Algebra Assignment 2

Michael Gboneh (michaelgboneh@aims.ac.za)

November 20, 2015

Question 1
i) Question For sets H and K, we know what H ∩ K is, i.e. H ∩ K = x | x ∈ H and x ∈ K. Show
that if H ≤ G and K ≤ G, then H ∩ K ≤ G.
Proof
If x∈ H and x∈ K, for H≤G and K≤

then

RTS: H∩K ≤G
If

x ∈ H ∩ H, x ∈ K and x ∈ H

then

xnx−1 ∈ H ∩ K, so
−1
x (H ∩ K) x ⊂N ∩K
theref ore H ∩ K ∈ G

Hence H∩K ≤ G
ii) Question Let|H| =12 and |K|=35, find |H ∩ K| To find H ∩ K we need to find an element that
is common by both H and K.
By theorem proved in class, we know that both

|H| and |K| divides |G| and that h|H and k|K
This means that the element formed by |H ∩ K| is common to both H and K and that this element must
have the order that divides both 12 and 35. This implies that the element must be the gcd of (H,K)⇒
gcd|H ∩ K| = 1
Hence H ∩ K = 1

Question 2
0 0
a) Let G be a cyclic group with generator a and let G be a group to G. if φ : G → G is an isomor-
0
phism, show that for every x  G, φ(x) is completely determined by the value φ(x),i.e if φ : G → G

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 0
and ψ : G → G are two isomorphisms such that φ(a) = ψ(a), then φ(x) = ψ(x) for all x  G.

Proof
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Claim:G is a cyclic group with generator a and φ : G → G is an isomorphism.

Suppose φ and ψ are two isomorphisms such that φ(a) = ψ(a),

then we want to show that φ(x) = ψ(x), ∀ x  G

Let  G , G = h a i

Since G is a cyclic group generated by a then,

x = an , for n  Z

φ(x) = φ(an )
= φ(a · a · a · · · a) multiplying a n times
n
= φ(a) · φ(a) · · · φ(a) = {φ(a)} property of homomorphism

ψ(x) = ψ(an )
= ψ(a · a · a · · · a) multiplying a n times
n
= ψ(a) · ψ(a) · · · ψ(a) = {ψ(a)} property of homomorphism

Since φ(a) = ψ(a), then

n n
{ψ(a)} = {ψ(a)}

but

n n
φ(x) = {φ(a)} and ψ(x) = {ψ(a)}

then

ψ(x) = ψ(an )

Hence

ψ(x) = ψ(an ) for all xG

b) An isomorphism of a group with itself is called an automorphism of the group. Use the result in
a) to determine the number of automorphisms of Z12 .

Solution

since we have proved that generators map to generators and Z12 has four generators, then the
number of automorphism is 4.

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Question 3
Question : Show that a group with no proper non-trivial subgroups is cyclic.

Claim: Suppose G has no proper non trivial subgroups, then G is cyclic.

Proof

Let G be a group with no proper nontrivial subgroups.

If |G| = 1, then G = {e} which is cyclic (generated by e) .

Otherwise,

let x  G such that a 6= e. Since a  hai, hai is not trivial subgroup.

Then hei = G
Hence by definition of cyclic group, G is cyclic.

Question 4
Question (a) : Show that every finite group of even order 2n contains an element of order 2.

Claim: Let every finite group of even order 2n contains an element of order 2.
Suppose a2 = e for all a  G, then let a,b  G

we may associate for every a  G its inverse a−1  G.

if a2 6= e for all a, then a2 6= a−1 , It follows that all non-identity pairing elements has been ex-
hausted by this property.

Therefore the number of elements of the group is 2n + 1, Where n is the number of paring and
1 is the identity element e. However, we assumed G was a group of even order, which leads to
contradiction.

Hence G contains an element of order 2.

[(b)]Question:Use the theorem of Lagrange to show that if n is odd, then an abelian group of order
2n contains precisely one element of order 2.
Let G be abelian group of order 2n for n is odd.
RTS: G is abelian group of order 2n and has precisely one element of order 2

Proof by contradiction
Suppose there exists more than one element of order 2.
Let x,y∈ G such that |a| = |y| = 2. hx, yi is a subgroup of G, Since G is abelian,

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This implies

x =x−1 andy = y −1 .

then

hx, yi =hxihyi
={e, x}{e, y} Multiplying the elenents, we have
={e, x, y, xy}
=|hx, yi|
=4

By Langrange’s theorem, we know that |hx, yi| |hGi

⇒ 4|2n = 2|n. 2 does not divide an odd number, Since n is odd. Hence we have a contradiction to
our assumption.

Hence, we have proves that there is only one element of order 2

Bonus Question
let φ : G → H be a group homomorphism. Show that φ(G) is abelian if and only if for all x, y  G,
xyx−1 y −1  Ker(φ).
Proof

Because of the iff we must show both directions.

The first statement we will prove is if φ(G) is abelian, then xyx−1 y −1  Ker(φ). for all x,y  G.

Suppose φ(G) is abelian

let x,y  G

RTS: xyx−1 y −1  Ker(φ) ie. φ(xyx−1 y −1 )

We know that

φ(xyx−1 y −1 ) = φ(x) φ(y) φ(x−1 ) φ(y −1 ) By homomorphism property

Since φ(G) is abelian and φ(x), φ(y), φ(x−1 ), φ(y −1 ),  φ(G)

then we have

φ(x) φ(y) φ(x−1 ) φ(y −1 ) = φ(x) φ(x−1 ) φ(y) φ(y −1 )

We also know by definition that

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φ(x) = φ(x−1 ) for all x  G

Therefore

0 0 0
φ(x) φ(y) φ(x−1 ) φ(y −1 ) = φ(x) φ(x)−1 φ(y) φ(y)−1 = e e = e

Hence, xyx−1 y −1  Ker(φ)

We prove the opposite.

If xyx−1 y −1  Ker(φ) for all x,y  G, then φ(G) is abelian

let y1 , y2  φ(G)

Then there exist

let x1 , x2  G such that  φ(x1 ) = y1 and φ(x2 ) = y2 by definition of φ(G)

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Suppose: x1 x2 x1 −1 x2 −1  Ker(φ), that is φ(x1 x2 x1 −1 x2 −1 ) = e

Then

0
e = φ(x) φ(x2 ) φ(x1 −1 ) φ(x2 −1 ) = y1 y2 y1 −1 y2 −1

Thus right multiplication by y1 gives us

y2 = y1 y2 y1 −1

Also multiplying through by y2 gives

y2 y1 = y1 y2

Hence: φ(G) is abelian since y1 y2 are arbitrary elements in φ(G)