriage rails + 8 volts
. .
C D
Printhead +3.3 volts
. .
D E
Paper advance bearings None of the above
. .
E
None of the above
. Answer: Option B

Answer: Option C Explanation:

Explanation: No answer description available for this

question. Let us discuss.
No answer description available for this View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
question. Let us discuss. Report
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report 33 What action will correct patchy, faint, uneven
. or intermittent print on a dot matrix printer?
30 The buffers statement is found in what file? A
Replacing the ribbon
. A .
Config.sys
. B
Replacing the timing belt
B .
Autoexec.ncf
. C
Adjusting the paper feed tension
C .
Autoexec.bat
. D
Adjusting the tractor feed tension
D .
Neb.cfg
. E
None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
31 What configuration should a Volt-Ohm meter Explanation:
. he set to when testing a fuse?
A No answer description available for this
DC volts
. question. Let us discuss.
B View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
AC volts
. Report
C
Amperage
. 34 If the voltage on pin 1 of the power supply is
D . not in the range of _____ volts, the PC will not
Ohms
. boot.
E A
None of the above 10 - 20
. .
B
Answer: Option D 1-5
.
C
50 - 110
Explanation: .
D
15 - 25
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
2.5 - 5
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option E
32 What voltage does a 586 system use?
. A Explanation:
+12 volts
.
B No answer description available for this
+ 5 volts
. question. Let us discuss.
153
 View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Report

35 What are the most likely conditions for ESD? 38 In the DOS memory model, the HIGH Memory
. A . Area (HMA). is the _____ memory.
Hot and dry
. A
Last 64k of conventional
B .
Hot and wet
. B
Last 64k of extended
C .
Cold and dry
. C
First 64k above conventional
D .
Cold and wet
. D
First 64k of extended
E .
None of the above
. E
None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
36 What is the i/o address for com3? Answer: Option D
. A
3e8
. Explanation:
B
345
. No answer description available for this
C question. Let us discuss.
ff8
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
D Report
5e8
.
E 39 In addition to I/O port addresses, SCSI adapters
be8
. . also use a range of ROM addresses for their
onboard BIOS.
Answer: Option A A
True
.
Explanation: B
False
.
No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. Answer: Option A
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Explanation:

37 The following process determines the amount No answer description available for this
. of memory present, the date/ time, and which question. Let us discuss.
communications ports and display adapters are View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
installed in a microcomputer? Report
A
Start-up utility test
. 40 COM1 is typically represented by which of the
B . following?
Power on Self Test
. A
C 15 pin port
Power up boot process .
. B
D 9 pin male port
Power on start up process .
. C
E 9 pin female port
None of the above .
. D
25 pin male port
.
Answer: Option B E
None of the above
.
Explanation:
Answer: Option B
No answer description available for this 41 A PC with a 486DX2 processor runs internally
question. Let us discuss. . at 50Mhz. What speed would its external logic
154
 be running? Explanation:
A
l0Mhz
. No answer description available for this
B question. Let us discuss.
25Mhz
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
C Report
50Mhz
.
D 44 Which REQUIRES an anti-static bag for
100 Mhz
. . transport?
E A
None of the above Monitor
. .
B
Floppy disks
Answer: Option B .
C
Power supply
Explanation: .
D
I/O controller
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
None of the above
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option D
42 A capacitor is measured in which of the
. following units? Explanation:
A
Volts
. No answer description available for this
B question. Let us discuss.
Ohms
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
C Report
Farads
.
D 45 Static electricity thrives is which type of
Resistance
. . environment?
E A
None of the above cold and humid
. .
B
warm and humid
Answer: Option C .
C
warm and dry
Explanation: .
D
cold and warm
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
cold and dry
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option E
43 Which device uses a DMA channel? 46 ESD potential decreases with the use of:
. A . A
Modem De-ionizing fans
. .
B B
Network Card A wrist strap
. .
C C
Sound Card Rubber gloves with matching cap
. .
D D
All of the above A static meter
. .
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option C Answer: Option B

155
 Explanation: .
D
Resistor
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
None of the above
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option D
47 With a dot matrix printer, light then dark print
. is most commonly caused by: Explanation:
A
Erratic paper advancement
. No answer description available for this
B question. Let us discuss.
Erratic ribbon advancement
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
C Report
Misalligned print head
.
D 50 Every video card must have?
Overheating print head
. . A
E CMOS
None of the above .
. B
RAM
.
Answer: Option B C
CPU
.
Explanation: D
All of the above
.
No answer description available for this E
None of the above
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Answer: Option B
1. What is the jumper setting on a SCSI device to
48 How many DMA channels are there in an AT configure it to use the fourth SCSI id?
. class PC? Remember, SCSI ids start with zero.
A A
3 010
. .
B B
4 110
. .
C C
7 011
. .
D D
8 101
. .
E E
None of the above 001
. .

Answer: Option D Answer: Option C

Explanation: Explanation:

No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Report

49 A wrist grounding strap contains which of the 2 What tool is used to test serial and parallel
. following: . ports?
A A
Surge protector high volt probe
. .
B B
Capacitor cable scanner
. .
CVoltmeter Cloop backs (wrap plugs)
156
 . 5 If a computer's BIOS allows it, you can boot
D . from a CD-ROM.
sniffer
. A
True
E .
None of the above
. B
False
.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
Explanation: 6 ISDN stands for:
. A
internal select data nulls
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. B
integrated services digital network
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report C
interval set down next
.
3 Which best describes a fragmented hard drive: D
interior sector direct none
. A .
The platters are bad E
. inferior sector data net
B .
Data files are corrupted
.
C Answer: Option B
Clusters of data are damaged
.
D Explanation:
Files are not stored in consecutive clusters
.
E No answer description available for this
None of the above
. question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Answer: Option D Report

Explanation: 7 ISDN uses _____ technology.

. A
only digital
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. B
digital and analog
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report C
only analog
.
4 What device prevents power interruptions, D
neither digital nor analog
. resulting in corrupted data? .
A E
Battery back-up unit mostly digital
. .
B
Surge protector Answer: Option A
.
C
Multiple SIMMs strips
. Explanation:
D
Data guard system
. No answer description available for this
E question. Let us discuss.
Turn off the AC power
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report
Answer: Option A
8 Which is LEAST likely to interfere with
Explanation: . upgrading to a newer DOS version?
A
ROM BIOS
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. B
Video controller
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report C
Compressed drives
.
157
 D C
Existing backup files 0.0
. .
E D
None of the above All of the above
. .
E
None of the above
Answer: Option B .

Explanation: Answer: Option C

No answer description available for this Explanation:

question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace No answer description available for this
Report question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
9 A laser printer generates a totally black page, Report
. what is the cause?
A 13 During the normal PC boot process, which of
malfunctioning imaging laser
. . the following is active first?
B A
low level in the toner cartridge RAM BIOS
. .
C B
no power to transfer corona CMOS
. .
D C
no power to the primary corona ROM BIOS
. .
E D
None of the above Hard disk information
. .
E
None of the above
Answer: Option D .

Explanation: Answer: Option C

No answer description available for this Explanation:

question. Let us discuss.
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Report question. Let us discuss.
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10 You must service the laser printer in your Report
. office. Which part of the printer shoud you
avoid touching because it is hot? 14 When configuring a new network interface card
A . for installation, which of the following would be
fuser
. a valid I/O address?
B A
printer head 378
. .
C B
primary corona 2F8
. .
D C
high-voltage power supply 3F8
. .
E D
None of the above 360
. .
E
None of the above
Answer: Option A .
12 You are testing the resistance in Ohms of a fuse
. on a 5 amp system. If the fuse is good, the meter Answer: Option D
should read?
A Explanation:
5.0
.
B No answer description available for this
0.5
. question. Let us discuss.
158
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15 Which device should not be plugged into a 18 What Does EISA stand for?
. standard ups? . A
Extended Industry Standard Architecture
A .
monitor
. B
Expanded Industry Standard Architecture
B .
laser printer
. C
Enhanced Industry Standard Architecture
C .
ink-jet printer
. D
Electronics Industry Standard Architecture
D .
an external modem
. E
All of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
16 What is the main communication method from Explanation:
. one PDA to another PDA?
A No answer description available for this
IR
. question. Let us discuss.
B View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
USB
. Report
C
RS-232
. 19 A static jolt of as little of _____ volts can fry
D . most any PC integrated circuit.
IEEE 1394
. A
E 200
None of the above .
. B
30
.
Answer: Option A C
1000
.
Explanation: D
200
.
No answer description available for this E
500
question. Let us discuss. .
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Report Answer: Option B

17 What allows you to print on both sides of the Explanation:

. printer?
A No answer description available for this
fuser
. question. Let us discuss.
B View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
duplexer
. Report
C
toner cartridge
. 20 A standard multimeter is ideal for measuring a
D . monitors high voltage output.
paper-swapping unit
. A
E True
None of the above .
. B
False
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
Explanation: 21 COM 4 uses which I/O port?
. A
2F8H
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. B3F8H
159
 . Report
C
3E8H
. 24 Which provides the fastest data access time?
D . A
2E8H RAM
. .
E B
None of the above ROM
. .
C
CD-ROM
Answer: Option D .
D
Hard disk
Explanation: .
E
None of the above
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Answer: Option A
Report
Explanation:
22 What type of FRU is a SCSI host adapter?
. A No answer description available for this
CPU
. question. Let us discuss.
B View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
I/O card
. Report
C
video card
. 25 When configuring a new network interface card
D . for installation, which of the following would be
hard drive
. a valid I/O address?
E A
None of the above 378
. .
B
2F8
Answer: Option B .
C
3F8
Explanation: .
D
360
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
None of the above
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option D
23 How many DMA channels are in an AT- 26 Which is NOT typically a Field Replaceable
. machine? . Unit?
A A
3 System ROM
. .
B B
4 Power supply
. .
C C
7 System chasis
. .
D D
8 Video controller
. .
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option B Answer: Option C

Explanation: Explanation:

No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
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160
 Report
Answer: Option D
27 A human cannot feel a static discharge as high
. as _____ volts. Explanation:
A
200
. No answer description available for this
B question. Let us discuss.
2000
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
C Report
10000
.
D 30 What does the acronym RTS represent?
50000
. . A
E Required to save
50 .
. B
Ready to start
.
Answer: Option A C
Request to send
.
Explanation: D
Right to separate
.
No answer description available for this E
None of the above
question. Let us discuss. .
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Report Answer: Option C
31 Which is the easiest component to
28 What can you use to ensure power is not . environmentally recycle?
. interrupted, resulting in corrupted data? A
A Motherboards
UPS .
. B
B CMOS batteries
Proper grounding .
. C
C Toner cartridges
Surge protector .
. D
D Cathode ray tubes
Sag protector .
. E
E None of the above
None of the above .
.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
question. Let us discuss. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
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Report
32 What problem can occur if a printer cable is to
29 Which step should you perform first before . close to a power cable?
. discharging a CRT? A
A ESD Electrostatic Discharge
Remove the CRT from its housing .
. B
B EMI Electromagnetic Interference
Disconnect the CRT from the computer .
. C
C parity error
Remove the video assembly .
. D
DTurn power off before removing power no affect
.
. source E
E None of the above
None of the above .
.
161
 .
Answer: Option B C
parity error
.
Explanation: D
no affect
.
No answer description available for this E
None of the above
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Answer: Option B
36 How can you totally protect a PC from damage
33 ESD damage can be caused by: . during an electrical storm?
. A A
Placing an IC in a non-conductive plastic bag Disconnect the AC power cable
. .
B BDisconnect all external cables and power
Placing an IC on a grounded mat . cords
.
C C
Repeated sags in current supplied from outlets Use a surge protector
. .
D D
Touching metal on the chasis Turn off the AC power
. .
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option A Answer: Option A

Explanation: Explanation:

No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
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34 The standard VGA display has _____ pixels in 37 The ESD wrist strap is designed to protect PC
. its native graphics mode? . Components or Service Technicians ?
A A
648 x 320 PC Components
. .
B B
640 x 480 Service Technicians
. .
C C
680 x 440 All of the above
. .
D D
1024 x 786 None of the above
. .
E
None of the above Answer: Option C
.

Answer: Option B Explanation:

Explanation: No answer description available for this

question. Let us discuss.
No answer description available for this View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
question. Let us discuss. Report
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report 38 To test for AC ripple on a PC power supply,
. you would set the volt/ohm meter for:
35 What problem can occur if a printer cable is to A
DC voltage scale
. close to a power cable? .
A B
ESD Electrostatic Discharge AC voltage
. .
BEMI Electromagnetic Interference COHM scale
162
 . D
In the floppy drive
D .
Farad scale
. E
None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
question. Let us discuss. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
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Report
42 Which I/O port belongs to LPT2?
39 The ATAPI compliance is stands for? . A
378H
. A .
CDROM
. B
278H
B .
Bus mastering
. C
3f8h
C .
Mass storage device
. D
2e8h
D .
All of the above
. E
None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
question. Let us discuss. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
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Report
43 What resistence in ohms should be displayed
40 Which of the following FRUs would be . ehen testing a speaker in a computer?
. considered both an input/output device? A
0 Ohms
A .
Video board
. B
16 Ohms
B .
SCSI host adapter
. C
-200 Ohms
C .
System board CPU
. D
Unlimited Ohms
D .
All of the above
. E
None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
41 When not in use, it is very important to keep 5 Explanation:
. VA diskettes in _____.
A No answer description available for this
Their protective sleeves
. question. Let us discuss.
B View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
In a plastic bag
. Report
C
On a shelf in an upright position
. 44How much video RAM is needed to display
163
. 1024x768 at 24-bit color? 47 Which type of pc card (PCMCIA) slot will
A . allow the insertion of a hard drive?
1MB
. A
type I
B .
4MB
. B
type II
C .
8MB
. C
type III
D .
512KB
. D
type IV
E .
None of the above
. E
None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. No answer description available for this
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Report View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report
45 All Operating Systems get their total memory
. initialized from? 48 During the fusing process, toner is:
A . A
CPU dry pressed into the paper
. .
B B
BIOS electrically bonded to the paper
. .
C C
ROM melted into the paper
. .
D D
RAM glued to the paper
. .
E E
None of the above high pressure sprayed onto the paper
. .

Answer: Option B Answer: Option E

46 IBM's Micro Channel Architecture (MCA)
. specifies which type of the following bit access Explanation:
widths?
A No answer description available for this
8 bit & 16 bit
. question. Let us discuss.
B View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
16 bit & 24 bit
. Report
C
16 bit & 32 bit
. 49 Before sending data, a modem sends a request
D . to send signal, or RTS.
32 bit & 64 bit
. A
E True
None of the above .
. B
False
.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. No answer description available for this
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Report
164
 3 Whenever you have a hardware resource
50 When a bearing in the power supply fan goes . conflict, it will more likely be an IRQ conflict
. out, what should you replace? rather than an i/o conflict because:
A A
fan there are a lot more I/O addresses than IRQs.
. .
B Bthe BIOS sometimes has more of a problem
case
. . controlling IRQs
C C
bearing I/O addresses cannot conflict
. .
D D
power supply software tends to correct I/O conflicts
. .
E E
None of the above software tends to mess up IRQs
. .

Answer: Option D Answer: Option A

1. A PCMCIA measuring 10.5mm is what type?
A Explanation:
type 1
.
B No answer description available for this
type 2
. question. Let us discuss.
C View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
type 1 and 3
. Report
D
type 3
. 4 You have just installed a new internal PCI
E . modem on you desktop. It will not dial out. what
None of the above
. is the problem?
A
Answer: Option D The port speed is set too high
.
Bthe modem has not been set up in control panel
Explanation: . properties
Cthe phone line is plugged into the line-in port
No answer description available for this . on the modem card
question. Let us discuss. Dthe phone line out of the wall is plugged into
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace . the phone port on the modem card
Report E
None of the above
.
2 What component would most likely cause a
. "parity error"? Answer: Option D
A
bad hard disk
. Explanation:
B
bad controller
. No answer description available for this
C question. Let us discuss.
bad RAM
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
D Report
bad software
.
E 5 After you service a laser printer, you notice dirty
None of the above
. . print. Which of the following would correct the
problem.
Answer: Option C A
Clean the developer tank
.
Explanation: B
Reset the printer
.
No answer description available for this C
Run several blank pages
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace D
Clean the laser diode
Report .
ENone of the above
165
 . E
None of the above
.
Answer: Option C
6 After you service a laser printer, you notice dirty Answer: Option B
. print. Which of the following would correct the
problem? Explanation:
A
Clean the developer tank
. No answer description available for this
B question. Let us discuss.
Reset the printer
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
C Report
Run several blank pages
.
D 9 Modems use _____ transmission.
Clean the laser diode
. . A
E Synchronous
None of the above .
. B
Asynchronous
.
Answer: Option C C
Timed interval
.
Explanation: D
PPP
.
No answer description available for this E
None of the above
question. Let us discuss. .
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Report Answer: Option B

7 During the boot process, a system first counts Explanation:

. memory from where?
A No answer description available for this
Expansion memory board
. question. Let us discuss.
B View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Video adapter
. Report
C
System board
. 10 What should he used to extinguish a computer
D . fire?
Cache
. A
E fire hose
None of the above .
. B
class a extinguisher
.
Answer: Option C C
class c extinguisher
.
Explanation: D
silver foam water
.
No answer description available for this E
None of the above
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Answer: Option C
11 In ROM BIOS, the acronym BIOS stands for:
8 What command is used to reset a MODEM . A
Basic Intuitive Output Set
. when using the .
A B
ATR Basic Input Organizational System
. .
B C
ATZ Basic Input Output System
. .
C D
DTR Basic Industry Operating System
. .
D E
DCE None of the above
. .
166
 B
CPU
Answer: Option C .
C
DMA823
Explanation: .
D
UART 16550
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
None of the above
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option D
12 What command is used to hand up a MODEM
. when using the "AT Answer Command set"? Explanation:
A
ATZ
. No answer description available for this
B question. Let us discuss.
ATD
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
C Report
ATR
.
D 15 A Type 1 PCMCIA card is:
ATH
. . AThe same physical size as other PCMCIA
E . cards but configured differently
None of the above
. BThe thinnest PCMCIA card, measuring
. 3.5mm in thickness
Answer: Option D CThe thickest PCMCIA card, measuring
. 10.5mm in thickness
Explanation: DAn old standard that is not compatible with
. the newest laptops
No answer description available for this E
None of the above
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Answer: Option B
16 You have a 15 pin female connector with the
13 Why does a successfully mapped network drive . pins in two rows. What could you connect with
. disappear every time you boot the computer? this?
AThe computer you are connected to has A
Serial device
. moved .
B B
You didn't click reconnect on log on Parallel device
. .
CThe map statement is not in the autoexec.bat C
MIDI device
. file .
D D
The last drive was not set correctly Video device
. .
E E
None of the above Joystick
. .

Answer: Option C Answer: Option E

Explanation: Explanation:

No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
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14 Which hardware component controls serial port 17 The 34-pin connection on an I/O card is for?
. communications? . A
floppy drive
A .
ROM BIOS BSCSI drive
.
167
 . Explanation:
C
IDE drive
. No answer description available for this
D question. Let us discuss.
zip drive
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
E Report
None of the above
.
20 Which of the following is a type of
Answer: Option A . preventative maintenance used on a hard drive?
A
Disk check diagnostics
Explanation: .
B
Head alignment diagnostics
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. C
Initializing
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report D
Uninstalling programs
.
18 You run a super wing-ding diagnostic program E
None of the above
. on your PC, and it reports that your hard drive, .
microprocessor, RAM, and video card have seen
better days. To resolve this problem you should: Answer: Option A
Areplace each part one at a time, rerunning the 21 ESD damage can be caused by:
. diagnostic before replacing the next part. . A
Placing an IC in a non-conductive plastic bag
B .
check to see if you have a software problem B
. Placing an IC on a grounded mat
Creplace everything at once and rerun the .
. diagnostic C
Repeated sags in current supplied from outlets
D .
get another copy of the diagnostic program D
. Touching metal on the chassis
E .
run an exhaustive memory check E
. None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. No answer description available for this
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace question. Let us discuss.
Report View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report
19 On a leased line installation a known good
. external modem shows no carrier detect light. 22 How can you totally protect a PC from damage
Where is the problem most likely to be? . during an electrical storm?
A A
In the modem Disconnect the AC power cable
. .
B BDisconnect all external cables and power
In the phone line . cords
.
C C
In the computer Use a surge protector
. .
D D
In the DTC equipment Turn off the AC power
. .
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option B Answer: Option A

168
 Explanation: .
D
second adapter card
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
CMOS battery
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option A
23 When you boot a PC and don't hear any beep, 26 What are the IRQ's for sound card?
. this could suggest which of the following? . A
IRQ8
A .
The monitor is turned off
. B
IRQ4
B .
Keyboard not plugged in
. C
IRQ5
C .
Normal PC boot
. D
IRQ7
D .
Bad or disconnected speaker
. E
None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
question. Let us discuss. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
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Report
27 Your IDE hard drive is not spinning up when
24 What is the file extension used by WIN95 to . you turn on the PC. What is the most likely
. back up registry file when windows starts? problem.
A A
.dat bad data cable
. .
B B
.dao incorrect jumper setting on drive
. .
C C
.bak loose molex connector
. .
D D
.tmp virus
. .
E E
None of the above tfad system board
. .

Answer: Option B Answer: Option C

Explanation: Explanation:

No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
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25 A 2xx POST error code indicates a problem 28 You can place an ISA device in an EISA slot.
. with: . A
True
A .
RAM or ROM
. B
False
B .
hard drive
.
Csystem board
169
 Answer: Option A Answer: Option D

Explanation: Explanation:

No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
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29 Which provides the fastest access to large 32 What resistance in ohms should be displayed
. video files? . when testing a speaker in a computer?
A A
Optical drives Q Ohms
. .
B B
IDE hard drives 16 Ohms
. .
C C
SCSI hard drives -200 Ohms
. .
D D
EIDE hard drives Unlimited Ohms
. .
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option C Answer: Option B

Explanation: Explanation:

No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
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30 An anti static strap uses a small _____ to make 33 After displaying the directory of a floppy disk,
. sure you do not become the least path of . a different floppy is inserted into the drive. The
resistance to the ground? contents of the original floppy continue to
A display regardless of the director requests on the
capacitor
. other floppies placed in the drive. You remove
B the drive in question and install it into your test
diode
. system, and it does not exhibit the problem. You
C should next replace the:
transistor
. A
System's floppy drive device driver
D .
resistor
. B
Original IDE controller
E .
None of the above
. C
Floppy drive ribbon cable
.
Answer: Option D D
System's power supply
31 Which best describes a fragmented hard drive: .
. A E
The platters are bad None of the above
. .
B
Data files are corrupted
. Answer: Option C
C
Clusters of data are damaged
. Explanation:
D
Files are not stored in consecutive clusters
. No answer description available for this
E question. Let us discuss.
None of the above
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
170
 Report
37 A customer has just installed a new cd-rw. the
34 What is the best ground for a conductive work . system was working fine before the installation,
. bench? but now the cdrom does not work, what should
A you suggest that the customer do?
AC outlet
. A
flash or upgrade the BIOS
B .
Ground to bench
. B
check the CONFIG.SYS
C .
To the motherboard
. C
add cdrw in the device manager
D .
To the PC's Chassis
. D
check the jumper setting on the cd-rw
E .
None of the above
. E
None of the above
.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. No answer description available for this
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Report View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report
35 When you are testing a fuse, you should set the
. Volt-OHM meter to what scale? 38 Which is the most difficult environmentally to
A . dispose of?
AC
. A
floppy drives
B .
DC
. B
hard drives
C .
AMPS
. C
power supplies
D .
OHMS
. D
CRTs
E .
None of the above
. E
system boards
.
Answer: Option D
36 During boot-up, the memory test: Answer: Option D
. A
Is a superfluous step that should be ignored
. Explanation:
BChecks and verifies that contiguous memory
. is installed No answer description available for this
C question. Let us discuss.
Is an operational error
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
DDisplays what memory is installed, but Report
. nothing else
E 39 Resistance is measured:
None of the above
. . A
in parallel
.
Answer: Option A B
in series
.
Explanation: C
after breaking the circuit
.
No answer description available for this D
after checking voltage
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace E
after checking current
Report .
171
 No answer description available for this
Answer: Option C question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Explanation: Report

No answer description available for this 43 IRQ6 is typically reserved for:

question. Let us discuss. . A
The floppy
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report B
The keyboard controller
.
40 Which is LEAST likely to interfere with C
LPT2
. upgrading to a newer DOS Version? .
A D
ROM BIOS The modem
. .
B E
Video controller None of the above
. .
C
Compressed drives Answer: Option A
.
D
Existing backup files Explanation:
.
E
None of the above
. No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss.
Answer: Option B View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
41 How may standard levels of interrupts are Report
. provided on the 8-bit ISA bus (XT-class
computer)? 44 What is the most likely cause of an "FDD
A . controller Failure" error message?
4 Ayou did not set the jumper on the floppy drive
.
B . to drive A
8 B
. you forgot to flash CMOS
C .
12 Cyou installed the floppy disk drive cable
.
D . backward
16 D
. your computer's floppy drive is defective
E .
None of the above E
. None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. No answer description available for this
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Report View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report
42 "Parity" errors usually indicate bad memory
. A 45 WRAM is used on a
True . A
. modem
B .
False B
. video card
.
Answer: Option A C
motherboard
.
Explanation: D
ata connector
.
ENone of the above
172
 . .

Answer: Option B Answer: Option A

46 You are testing the resistance in Ohms of a fuse
. on a 2 amp systems. If the fuse is good, the Explanation:
meter should read?
A No answer description available for this
2.0
. question. Let us discuss.
B View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
5.0
. Report
C
0.0
. 49 You're on your PC at midnight and an electric
D . storm pops up. What's the best way to protect
0.2
. your PC.
E Ayou don't worry; you have a lightning rod on
None of the above
. . your house
Byou don't worry; you've got a surge protector
Answer: Option C . on your PC
Cyou don't worry; you've got a surge protector
Explanation: . on your PC and phone line to your modem
Dunplug the PC and remove phone line from
No answer description available for this . the modem
question. Let us discuss. E
stop standing on it
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option D
47 To prevent the computer from overheating you
. should? Explanation:
A
Remove the slot cover from the back
. No answer description available for this
B question. Let us discuss.
Keep the computer cover closed
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
C Report
Remove the CPU fan
.
D 50 Which type of system hoard is the MOST
All of the above
. . likely candidate for processor upgrading if you
E want maximum performance and future
None of the above
. compatibility?
A
Answer: Option B ML
.
B
PCI
Explanation: .
C
ISA
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. D
EISA
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report E
None of the above
.
48 How many devices does USB support?
. A Answer: Option B
127
. 1. In ROM BIOS, the acronym BIOS stands for:
B A
125 Basic Intuitive Output Set
. .
C B
100 Basic Input Organizational System
. .
D C
225 Basic Input Output System
. .
ENone of the above DBasic Industry Operating System
173
 . A
System ROM
E .
None of the above
. B
Power supply
.
Answer: Option C C
System chassis
.
Explanation: D
Video controller
.
No answer description available for this E
None of the above
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Answer: Option C

2 How many pins on a VGA? Explanation:

. A
15.
. No answer description available for this
B question. Let us discuss.
9
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
C Report
25
.
D 5 What are the most likely conditions for ESD?
32
. . A
Cold and wet
E .
None of the above
. B
Cold and dry
.
Answer: Option A C
Hot and wet
.
Explanation: D
Hot and dry
.
No answer description available for this E
None of the above
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Answer: Option B
6 In which mode can two or more applications be
3 What is modified when changing the system . stored in memory at the same time?
. start-up boot sequence? A
Segmented Mode
A .
BIOS/CMOS B
. Unprotected Mode
B .
CONFIG.SYS C
. Real Mode
C .
autoexec.bat D
. Protected Mode
D .
COMMAND.COM E
. None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
question. Let us discuss. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Report
7 How does a parallel port communicate
4 Which is NOT typically a Field Replaceable . information to a peripheral device?
. Unit? Aone bit at a time
174
 . No answer description available for this
B question. Let us discuss.
8 bytes at a time
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
C Report
one byte at a time
.
D 10 To find out how much memory is available,
16,555 bytes at a time
. . you could type _____
E A
None of the above EMM
. .
B
MEM
Answer: Option C .
C
CHKDSK
Explanation: .
D
MEMMAKER
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
None of the above
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option B
8 You suspect a virus has entered your computer. 11 When seeking to upgrade for a particular
. What will not be affected by the virus? . motherboard what do you need to know?
A A
CMOS memory
. .
B B
Boot sector hard drive
. .
C C
Floppy disks make & model
. .
D D
Program files dimm
. .
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option A Answer: Option C

Explanation: Explanation:

No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Report

9 On PC power supplies, the wire attached to pin 12 What is the size of a sector?
. one is usually: . A
512 bytes
A .
blue or red B
. 256 bytes
B .
blue or white C
. 512 Kb
C .
red or black D
. 1024 bytes
D .
red or white E
. None of the above
E .
white or orange
.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
175
 question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Answer: Option D
16 A brownout is defined as:
13 During the normal PC boot process, which of . Aa slightly elevated voltage lasting from
. the following is active first? . seconds to minutes or more
A Ba slightly decreased voltage lasting from
RAM BIOS
. . seconds to minutes or more
B C
CMOS complete power out lasting a few minutes
. .
C Dalternating power out, power on lasting a few
ROM BIOS
. . minutes
D E
Hard disk information has nothing to do with electricity
. .
E
None of the above
. Answer: Option B

Answer: Option C Explanation:

Explanation: No answer description available for this

question. Let us discuss.
No answer description available for this View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
question. Let us discuss. Report
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report 17 In which phase of the laser printing process is a
. positive charge placed on the paper to pull the
14 Pick the correct choice for the 8088 CPU. toner from the print drum?
. A A
16 bit word size, 8 bit data path Writing
. .
B B
8 bit word size, 8 bit data path Transferring
. .
C C
16 bit word size, 16 bit data path Conditioning
. .
D D
4 bit word size, 8 bit data path All of the above
. .
E E
8 bit word size, 16 bit data path None of the above
. .

Answer: Option A Answer: Option B

Explanation: Explanation:

No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Report

15 In which mode can 2 or more applications be 18 Which component stores an electrical charge?
. stored in memory at the same time? . A
A diode
Segmented Mode .
. B
B rectifier
Unprotected Mode .
. C
C capacitor
Real Mode .
. D
D resistor
Protected Mode .
. E
ENone of the above transistor
.
176
 .
Answer: Option C D
Beer or Jack Daniels
.
Explanation: E
None of the above
.
No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. Answer: Option B
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Explanation:

19 You are installing an IDE hard drive that will No answer description available for this
. be your boot drive. Which is the correct order of question. Let us discuss.
steps that need to be followed? View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
jumper properly, auto-detect(or configure Report
A
manually) in CMOS, low level format, high
.
level format, partition 22 Which controller would support an external
jumper properly, auto-detect(or configure . CD-ROM drive?
B
manually) in CMOS, partition, high level A
. ESDI
format with / s switch .
jumper properly, partition, auto-detect(or B
C ARLL
configure manually in CMOS, high level .
.
format with /s switch C
MFM
Djumper properly, auto-detect in CMOS, .
. regular format D
SCSI
Ejumper properly, partition, low level format, .
. high level format E
None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. No answer description available for this
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace question. Let us discuss.
Report View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report
20 Which type of cable is most likely in use with
. rj-45 connectors? 23 What would you ask to determine if the display
A . is working?
10base2
. AIs there a video cursor or action on the
B . screen?
10base5
. B
Did the computer beep or chime?
C .
10baseT
. C
Is there high voltage static on the screen
D .
10baseFL
. DIs the brightness or contrast turned up or
E . down?
None of the above
. E
All of the above
.
Answer: Option C
21 To prevent toner from sticking to a laser Answer: Option E
. printer's heat rollers, apply which of the
following: Explanation:
A
Alcohol
. No answer description available for this
B question. Let us discuss.
Oil
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
CAmmonia Report
177
 Report
24 You should never put floppy drives, hard
. drives, or even VCR tapes or cassette tapes on 27 RS-232 is a standard that applies to?
top of speakers (or near any other source of . A
Parallel port
magnetism) because of: .
A B
RFI Serial port
. .
B C
EMI Game port
. .
C D
EXE All of the above
. .
D E
FYI None of the above
. .
E
IOU
. Answer: Option B

Answer: Option B Explanation:

Explanation: No answer description available for this

question. Let us discuss.
No answer description available for this View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
question. Let us discuss. Report
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report 28 Your modem does not respond when you try to
. dial out. You try another modem on another
25 How many bits in a byte? computer and get the same result. What is the
. A most likely problem?
16
. A
defective modem
B .
8
. B
defective computer
C .
255
. C
software bug
D .
10
. D
bad phone line
E .
2 to the 9th power
. E
virus
.
Answer: Option B
26 What is the result of adding an IP address to Answer: Option D
. the DNS server search order
A Explanation:
It restricts browsing to that DNS server
.
B No answer description available for this
It overrides the local systems IP address
. question. Let us discuss.
CIt tells the DNS Server where the local system View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
. is located Report
DIt tells the local system where the DNS Server
. is located 29 You suspect a virus has entered your computer.
E . What will not be affected by the virus?
None of the above
. A
CMOS
.
Answer: Option D B
Boot sector
.
Explanation: C
Floppy disks
.
No answer description available for this D
Program files
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace ENone of the above
178
 . .

Answer: Option A Answer: Option B

Explanation: Explanation:

No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Report

30 How would you allow device drivers and TSR's 33 In inkjet technology the droplets of ink are
. to be loaded into Upper Memory Blocks ? . deflected by?
A A
DOS=High Electrically Charge Plate
. .
B B
devicehigh= Multi directional nozzle
. .
C C
loadhigh= High pressure jets
. .
D D
DOS=UMB All of the above
. .
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option D Answer: Option A

31 Which is the easiest component to
. environmentally recycle? Explanation:
A
Motherboards
. No answer description available for this
B question. Let us discuss.
CMOS batteries
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
C Report
Toner cartridges
.
D 34 With a dot matrix printer, light then dark print
Cathode ray tubes
. . is most commonly caused by:
E A
None of the above Erratic paper advancement
. .
B
Answer: Option C Erratic ribbon advancement
.
C
Misaligned print head
Explanation: .
D
Overheating print head
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
None of the above
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option B
32 When connecting a ribbon cable to a connector,
. how do you know which direction to plug it in? Explanation:
AThe red line in the cable goes to the highest
. pin number No answer description available for this
B question. Let us discuss.
The colored line in the cable goes to pin #1
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
C Report
It does not matter
.
DThe blue or red line in the cable goes away 35 RTS stands for:
. from the power connector . A
ENone of the above ready to start
.
179
 B .
ready to switch
. B
CMOS
C .
request to send
. C
the OS
D .
request to scan
. D
configuration software
E .
ready to set
. E
None of the above
.
Answer: Option C
36 To install a second IDE drive into a computer, Answer: Option D
. you must:
ASet the master-slave jumper to slave on the Explanation:
. second drive
BUse the IDE configuration software to set the No answer description available for this
. new drive as slave question. Let us discuss.
CVerify that you define the new drive as D: in View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
. the CMOS setup Report
DVerity that you attach the drive to the
. connector at the end of the ribbon cable 39 MSD exe does not have information on:
E . A
None of the above cache
. .
B
Answer: Option A video
.
C
operation system
Explanation: .
D
com ports
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
None of the above
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option A
37 What can you use to ensure power is not
. interrupted, resulting in corrupted data? Explanation:
A
UPS
. No answer description available for this
B question. Let us discuss.
Proper grounding
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
C Report
Surge protector
.
DNuclear powered thermal protective 40 What command is used to hang up a MODEM
. underwear . when using the "AT Command set"?
E A
None of the above ATZ
. .
B
Answer: Option A ATD
.
C
ATR
Explanation: .
D
ATH
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
None of the above
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option D
38 When configuring is a network interface cards 41 Current is measured in units of:
. without jumpers or plug and play, what is used . A
volts
to set the IRQs? .
ADMA Bamps
180
 . View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
C Report
ohms
.
D 44 You are testing the resistance in Ohms of a fuse
farads
. . on a 2 amp system. If the fuse is good, the meter
E should read?
diodes
. A
0.0
.
Answer: Option B B
0.2
.
Explanation: C
5.0
.
No answer description available for this D
2.0
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace E
None of the above
Report .

42 The standard IRQ for the floppy drive is? Answer: Option A
. A
9 Explanation:
.
B
6
. No answer description available for this
C question. Let us discuss.
10
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
D Report
All of the above
.
E 45 To find out how much memory is available,
None of the above
. . you could type _____
A
EMM
Answer: Option B .
B
MEM
Explanation: .
C
CHKDSK
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. D
MEMMAKER
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report E
None of the above
.
43 A keyboard locks up intermittently even when
. replaced with a new keyboard. What is the Answer: Option B
LEAST likely cause of the problem? 46 IBM's Micro Channel Architecture (MCA)
A . specifies which type of the following bit access
A second bad keyboard widths?
.
B A
The keyboard controller chip 8 bit & 16 bit
. .
C B
The keyboard connector 16 bit & 24 bit
. .
D C
The motherboard 16 bit & 32 bit
. .
E D
None of the above 32 bit & 64 bit
. .
E
None of the above
Answer: Option A .

Explanation: Answer: Option C

No answer description available for this Explanation:

question. Let us discuss.
181
 No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
None of the above
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option B
47 What is the best ground for a conductive work
. bench? Explanation:
A
AC outlet
. No answer description available for this
B question. Let us discuss.
Ground to bend
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
C Report
To another device
.
D 50 Match the device driver HIMEM.SYS to its
Chassis ground
. . operation.
E A
None of the above Supports (ANSI) terminal emulation
. .
B
Answer: Option A Manages the use of extended memory
.
C
Explanation: Uses expanded memory on a 80386 processor
.
D
Supports code page switching
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
None of the above
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option B
48 What could cause a fixed disk error? 51 Upper Memory blocks are located where?
. A . A
CDROM drive not installed Conventional Memory
. .
B B
Incorrect CMOS settings Extended Memory
. .
C C
Incorrect RAM settings Expanded memory
. .
D D
All of the above Reserved Memory
. .
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .

Answer: Option B Answer: Option D

Explanation: Explanation:

No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Report

49 A PC with a 486DX2 processor runs internally 52 The output voltages of a PC power supply are
. at 50Mhz. What speed would its external logic . in the form of _____ current.
be running? A
A AC
l0Mhz .
. B
B DC
25Mhz .
. C
C amperage
50Mhz .
. D
D100 Mhz resistive
.
182
 E 55 In laser printing, there are six steps the printer
trickle
. . follows. What comes between the conditioning
phase and the developing phase?
Answer: Option B A
transfer phase
.
Explanation: B
writing phase
.
No answer description available for this C
fusing phase
question. Let us discuss. .
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace D
cleaning phase
Report .
E
All of the above
53 After doing a low-level format, what would be .
. the next step in configuring the hard drive in a
system? Answer: Option B
A 56 During the laser printer's conditioning phase a
Format DOS partition . uniform charge of _____ is placed on the
.
B photosensitive drum.
Install operating system A
. +1000 volt
CConfigure DMA channel and back-up .
. interrupt B
+600 volts
D .
Partition hard disk C
. -600 volts
E .
None of the above D
. -1000 volts
.
Answer: Option D E
+ 12 volts
.
Explanation:
Answer: Option C
No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. Explanation:
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss.
54 After trying to unload a TSR, you get an error View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
. message saying that other TSRs were loaded Report
after the one you tried to remove. Which of the
following commands could you use to see the 57 A dialog box with a bomb appears oh a
current load order? . Macintosh screen. What type of problem has
A occurred?
MEM /P A
. A RAM problem
B .
MEMMAKER B
. A software problem
C .
MEM /C (A SYS: C
. A ROM problem
D .
None of the above D
. An ADB problem
.
Answer: Option C E
None of the above
.
Explanation:
Answer: Option B
No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. Computer Architecture:
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report 1. The ______ format is usually used to store data.
a) BCD
183
b) Decimal are compared to RAM because they optimize the
c) Hexadecimal performance of the system and they only keep files
d) Octal which are required by the current process in them
View Answer
6. The ALU makes use of _______ to store the
Answer: a intermediate results.
Explanation: The data usually used by computers a) Accumulators
have to be stored and represented in a particular b) Registers
format for ease of use. c) Heap
d) Stack
2. The 8-bit encoding format used to store data in View Answer
a computer is ______
a) ASCII Answer: a
b) EBCDIC Explanation: The ALU is the computational center
c) ANCI of the CPU. It performs all the mathematical and
d) USCII logical operations. In order to perform better, it
View Answer uses some internal memory spaces to store
immediate results.
Answer: b
Explanation: The data to be stored in the 7. The control unit controls other units by
computers have to be encoded in a particular way generating ____
so as to provide secure processing of the data. a) Control signals
b) Timing signals
3. A source program is usually in _______ c) Transfer signals
a) Assembly language d) Command Signals
b) Machine level language View Answer
c) High-level language
d) Natural language Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: This unit is used to control and
coordinate between the various parts and
Answer: c components of the CPU.
Explanation: The program written and before being
compiled or assembled is called as a source 8. ______ are numbers and encoded characters,
program. generally used as operands.
a) Input
4. Which memory device is generally made of b) Data
semiconductors? c) Information
a) RAM d) Stored Values
b) Hard-disk View Answer
c) Floppy disk
d) Cd disk Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: None.

Answer: a 9. The Input devices can send information to the

Explanation: Memory devices are usually made of processor.
semiconductors for faster manipulation of the a) When the SIN status flag is set
contents. b) When the data arrives regardless of the SIN flag
c) Neither of the cases
5. The small extremely fast, RAM’s are called as d) Either of the cases
_______ View Answer
a) Cache
b) Heaps Answer: a
c) Accumulators Explanation: The input devices use buffers to store
d) Stacks the data received and when the buffer has some
View Answer data it sends it to the processor.

Answer: a 10. ______ bus structure is usually used to

Explanation: These small and fast memory devices connect I/O devices.
184
a) Single bus when a memory function is completed by a
b) Multiple bus process.
c) Star bus
d) Rambus 15. The time delay between two successive
View Answer initiation of memory operation _______
a) Memory access time
Answer: a b) Memory search time
Explanation: BUS is a bunch of wires which carry c) Memory cycle time
address, control signals and data. It is used to d) Instruction delay
connect various components of the computer. View Answer

11. The I/O interface required to connect the I/O Answer: c

device to the bus consists of ______ Explanation: The time is taken to finish one task
a) Address decoder and registers and to start another.
b) Control circuits
c) Address decoder, registers and Control circuits
d) Only Control circuits 1. The decoded instruction is stored in ______
View Answer a) IR
b) PC
Answer: c c) Registers
Explanation: The I/O devices are connected to the d) MDR
CPU via BUS and to interact with the BUS they View Answer
have an interface.
Answer: a
12. To reduce the memory access time we Explanation: The instruction after obtained from
generally make use of ______ the PC, is decoded and operands are fetched and
a) Heaps stored in the IR.
b) Higher capacity RAM’s
c) SDRAM’s 2. The instruction -> Add LOCA, R0 does
d) Cache’s _______
View Answer a) Adds the value of LOCA to R0 and stores in the
temp register
Answer: d b) Adds the value of R0 to the address of LOCA
Explanation: The time required to access a part of c) Adds the values of both LOCA and R0 and
the memory for data retrieval. stores it in R0
advertisement d) Adds the value of LOCA with a value in
accumulator and stores it in R0
13. ______ is generally used to increase the View Answer
apparent size of physical memory.
a) Secondary memory Answer: c
b) Virtual memory Explanation: None.
c) Hard-disk
d) Disks 3. Which registers can interact with the secondary
View Answer storage?
a) MAR
Answer: b b) PC
Explanation: Virtual memory is like an extension c) IR
to the existing memory. d) R0
View Answer
14. MFC stands for ___________
a) Memory Format Caches Answer: a
b) Memory Function Complete Explanation: MAR can interact with secondary
c) Memory Find Command storage in order to fetch data from it.
d) Mass Format Command
View Answer 4. During the execution of a program which gets
initialized first?
Answer: b a) MDR
Explanation: This is a system command enabled b) IR
185
c) PC 9. The registers, ALU and the interconnection
d) MAR between them are collectively called as _____
View Answer a) process route
b) information trail
Answer: c c) information path
Explanation: For the execution of a process first d) data path
the instruction is placed in the PC. View Answer

5. Which of the register/s of the processor is/are Answer: d

connected to Memory Bus? Explanation: The Operational and processing part
a) PC of the CPU are collectively called as a data path.
b) MAR
c) IR 10. _______ is used to store data in registers.
d) Both PC and MAR a) D flip flop
View Answer b) JK flip flop
c) RS flip flop
Answer: b d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: MAR is connected to the memory View Answer
BUS in order to access the memory
Answer: a
6. ISP stands for _________ Explanation: None.
a) Instruction Set Processor
b) Information Standard Processing
c) Interchange Standard Protocol 1. The main virtue for using single Bus structure
d) Interrupt Service Procedure is ____________
View Answer a) Fast data transfers
b) Cost effective connectivity and speed
Answer: a c) Cost effective connectivity and ease of attaching
Explanation: None. peripheral devices
d) None of the mentioned
7. The internal Components of the processor are View Answer
connected by _______
a) Processor intra-connectivity circuitry Answer: c
b) Processor bus Explanation: By using a single BUS structure we
c) Memory bus can minimize the amount of hardware (wire)
d) Rambus required and thereby reducing the cost.
View Answer
2. ______ are used to overcome the difference in
Answer: b data transfer speeds of various devices.
Explanation: The processor BUS is used to connect a) Speed enhancing circuitory
the various parts in order to provide a direct b) Bridge circuits
connection to the CPU. c) Multiple Buses
d) Buffer registers
8. ______ is used to choose between incrementing View Answer
the PC or performing ALU operations.
a) Conditional codes Answer: d
b) Multiplexer Explanation: By using Buffer registers, the
c) Control unit processor sends the data to the I/O device at the
d) None of the mentioned processor speed and the data gets stored in the
View Answer buffer. After that the data gets sent to or from the
buffer to the devices at the device speed.
Answer: b
Explanation: The multiplexer circuit is used to 3. To extend the connectivity of the processor bus
choose between the two as it can give different we use ________
results based on the input. a) PCI bus
b) SCSI bus
c) Controllers

186
d) Multiple bus b) Register file
View Answer c) Register Block
d) Map registers
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: PCI BUS is used to connect other
peripheral devices which require a direct Answer: b
connection with the processor. Explanation: None.

4. IBM developed a bus standard for their line of 9. The main advantage of multiple bus
computers ‘PC AT’ called _____ organisation over a single bus is _____
a) IB bus a) Reduction in the number of cycles for execution
b) M-bus b) Increase in size of the registers
c) ISA c) Better Connectivity
d) None of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer

Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

5. The bus used to connect the monitor to the CPU 10. The ISA standard Buses are used to connect
is ______ ___________
a) PCI bus a) RAM and processor
b) SCSI bus b) GPU and processor
c) Memory bus c) Harddisk and Processor
d) Rambus d) CD/DVD drives and Processor
View Answer View Answer

Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: SCSI BUS is usually used to connect Explanation: None.
the video devices to the processor.
1. During the execution of the instructions, a copy
6. ANSI stands for __________ of the instructions is placed in the ______
a) American National Standards Institute a) Register
b) American National Standard Interface b) RAM
c) American Network Standard Interfacing c) System heap
d) American Network Security Interrupt d) Cache
View Answer View Answer

Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

7. _____ register Connected to the Processor bus 2. Two processors A and B have clock
is a single-way transfer capable. frequencies of 700 Mhz and 900 Mhz respectively.
a) PC Suppose A can execute an instruction with an
b) IR average of 3 steps and B can execute with an
c) Temp average of 5 steps. For the execution of the same
d) Z instruction which processor is faster?
View Answer a) A
b) B
Answer: d c) Both take the same time
Explanation: The Z register is a special register d) Insufficient information
which can interact with the processor BUS only. View Answer
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Answer: a
8. In multiple Bus organisation, the registers are Explanation: The performance of a system can be
collectively placed and referred as ______ found out using the Basic performance formula.
a) Set registers

187
 3. A processor performing fetch or decoding of operation speed of the processor by reducing the
different instruction during the execution of time taken to compile the program instructions.
another instruction is called ______
a) Super-scaling 7. The ultimate goal of a compiler is to ________
b) Pipe-lining a) Reduce the clock cycles for a programming task
c) Parallel Computation b) Reduce the size of the object code
d) None of the mentioned c) Be versatile
View Answer d) Be able to detect even the smallest of errors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pipe-lining is the process of Answer: a
improving the performance of the system by Explanation: None.
processing different instructions at the same time,
with only one instruction performing one specific 8. SPEC stands for _______
operation. a) Standard Performance Evaluation Code
b) System Processing Enhancing Code
4. For a given FINITE number of instructions to c) System Performance Evaluation Corporation
be executed, which architecture of the processor d) Standard Processing Enhancement Corporation
provides for a faster execution? View Answer
a) ISA
b) ANSA Answer: c
c) Super-scalar Explanation: SPEC is a corporation started to
d) All of the mentioned standardize the evaluation method of a system’s
View Answer performance.

Answer: c 9. As of 2000, the reference system to find the

Explanation: In super-scalar architecture, the performance of a system is _____
instructions are set in groups and they’re decoded a) Ultra SPARC 10
and executed together reducing the amount of time b) SUN SPARC
required to process them. c) SUN II
d) None of the mentioned
5. The clock rate of the processor can be View Answer
improved by _________
a) Improving the IC technology of the logic Answer: a
circuits Explanation: In SPEC system of measuring a
b) Reducing the amount of processing done in one system’s performance, a system is used as a
step reference against which other systems are
c) By using the overclocking method compared and performance is determined.
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer 10. When Performing a looping operation, the
instruction gets stored in the ______
Answer: d a) Registers
Explanation: The clock rate(frequency of the b) Cache
processor) is the hardware dependent quantity it is c) System Heap
fixed for a given processor. d) System stack
View Answer
6. An optimizing Compiler does _________
a) Better compilation of the given piece of code Answer: b
b) Takes advantage of the type of processor and Explanation: When a looping or branching
reduces its process time operation is carried out the offset value is stored in
c) Does better memory management the cache along with the data.
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer 11. The average number of steps taken to execute
the set of instructions can be made to be less than
Answer: b one by following _______
Explanation: An optimizing compiler is a compiler a) ISA
designed for the specific purpose of increasing the b) Pipe-lining
c) Super-scaling
188
d) Sequential Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: None.

Answer: c 1. The instruction, Add #45,R1 does _______

Explanation: The number of steps required to a) Adds the value of 45 to the address of R1 and
execute a given set of instructions is sufficiently stores 45 in that address
reduced by using super-scaling. In this method, a b) Adds 45 to the value of R1 and stores it in R1
set of instructions are grouped together and are c) Finds the memory location 45 and adds that
processed. content to that of R1
d) None of the mentioned
12. If a processor clock is rated as 1250 million View Answer
cycles per second, then its clock period is
________ Answer: b
a) 1.9 * 10-10 sec Explanation: The instruction is using immediate
b) 1.6 * 10-9 sec addressing mode hence the value is stored in the
c) 1.25 * 10-10 sec location 45 is added.
d) 8 * 10-10 sec
View Answer 2. In the case of, Zero-address instruction method
the operands are stored in _____
Answer: d a) Registers
Explanation: None. b) Accumulators
advertisement c) Push down stack
d) Cache
13. If the instruction, Add R1, R2, R3 is executed View Answer
in a system which is pipe-lined, then the value of S
is (Where S is a term of the Basic performance Answer: c
equation) Explanation: In this case, the operands are
a) 3 implicitly loaded onto the ALU.
b) ~2
c) ~1 3. Add #45, when this instruction is executed the
d) 6 following happen/s _______
View Answer a) The processor raises an error and requests for
one more operand
Answer: c b) The value stored in memory location 45 is
Explanation: S is the number of steps required to retrieved and one more operand is requested
execute the instructions. c) The value 45 gets added to the value on the
stack and is pushed onto the stack
14. CISC stands for _______ d) None of the mentioned
a) Complete Instruction Sequential Compilation View Answer
b) Computer Integrated Sequential Compiler
c) Complex Instruction Set Computer Answer: b
d) Complex Instruction Sequential Compilation Explanation: None.
View Answer
4. The addressing mode which makes use of in-
Answer: c direction pointers is ______
Explanation: CISC is a type of system architecture a) Indirect addressing mode
where complex instructions are grouped together b) Index addressing mode
and executed to improve the system performance. c) Relative addressing mode
d) Offset addressing mode
15. As of 2000, the reference system to find the View Answer
SPEC rating are built with _____ Processor.
a) Intel Atom SParc 300Mhz Answer: a
b) Ultra SPARC -IIi 300MHZ Explanation: In this addressing mode, the value of
c) Amd Neutrino series the register serves as another memory location and
d) ASUS A series 450 Mhz hence we use pointers to get the data.
View Answer
5. In the following indexed addressing mode
instruction, MOV 5(R1),LOC the effective address
189
is ______ c) 5+[R1]+[R2].
a) EA = 5+R1 d) 5*([R1]+[R2])
b) EA = R1 View Answer
c) EA = [R1].
d) EA = 5+[R1]. Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: The addressing mode used is base
with offset and index.
Answer: d
Explanation: This instruction is in Base with offset 10. _____ addressing mode is most suitable to
addressing mode. change the normal sequence of execution of
instructions.
6. The addressing mode/s, which uses the PC a) Relative
instead of a general purpose register is ______ b) Indirect
a) Indexed with offset c) Index with Offset
b) Relative d) Immediate
c) direct View Answer
d) both Indexed with offset and direct
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: The relative addressing mode is used
Answer: b for this since it directly updates the PC.
Explanation: In this, the contents of the PC are
directly incremented. 1. Which method/s of representation of numbers
occupies a large amount of memory than others?
7. When we use auto increment or auto a) Sign-magnitude
decrements, which of the following is/are true? b) 1’s complement
1) In both, the address is used to retrieve the c) 2’s complement
operand and then the address gets altered d) 1’s & 2’s compliment
2) In auto increment, the operand is retrieved first View Answer
and then the address altered
3) Both of them can be used on general purpose Answer: a
registers as well as memory locations Explanation: It takes more memory as one bit used
a) 1, 2, 3 up to store the sign.
b) 2
c) 1, 3 2. Which representation is most efficient to
d) 2, 3 perform arithmetic operations on the numbers?
View Answer a) Sign-magnitude
b) 1’s complement
Answer: d c) 2’S complement
Explanation: In the case of, auto increment the d) None of the mentioned
increment is done afterward and in auto decrement View Answer
the decrement is done first.
advertisement Answer: c
Explanation: The two’s complement form is more
8. The addressing mode, where you directly suitable to perform arithmetic operations as there is
specify the operand value is _______ no need to involve the sign of the number into
a) Immediate consideration.
b) Direct
c) Definite 3. Which method of representation has two
d) Relative representations for ‘0’?
View Answer a) Sign-magnitude
b) 1’s complement
Answer: a c) 2’s complement
Explanation: None. d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
9. The effective address of the following
instruction is MUL 5(R1,R2). Answer: a
a) 5+R1+R2 Explanation: One is positive and one for negative.
b) 5+(R1*R2)
190
 4. When we perform subtraction on -7 and 1 the d) Log register
answer in 2’s complement form is _________ View Answer
a) 1010
b) 1110 Answer: b
c) 0110 Explanation: The status register stores the
d) 1000 condition codes of the system.
View Answer
9. The Flag ‘V’ is set to 1 indicates that,
Answer: d a) The operation is valid
Explanation: First the 2’s complement is found and b) The operation is validated
that is added to the number and the overflow is c) The operation has resulted in an overflow
ignored. d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
5. When we perform subtraction on -7 and -5 the
answer in 2’s complement form is ________ Answer: c
a) 11110 Explanation: This is used to check the overflow
b) 1110 occurs in the operation.
c) 1010
d) 0010 10. In some pipelined systems, a different
View Answer instruction is used to add to numbers which can
affect the flags upon execution. That instruction is
Answer: b _______
Explanation: First the 2’s complement is found and a) AddSetCC
that is added to the number and the overflow is b) AddCC
ignored. c) Add++
d) SumSetCC
6. When we subtract -3 from 2 , the answer in 2’s View Answer
complement form is _________
a) 0001 Answer: a
b) 1101 Explanation: By using this instruction the
c) 0101 condition flags won’t be affected at all.
d) 1001
View Answer 11. The most efficient method followed by
computers to multiply two unsigned numbers is
Answer: c _______
Explanation: First the 2’s complement is found and a) Booth algorithm
that is added to the number and the overflow is b) Bit pair recording of multipliers
ignored. c) Restoring algorithm
d) Non restoring algorithm
7. The processor keeps track of the results of its View Answer
operations using a flags called ________
a) Conditional code flags Answer: b
b) Test output flags Explanation: None.
c) Type flags
d) None of the mentioned 12. For the addition of large integers, most of the
View Answer systems make use of ______
a) Fast adders
Answer: a b) Full adders
Explanation: These flags are used to indicate if c) Carry look-ahead adders
there is an overflow or carry or zero result d) None of the mentioned
occurrence. View Answer

8. The register used to store the flags is called as Answer: c

_________ Explanation: In this method the carries for each
a) Flag register step are generated first.
b) Status register advertisement
c) Test register

191
 13. In a normal n-bit adder, to find out if an 3. An 24 bit address generates an address space of
overflow as occurred we make use of ________ ______ locations.
a) And gate a) 1024
b) Nand gate b) 4096
c) Nor gate c) 248
d) Xor gate d) 16,777,216
View Answer View Answer

Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: None. Explanation: The number of addressable locations
in the system is called as address space.
14. In the implementation of a Multiplier circuit in
the system we make use of _______ 4. If a system is 64 bit machine, then the length of
a) Counter each word will be _______
b) Flip flop a) 4 bytes
c) Shift register b) 8 bytes
d) Push down stack c) 16 bytes
View Answer d) 12 bytes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The shift registers are used to store Answer: b
the multiplied answer. Explanation: A 64 bit system means, that at a time
64 bit instruction can be executed.
15. When 1101 is used to divide 100010010 the
remainder is ______ 5. The type of memory assignment used in Intel
a) 101 processors is _____
b) 11 a) Little Endian
c) 0 b) Big Endian
d) 1 c) Medium Endian
View Answer d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None. Answer: a
Explanation: The method of address allocation to
1. The smallest entity of memory is called data to be stored is called as memory assignment.
_______
a) Cell 6. When using the Big Endian assignment to store
b) Block a number, the sign bit of the number is stored in
c) Instance _____
d) Unit a) The higher order byte of the word
View Answer b) The lower order byte of the word
c) Can’t say
Answer: a d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: Each data is made up of a number of View Answer
units.
Answer: a
2. The collection of the above mentioned entities Explanation: None.
where data is stored is called ______
a) Block 7. To get the physical address from the logical
b) Set address generated by CPU we use ____
c) Word a) MAR
d) Byte b) MMU
View Answer c) Overlays
d) TLB
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: Each readable part of data is called as
blocks. Answer: b
Explanation: Memory Management Unit, is used to
192
add the offset to the logical address generated by b) !
the CPU to get the physical address. c) $
advertisement d) *
View Answer
8. _____ method is used to map logical addresses
of variable length onto physical memory. Answer: c
a) Paging Explanation: None.
b) Overlays
c) Segmentation 3. When generating physical addresses from a
d) Paging with segmentation logical address the offset is stored in _____
View Answer a) Translation look-aside buffer
b) Relocation register
Answer: c c) Page table
Explanation: Segmentation is a process in which d) Shift register
memory is divided into groups of variable length View Answer
called segments.
Answer: b
9. During the transfer of data between the Explanation: In the MMU the relocation register
processor and memory we use ______ stores the offset address.
a) Cache
b) TLB 4. The technique used to store programs larger
c) Buffers than the memory is ______
d) Registers a) Overlays
View Answer b) Extension registers
c) Buffers
Answer: d d) Both Extension registers and Buffers
Explanation: None. View Answer

10. Physical memory is divided into sets of finite Answer: a

size called as ______ Explanation: In this, only a part of the program
a) Frames getting executed is stored on the memory and later
b) Pages swapped in for the other part.
c) Blocks
d) Vectors 5. The unit which acts as an intermediate agent
View Answer between memory and backing store to reduce
process time is _____
Answer: a a) TLB’s
Explanation: None. b) Registers
c) Page tables
1. Add #%01011101,R1 , when this instruction is d) Cache
executed then _________ View Answer
a) The binary addition between the operands takes
place Answer: d
b) The Numerical value represented by the binary Explanation: The cache’s help in data transfers by
value is added to the value of R1 storing most recently used memory pages.
c) The addition doesn’t take place, whereas this is
similar to a MOV instruction 6. The Load instruction does the following
d) None of the mentioned operation/s,
View Answer a) Loads the contents of a disc onto a memory
location
Answer: a b) Loads the contents of a location onto the
Explanation: This performs operations in binary accumulators
mode directly. c) Load the contents of the PCB onto the register
d) None of the mentioned
2. If we want to perform memory or arithmetic View Answer
operations on data in Hexa-decimal mode then we
use ___ symbol before the operand. Answer: b
a) ~ Explanation: The load instruction is basically used
193
to load the contents of a memory location onto a Answer:a
register. Explanation: This is the way of writing the
assembly language code with the help of register
7. Complete the following analogy:- Registers are notations.
to RAM’s as Cache’s are to _____
a) System stacks 2. The instruction, Add Loc,R1 in RTN is
b) Overlays _______
c) Page Table a) AddSetCC Loc+R1
d) TLB b) R1=Loc+R1
View Answer c) Not possible to write in RTN
d) R1<-[Loc]+[R1].
Answer: d View Answer
Explanation: None.
advertisement Answer:d
Explanation: None.
8. The BOOT sector files of the system are stored
in _____ 3. Can you perform addition on three operands
a) Harddisk simultaneously in ALN using Add instruction?
b) ROM a) Yes
c) RAM b) Not possible using Add, we’ve to use AddSetCC
d) Fast solid state chips in the motherboard c) Not permitted
View Answer d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The files which are required for the Answer:c
starting up of a system are stored on the ROM. Explanation: You cannot perform addition on three
operands simultaneously because the third operand
9. The transfer of large chunks of data with the is where the result is stored.
involvement of the processor is done by _______
a) DMA controller 4. The instruction, Add R1,R2,R3 in RTN is
b) Arbitrator _______
c) User system programs a) R3=R1+R2+R3
d) None of the mentioned b) R3<-[R1]+[R2]+[R3].
View Answer c) R3=[R1]+[R2].
d) R3<-[R1]+[R2].
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: This mode of transfer involves the
transfer of a large block of data from the memory. Answer:d
Explanation: In RTN the first operand is the
10. Which of the following technique/s used to destination and the second operand is the source.
effectively utilize main memory?
a) Address binding 5. In a system, which has 32 registers the register
b) Dynamic linking id is ____ long.
c) Dynamic loading a) 16 bit
d) Both Dynamic linking and loading b) 8 bits
View Answer c) 5 bits
d) 6 bits
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: In this method only when the routine
is required is loaded and hence saves memory. Answer:c
Explanation: The ID is the name tag given to each
1. RTN stands for ___________ of the registers and used to identify them.
a) Register Transfer Notation
b) Register Transmission Notation 6. The two phases of executing an instruction are
c) Regular Transmission Notation __________
d) Regular Transfer Notation a) Instruction decoding and storage
View Answer b) Instruction fetch and instruction execution
c) Instruction execution and storage
194
d) Instruction fetch and Instruction processing Answer:c
View Answer Explanation: This condition flag is used to check if
the arithmetic operation yields a zero output
Answer:b
Explanation: First, the instructions are fetched and 1. ____ converts the programs written in assembly
decoded and then they’re executed and stored. language into machine instructions.
a) Machine compiler
7. The Instruction fetch phase ends with b) Interpreter
_________ c) Assembler
a) Placing the data from the address in MAR into d) Converter
MDR View Answer
b) Placing the address of the data into MAR
c) Completing the execution of the data and Answer: c
placing its storage address into MAR Explanation: An assembler is a software used to
d) Decoding the data in MDR and placing it in IR convert the programs into machine instructions.
View Answer
2. The instructions like MOV or ADD are called
Answer:d as ______
Explanation: The fetch ends with the instruction a) OP-Code
getting decoded and being placed in the IR and the b) Operators
PC getting incremented. c) Commands
advertisement d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
8. While using the iterative construct (Branching)
in execution ____ instruction is used to check the Answer: a
condition. Explanation: This OP – codes tell the system what
a) TestAndSet operation to perform on the operands.
b) Branch
c) TestCondn 3. The alternate way of writing the instruction,
d) None of the mentioned ADD #5,R1 is ______
View Answer a) ADD [5],[R1];
b) ADDI 5,R1;
Answer:b c) ADDIME 5,[R1];
Explanation: Branch instruction is used to check d) There is no other way
the test condition and to perform the memory jump View Answer
with help of offset.
Answer: b
9. When using Branching, the usual sequencing of Explanation: The ADDI instruction, means the
the PC is altered. A new instruction is loaded addition is in immediate addressing mode.
which is called as ______
a) Branch target 4. Instructions which won’t appear in the object
b) Loop target program are called as _____
c) Forward target a) Redundant instructions
d) Jump instruction b) Exceptions
View Answer c) Comments
d) Assembler Directives
Answer:a View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
10. The condition flag Z is set to 1 to indicate Explanation: The directives help the program in
_______ getting compiled and hence wont be there in the
a) The operation has resulted in an error object code.
b) The operation requires an interrupt call
c) The result is zero 5. The assembler directive EQU, when used in the
d) There is no empty register available instruction: Sum EQU 200 does ________
View Answer a) Finds the first occurrence of Sum and assigns
value 200 to it
b) Replaces every occurrence of Sum with 200
195
c) Re-assigns the address of Sum by adding 200 to 10. The last statement of the source program
its original address should be _______
d) Assigns 200 bytes of memory starting the a) Stop
location of Sum b) Return
View Answer c) OP
d) End
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: This basically is used to replace the
variable with a constant value. Answer: d
Explanation: This enables the processor to load
6. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is some other process.
__________
a) To indicate the starting position in memory, 11. When dealing with the branching code the
where the program block is to be stored assembler ___________
b) To indicate the starting of the computation code a) Replaces the target with its address
c) To indicate the purpose of the code b) Does not replace until the test condition is
d) To list the locations of all the registers used satisfied
View Answer c) Finds the Branch offset and replaces the Branch
target with it
Answer: a d) Replaces the target with the value specified by
Explanation: This does the function similar to the the DATAWORD directive
main statement. View Answer

7. The directive used to perform initialization Answer: c

before the execution of the code is ______ Explanation: When the assembler comes across the
a) Reserve branch code, it immediately finds the branch offset
b) Store and replaces it with it.
c) Dataword
d) EQU 12. The assembler stores all the names and their
View Answer corresponding values in ______
a) Special purpose Register
Answer: c b) Symbol Table
Explanation: None. c) Value map Set
d) None of the mentioned
8. _____ directive is used to specify and assign View Answer
the memory required for the block of code.
a) Allocate Answer: b
b) Assign Explanation: The table where the assembler stores
c) Set the variable names along with their corresponding
d) Reserve memory locations and values.
View Answer advertisement

Answer: d 13. The assembler stores the object code in

Explanation: This instruction is used to allocate a ______
block of memory and to store the object code of a) Main memory
the program there. b) Cache
c) RAM
9. _____ directive specifies the end of execution d) Magnetic disk
of a program. View Answer
a) End
b) Return Answer: d
c) Stop Explanation: After compiling the object code, the
d) Terminate assembler stores it in the magnetic disk and waits
View Answer for further execution.

Answer: b 14. The utility program used to bring the object

Explanation: This instruction directive is used to code into memory for execution is ______
terminate the program execution. a) Loader
196
b) Fetcher 4. The order in which the return addresses are
c) Extractor generated and used is _________
d) Linker a) LIFO
View Answer b) FIFO
c) Random
Answer: a d) Highest priority
Explanation: The program which is used to load View Answer
the program into memory.
Answer: a
15. To overcome the problems of the assembler in Explanation: That is the routine called first is
dealing with branching code we use _____ returned first.
a) Interpreter
b) Debugger 5. In case of nested subroutines the return
c) Op-Assembler addresses are stored in __________
d) Two-pass assembler a) System heap
View Answer b) Special memory buffers
c) Processor stack
Answer: d d) Registers
Explanation: This creates entries into the symbol View Answer
table first and then creates the object code.
Answer: c
1. The return address of the Sub-routine is pointed Explanation: In this case, there will be more
to by _______ number of return addresses it is stored on the
a) IR processor stack.
b) PC
c) MAR 6. The appropriate return addresses are obtained
d) Special memory registers with the help of ____ in case of nested routines.
View Answer a) MAR
b) MDR
Answer: b c) Buffers
Explanation: The return address from the d) Stack-pointers
subroutine is pointed to by the PC. View Answer

2. The location to return to, from the subroutine is Answer: d

stored in _______ Explanation: The pointers are used to point to the
a) TLB location on the stack where the address is stored.
b) PC
c) MAR 7. When parameters are being passed on to the
d) Link registers subroutines they are stored in ________
View Answer a) Registers
b) Memory locations
Answer: d c) Processor stacks
Explanation: The registers store the return address d) All of the mentioned
of the routine and is pointed to by the PC. View Answer

3. Subroutine nesting means, Answer: d

a) Having multiple subroutines in a program Explanation: In the case of, parameter passing the
b) Using a linking nest statement to put many data can be stored on any of the storage space.
subroutines under the same name advertisement
c) Having one routine call the other
d) None of the mentioned 8. The most efficient way of handling parameter
View Answer passing is by using ______
a) General purpose registers
Answer: c b) Stacks
Explanation: None. c) Memory locations
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

197
 Answer: a 3. ______ pointer is used to point to parameters
Explanation: By using general purpose registers for passed or local parameters of the subroutine.
the parameter passing we make the process more a) Stack pointer
efficient. b) Frame pointer
c) Parameter register
9. The most Flexible way of logging the return d) Log register
addresses of the subroutines is by using _______ View Answer
a) Registers
b) Stacks Answer: b
c) Memory locations Explanation: This pointer is used to track the
d) None of the mentioned current position of the stack being used.
View Answer
4. The reserved memory or private space of the
Answer: b subroutine gets deallocated when _______
Explanation: The stacks are used as Logs for return a) The stop instruction is executed by the routine
addresses of the subroutines. b) The pointer reaches the end of the space
c) When the routine’s return statement is executed
10. The wrong statement/s regarding interrupts d) None of the mentioned
and subroutines among the following is/are ______ View Answer
i) The sub-routine and interrupts have a return
statement Answer: c
ii) Both of them alter the content of the PC Explanation: The work space allocated to a
iii) Both are software oriented subroutine gets deallocated when the routine is
iv) Both can be initiated by the user completed.
a) i, ii and iv
b) ii and iii 5. The private space gets allocated to each
c) iv subroutine when _________
d) iii and iv a) The first statement of the routine is executed
View Answer b) When the context switch takes place
c) When the routine gets called
Answer: d d) When the Allocate instruction is executed
Explanation: None. View Answer

1. The private work space dedicated to a Answer: c

subroutine is called as ________ Explanation: When the call statement is executed,
a) System heap simultaneously space also gets allocated.
b) Reserve
c) Stack frame 6. _____ the most suitable data structure used to
d) Allocation store the return addresses in the case of nested
View Answer subroutines.
a) Heap
Answer: c b) Stack
Explanation: This work space is where the c) Queue
intermediate values of the subroutines are stored. d) List
View Answer
2. If the subroutine exceeds the private space
allocated to it then the values are pushed onto Answer: b
_________ Explanation: None.
a) Stack
b) System heap 7. In case of nested subroutines, the stack top is
c) Reserve Space always _________
d) Stack frame a) The saved contents of the called sub routine
View Answer b) The saved contents of the calling sub routine
c) The return addresses of the called sub routine
Answer: a d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: If the allocated work space is View Answer
exceeded then the data is pushed onto the system
stack.
198
 Answer: a a) Star BUS structure
Explanation: None. b) Multiple BUS structure
advertisement c) Single BUS structure
d) Node to Node BUS structure
8. The stack frame for each subroutine is present View Answer
in ______
a) Main memory Answer: c
b) System Heap Explanation: BUS is a collection of address,
c) Processor Stack control and data lines used to connect the various
d) None of the mentioned devices of the computer.
View Answer
3. In intel’s IA-32 architecture there is a separate
Answer: c 16 bit address space for the I/O devices?
Explanation: The memory for the work space is a) False
allocated from the processor stack. b) True
View Answer
9. The data structure suitable for scheduling
processes is _______ Answer: b
a) List Explanation: This type of access is called as I/O
b) Heap mapped devices.
c) Queue
d) Stack 4. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to
View Answer memory mapped is ___________
a) The former offers faster transfer of data
Answer: c b) The devices connected using I/O mapping have
Explanation: The Queue data structure is generally a bigger buffer space
used for scheduling as it is two directional. c) The devices have to deal with fewer address
lines
10. The sub-routine service procedure is similar to d) No advantage as such
that of the interrupt service routine in ________ View Answer
a) Method of context switch
b) Returning Answer: c
c) Process execution Explanation: Since the I/O mapped devices have a
d) Method of context switch & Process execution separate address space the address lines are limited
View Answer by the amount of the space allocated.

Answer: d 5. The system is notified of a read or write

Explanation: The Subroutine service procedure is operation by ___________
the same as the interrupt service routine in all a) Appending an extra bit of the address
aspects, except the fact that interrupt might not be b) Enabling the read or write bits of the devices
related to the process being executed. c) Raising an appropriate interrupt signal
d) Sending a special signal along the BUS
1. In memory-mapped I/O ____________ View Answer
a) The I/O devices and the memory share the same
address space Answer: d
b) The I/O devices have a separate address space Explanation: It is necessary for the processor to
c) The memory and I/O devices have an associated send a signal intimating the request as either read
address space or write.
d) A part of the memory is specifically set aside for
the I/O operation 6. To overcome the lag in the operating speeds of
View Answer the I/O device and the processor we use
___________
Answer: a a) BUffer spaces
Explanation: Its the different modes of accessing b) Status flags
the i/o devices. c) Interrupt signals
d) Exceptions
2. The usual BUS structure used to connect the View Answer
I/O devices is ___________
199
 Answer: b d) Echoing
Explanation: The processor operating is much View Answer
faster than that of the I/O devices, so by using the
status flags the processor need not wait till the I/O Answer: a
operation is done. It can continue with its work Explanation: None.
until the status flag is set.
1. The interrupt-request line is a part of the
7. The method of accessing the I/O devices by a) Data line
repeatedly checking the status flags is b) Control line
___________ c) Address line
a) Program-controlled I/O d) None of the mentioned
b) Memory-mapped I/O View Answer
c) I/O mapped
d) None of the mentioned Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: The Interrupt-request line is a control
line along which the device is allowed to send the
Answer: a interrupt signal.
Explanation: In this method, the processor
constantly checks the status flags, and when it 2. The return address from the interrupt-service
finds that the flag is set it performs the appropriate routine is stored on the
operation. a) System heap
advertisement b) Processor register
c) Processor stack
8. The method of synchronising the processor d) Memory
with the I/O device in which the device sends a View Answer
signal when it is ready is
a) Exceptions Answer: c
b) Signal handling Explanation: The Processor after servicing the
c) Interrupts interrupts as to load the address of the previous
d) DMA process and this address is stored in the stack.
View Answer
3. The signal sent to the device from the processor
Answer: c to the device after receiving an interrupt is
Explanation: This is a method of accessing the I/O a) Interrupt-acknowledge
devices which gives the complete power to the b) Return signal
devices, enabling them to intimate the processor c) Service signal
when they’re ready for transfer. d) Permission signal
View Answer
9. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O
transfers is ___________ Answer: a
a) Interrupts Explanation: The Processor upon receiving the
b) Memory mapping interrupt should let the device know that its request
c) Program-controlled I/O is received.
d) DMA
View Answer 4. When the process is returned after an interrupt
service ______ should be loaded again.
Answer: d i) Register contents
Explanation: In DMA the I/O devices are directly ii) Condition codes
allowed to interact with the memory without the iii) Stack contents
intervention of the processor and the transfers take iv) Return addresses
place in the form of blocks increasing the speed of a) i,iv
operation. b) ii,iii and iv
c) iii,iv
10. The process wherein the processor constantly d) i,ii
checks the status flags is called as View Answer
a) Polling
b) Inspection Answer: d
c) Reviewing Explanation: None.
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 5. The time between the receiver of an interrupt d) Line resistor
and its service is ______ View Answer
a) Interrupt delay
b) Interrupt latency Answer: b
c) Cycle time Explanation: This resistor is used to pull up the
d) Switching time voltage of the interrupt service line.
View Answer
10. An interrupt that can be temporarily ignored is
Answer: b a) Vectored interrupt
Explanation: The delay in servicing of an interrupt b) Non-maskable interrupt
happens due to the time is taken for contact switch c) Maskable interrupt
to take place. d) High priority interrupt
View Answer
6. Interrupts form an important part of _____
systems. Answer: c
a) Batch processing Explanation: The maskable interrupts are usually
b) Multitasking low priority interrupts which can be ignored if a
c) Real-time processing higher priority process is being executed.
d) Multi-user
View Answer 11. The 8085 microprocessor responds to the
presence of an interrupt
Answer: c a) As soon as the trap pin becomes ‘LOW’
Explanation: This forms an important part of the b) By checking the trap pin for ‘high’ status at the
Real time system since if a process arrives with end of each instruction fetch
greater priority then it raises an interrupt and the c) By checking the trap pin for ‘high’ status at the
other process is stopped and the interrupt will be end of execution of each instruction
serviced. d) By checking the trap pin for ‘high’ status at
regular intervals
7. A single Interrupt line can be used to service n View Answer
different devices?
a) True Answer: c
b) False Explanation: The 8085 microprocessor are
View Answer designed to complete the execution of the current
instruction and then to service the interrupts.
Answer: a
Explanation: None 12. CPU as two modes privileged and non-
privileged. In order to change the mode from
8. ______ type circuits are generally used for privileged to non-privileged
interrupt service lines a) A hardware interrupt is needed
i) open-collector b) A software interrupt is needed
ii) open-drain c) Either hardware or software interrupt is needed
iii) XOR d) A non-privileged instruction (which does not
iv) XNOR generate an interrupt)is needed
a) i,ii View Answer
b) ii
c) ii,iii Answer: b
d) ii,iv Explanation: A software interrupt by some
View Answer program which needs some CPU service, at that
time the two modes can be interchanged.
Answer: a advertisement
Explanation: None
13. Which interrupt is unmaskable?
9. The resistor which is attached to the service a) RST 5.5
line is called _____ b) RST 7.5
a) Push-down resistor c) TRAP
b) Pull-up resistor d) Both RST 5.5 and 7.5
c) Break down resistor View Answer

201
 Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: The trap is a non-maskable interrupt Explanation: None.
as it deals with the ongoing process in the
processor. The trap is initiated by the process being 3. In vectored interrupts, how does the device
executed due to lack of data required for its identify itself to the processor?
completion. Hence trap is unmaskable. a) By sending its device id
b) By sending the machine code for the interrupt
14. From amongst the following given scenarios service routine
determine the right one to justify interrupt mode of c) By sending the starting address of the service
data transfer routine
i) Bulk transfer of several kilo-byte d) None of the mentioned
ii) Moderately large data transfer of more than 1kb View Answer
iii) Short events like mouse action
iv) Keyboard inputs Answer: c
a) i and ii Explanation: By sending the starting address of the
b) ii routine the device ids the routine required and
c) i,ii and iv thereby identifying itself.
d) iv
View Answer 4. The code sent by the device in vectored
interrupt is _____ long.
Answer: d a) upto 16 bits
Explanation: None. b) upto 32 bits
c) upto 24 bits
15. How can the processor ignore other interrupts d) 4-8 bits
when it is servicing one View Answer
a) By turning off the interrupt request line
b) By disabling the devices from sending the Answer: d
interrupts Explanation: None.
c) BY using edge-triggered request lines
d) All of the mentioned 5. The starting address sent by the device in
View Answer vectored interrupt is called as __________
a) Location id
Answer: d b) Interrupt vector
Explanation: None. c) Service location
d) Service id
1. When dealing with multiple devices interrupts, View Answer
which mechanism is easy to implement?
a) Polling method Answer: b
b) Vectored interrupts Explanation: None.
c) Interrupt nesting
d) None of the mentioned 6. The processor indicates to the devices that it is
View Answer ready to receive interrupts ________
a) By enabling the interrupt request line
Answer: a b) By enabling the IRQ bits
Explanation: In this method, the processor checks c) By activating the interrupt acknowledge line
the IRQ bits of all the devices, whichever is d) None of the mentioned
enabled first that device is serviced. View Answer

2. The interrupt servicing mechanism in which the Answer: c

requesting device identifies itself to the processor Explanation: When the processor activates the
to be serviced is ___________ acknowledge line the devices send their interrupts
a) Polling to the processor.
b) Vectored interrupts
c) Interrupt nesting 7. We describe a protocol of input device
d) Simultaneous requesting communication below:
View Answer i) Each device has a distinct address.
ii) The BUS controller scans each device in a
sequence of increasing address value to determine
202
if the entity wishes to communicate Answer: b
iii) The device ready to communicate leaves its Explanation: In the Daisy chain mechanism, all the
data in the I/O register devices are connected using a single request line
iv) The data is picked up and the controller moves and they’re serviced based on the interrupting
to the step a device’s priority.
Identify the form of communication best describes
the I/O mode amongst the following: 11. In daisy chaining device 0 will pass the signal
a) Programmed mode of data transfer only if it has _______
b) DMA a) Interrupt request
c) Interrupt mode b) No interrupt request
d) Polling c) Both No interrupt and Interrupt request
View Answer d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In polling, the processor checks each Answer: b
of the devices if they wish to perform data transfer Explanation: In daisy chaining since there is only
and if they do it performs the particular operation. one request line and only one acknowledge line,
the acknowledge signal passes from device to
8. Which one of the following is true with regard device until the one with the interrupt is found.
to a CPU having a single interrupt request line and
single interrupt grant line? 12. ______ interrupt method uses register whose
i) Neither vectored nor multiple interrupting bits are set separately by interrupt signal for each
devices is possible. device.
ii) Vectored interrupts is not possible but multiple a) Parallel priority interrupt
interrupting devices is possible. b) Serial priority interrupt
iii) Vectored interrupts is possible and multiple c) Daisy chaining
interrupting devices is not possible. d) None of the mentioned
iv) Both vectored and multiple interrupting devices View Answer
are possible.
a) iii Answer: a
b) i,iv Explanation: None.
c) ii,iii
d) iii,iv 1. The DMA differs from the interrupt mode by
View Answer a) The involvement of the processor for the
operation
Answer: a b) The method of accessing the I/O devices
Explanation: None. c) The amount of data transfer possible
d) None of the mentioned
9. Which table handle stores the addresses of the View Answer
interrupt handling sub-routines?
a) Interrupt-vector table Answer: d
b) Vector table Explanation: DMA is an approach of performing
c) Symbol link table data transfers in bulk between memory and the
d) None of the mentioned external device without the intervention of the
View Answer processor.

Answer: a 2. The DMA transfers are performed by a control

Explanation: None. circuit called as
a) Device interface
10. _________ method is used to establish b) DMA controller
priority by serially connecting all devices that c) Data controller
request an interrupt. d) Overlooker
a) Vectored-interrupting View Answer
b) Daisy chain
c) Priority Answer: b
d) Polling Explanation: The Controller performs the functions
View Answer that would normally be carried out by the
processor.
203
 3. In DMA transfers, the required signals and Answer: b
addresses are given by the Explanation: The controller is directly connected to
a) Processor the system BUS to provide faster transfer of data.
b) Device drivers
c) DMA controllers 8. Can a single DMA controller perform
d) The program itself operations on two different disks simultaneously?
View Answer a) True
b) False
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: The DMA controller acts as a
processor for DMA transfers and overlooks the Answer: a
entire process. Explanation: The DMA controller can perform
operations on two different disks if the appropriate
4. After the completion of the DMA transfer, the details are known.
processor is notified by
a) Acknowledge signal 9. The technique whereby the DMA controller
b) Interrupt signal steals the access cycles of the processor to operate
c) WMFC signal is called
d) None of the mentioned a) Fast conning
View Answer b) Memory Con
c) Cycle stealing
Answer: b d) Memory stealing
Explanation: The controller raises an interrupt View Answer
signal to notify the processor that the transfer was
complete. Answer: c
Explanation: The controller takes over the
5. The DMA controller has _______ registers processor’s access cycles and performs memory
a) 4 operations.
b) 2
c) 3 10. The technique where the controller is given
d) 1 complete access to main memory is
View Answer a) Cycle stealing
b) Memory stealing
Answer: c c) Memory Con
Explanation: The Controller uses the registers to d) Burst mode
store the starting address, word count and the status View Answer
of the operation.
Answer: d
6. When the R/W bit of the status register of the Explanation: The controller is given full control of
DMA controller is set to 1. the memory access cycles and can transfer blocks
a) Read operation is performed at a faster rate.
b) Write operation is performed
c) Read & Write operation is performed 11. The controller uses _____ to help with the
d) None of the mentioned transfers when handling network interfaces.
View Answer a) Input Buffer storage
b) Signal enhancers
Answer: a c) Bridge circuits
Explanation: None. d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
7. The controller is connected to the ____
a) Processor BUS Answer: a
b) System BUS Explanation: The controller stores the data to
c) External BUS transfer in the buffer and then transfers it.
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer 12. To overcome the conflict over the possession
of the BUS we use ______
a) Optimizers
b) BUS arbitrators
204
c) Multiple BUS structure 2. The minimum time delay between two
d) None of the mentioned successive memory read operations is ______
View Answer a) Cycle time
b) Latency
Answer: b c) Delay
Explanation: The BUS arbitrator is used to d) None of the mentioned
overcome the contention over the BUS possession. View Answer
advertisement
Answer: a
13. The registers of the controller are ______ Explanation: The Time taken by the cpu to end one
a) 64 bits read operation and to start one more is cycle time.
b) 24 bits
c) 32 bits 3. MFC is used to _________
d) 16 bits a) Issue a read signal
View Answer b) Signal to the device that the memory read
operation is complete
Answer: c c) Signal the processor the memory operation is
Explanation: None. complete
d) Assign a device to perform the read operation
14. When the process requests for a DMA transfer View Answer
a) Then the process is temporarily suspended
b) The process continues execution Answer: c
c) Another process gets executed Explanation: The MFC stands for memory
d) process is temporarily suspended & Another Function Complete.
process gets executed
View Answer 4. __________ is the bottleneck, when it comes
computer performance.
Answer: d a) Memory access time
Explanation: The process requesting the transfer is b) Memory cycle time
paused and the operation is performed, meanwhile c) Delay
another process is run on the processor. d) Latency
View Answer
15. The DMA transfer is initiated by _____
a) Processor Answer: b
b) The process being executed Explanation: The processor can execute
c) I/O devices instructions faster than they’re fetched, hence cycle
d) OS time is the bottleneck for performance.
View Answer
5. The logical addresses generated by the cpu are
Answer: c mapped onto physical memory by ____
Explanation: The transfer can only be initiated by a) Relocation register
an instruction of a program being executed. b) TLB
c) MMU
1. The duration between the read and the mfc d) None of the mentioned
signal is ______ View Answer
a) Access time
b) Latency Answer: c
c) Delay Explanation: The MMU stands for memory
d) Cycle time management unit, which is used to map logical
View Answer address onto physical address.

Answer: a 6. VLSI stands for ___________

Explanation: The time between the issue of a read
signal and the completion of it is called memory
access time.
a) Very Large Scale Integration
b) Very Large Stand-alone Integration
c) Volatile Layer System Interface
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

205
 Answer: a d) 1024 X 1
Explanation: None. View Answer

7. The cells in a row are connected to a common Answer: d

line called ______ Explanation: All the others require less than 10
a) Work line address bits.
b) Word line
c) Length line 12. Circuits that can hold their state as long as
d) Principle diagonal power is applied is _______
View Answer a) Dynamic memory
b) Static memory
Answer: b c) Register
Explanation: This means that the cell contents d) Cache
together form one word of instruction or data. View Answer

8. The cells in each column are connected to Answer: b

______ Explanation: None.
a) Word line advertisement
b) Data line
c) Read line 13. The number of external connections required
d) Sense/ Write line in 16 X 8 memory organisation is _____
View Answer a) 14
b) 19
Answer: d c) 15
Explanation: The cells in each column are d) 12
connected to the sense/write circuit using two bit View Answer
lines and which is in turn connected to the data
lines. Answer: a
Explanation: In the 14, 8-data lines,4-address lines
9. The word line is driven by the _____ and 2 are sense/write and CS signals.
a) Chip select
b) Address decoder 14. The advantage of CMOS SRAM over the
c) Data line transistor one’s is _________
d) Control line a) Low cost
View Answer b) High efficiency
c) High durability
Answer: b d) Low power consumption
Explanation: None. View Answer

10. A 16 X 8 Organisation of memory cells, can Answer: d

store upto _____ Explanation: This is because the cell consumes
a) 256 bits power only when it is being accessed.
b) 1024 bits
c) 512 bits 15. In a 4M-bit chip organisation has a total of 19
d) 128 bits external connections.then it has _______ address if
View Answer 8 data lines are there.
a) 10
Answer: d b) 8
Explanation: It can store upto 128 bits as each cell c) 9
can hold one bit of data. d) 12
View Answer
11. A memory organisation that can hold upto
1024 bits and has a minimum of 10 address lines Answer: c
can be organized into _____ Explanation: To have 8 data lines and 19 external
a) 128 X 8 connections it has to have 9 address lines(i.e 512 x
b) 256 X 4 8 organisation).
c) 512 X 2

206
 1. The Reason for the disregarding of the SRAM’s Answer: a
is ________ Explanation: The sense amplifier detects if the
a) Low Efficiency value is above or below the threshold and then
b) High power consumption restores it.
c) High Cost
d) All of the mentioned 6. To reduce the number of external connections
View Answer required, we make use of ______
a) De-multiplexer
Answer: c b) Multiplexer
Explanation: The reason for the high cost of the c) Encoder
SRAM is because of the usage of more number of d) Decoder
transistors. View Answer

2. The disadvantage of DRAM over SRAM is/are Answer: b

_______ Explanation: We multiplex the various address
a) Lower data storage capacities lines onto fewer pins.
b) Higher heat dissipation
c) The cells are not static 7. The processor must take into account the delay
d) All of the mentioned in accessing the memory location, such memories
View Answer are called ______
a) Delay integrated
Answer: c b) Asynchronous memories
Explanation: This means that the cells won’t hold c) Synchronous memories
their state indefinitely. d) Isochronous memories
View Answer
3. The reason for the cells to lose their state over
time is Answer: b
a) The lower voltage levels Explanation: None.
b) Usage of capacitors to store the charge advertisement
c) Use of Shift registers
d) None of the mentioned 8. To get the row address of the required data
View Answer ______ is enabled.
a) CAS
Answer: b b) RAS
Explanation: Since capacitors are used the charge c) CS
dissipates over time. d) Sense/write
View Answer
4. The capacitors lose the charge over time due to
a) The leakage resistance of the capacitor Answer: b
b) The small current in the transistor after being Explanation: This makes the contents of the row
turned on required refreshed.
c) The defect of the capacitor
d) None of the mentioned 9. In order to read multiple bytes of a row at the
View Answer same time, we make use of ______
a) Latch
Answer: a b) Shift register
Explanation: The capacitor loses charge due to the c) Cache
backward current of the transistor and due to the d) Memory extension
small resistance. View Answer

5. _________ circuit is used to restore the Answer: a

capacitor value. Explanation: The latch makes it easy to ready
a) Sense amplify multiple bytes of data of the same row
b) Signal amplifier simultaneously by just giving the consecutive
c) Delta modulator column address.
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer 10. The block transfer capability of the DRAM is
called ________
207
a) Burst mode 5. In a SDRAM each row is refreshed every 64ms.
b) Block mode a) True
c) Fast page mode b) False
d) Fast frame mode View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
6. The time taken to transfer a word of data to or
1. The difference between DRAM’s and from the memory is called as ______
SDRAM’s is/are ________ a) Access time
a) The DRAM’s will not use the master slave b) Cycle time
relationship in data transfer c) Memory latency
b) The SDRAM’s make use of clock d) None of the mentioned
c) The SDRAM’s are more power efficient View Answer
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer Answer: c
Explanation: The performance of the memory is
Answer: d measured by means of latency.
Explanation: The SDRAM’s make use of clock
signals to synchronize their operation. 7. In SDRAM’s buffers are used to store data that
is read or written.
2. The difference in the address and data a) True
connection between DRAM’s and SDRAM’s is b) False
_______ View Answer
a) The usage of more number of pins in SDRAM’s
b) The requirement of more address lines in Answer: a
SDRAM’s Explanation: In SDRAM’s all the bytes of data to
c) The usage of a buffer in SDRAM’s be read or written are stored in the buffer until the
d) None of the mentioned operation is complete.
View Answer advertisement

Answer: c 8. The SDRAM performs operation on the

Explanation: The SDRAM uses buffered storage of _______
address and data. a) Rising edge of the clock
b) Falling edge of the clock
3. A _______ is used to restore the contents of the c) Middle state of the clock
cells. d) Transition state of the clock
a) Sense amplifier View Answer
b) Refresh counter
c) Restorer Answer: a
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: The SDRAM’s are edge-triggered.
View Answer
9. DDR SDRAM’s perform faster data transfer by
Answer: b _______
Explanation: The Counter helps to restore the a) Integrating the hardware
charge on the capacitor. b) Transferring on both edges
c) Improving the clock speeds
4. The mode register is used to _______ d) Increasing the bandwidth
a) Select the row or column data transfer mode View Answer
b) Select the mode of operation
c) Select mode of storing the data Answer: b
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: By transferring data on both the edges
View Answer the bandwidth is effectively doubled.

Answer: b 10. To improve the data retrieval rate

Explanation: The mode register is used to choose a) The memory is divided into two banks
between burst mode or bit mode of operation.
208
b) The hardware is changed 5. The ROM chips are mainly used to store
c) The clock frequency is increased _______
d) None of the mentioned a) System files
View Answer b) Root directories
c) Boot files
Answer: a d) Driver files
Explanation: The division of memory into two View Answer
banks makes it easy to access two different words
at each edge of the clock. Answer: c
Explanation: The ROM chips are used to store boot
1. If the transistor gate is closed, then the ROM files required for the system startup.
stores a value of 1.
a) True 6. The contents of the EPROM are erased by
b) False ________
View Answer a) Overcharging the chip
b) Exposing the chip to UV rays
Answer: b c) Exposing the chip to IR rays
Explanation: If the gate of the transistor is closed d) Discharging the Chip
then, the value of zero is stored in the ROM. View Answer

2. PROM stands for __________ Answer: b

a) Programmable Read Only Memory Explanation: To erase the contents of the EPROM
b) Pre-fed Read Only Memory the chip is exposed to the UV rays, which dissipate
c) Pre-required Read Only Memory the charge on the transistor.
d) Programmed Read Only Memory
View Answer 7. The disadvantage of the EPROM chip is
_______
Answer: a a) The high cost factor
Explanation: It allows the user to program the b) The low efficiency
ROM. c) The low speed of operation
d) The need to remove the chip physically to
3. The PROM is more effective than ROM chips reprogram it
in regard to _______ View Answer
a) Cost
b) Memory management Answer: d
c) Speed of operation Explanation: None.
d) Both Cost and Speed of operation
View Answer 8. EEPROM stands for Electrically Erasable
Programmable Read Only Memory.
Answer: d a) True
Explanation: The PROM is cheaper than ROM as b) False
they can be programmed manually. View Answer

4. The difference between the EPROM and ROM Answer: a

circuitry is _____ Explanation: The disadvantages of the EPROM led
a) The usage of MOSFET’s over transistors to the development of the EEPROM.
b) The usage of JFET’s over transistors
c) The usage of an extra transistor 9. The disadvantage of the EEPROM is/are
d) None of the mentioned ________
View Answer a) The requirement of different voltages to read,
write and store information
Answer: c b) The Latency read operation
Explanation: The EPROM uses an extra transistor c) The inefficient memory mapping schemes used
where the ground connection is there in the ROM d) All of the mentioned
chip. View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.
209
 10. The memory devices which are similar to Answer: b
EEPROM but differ in the cost effectiveness is Explanation: The flash drives have been developed
______ to provide faster operation but with lesser space.
a) Memory sticks
b) Blue-ray devices 15. The reason for the fast operating speeds of the
c) Flash memory flash drives is
d) CMOS a) The absence of any movable parts
View Answer b) The integrated electronic hardware
c) The improved bandwidth connection
Answer: c d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: The flash memory functions similar View Answer
to the EEPROM but is much cheaper.
Answer: a
11. The only difference between the EEPROM Explanation: Since the flash drives have no
and flash memory is that the latter doesn’t allow movable parts their access and seek times are
bulk data to be written. reasonably reduced.
a) True
b) False 1. The standard SRAM chips are costly as
View Answer _________
a) They use highly advanced micro-electronic
Answer: a devices
Explanation: This is not permitted as the previous b) They house 6 transistor per chip
contents of the cells will be overwritten. c) They require specially designed PCB’s
d) None of the mentioned
12. The flash memories find application in View Answer
______
a) Super computers Answer: b
b) Mainframe systems Explanation: As they require a large number of
c) Distributed systems transistors, their cost per bit increases.
d) Portable devices
View Answer 2. The drawback of building a large memory with
DRAM is ______________
Answer: d a) The large cost factor
Explanation: The flash memories low power b) The inefficient memory organisation
requirement enables them to be used in a wide c) The Slow speed of operation
range of hand held devices. d) All of the mentioned
advertisement View Answer

13. The memory module obtained by placing a Answer: c

number of flash chips for higher memory storage Explanation: The DRAM’s were used for large
called as _______ memory modules for a long time until a substitute
a) FIMM was found.
b) SIMM
c) Flash card 3. To overcome the slow operating speeds of the
d) RIMM secondary memory we make use of faster flash
View Answer drives.
a) True
Answer: c b) False
Explanation: None. View Answer

14. The flash memory modules designed to Answer: a

replace the functioning of a hard disk is ______ Explanation: To improve the speed we use flash
a) RIMM drives at the cost of memory space.
b) Flash drives
c) FIMM 4. The fastest data access is provided using
d) DIMM _______
View Answer a) Caches
b) DRAM’s
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c) SRAM’s 9. In the memory hierarchy, as the speed of
d) Registers operation increases the memory size also increases.
View Answer a) True
b) False
Answer: d View Answer
Explanation: The fastest data access is provided
using registers as these memory locations are Answer: b
situated inside the processor. Explanation: As the speed of operation increases
the cost increases and the size decreases.
5. The memory which is used to store the copy of
data or instructions stored in larger memories, 10. If we use the flash drives instead of the
inside the CPU is called _______ harddisks, then the secondary storage can go above
a) Level 1 cache primary memory in the hierarchy.
b) Level 2 cache a) True
c) Registers b) False
d) TLB View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: The flash drives will increase the
Explanation: These memory devices are generally speed of transfer but still it won’t be faster than
used to map onto the data stored in the larger primary memory.
memories.
1. The reason for the implementation of the cache
6. The larger memory placed between the primary memory is ________
cache and the memory is called ______ a) To increase the internal memory of the system
a) Level 1 cache b) The difference in speeds of operation of the
b) Level 2 cache processor and memory
c) EEPROM c) To reduce the memory access and cycle time
d) TLB d) All of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer

Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: This is basically used to provide Explanation: This difference in the speeds of
effective memory mapping. operation of the system caused it to be inefficient.

7. The next level of memory hierarchy after the 2. The effectiveness of the cache memory is based
L2 cache is _______ on the property of ________
a) Secondary storage a) Locality of reference
b) TLB b) Memory localisation
c) Main memory c) Memory size
d) Register d) None of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer

Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: None. Explanation: This means that the cache depends on
advertisement the location in the memory that is referenced often.

8. The last on the hierarchy scale of memory 3. The temporal aspect of the locality of reference
devices is ______ means ________
a) Main memory a) That the recently executed instruction won’t be
b) Secondary memory executed soon
c) TLB b) That the recently executed instruction is
d) Flash drives temporarily not referenced
View Answer c) That the recently executed instruction will be
executed soon again
Answer: b d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: The secondary memory is the slowest View Answer
memory device.
211
 Answer: c 8. The bit used to signify that the cache location is
Explanation: None. updated is ________
a) Dirty bit
4. The spatial aspect of the locality of reference b) Update bit
means ________ c) Reference bit
a) That the recently executed instruction is d) Flag bit
executed again next View Answer
b) That the recently executed won’t be executed
again Answer: a
c) That the instruction executed will be executed at Explanation: When the cache location is updated in
a later time order to signal to the processor this bit is used.
d) That the instruction in close proximity of the
instruction executed will be executed in future 9. The copy-back protocol is used ________
View Answer a) To copy the contents of the memory onto the
cache
Answer: d b) To update the contents of the memory from the
Explanation: The spatial aspect of locality of cache
reference tells that the nearby instruction is more c) To remove the contents of the cache and push it
likely to be executed in future. on to the memory
d) None of the mentioned
5. The correspondence between the main memory View Answer
blocks and those in the cache is given by
_________ Answer: b
a) Hash function Explanation: This is another way of performing the
b) Mapping function write operation, wherein the cache is updated first
c) Locale function and then the memory.
d) Assign function
View Answer 10. The approach where the memory contents are
transferred directly to the processor from the
Answer: b memory is called ______
Explanation: The mapping function is used to map a) Read-later
the contents of the memory to the cache. b) Read-through
c) Early-start
6. The algorithm to remove and place new d) None of the mentioned
contents into the cache is called _______ View Answer
a) Replacement algorithm
b) Renewal algorithm Answer: c
c) Updation Explanation: None.
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
1. The memory blocks are mapped on to the cache
Answer: a with the help of ______
Explanation: As the cache gets full, older contents a) Hash functions
of the cache are swapped out with newer contents. b) Vectors
This decision is taken by the algorithm. c) Mapping functions
d) None of the mentioned
7. The write-through procedure is used ________ View Answer
a) To write onto the memory directly
b) To write and read from memory simultaneously Answer: c
c) To write directly on the memory and the cache Explanation: The mapping functions are used to
simultaneously map the memory blocks on to their corresponding
d) None of the mentioned cache block.
View Answer
2. During a write operation if the required block is
Answer: c not present in the cache then ______ occurs.
Explanation: When write operation is issued then a) Write latency
the corresponding operation is performed. b) Write hit
advertisement c) Write delay
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d) Write miss 7. In direct mapping the presence of the block in
View Answer memory is checked with the help of block field.
a) True
Answer: d b) False
Explanation: This indicates that the operation has View Answer
missed and it brings the required block into the
cache. Answer: b
Explanation: The tag field is used to check the
3. In ________ protocol the information is presence of a mem block.
directly written into the main memory.
a) Write through 8. In associative mapping, in a 16 bit system the
b) Write back tag field has ______ bits.
c) Write first a) 12
d) None of the mentioned b) 8
View Answer c) 9
d) 10
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: In case of the miss, then the data gets
written directly in main memory. Answer: a
Explanation: The Tag field is used as an id for the
4. The only draw back of using the early start different memory blocks mapped to the cache.
protocol is _______
a) Time delay 9. The associative mapping is costlier than direct
b) Complexity of circuit mapping.
c) Latency a) True
d) High miss rate b) False
View Answer View Answer

Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: In this protocol, the required block is Explanation: In associative mapping, all the tags
read and directly sent to the processor. have to be searched to find the block.

5. The method of mapping the consecutive 10. The technique of searching for a block by
memory blocks to consecutive cache blocks is going through all the tags is ______
called ______ a) Linear search
a) Set associative b) Binary search
b) Associative c) Associative search
c) Direct d) None of the mentioned
d) Indirect View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: c Explanation: None.
Explanation: This method is most simple to
implement as it involves direct mapping of 11. The set-associative map technique is a
memory blocks. combination of the direct and associative
technique.
6. While using the direct mapping technique, in a a) True
16 bit system the higher order 5 bits are used for b) False
________ View Answer
a) Tag
b) Block Answer: a
c) Word Explanation: The combination of the efficiency of
d) Id the associative method and the cheapness of the
View Answer direct mapping, we get the set-associative
mapping.
Answer: a
Explanation: The tag is used to identify the block
mapped onto one particular cache block.
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 12. In set-associative technique, the blocks are Answer: c
grouped into ______ sets. Explanation: The mapping functions are used to
a) 4 map the memory blocks on to their corresponding
b) 8 cache block.
c) 12
d) 6 2. During a write operation if the required block is
View Answer not present in the cache then ______ occurs.
a) Write latency
Answer: d b) Write hit
Explanation: The set-associative technique groups c) Write delay
the blocks into different sets. d) Write miss
advertisement View Answer

13. A control bit called ____ has to be provided to Answer: d

each block in set-associative. Explanation: This indicates that the operation has
a) Idol bit missed and it brings the required block into the
b) Valid bit cache.
c) Reference bit
d) All of the mentioned 3. In ________ protocol the information is
View Answer directly written into the main memory.
a) Write through
Answer: b b) Write back
Explanation: The valid bit is used to indicate that c) Write first
the block holds valid information. d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
14. The bit used to indicate whether the block was
recently used or not is _______ Answer: a
a) Idol bit Explanation: In case of the miss, then the data gets
b) Control bit written directly in main memory.
c) Reference bit
d) Dirty bit 4. The only draw back of using the early start
View Answer protocol is _______
a) Time delay
Answer: d b) Complexity of circuit
Explanation: The dirty bit is used to show that the c) Latency
block was recently modified and for a replacement d) High miss rate
algorithm. View Answer

15. Data which is not up-to date is called as Answer: b

_______ Explanation: In this protocol, the required block is
a) Spoilt data read and directly sent to the processor.
b) Stale data
c) Dirty data 5. The method of mapping the consecutive
d) None of the mentioned memory blocks to consecutive cache blocks is
View Answer called ______
a) Set associative
Answer: b b) Associative
Explanation: None. c) Direct
d) Indirect
View Answer
1. The memory blocks are mapped on to the cache
with the help of ______ Answer: c
a) Hash functions Explanation: This method is most simple to
b) Vectors implement as it involves direct mapping of
c) Mapping functions memory blocks.
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer 6. While using the direct mapping technique, in a
16 bit system the higher order 5 bits are used for
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________ a) True
a) Tag b) False
b) Block View Answer
c) Word
d) Id Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: The combination of the efficiency of
the associative method and the cheapness of the
Answer: a direct mapping, we get the set-associative
Explanation: The tag is used to identify the block mapping.
mapped onto one particular cache block.
12. In set-associative technique, the blocks are
7. In direct mapping the presence of the block in grouped into ______ sets.
memory is checked with the help of block field. a) 4
a) True b) 8
b) False c) 12
View Answer d) 6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The tag field is used to check the Answer: d
presence of a mem block. Explanation: The set-associative technique groups
the blocks into different sets.
8. In associative mapping, in a 16 bit system the advertisement
tag field has ______ bits.
a) 12 13. A control bit called ____ has to be provided to
b) 8 each block in set-associative.
c) 9 a) Idol bit
d) 10 b) Valid bit
View Answer c) Reference bit
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: The Tag field is used as an id for the
different memory blocks mapped to the cache. Answer: b
Explanation: The valid bit is used to indicate that
9. The associative mapping is costlier than direct the block holds valid information.
mapping.
a) True 14. The bit used to indicate whether the block was
b) False recently used or not is _______
View Answer a) Idol bit
b) Control bit
Answer: a c) Reference bit
Explanation: In associative mapping, all the tags d) Dirty bit
have to be searched to find the block. View Answer

10. The technique of searching for a block by Answer: d

going through all the tags is ______ Explanation: The dirty bit is used to show that the
a) Linear search block was recently modified and for a replacement
b) Binary search algorithm.
c) Associative search
d) None of the mentioned 15. Data which is not up-to date is called as
View Answer _______
a) Spoilt data
Answer: c b) Stale data
Explanation: None. c) Dirty data
d) None of the mentioned
11. The set-associative map technique is a View Answer
combination of the direct and associative
technique. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
215
 Answer: b
Explanation: The miss rate is a key factor in
1. The main memory is structured into modules deciding the type of replacement algorithm.
each with its own address register called ______
a) ABR 6. In associative mapping during LRU, the
b) TLB counter of the new block is set to ‘0’ and all the
c) PC others are incremented by one, when _____ occurs.
d) IR a) Delay
View Answer b) Miss
c) Hit
Answer: a d) Delayed hit
Explanation: ABR stands for Address Buffer View Answer
Register.
Answer: b
2. When consecutive memory locations are Explanation: Miss usually occurs when the
accessed only one module is accessed at a time. memory block required is not present in the cache.
a) True
b) False 7. In LRU, the referenced blocks counter is set
View Answer to’0′ and that of the previous blocks are
incremented by one and others remain same, in the
Answer: a case of ______
Explanation: In a modular approach to memory a) Hit
structuring only one module can be accessed at a b) Miss
time. c) Delay
d) None of the mentioned
3. In memory interleaving, the lower order bits of View Answer
the address is used to
a) Get the data Answer: a
b) Get the address of the module Explanation: If the referenced block is present in
c) Get the address of the data within the module the memory it is called as hit.
d) None of the mentioned advertisement
View Answer
8. If hit rates are well below 0.9, then they’re
Answer: b called as speedy computers.
Explanation: To implement parallelism in data a) True
access we use interleaving. b) False
View Answer
4. The number successful accesses to memory
stated as a fraction is called as _____ Answer: b
a) Hit rate Explanation: It has to be above 0.9 for speedy
b) Miss rate computers.
c) Success rate
d) Access rate 9. The extra time needed to bring the data into
View Answer memory in case of a miss is called as _____
a) Delay
Answer: a b) Propagation time
Explanation: The hit rate is an important factor in c) Miss penalty
performance measurement. d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
5. The number failed attempts to access memory,
stated in the form of a fraction is called as Answer: c
_________ Explanation: None.
a) Hit rate
b) Miss rate 10. The miss penalty can be reduced by improving
c) Failure rate the mechanisms for data transfer between the
d) Delay rate different levels of hierarchy.
View Answer a) True

216
b) False 5. __________is used to implement virtual
View Answer memory organisation.
a) Page table
Answer: a b) Frame table
Explanation: The extra time needed to bring the c) MMU
data into memory in case of a miss is called as miss d) None of the mentioned
penalty. View Answer

Answer: c
1. The physical memory is not as large as the Explanation: The MMU stands for Memory
address space spanned by the processor. Management Unit.
a) True
b) False 6. ______ translates the logical address into a
View Answer physical address.
a) MMU
Answer: a b) Translator
Explanation: This is one of the main reasons for c) Compiler
the usage of virtual memories. d) Linker
View Answer
2. The program is divided into operable parts
called as _________ Answer: a
a) Frames Explanation: The MMU translates the logical
b) Segments address into a physical address by adding an offset.
c) Pages
d) Sheets 7. The main aim of virtual memory organisation is
View Answer ________
a) To provide effective memory access
Answer: b b) To provide better memory transfer
Explanation: The program is divided into parts c) To improve the execution of the program
called as segments for ease of execution. d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
3. The techniques which move the program blocks
to or from the physical memory is called as ______ Answer: d
a) Paging Explanation: None.
b) Virtual memory organisation advertisement
c) Overlays
d) Framing 8. The DMA doesn’t make use of the MMU for
View Answer bulk data transfers.
a) True
Answer: b b) False
Explanation: By using this technique the program View Answer
execution is accomplished with a usage of less
space. Answer: b
Explanation: The DMA stands for Direct Memory
4. The binary address issued to data or Access, in which a block of data gets directly
instructions are called as ______ transferred from the memory.
a) Physical address
b) Location 9. The virtual memory basically stores the next
c) Relocatable address segment of data to be executed on the _________
d) Logical address a) Secondary storage
View Answer b) Disks
c) RAM
Answer: d d) ROM
Explanation: The logical address is the random View Answer
address generated by the processor.
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

217
 10. The associatively mapped virtual memory 5. The iconic feature of the RISC machine among
makes use of _______ the following is _______
a) TLB a) Reduced number of addressing modes
b) Page table b) Increased memory size
c) Frame table c) Having a branch delay slot
d) None of the mentioned d) All of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer

Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: TLB stands for Translation Look- Explanation: A branch delay slot is an instruction
aside Buffer. space immediately following a jump or branch.

1. The CISC stands for ___________ 6. Both the CISC and RISC architectures have
a) Computer Instruction Set Compliment been developed to reduce the ______
b) Complete Instruction Set Compliment a) Cost
c) Computer Indexed Set Components b) Time delay
d) Complex Instruction set computer c) Semantic gap
View Answer d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: CISC is a computer architecture Answer: c
where in the processor performs more complex Explanation: The semantic gap is the gap between
operations in one step. the high level language and the low level language.

2. The computer architecture aimed at reducing 7. Out of the following which is not a CISC
the time of execution of instructions is ________ machine.
a) CISC a) IBM 370/168
b) RISC b) VAX 11/780
c) ISA c) Intel 80486
d) ANNA d) Motorola A567
View Answer View Answer

Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: The RISC stands for Reduced Explanation: None.
Instruction Set Computer. advertisement

3. The Sun micro systems processors usually 8. Pipe-lining is a unique feature of _______
follow _____ architecture. a) RISC
a) CISC b) CISC
b) ISA c) ISA
c) ULTRA SPARC d) IANA
d) RISC View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: The RISC machine architecture was
Explanation: The Risc machine aims at reducing the first to implement pipe-lining.
the instruction set of the computer.
9. In CISC architecture most of the complex
4. The RISC processor has a more complicated instructions are stored in _____
design than CISC. a) Register
a) True b) Diodes
b) False c) CMOS
View Answer d) Transistors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The RISC processor design is more Answer: d
simpler than CISC and it consists of fewer Explanation: In CISC architecture more emphasis
transistors.
218
is given on the instruction set and the instructions Answer: a
take over a cycle to complete. Explanation: The stages in the pipelining should
get completed within one cycle to increase the
10. Which of the architecture is power efficient? speed of performance.
a) CISC
b) RISC 5. In pipelining the task which requires the least
c) ISA time is performed first.
d) IANA a) True
View Answer b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hence the RISC architecture is Answer: b
followed in the design of mobile devices. Explanation: This is done to avoid starvation of the
longer task.
1. ______ have been developed specifically for
pipelined systems. 6. If a unit completes its task before the allotted
a) Utility software time period, then _______
b) Speed up utilities a) It’ll perform some other task in the remaining
c) Optimizing compilers time
d) None of the mentioned b) Its time gets reallocated to a different task
View Answer c) It’ll remain idle for the remaining time
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: The compilers which are designed to
remove redundant parts of the code are called as Answer: c
optimizing compilers. Explanation: None.

2. The pipelining process is also called as ______ 7. To increase the speed of memory access in
a) Superscalar operation pipelining, we make use of _______
b) Assembly line operation a) Special memory locations
c) Von Neumann cycle b) Special purpose registers
d) None of the mentioned c) Cache
View Answer d) Buffers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is called so because it performs its Answer: c
operation at the assembly level. Explanation: By using the cache we can reduce the
speed of memory access by a factor of 10.
3. The fetch and execution cycles are interleaved advertisement
with the help of ________
a) Modification in processor architecture 8. The periods of time when the unit is idle is
b) Clock called as _____
c) Special unit a) Stalls
d) Control unit b) Bubbles
View Answer c) Hazards
d) Both Stalls and Bubbles
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: The time cycle of the clock is
adjusted to perform the interleaving. Answer: d
Explanation: The stalls are a type of hazards that
4. Each stage in pipelining should be completed affect a pipelined system.
within ____ cycle.
a) 1 9. The contention for the usage of a hardware
b) 2 device is called ______
c) 3 a) Structural hazard
d) 4 b) Stalk
View Answer c) Deadlock

219
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. The situation wherein the data of operands are

not available is called ______
a) Data hazard
b) Stock
c) Deadlock
d) Structural hazard
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Data hazards are generally caused
when the data is not ready on the destination side.

220