VERY SIMILAR PRACTICE PAPER FOR NEET - 01

SOLUTIONS

1. If F denotes force and t time then in the equation 3. Two cars travelling towards each other on a
F = at-1 + bt2, dimensions of a and b respectively straight road at velocity 10 m/s and 12 m/s
are: respectively. When they are 150 m apart, both
(1) LT4  and LT1  drivers apply their brakes and each car
decelerations at 2 m/s2 until it stops. How far
(2) LT1  and LT4  apart will they be when they have both come to a
stop?
(3) MLT4  and MLT1 
(1) 89 m
(4) MLT1  and MLT4  (2) 98 m
(3) 108 m
Solution Choice (4) (4) 150 m
F = at1 + bt2
Solution Choice (1)
  a  F t   MLT2   T  MLT1 
Let x1 and x2 be the distance travelled by the car
F MLT 2  before they stop under deceleration.
b     MLT 4  Using, v2 = u2 + 2as, we get,
 t 2   T2 
0 = (10)2  2  2  x1 ……..(i)
0 = (12)2  2  2  x2 ……..(ii)
2. A body starts from rest with uniform acceleration.
Solving equations (i) and (ii), we get
The velocity of the body after t seconds is  . The
x1 = 25 m and x2 = 36 m
displacement of the body in last three seconds is: Total distance covered by the two cars
3 3
(1)  t  3 (2)  t  3 = x1 + x2 = 25 + 36 = 61 m
2 2 Distance between the two cars when they stop
 3  3 = 150  61 = 89 m
(3) 3 1   (4) 3 1  
 2t   2t 
4. A toy cyclist completes one round of a square
Solution Choice (3) track of side 2 m in 40 seconds. What will be the
Let a be the uniform acceleration. displacement at the end of 3 minutes?
Displacement after time when acceleration (1) 52 m
 (2) Zero
a …..(i)
t (3) 16 m
1   (4) 2 2 m
h    t2
2t
Displacement upto (t  3) Solution Choice (4)
1  Total time of motion on square track
h1     t  3 
2

2t = 3 min = 3  60 = 180 s

h  h1    during last 3 seconds Time period of revolution = 40 s
 Displacement in 160 s = (4  40) = 0 as toy
1    2 2
   t   t  3   cyclist will be reaching at the starting point.
2  t  
Thus displacement in 180 s = displacement in 20 s
1 
  3  2t  3   2
2
 =  (2)2  2 2 m
2t
 3
 3 1  
 2t 

1
5. A light string passes overo a smoo oth light pulley (m2  m1 ) g (2  1) g g 10
a   
connects two blocks of massess m1 and m2 m1  m2 1 2 3 3
(vertically)). If the acceeleration of the system is ation of the ccentre of the mass is
Accelera
(g/8), thenn the ratio of masses
m is:
m1 a1  m2 a2 1(a)  2 (a
a)
(1) 8 : 1 (2) 9 : 7 acm  
m1  m2 1 2
(3) 4 : 3 (4) 5 : 3
 g g
1  2 
Solution Choice (2)  3   3   g  10
3 9 9
In the give
en system, a =
m 1 
 m2 g

g
The distance travelle
ed by the cen
ntre of mass in
m1  m2 8
two seco
onds is
m1  m2 1 1 1 10
0 20
  S c t    (2)2 
2
m1  m2 8 acm m
2 2 9 9
8 m1  8 m2 = m1 + m2
m1 9 7.. The earrth moves arround the su
un in an ellip
ptical
7 m1 = 9 m2 or 
m2 7 OA
orbit as shown in fig
gure. The rattio  x . The
OB
6. Two masse es m1 = 1 kg and m2 = 2 kg are ratio of the
t speed off the earth at B and at A iss:
connected by a light inextensib ble string and
suspendedd by means of a weighttless pulley as
shown in the figure. Assuming that both the t
masses start from restt, the distancce travelled by
the centrre of masss in two seconds is: (1) x (2) x
-2
(Take g = 10
1 ms )
(3) x2 (4) x x

Solution
n Choice (2)
Accordin
ng to law of cconservation
n of angular
momenttum we get;
m A  OA
O  m B  OB
B OA
or  x
A OB
20 40
(1) m (2) m
9 9
8.. A body is released from a point distance r from
2 1
(3) m (4) m the centtre of earth. If R is the ra
adius of the earth
e
3 3
and r > R, then the e velocity off the body at the
time of striking
s the e
earth will be:
Solution Choice (1)
(1) gR (2) 2 gR

2 gRr
g 2 gR (r  R)
(3) (4)
r R t

Solution
n Choice (4)
Let  bee velocity witth which the body strikess the
surface of earth
Here, m1 = 1 kg, m2 = 2 kg Accordin
ng to the law
w of conserva
ation of energ
gy
The accele
eration of the
e system is GMm 1 G
GMm
  m2 
r 2 R

2
 2 GM GM T1 T2
or  
2 R r X Y Z
r R (r  R)  GM 
Let L be the length and A be area of cross-
= GM 
rR   gR r  g  2 
   R  section of each rod respectively.
2 gR (r  R) 1
or   Given KY = 2 KZ, KY = KX
r 2
L
Thermal resistance of rod X, RX =
9. A tank full of water has a small hole at its bottom. KX A
If one fourth of the tank is emptied in t1 seconds
L
and the remaining three fourths of the tank is Thermal resistance of rod Y, RY =
KY A
emptied in t2 seconds then ratio:
L
 t1  Thermal resistance of rod Z, RZ =
  is: KZ A
 t2 
The electrical equivalent circuit is as shown in
(1) 3 (2) 2 the figure.
2 2 2 3
(3) (4)
2 3
Here, the rods are connected in series.
Solution Choice (4) RS = R X + R Y + R Z
Let A and a cross-sectional areas of the tank and 3L L L L
  
hole respectively. Let h be height of water in the K eq A K X A K Y A K Z A
tank at a time t. 3 1 1 2
  
 dh  K eq 2 K Y K Y K Y
Let    represent the rate of fall of level,
 dt 
3 1 2  4 7
then  
K eq 2 KY 2 KY
dh A dh
A  a 2 gh or dt   6K Y
dt a 2g h or K eq 
7
 Required ratio
1
dh  3 h  h 
3h 4
11. A Carnot engine, having an efficiency of  
   10
t1 h h  4   2 3
 0  as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the
t2 dh  3h 3
 0   work done on the system is 10 J, the amount of
3h 4 h 4 

energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower
temperature is:
10. Three identical metal rods X, Y and Z are placed (1) 100 J (2) 99 J
end to end and a temperature difference is (3) 90 J (4) 1 J
maintained between the ends of X and Z. If the
thermal conductivity of Y(KY) is twice that of Z Solution Choice (3)
(KZ) and half that of X (KX), then the effective QH  QL
thermal conductivity of the system is: For Carnot engine efficiency  
QH
KX 6 KY Coefficient of performance of a refrigerator
(1) (2)
7 7 1
1
7 KY 1  10
(3) (4) 7 KZ  or   9
3  1
10
Q
Solution Choice (2) Also   L (where W is the work done)
W
or QL    W  9  10  90 J

3
12. A pendulum suspended from the roof of an Compare (i) and (ii), we get
elevator at rest has a time period T1, when the  2 
elevator moves up with an acceleration a, its k or  or   6 cm
3  3
time period becomes T2, when the elevator
The distance between two consecutive node is
moves down with an acceleration a, its time
period becomes T3 then:  6
 cm  3 cm
2 2
(1) T1   T2 T3  (2) T1  T 2
2 T32 
T2 T3 2 14. A sonometer wire resonates with a given tuning
(3) T1  (4) None of these fork forming standing waves with five anitnodes
T22  T32
between the two bridges which a mass of 9 kg is
suspended from the wire. When this mass is
Solution Choice (3) replaced by a mass M, the wire resonates with
the same tuning fork forming three antinodes for
1 4 2 l the same positions of the bridges. The value of M
T1  2  or g
g T12 is:
l 4 2 l (1) 25 kg (2) 5 kg
T2  2  or ga
ga T22 1
(3) 12.5 kg (4) kg
25
1 4 2 l
T3  2  or ga
ga T32
Solution Choice (1)
4 2 l 4  2 l 4 2 l
   2 g where g  The frequency of vibration of a string is given by
T22 T32 T12

Solving we get, P T

2L 
2 T2 T3
T1  Where p = number of loops (or segments)
T22  T32
= number of antinodes
The other symbols have their usual meanings.
13. The stationary wave produced on a string is
According to question,
represented by the equation
5 9g 3 Mg
 x   or M  25 kg
y  5 sin   cos 40  t where x and y are in cm 2L  2L 
 3 
and t is in seconds. The distance between two
consecutive nodes is: 15. An electric charge of 8.5 × 10-13 C is placed at
(1) 5 cm (2) 3 cm the centre of a sphere of radius 1 m. The electric
(3) 6 cm (4) 40 cm flux through the sphere is:
(1) 0.2 N C-1 m2 (2) 0.1 N C-1 m2
Solution Choice (2) (3) 0.3 N C-1 m2 (4) 0.01 N C-1 m2
The given stationary wave produced on a string
is represented by Solution Choice (2)
 x  According to Gauss’s law
y  5 sin   cos 40 t …………………..(i)
 3  The electric flux through the sphere is
The standard stationary wave produced on a qin 8.85  10 13 C
string is represented by    0.1N C1 m2
0 8.85  10 12 C2 N1 m2
y = 2a sin kx cos  t …………………..(ii)

4
16. A parallel plate capaccitor with air between the Solution Choice (1)
plates has a capacitance of 9 pF. The T separation
between itts plates is d.d The space e between the
t
plates is now
n ectrics. One of
filled wiith two diele
ant K2 = 6 and
the dielecttrics has diellectric consta
2d
thickness . Capacitance of the capacitor is
3
now:
(1) 20.25 pF
p (2) 1.8 pF
p
Networkk is redrawn a
as shown in figure.
(3) 45 pF (4) 40.5 pF
Wheatstone’s network.
This is a balanced W
Solution Choice (4)

Equivale
ent capacitan
nce
Ceq = C
 A Charge Q = CV
C  0  9  10 12 F
d
Charge on capacitorr between the
e terminals A
 A and B
With dielecctric, C = C  0
d
Q CV
0 A . 3 
C1   9 C; 2 2
d
3 Energy stored
s in thatt capacitor
2
0 A . 6 Q
C2  9C 1 
2d 2 Q 2 C2 V 2 C V 2
=     
3 2C 8C 8C 8
C1 C2 Given : C = 1  F, V = 10 V
 Ctotal  ey are in series
as the
C1  C2
9C9C 9 9 =
1 100   10
6 2


100
 10 6  12.5
1 J
Ctotal  0 12 F
  C   9  10 8 8
18 C 2 2
 Ctotal  40.5 pF.
8.
18 ‘n’ identtical drops, each of cap pacitance C and
charged to a poten ntial V, coalesce to forrm a
17. What is thet energy stored in the capacittor
bigger drop.
d Then thhe ratio of th
he energy sttored
between teerminals A and B of the network
n show
wn
in the big
g drop to tha
at in each sm
mall drop is:
in the figu
ure? (Capaccitance of each
e capacittor
C = 1  F) (1) n5 3 : 1 (2) n 4 3 : 1

(3) n : 1 (4) n3 : 1

Solution Choice (1)

Let r be the radius off each small drop and R be
b
the radiu
us of bigger d
drop
As the volume
v remaiins constant
(1) 12.5  J (2) Zero
o
4 4
(3) 25  J (4) 50  J   R3  n   r 3
3 3

5
 R  n1 3 r 2
V = curre
ent × resista
ance =  10
10  R
mall drop, C = 4  0 r
Capacitancce of each sm
The leng
gth of the wirre is l = 100 cm
c
Capacitancce of bigger drop,
So, the potential
p gradient along the
t wire is
C’ = 4  0 r  4  0 n1 3 r  n1 3 C
V  2  10 1
Charge on each small drop,
d Q=CV k   ………. (i)
(
l  10  R  100
Charge on bigger drop, Q’ = n Q
The source of emf 10 0 m V is bala
anced againsst a
Q' nQ length off 40 cm of the potentiomeeter wire
Potential of
o bigger drop
p, V’ =  13
C' n C
i.e., 10  10-3 = k  4
40
= n2 3 V 2 40
1 -3 =
or 10  10  (Using (i)))
1 (10  R)
R 10
Energy sto
ored in each small
s drop, U  C V 2
2 or R = 790 
1
ored in bigger drop, U’ = U 
Energy sto C ' V'2
2 0.
20 Two eleectric bulbs marked 40 W, 220 V and
1 1 60 W, 220
2 V when connected in series, accross
 
2
= n1 3 C n2 3 V  n5 3 C V 2
2 2 same voltage
v supp
ply of 220 V, the effeective
power iss P1 and when connecte
ed in parallell, the
U' 1 5 3 2 n5 3
  n C V2  2
 P1
U 2 CV 1 effective
e power is P2. Then is
s:
P2

(1) 0.5 (2) 0.4

48
19. A potentioometer wire of length 100
1 cm has a
(3) 0.24 (4) 0.1
16
resistance of 10 ohm.. It is conneected in series
with resisttance and a cell of emff 2 volt and of
negligible internal resistance. A source
s of emf Solution Choice (3)
10 m V is balanced ag gth of 40 cm of
gainst a leng
Rated vooltage 
2

the potenttiometer wirre. What is the value of Resistan

nce of a bulb
b=
external re
esistance? Rated power
p 
(1) 790  (2) 890   220
2 
2
 220 
2

RB1   and RB2  

(3) 990  0 
(4) 1090 40 60
When th
he bulbs are cconnected in
n series,
Solution Choice (1) RS  RB1  RB2

 220   220 
2 2
2  1 1
=    220    
40 60  40 60 

00   220 
2
 60  40  2  10
=  220   60  40    220   24
2
  24
   400 

VS2 24
  220  
2
nt in the potentiometer wire AC is
The curren  P1   24
4W
 220 
2
RS
2
I= When th
he bulbs are cconnected in
n parallel
10  R

e across the potentiometter

The potenttial difference 1 1 1 1 40 60
  or  
wire is RP RB1 RB2 RP  220 2  220 2

6
  220 
2
1 100
0
 or RP 
RP  220  2
100

VS2 100
  220  
2
 P2   100 W
 220 
2
RP

P1 24
4W Force exxperienced b
by AB and CD D are equal and
a
   0.24
P2 1000W opposite
e so the contribution in the net force
nced by loop is only due to
experien t AD and BC C.

21. If the amm

meter in the given
g circuit reads 2 A, the
t Magnetic field at the location of AD
A is
resistance R is: 0 I 2  10 7  10
B1   
2   5 cm  5  10 2

= 4 ˣ 105

T
Magnetic force expe
erienced by AD
A is,
F1 = I2 B1 ˣ (15 cm) = 3 ˣ 105 N to
owards wire.
(1) 1  (2) 2  Magnetic field at the location of BC
B is,
(3) 3  (4) 4  0 I1 2  10 7  100
B2   2
 1  10 5 T 
2   (20 cm) 20  10
Solution Choice (1)
Magnetic force expe
erienced by BC
B is,
6 6
2  F2  I2 B 2  (15 cm)  0.75  10 5 N away from
m
36 R 2
R
36 wire.

R=1  Net force ed by loop is, F = F1  F2

e experience
towards the wire = 2.25 ˣ 105 N towards
t the wire.
w

22. A square loop of side e 15 cm carrrying a steaady

current of 5 A is placed with its on
ne side paralllel 23
3. A transfformer with e
efficiency 80% works at 4 kW
to a long straight
s cond ng a current of
ductor carryin and 100 0 V. If the ssecondary voltage
v is 2000 V,
10 A as shown in figu ure. The corrrect statemeent then the primary a and seconda ary currentss are
related to net force exxperienced byy the loop due respectiively:
to wire is: (1) 40 A,
A 16 A (2) 16
6 A, 40 A
(3) 20 A,
A 40 A (4) 40
0 A, 20 A

Solution
n Choice (1)
Efficienccy of a transfformer
(1) Repulsive in nature gnitude equal
e having mag ut power PO 
Outpu VS IS
-5
to 3.75 ˣ 10 N = 
ut power PI 
Inpu VP IP
(2) Repulsive in nature
e having mag
gnitude equal
to 2.25 ˣ 10-5 N where VS = Voltage across secondary

(3) Attractivve in nature having magn

nitude equal to VP = Voltage across primary
1 -5 N
2.25 ˣ 10 IP = Currrent flowing in the primarry
nitude equal to
(4) Attractivve in nature having magn IS = Currrent flowing in the secondary
1 -5 N
3.75 ˣ 10 80 PO
 
100 4  103
Solution Choice (3)

7
 16 Solution
n Choice (4)
 PO   103 W  3200 W
5 Since ellectromagne etic wave is propagating
p
PO d magnetic field is along y-
along z--direction and
3200
 IS    16 A direction
n, therefore e
electric field will
w be along
g x-
VS 200
direction
n.
Also PI = IP VP
   
Here, E0  c B0  3  108  2  10 7 = 60 V m1
PI 4  10 W 3
or I P 
VP

100 V
 40 A Thus, E x  60 sin  0.5  10 z  1.5
3
1  10 t  V m
11 1

24. A plane electromagnettic wave prop pagating in the 6.

26 The refrractive index of water with respect to air is
x-directionn has wave elength of 6.0 6 mm. The 4
and the refractive index of glass with resspect
electric field is in the y--direction and its maximuum 3
magnitude e is 33 V m-1. The equation for the t 3
to air iss . Then tthe refractive
e index of water
w
electric field as function of x and t is: 2
with respect to glasss is:
 x 9 8
(1) 11sin   t   (1) (2)
 c 8 9
 x 1
(2) 33 sin   1011  t   (3) (4) 2
 c 2
 x
(3) 33 sin   t  
 c Solution
n Choice (2)
4 a 3
 x a
w  ; g  ; g  w  ?
(4) 11sin   1011  t   3 2
 c 
a
 w  w g  a g
3
Solution Choice (2) a
g9
or w  g  a  2 
2  c 2   3  108 w 4 8
2     1011 rad / s
 6  10 3 3
1 1 8
The equattion for the ellectric field, along
a y-axis in g
w  w
 
the electro
omagnetic wa ave is given by g  9  9
 
8
 x  x
n   t    33 sin   10
Ey  E0 sin 011  t  
 c  c
27
7. Two plaane mirrors M1 and M2 are incline ed at
angle  as shown iin the figure. A ray of lig
ght 1,
25. The magn netic field in a phase electromagne
etic which iss parallel to M1 strikes M2 and afterr two
field is give
en by reflectio
ons, the ray 2 becomes parallel to M2. The

0-7 sin 0.5  103 z  1.5  1011 t T. Th
By = 2 ˣ 10 
he angle  is:

expression ( m-1) may be

n for the elecctric field in (V b
given by:


(1) Ey  2  10 7 sin 0.5  103 z  1.5  1011 t 

(2) E x  2  10 7 sin 0.5  103 z  1.5  1011 t  (1) 0° (2) 30
0°
(3) 45° (4) 60
0°
(3) Ey  60 
0 sin 0.5  10
03 z  1.5  1011 t 
Solution
n Choice (4)
(4) E x  60 
0 sin 0.5  103 z  1.5  1011 t 
nt angles are as shown in the figure.
Differen

8
 29
9. A telesccope has an objective lenns of focal le
ength
200 cm and an eye piece with fo ocal length 2 cm.
If this te
elescope is used to see e a 50 metre e tall
building at a distancce of 2 km, what
w is the height
of the image of tthe building formed byy the
In triangle ABC,  +  +  = 180°° ;  = 60°
objective lens?
(1) 5 cm
m (2) 10
0 cm
28. A ray of light is incide
ent normallyy on the prissm
(3) 1 cm
m (4) 2 cm
c
 3
   2  im
mmersed in a liquid as shown in the
 
Solution
n Choice (1)
figure. The e largest value for the an ngle  so th
hat
ray is totally reflected at the face ACA is 30°. The For obje
ective lens, f0 = + 200 cm,
refractive index
i of the given
g liquid is
i u0 = 2  105 cm

For a lens
1 1 1
 
 0 u0 f0

1 1 1
or  
 0 f0 0
3
(1)
2 1 1 999
=  
3 200 2  10 5
2  105
(2)
4 2  105
or 0  cm
4 999
(3)
3 Conside
er magnificattion due to ob
bjective lens
3 3 Size of image 0
(4)  
4 Size of object u0

0
Solution Choice (4) Size of objectt 
 Size of image = S
u0

05
2  10 1
=  50  100   
999 2  105
5000
= cm  5 cm
999

30
0. A beamm of natural light falls on a system m of
0
  C  90
oids, which are arrange
5 polaro ed in successsion
  
 C  90  30  60 such tha
at the pass a
axis of each polaroid
p is tu
urned
through 60° with reespect to thee preceding one.
nternal reflecction at point P
For total in
The fraction of the ght intensity that
e incident lig
 g sin C  L passes through the ssystem is:
3 1 1
where  g = refractive index of the prism = (1) (2)
2 64 32
2
1 1
3 3 3  3 3 (3) (4)
 L  sin60      256 51
12
2  2   2  4

Solution
n Choice (4)

9
 Let I0 be the intensity of incident light. m  90   60   30 
Then the intensity of light from the 1st Polaroid is
I0 32. Light of certain colour has 2000 waves to the
I1 
2 millimeter in air. What will be the wavelength of
this light in a medium of refractive index 1.25?
Intensity of light from the 2nd Polaroid is


I
2
I0 (1) 1000 A
 1
I2  I1 cos 2 60  0 2  8 
2   (2) 2000 A
Intensity of light from the 3rd Polaroid is 
(3) 3000 A
2
I  1 I 
I3  I2 cos 2 60  0    0 (4) 4000 A
8 2 32
Intensity of light from the 4th Polaroid is Solution Choice (4)
2
 I  1 I 1mm 
I4  I3 cos 2 60  0    0  air  = 5  104 mm  5  107 m  5000 A
32  2  128 2000
Intensity of light from 5th Polaroid is 
 air 5000 A 
medium    4000 A
I0  1
2
I0  1.25
I5  I4 cos 2 60    2   512
128  
Therefore the fraction of the incident light that 33. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle moving
passes through the system is with a velocity 2.25  108 m/s is equal to the
I5 1 wavelength of a photon. The ratio of kinetic

I0 512 energy of the particle to the energy of the photon
is:
31. The angle of minimum deviation in an equilateral (Velocity of light is 3  108 m/s)
prism of refractive index 1.414 is: 1 3
(1) (2)
(1) 60° (2) 30° 8 8
(3) 90° (4) 45° 5 7
(3) (4)
8 8
Solution Choice (2)
 A  m  Solution Choice (2)
sin  
  2  h
A  is the de Broglie wavelength. The
sin   m
2
energy of a photon of this wavelength is
Where  is the refractive index, A is the angle of
hc hc
prism and  is the angle of minimum deviation. Eh  m c ……….(i)
 h
Given : A = 60°,  = 1.414 m
Kinetic energy of the particle is
 60  m 
sin  
 2  1
2 K m 2 ..…….(ii)
sin30  2
Divide (ii) by (i), we have
1  60  m   60   m 
 sin   ; sin 45 
 sin  
2  2   2  1
m 2
K 2  2.25  108 2.25 3
60  m     
45 
2
E mc 2 c 2  3  108 6 8 

10
34. When radiation of the wavelength  is incident 35. In an experiment of photoelectric effect, the
on a metallic surface, the stopping potential is stopping potential was measured to be V1 and V2
4.8 volt. If the same surface is illuminated with volts with incident light of wavelength  and  /2
radiation of double the wavelength, then the respectively. The relation between V1 and V2
stopping potential becomes 1.6 volt. Then the may be:
threshold wavelength for the surface is: (1) V2 < V1
(1) 2  (2) V1 < V2 < 2 V1
(2) 4  (3) V2 = 2 V1
(4) V2 > 2 V1
(3) 6 

(4) 8 
Solution Choice (4)
According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation
Solution Choice (2)
K max  h   0
According to Einstein’ s photoelectric equation
hc hc 0
hc hc e VS  0  VS  
e Vs    e e
 0
Where  = Wavelength of incident light
Where VS = Stopping potential
0 = Work function
 = Incident wavelength
VS = Stopping potential
 0 = Threshold wavelength
According to given problem
hc 1 1 
or VS     h c 0
e   0  V1   ………………(i)
e e
For the first case
hc 
V2   0 ……………..(ii)
hc 1 1   e
4.8     ………………(i) 2e
e   0   
For the second case 2 h c 0 2 h c 2 0 2 0 0
V2      
e e e e e e
hc  1 1
1.6     ………………(ii)
e  2  0   h c 0  0
= 2  
Divide (i) by (ii), we get e e  e

1 1  V2  2 V1  0 (Using (i))
  
 0   V2  2 V1
3 
 1 1
  
 2  0  
36. A photon of wavelength 4400 A is passing
 1 1  1 1 
3     through vacuum. The effective mass and
 2  0    0  momentum of the photon are respectively:
3 3 1 1 (1) 5  10-36 kg, 1.5  10-27 kg m/s
  
2  0  0 (2) 5  10-35 kg, 1.5  10-26
1 2 (3) Zero, 1.5  10-26 kg m/s
 or 0  4 
2  0 (4) 5  10-36 kg, 1.67  10-43 kg m/s

Solution Choice (1)

11
 By de Brog
glie formula 6.023  1023 15
N=  , or N = 1.0038  1020
Momentum
m 90 1000
h 6.6  10 34
6 dN
p  10
 1.5  10 27 kg
gm/ s Rate of disintegratio
on, N
 44400  10 dt
n, velocity = c = 3  108 m/s
For photon 0.6933 0.693  1.0038  10202
= N 010 Bq
 7.88  10
p 1.5  10 27 T1 28  3.154  10 7

 m  o m  5  10 36 kg
or 2
c 3  108

 m  5  10 36 , p  1.5
5  10 27 kg m / s
9.
39 Calculatte the highe
est frequenc
cy of the em mitted
photon in the Paschhen series off spectral line
es of
37. The diagrram shows the energy levels for an the hydrrogen atom.
electron in a certainn atom. Wh hich transition (1) 3.7  1014 Hz 1  1015 Hz
(2) 9.1
shown reppresents the emission off a photon with
w (3) 10.23  1014 Hz 9.7  1015 Hzz
(4) 29
the most energy?
e

Solution
n Choice (1)
quencies of the emitted photon
The freq p in the
Paschenn series are given by
 1 1
Rc  2  2 
 3 n 
where n = 4, 5, 6, ………..
(1) I (2) II
The high
hest frequen nds to n  
ncy correspon
(3) III (4) IV
Rc
 highesst 
9
Solution Choice (3)
Ist transitio g absorption of a photon..
on is showing 7  107 m1  3  108 m / s
1.097
=
From rest of three transitions III is having
h 9
maximum energy from m level n = 2 tot n=1 = 0.37  1015 s1
 1 1 = 3.7  1014 s1 = 3..7  1014 Hz
z
E 2  2 
 n1 n2 
40
0. In the ciircuit shown here, the tra
ansistor used
d has
38. The half life of Sr 90 is 28 years. What is the
t a currennt gain  = 1
100. What sh hould be the bias
38
resistor RB so that VCE = 5 V (neg
glect VBE) ?
disintegrattion rate of 15 mg of this isotope?
(1) 7.88  1010 Bq (2) 8.88  1010 Bq
(3) 9.88  1010 Bq (4) 6.88  1010 Bq

Solution Choice (1)

Here, T1 = 28 years = 28  3.154  107 s
2

23 (1) 200  103  (2) 1  106 

Number off atoms in 90
0 g of 38 Sr 90
= 6.023  10
0
(3) 500  (4) 2  103 
 Number of atoms in
n 15 mg of 38 Sr 90

Solution
n Choice (1)

12
 The Boo
olean expresssion of this gate
g is

Y  A B  A  B  A  B
Thus, OR
O gate is pro
oduced.
Applying Kirchhoff’s
K law
w to mesh ADCEFA
A
VCC = 10 = IC  103 + VCE
3.
43 A poten of 0.3 V exists across a p-n
ntial barrier o
10 = IC  103 + 5
n is 1  m wide,
junction. If the depletion region w
03 A
IC = 5  10 what iss the intenssity of electtric field in this
Applying Kirchhoff’s
K law
w to mesh AGBEFA
A region?
IB  RB + 0 = 10 (1) 2  105 V m-1 (2) 3  105 V m-1
5  105  RB = 10 (3) 4  105 V m-1 (4) 5  105 V m-1
105 
RB = 2  1
= 200  103  Solution
n Choice (2)
Electric field
41. owing circuit Y is:
In the follo V 0.3
E   3  105 V m1
d 1  10 6

44
4. If e m electrons is 1.76  10111 C kg-1 and
d the
(1) A (2) B
stopping en the maximum
g potential iss 0.71 V, the
(3) AB (4) A + B
velocity of the photo
oelectron is:
(1) 150 km s-1 00 km s-1
(2) 20
Solution Choice (1)
(3) 500 km s-1 50 km s-1
(4) 25

Solution
n Choice (3)
Here, sttopping poten
ntial, Vs = 0.7
71 V
Y  A  A  B  A (1  B)
B (sin ce 1  B  1) = A
e
For elecctron, k 1
 1.76  1011 C kg
m
42. The combination of the
e gates as shown
s in figu
ure The maxximum kinetiic energy of the
t
represent: photoele
ectron is
1
K max  m max
2
 e VS
2
e
 max
2
2 VS
m
(1) OR gatte
e
(2) AND ga
ate max  2 VS  2  1.76  1011  0.71
m
(3) NOR gate
= 5  105 m s1 = 50
00  103 m s1
(4) XOR gate
m s1
= 500 km
Solution Choice (1)

13
45. Calculate the linear momentum of a 3 Me V 8.
48 Fehling solution is a mixture of
o two soluttions.
photon: While one
o solution contains CuSO
C 4, the other
o
(1) 0.01 eV
V s/m containss:
CH(O OH)COOK OONa
CO
(2) 0.02 eV
V s/m
(1) | (2) |
(3) 0.03 eV
V s/m
CH(O
OH)COOK COOONa
(4) 0.04 eV
V s/m

OH
COO CHH(OH)COON
Na
Solution Choice (1) (3) | (4) |
Energy of a photon, E = 3 Me V = 3  106 eV COO
OH CHH(OH)COOK
K
E
he photon, p 
Linear momentum of th
c Solution Choice: (4 4)
Where c is the speed of light in vaccuum. Fehling’ss solution co
onsists of CuS
SO4 mixed with
w
Rochelle
e salt i.e., so
odium potass sium tartarate
e.
3  10
06 e V
p  10 2 e V s / m  0.01e
0 V s/m CH(OH))COONa
3  10 m / s
8
|
CH(OH))COOK
46. The producct of combusstion of an aliphatic thiol
(RSH) at 298
2 K are: 49
9. Reaction
n by which hyde cannot be
h benzaldeh
(1) CO2 (g) , H2 O(g) and SO
S 2 (g) prepared
d:
(2) CO2 (g) , H2 O(l) and SO
S 2 (g)
(1) + CO + HC
Cl in the pres
sence of
(3) CO2 (l) , H2 O(l) and SO
O2 (g)
(4) CO2 (g) , H2 O(l) and SO
S 2 (l) anhyydrous AlCl3

Solution Choice (2)

(2) +Z
Zn/Hg and co
onc. HCl
RSH  O2  CO2 (g)  H2 O(l)  SO2 ( g)

47. Increasing order of reactivity of the following alkkyl

(3) +C S2 followed by
CrO2Cl2 in CS
halides in the
t Williamso on’s synthessis is:
I. CH2 = CHCH
C 2Cl II. CH3CHC 2CH2Br H3O+
III. (CH3)2CCH
C 2Br IV. CH3CH2CH2Cl

(1) II < III < IV < I (2) III < II < IV < I (4) + H2 in presenc
ce of Pd-BaS
SO4
(3) IV < III < I < II (4) III < IV < II < I

Solution Choice: (2 2)
Solution Choice (4)
Reductioon in presencce of Zn-Hg and conc.HC
Cl is
Order of reeactivity of different alkyl halides
useful fo
or aldehyde a
and ketone but
b carboxylicc
towards Williamson’s
W s
synthesis is
acid group remains uunaffected.
Alkyl > 1̊ > 2̊ > 3̊
For same alkyl
a group order
o of reacttivity is
50
0. When ethylene
e glyccol is heatedd with a acid
dified
R  I > R  Br > R  Cl
potassiu
um permang ganate, the e main org ganic
Thus orderr of reactivityy of given alkkyl halides
compound obtained is:
towards Williamson’s
W s
synthesis cann be given ass
(1) Oxalic acid (2) Glyoxal
CH2 = CHC CH2Cl(Allyl) > CH3CH2CH H2Br
(3) Form
mic acid (4) Ac
cetaldehyde
(1̊ bromide
e) > CH3CH2CH C 2Cl (1̊ chlo oride) >
(CH3)3CCH H2Br(Sterically hindered)
Solution Choice: (3
3)

14
 CH2 OH (CH3 )2 CH  CH  COOH 
KMnO4 /H
|   2 HCOOH |
Formic acid
CH2 OH NH2
(CH3 )2 CH  CH  COO
51. Thermal decomposition of |
 
 CH3  NH 3
 |  zwitter ion

 
CH3 CH2  N  C(CH3 )2  OH
  54. During the process of digestion, the proteins
 | |  present in food materials are hydrolysed to amino
 CH3 CH3 
  acids. The two enzymes involved in the process
are:
Gives: enzyme (A)
proteins   polypeptides respectively
(1) CH3CH = CH2 enzyme (B)
  amin o acids
(2) CH2 = CH2
(1) Invertase and zymase
(3) CH3 – CH3 (2) Amylase and maltase
(4) CH3CH2CH3 (3) Diastase and lipase
(4) Pepsin and trypsin
Solution Choice: (2)
Solution Choice: (4)
pep sin
52. Which of the following statements is not correct? Pr oteins 
proteases
 Polypeptides
(1) Replacement of halogen by NH2 in alkyl tryp sin
  A min o acids
halide is a nucleophilic substitution reaction chemotryp sin

(2) Aryl halides show more reactivity as

compared to alkyl halides in the replacements 55. The correct repeating structural unit of
of halogen by the NH2 group. polystyrene is:
(3) During the replacement of halogen by –NH2 (1)  CH2  CH 
group, ammonia is taken in large excess so as |
to avoid the formation of 2° and 3° amines. C6H5
(4) Tertiary alkyl halides generally produces
alkene instead of the replacement of halogen (2)  CH2  CH  CH  CH2 
by NH2 group. | |
C6H5 C6H5
Solution Choice: (2)
(3)  CH2  CH  CH2  CH 
53. Which compound can exist in a dipolar (zwitter | |
ion) structure? C6H5 C6H5
(1) C6H5CH2CH(N = CH2)COOH
(2) (CH3)2CHCH(NH2)COOH (4)  CH  CH2  CH2  CH 
| |
(3) C6H5CONHCH2COOH
C6H5 C6H5
(4) HOOCCH2CH2COCOOH

Solution Choice: (2) Solution Choice: (3)

-Amino acids exist as zwitter ions. The initiator free radical first adds to styrene to
form a more stable free radical (I) which then
adds to another molecule to form another
benzylic free radical (II) and so on as so forth. As

15
 a result, two C6H5 groups occur at alternate 59. Match List I with List II and select the correct
carbon atoms on the polymer chain. answer using the codes given below the lists
List I List II
R  CH  CH2 (i) Iodoform (a) Anaesthetic
|  (ii) Methyl salicylate (b) Antiseptic
C6H5 (iii) Diethyl ether (c) Insecticide
 (iv) Hexachloro (d) Detergent
R  CH2  CH
C H CH  CH
cyclohexane
| 
6 5 2

(e) Pain balm
(I) C6H5

(1) (i) – (b) (ii) - (e) (iii) - (c) (iv) - (d)
R  CH2  CH  CH2  CH
(2) (i) – (d) (ii) - (b) (iii) - (a) (iv) - (c)
| | 
(3) (i) – (b) (ii) - (e) (iii) - (a) (iv) - (c)
C6H5 C6H5
(II) (4) (i) – (c) (ii) - (a) (iii) - (d) (iv) - (b)
[ CH2  CH  CH2  CH ]n
| | Solution Choice: (3)
C6H5 C6H5
Polystyrene Iodoform – Antiseptic
Methyl salicylate – Pain balm
56. Plexiglass (PMMA) is a polymer of: Diethyl ether – Anaesthetic
(1) Acrylic acid (2) Methyl acrylate Hexachlorocyclohexane – Insecticide
(3) Methyl methacrylate (4) None of these
60. Which of the following is considered to be an
Solution Choice: (3) anti-cancer species?
Methyl methacrylate (1)

57. Which of the following statements is false?

(1) The lower the concentration of D.O., the
more polluted is the water sample (2)
(2) The tolerable limit of lead in drinking water is
50 ppm
(3) Water is considered pure if it has BOD less
(3)
than 5 ppm
(4) In COD determination, the pollutants resistant
to microbial oxidation are not oxidized by
oxidizing agents like K2Cr2O7 (4)

Solution Choice: (4)

In COD determination, the pollutants resistant to
microbial oxidation are also oxidized by oxidizing
Solution Choice: (3)
agent like K2Cr2O7.
cis isomer of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 is used as an anti-
58. Which of the following are considered as algae cancer drug.
elements?
(1) Metals and complex compound 61. The ionic radii of A+ and B- ions are 0.98 ˣ 10-10 m
(2) Benzo pyrene and 1.81 ˣ 10-10 m. The coordination number of
(3) Nitrates, phosphates and sulphates each ion in AB is:
(4) Cyanides, sulphides and nitrogen oxide (1) 8 (2) 2
(3) 6 (4) 4
Solution Choice: (3)
Solution Choice: (3)

16
 8  10 10
  0.98 4.
64 An electtron is moviing in Bohr’s
s fourth orbiit. Its
Radius ratiio,   0.5
541
1  10 10
  1.81 de-Broglie wavelen ngth is  . What is the
It lies in the
e range of 0.141 to 0.732
2 hence, circumfe erence of the
e fourth orbit?
?
coordinatio on number off each ion wiill be 6 as the
e (1) 2/  (2) 2 
compound will have Na aCl type structure i.e., (3) 4  (4) 3/ 
octahedral arrangemen nt.
Solution Choice: (33)
62. Which of the following biphenyls is optica
ally Number of waves in Bohr’s fourth
h orbit = 4
active?  circummference = n
number of waaves 
(1) wavelength
w = 4

65
5. Due to in
nert pair effe
ect:
(1) Heavvier p-block eelements sho ow lower
oxidaation state ass stable oxida
ation state
(2) (2) Heavvier p-block eelements sho ow higher
oxidaation state ass stable oxida
ation state
ng shielding effect by inner penultima
(3) Stron ate
electrrons is obserrved
(4) The oxidation
o sta
ate is equal to
o the valencee
(3) shelll electrons

Solution Choice: (1 1)
Due to in
nert pair effe
ect, heavier p-block
p eleme ents
show loww (two units less) oxidatioon state as th
he
(4) most sta
able one.

66
6. A  bo
onded moleccule MX3 is
s T-shaped. The
number of non-bonding pairs of electrons
e is:
(1) 0
(2) 2
Solution Choice: (4)
(3) 3
o-substituted biphenylss are opticallyy active as
(4) Can be predicted
d only if atom
mic number off M
both the rin n one plane and their
ngs are not in
is kn
nown.
mirror imagges are non--superimposa able.
Solution Choice: (2 2)
63. A sample of calcium carbonate
c (CaCO3) has the t
MX3 hass three bondss pairs. It can n have T-sha
ape
following percentage
p co
omposition
only if it has two lone
e pairs of ele
ectrons.
Ca = 40%; C = 12%; O = 48%
If the law of
o constant proportions
p iss true, then the
t
67
7. The temperature at which nitrogen under u
weight of calcium
c in 4 g of a sammple of calciu um
1 atmospheric presssure has the same root mean
m
carbonate from anothe er source will be:
square velocity as that of CO2 under iden ntical
(1) 0.016 g (2) 0.16 g
conditionn effuses in
n 115 seco onds. The molar
m
(3) 1.6 g (4) 16 g
mass of A is:
(1) – 99.2
27° C (2) – 99.27°
9 K
Solution Choice: (3)
(3) -9.92
27° C (4) 1556° C
Ca = 40%, hence, wt of Ca in 4 g CaCO
C 3

40 Solution Choice (1)

  4  1.6 g
100 3 RT
RMS =
M

17
 3 R  273
3 3 RT 273 T 0 
1.785  V1 = 1  400
 or 
MCO2 MN2 44 28 4000
V1   224.08 ml
m
1.78
3 K =  99.27
T = 173.73 7° C

2.
72 The cha arge/size ratio of a catioon determinees its
68. The entro opy change for a non n-spontaneo
ous
polarizin
ng power. W Which one of the follo owing
reaction is 140 J K-1 mol
m -1 at 298 K.
K The reaction
sequencce represents the increasing order of o the
is: +
polarizin
ng power of tthe cationic species,
s C 2+,
K , Ca
(1) Reversible (2) Irreversible
Mg2+, Bee2+ ?
(3) Exothermic (4) Endo othermic
(1) Mg , Be2+, K+, Ca2+
2+
+

Solution Choice: (4) (2) Be2+, K+, Ca2+, Mg2+

Since the reaction
r is no
on-spontaneous (3) K+, Ca
C 2+, Mg2+, Be2+
 G is positive
p (4) Ca2+, Mg2+, Be2+, K+
As S is positive
p en) hence H must be
(give
positive alsso. It means the reaction is Solution Choice: (3)
endotherm mic. cch arg e on io
on
ng power 
Polarizin
size of cation
69. pOH of wa 2 K. If watter is heated to
ater is 7.0 at 298
350 K, which of the following would d be true? 73
3. Which of the folllowing molecule has the
(1) pOH wiill decrease maximum number off stereoisome
ers?
(2) pOH wiill increase
(3) pOH wiill remain eveen
+
(4) Concenntration of H ions will inccrease but that
(1) (2)
H- will decreasse
sof OH

Solution Choice: (1)

g H2O, [H+] and [OH] botth increase
On heating
n equal. As [OH] increasses, pOH
and remain (3) (4)
decreases.

70. The strong

gest reducing
g agent is: Solution Choice: (4)
(1) HNO3 (2) H2S Compou dissimilar chiral carbon
und has two d
(3) H2SO4 (4) SnCl2 atoms hence has ma aximum stere eoisomers. (In
option (3
3) one meso form will exist).
Solution Choice: (2)
An electronnegative elem
ment in its lo
owest oxidatio
on 74
4. The alkeene C6H6 producing OH
HC(CH2)CHO
O on
state acts as
a powerful reducing
r ageent. ozonolyssis is:
(1) Hexe
ene – 1
71. For completely reacting with 400 0 mL of 1 N (2) Hexe
ene – 3
acidified KMnO
K 4 solution, what voolume of a 10 (3) Cyclo
ohexene
volume sam mple of H2O2 is needed? ? (4) 1-me
ethylcyclohexxene-1
(1) 56 mL (2) 224 mL
m
(3) 28 mL (4) 112 mL
m Solution Choice: (3)
Since the alkene (C6H6) on ozonolysis gives a
Solution Choice: (2) single diialdehyde coontaining six C-atoms,
3.035  10 thereforee, the alkene
e must be cyc clohexene.
Normality of
o 10 vol. H2O2 =  1.785
17
N1V1 = N2V2

18
75. An element (atomic mass = 100 g/mol) having 1
Number of moles of urea =
bcc structure has unit cell edge 400 pm. Then the 60
density of the element is: 3 1
Number of moles of glucose = 
(1) 10.376 g/cm3 (2) 5.188 g/cm3 180 60
(3) 7.289 g/cms (4) 2.144 g/cm3 Since the molar concentration of the two
solutions is same (amount of solvent given is
Solution Choice: (2) same), the two solutions will boil at the same
ZM temperature.
Density =
a3  NA  1030
2  100 78. A silver cup is plated with silver by passing 965
 5.188 g / cc coulombs of electricity, the amount of silver
(400)  6.02  1023  1030
3

deposited is:
76. Phenol associates in benzene to a certain extent (1) 9.89 g
(2) 107.87 g
to form dimer. A solution containing 2.0 ˣ 10-2 kg
(3) 1.0787 g
of phenol in 1.0 kg of benzene has its freezing
(4) 1.002 g
point decreased by 0.69 K. The degree of
association of phenol is:
Solution Choice: (3)
(Kf for benzene = 5.12 K kg mol-1)
(1) 73.4 (2) 50.1 EAg  Q 107.87  965
w Ag    1.0787 g
(3) 42.3 (4) 25.1 96500 96500

Solution Choice: (1)

Weight of phenol (wA) = 2.0 ˣ 10-2 kg = 20 g 79. The following mechanism has been proposed for
Weight of benzene (wB) = 1.0 kg the reaction of NO with Br2 to form NOBr.


NO(g)  Br2 (g) 
 NOBr2 (g)
Ti  0.69 K K f  5.12 K kg mol1
Tf  i K f m NOBr2 (g)  NO(g)  2 NOBr(g)
Tf 0.69 0.69  94 If the second step is the rate determining step,
i   i  0.63
Kf m 20 5.12  20 the order of the reaction with respect to NO(g) is:
5.12 
94
(1) 1 (2) 0


2 A 
 (A)2
1 x x
(3) 3 (4) 2
2

x Solution Choice: (4)

Particle after association = 1  x +
2 

NO(g)  Br2 (g) 
 NOBr2 (g)
x
=1
2
x NOBr2 (g)  NO(g)  2 NOBr(g)
I=1
2
x [rate determining step]
0.63 = 1  x  0.73.3 i.e 73.2%
2 Rate of reaction (r) = k [NOBR2] [NO]
Where [NOBR2] = kC[NO] [Br2]
77. An aqueous solution containing 1 g of urea boils r  k  kC  NOBr2  NO
at 100.25 C. The aqueous solution containing
r  k  NO  Br2 
2
3 g of glucose in the same volume will boil at:
(1) 100.75C (2) 100.5 C The order of the reaction with respect to
(3) 100 C (4) 100.25 C NO(g) = 2

Solution Choice: (4)

19
80. The volum
me of colloida
al particle, Vc as comparred 83
3. Which one
o of the following seque ences repressents
article Vs in a true solution
to volume of solute pa the corre
ect increasin
ng order of bo
ond angles in
n the
could be: given moolecules?
Vc (1) H2O < OF2 < OCll2 < CIO2
(1) 0 3
 10
Vs (2) OCl2 < CIO2 < H2O < OF2
(3) OF2 < H2O < OCll2 < CIO2
Vc
(2)  10
03 (4) CIO2 < OF2 < OC Cl2 < H2O
Vs
Vc Solution Choice: (3)
(3) 1
Vs H2O is sp 3
s hybridised d with bond angle
a 104.5 due
V to presence of two lo
one pairs. OF
F2 has structu
ure
(4) c  10
023
Vs similar to
o H2O with b
bond angle 10 03 due to hiigher
electronegativity of fluorine. OCl2 also has sim
milar
Solution Choice: (2) e with bond angle 111 because
structure b of stteric
For true so
olution, the diameter
d rang
ge is 1 to 10 crowdingg of two chlo
orine atoms. However CIOO2
 has -bo
ond characte
er with an odd
d electron so
o that
A and for colloidal solution, diameter range is 10

bond angle is 118. T
Thus four compounds ca
an be
to 1000 A arranged
d in order of their bond angle as
4 3
r
Vc  3  c  rc   10 
3 3

        103
Vs  4  3  rs   1 
 3   rs
 

81. Gallium arssenide is purrified by:

(1) Froth-floatation proccess
(2) van-Arkkel method
(3) Zone-reefining methood 84
4. The elecctronic config
guration of Ta
antalum (Ta)) is:
(4) Electrolytic method (1) 6s25d
d14f0
(2) 6s25d
d24f14
Solution Choice: (3) (3) 6s25d
d134f14
(4) 6s25d
d44f14
82. Among the e following molecules:
m
(i) XeO3
Solution Choice: (3)
(ii) XdOF4
Tantalum e] 4f145d136s2
m Ta(73) [Xe
(iii) XeF6
Those havving same nu umber of lone
e pairs on Xe
85
5. oup-12 metals Zn, Cd and Hg
The ionic radii of Gro
are:
are sm maller than those of Group-2 metals
(1) (i) and (ii) only
because e Zn, Cd and Hg have:
(2) (i) and (iii) only
(1) 10 d--electrons wh
hich shield th
he nuclear
(3) (ii) and (iii) only
charge poorly
(4) (i), (ii) and
a (iii) only
(2) 10 d--electrons wh
hich shield th
he nuclear
charge strongly
Solution Choice: (4)
(3) 10 d--electrons wh
hich have a large
l radius ratio
(4) 10 d--electrons wh
hich have a large
l exchannge
enerrgy

Solution Choice: (1)

20
 Zn, Cd and d Hg have smmaller ionic ra
adii than
group-2 eleements beca ause the formmer involves
10 d- electtrons which have
h poor shhielding effecct
so that electrons are more
m strongly attracted
towards nu ucleus.
Benzene e is non pola
ar in nature. As
A we know that
t
86. o iron in [Fe((CN)6]3- is:
The EAN of non-polaar disperses more to non-polar
(1) 34 (2) 36 substancces. Therefoore, meta-me ethyl
(3) 37 (4) 35 nonylbenzene being nonpolar fro om both sides will
dispersee more to bennzene. All other substancces
Solution Choice: (4) (a, b and
d d) have eith
her one side polar or both
h
Oxidation state
s n [Fe(CN)6]3- = +3
of Fe in sides poolar.
n = electronss on Fe3+ + electrons
EAN of iron e from
m
six CN = 23 + 12 = 35 Sn4 
9.
89 Standard
d electrode p
potential for couple
e is
Sn2 
87. Which off the follow wing is a free radiccal
Cr 3 
substitution
n reaction? +0.15 V and that for the ouple is 0.74
co 4 V.
Cr
These twwo couples in
n their standard state are e
(1)
connecte ed to make a cell. The ce
ell potential will
w
be:
(1) + 1.19 V
(2)
(2) + 0.8
89 V
(3) + 0.18 V
(4) + 1.8
83 V
(3)
Solution Choice: (2)
HO + HCN  CH3CH(OH)CN
(4) CH3CH
Ecell  Ecathode
c  Eanodee
Solution Choice: (1)  0.15  (0.74)   0
0.89 V
Side chain coordinationn takes place
e by free
radical sub
bstitution mecchanism. 90
0. Cs+ ion imparts viole et colour to the
t flame. Th his is
due to th
he fact that th
he emitted raadiations havve:
88. he following molecules iss most suitab
Which of th ble (1) High energy
to disperse
e benzene in water? (2) Low energy
(3) Long
ger waveleng gth
(1) (4) Nonee of these

Solution Choice: (1)

Violet co ponds to low wavelength or
olour corresp
(2)
higher energy.

(3) 91. ed in:

ICBN was first revise
1
(1) 1961
(2) 1964
4
(4) (3) 1975
5
(4) 1753
3

Solution Choice: (3) n Choice (3)

Solution

21
92. Statement-1: Taxon and category are 96. Thermococus, Methanococcus and Methano
different things. bacterium exemplify:
Statement-2: Category shows hierarchical (1) Archaebacteria that contain protein
classification. homologous to eukaryotic core histones
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (2) Archaebacteria that lack any histones
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for resembling those found in eukaryotes but
Statement-1 whose DNA is negatively supercoiled
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False; (3) Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as
Statement-1 well as mitochondria
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False (4) Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True ribosomes

Solution Choice (1)

Solution Choice (1)
A category is a rank or level in the hierarchial
classification of organisms. Taxon is a unit in
classification which may represent any level of
grouping of organisms based on certain common
characteristics. There is some confusion in the
use of taxo and category, for example Bryophyta
is a taxon while division is a category.
93. In prokaryotes, the genetic material is:
(1) Linear DNA with histones
(2) Circular DNA with histones
(3) Linear DNA without histones
(4) Circular DNA without histones
Solution Choice (4)
In prokaryotes nucleoid cosist of double stranded
circular DNA without histone protein.
94. Which of the following shows the absence of
chlorophyll “b”?
(1) Green algae (2) Red algae
(3) Blue-green algae (4) Brown algae
Solution Choice (3)
95. Which one of the following group of fungi is
sometimes known as “fungal waste basket”?
(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes
Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methano
bacterium exemplify archaebacteria that contain
protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones.
97. Conifers differ from grasses in the:
(1) Lack of xylem tracheids
(2) Absence of pollen tubes
(3) Formation of endosperm before fertilization
(4) Production of seeds from ovules
Solution Choice (3)
Conifers (Gymnosperms) differ from grasses
(angiosperms) because in gymnosperms the
female gametophyte is actually endosperm
which is made before fertilization. While in
grasses endosperm is a tissue formed by the
fertilization of second male gamete to polar
nuclei. Moreover in gymnosperms the
endosperm is a haploid tissue while in
angiosperms it is triploid.
98. Match the following and choose correct option:
Column I Column II
(Classes of
pteridophytes) (Examples)
(i) Psilopsida a. Selaginella
(ii) Hycopsida b. Psilotum
(iii) Sphenopsida c. Dryopteris
(iv) Pteropsida d. Equisetum
(1) (i) – (b); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (c)
(2) (i) – (a); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (c)
(3) (i) – (b); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (d)
(4) (i) – (b); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (c)

Solution Choice (1)

Solution Choice (4)

22
99. Bryophytes are dependent on water because: 103. Classification of Porifera is based on:
(1) Water is essential for fertilization for their (1) Branching (2) Spicules
homosporous nature (3) Reproduction (4) Symmetry
(2) Water is essential for their vegetative
propagation Solution Choice (2)
(3) The sperms can easily reach upto egg in the The terms porifera was given by Grant, the
archegonium phylum includes animals with pores in their body,
(4) Archegonium has to remain filled with water Its classification based on skeleton or spicules.
for fertilization
104. Which of the following substances, if introduced
Solution Choice (3) into the blood stream, would cause coagulation
Bryophytes require a thin film of water on the of blood at the site of its introduction?
surface of their substratum during sexual (1) Prothrombin
reproduction for the following reasons:
(2) Fibrinogen
(i) Dehiscence of antheridia requires absorption
(3) Thromboplastin
of water from outside
(ii) Dehiscence of archegonium (4) Heparin
(iii) Swimming of sperms to reach the archegonia
Solution Choice (3)
100. Which of the following groups of plants play an Fibrinogen, prothromb in, throm-bolplastin are
important role in plant succession on bare respectively clotting factors I, II and III.
rocks/soil?
Thromboplastin released from injured platelets
(1) Algae (2) Bryophytes
or injured tissue. This converts prothrombin into
(3) Pteridophytes (4) Gymnosperms
thrombin in the presence of calcium ions. The
thrombin converts fibrinogen into fibrin and the
Solution Choice (3)
latter forms the clot.

101. Which of the following character is not found in

all the chordates? 105. The ciliated columnar epithelical cells in humans
(1) Diaphragm (2) Coelom are known to occur in:
(3) Pharyngeal gill slits (4) Dorsal nerve cord (1) Eustachian tube and stomach lining
(2) Bronchioles and fallopian tubes
Solution Choice (1)
(3) Bile duct and oesophagus
Diaphragm is not found in all the chordates
(4) Fallopian tubes and urethra
102. Ecdysis is shedding of:
(1) Stratum corneum Solution Choice (2)
(2) Epidermis
Ciliated epithelium is usually found in the
(3) Dermis
respiratory tract, fallopian tubes.
(4) Stratum Malpighi

Solution Choice (1) 106. Intervertebral disc is made up of:

Stratum corneum is the outermost partially (1) Elastic cartilage
cornified layer of scale like cells. Small (2) Fibrous cartilage
fragments of this layer are periodically shed off
(3) Calcified cartilage
from the body known as ecdysis. The new layer
is regularly formed by underlaying stratum (4) Hyaline cartilage
germinativum.
Solution Choice (2)

23
107. What is true about ribosomes? 111. Which functional group participates in disulphide
(1) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S, where bond formation in proteins?

“S” stands for sedimentation coefficient (1) Thioether (2) Thiol

(2) These are composed of ribonucleic acid and (3) Thioester (4) Thiolactone
proteins
Solution Choice (2)
(3) These are found only in eukaryotic cells
(4) These are self splicing introns of some RNAs. 112. Arrange the following events of meiosis in the
correct sequence:
Solution Choice (2) I. Terminalization
Ribosomes are a membraneous (ie without II. Crossing over
membrane cell organelle composed of rRNA and III. Synapsis
protein. These are found in both prokaryotic and
IV. Disjunction of genomes
eukaryotic cells. In prokaryotes, ribosomes are
The correct sequences:
70S type while in eukaryotes, it is 80S type.
(1) II, I, IV, III (2) III, II, I, IV
108. Golgi body is associated with: (3) IV, III, II, I (4) I, IV, III, II
(1) Packaging and storage of material
Solution Choice (2)
(2) Cell plate formation
(3) Secretion of different substance 113. During oogenesis the cell that is fertilized by a
(4) All of the above sperm to become an egg is:
(1) Primary spermatocyte
Solution Choice (4) (2) Secondary oocyte
(3) Primary oocyte
109. Pollution in big cities can be controlled to a large (4) Secondary spermatocyte
extent by:
(a) Improving traffic condition and road Solution Choice (2)

(b) Road side plantation

114. The stage in which daughter chromosomes
(c) Proper disposal of garbage and domestic as move toward the poles of the spindle is:
well as municipal wastes
(1) Anaphase (2) Metaphase
(d) Cannot be controlled
(3) Prophase (4) Telophase
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (d) (4) All of these Solution Choice (1)

115. In a longitudinal section of a root, starting from

Solution Choice (2)
the tip upward, the four zones occur in the
following order:
110. What type of macromolecule carries out catalysis
(1) Root cap; cell division; cell enlargement; cell
in biological systems?
maturation
(1) Proteins called enzymes
(2) Root cap; cell division; cell maturation; cell
(2) Carbohydrates called starches
enlargement
(3) Lipids called steroids
(3) Cell division; cell enlargement; cell
(4) Nucleic acids called DNA maturation; root cap
(4) Cell division; cell maturation; cell
Solution Choice (1) enlargement; root cap

24
 Solution Choice (1) 119. Match Column I with Column II
Root sows the following regions Column I Column II
Root cap or calyptras  caplike protective (i) Carbon monoxide (a) Qualitative pollutant
covering over the tip. (ii) DDT (b) Feron
Meristematic region is the subapical position. (iii) Chlorofluoro methane (c) Lung cancer
Zone of elongation  receives news cells from (iv) Smoking (d) Quantitative
the growing point. pollutant
Root hair zone  is the zone of differentiation. (v) Acid rain (e) Nitrogen and
Zone of mature cells  having thick walled Sulphur oxides
impermeable cells. (1) (i) – (b); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (e); (v) - (c)
(2) (i) – (d); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (c); (v) - (e)
116. Embryo of a seed is made up of: (3) (i) – (c); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (a); (v) - (e)
(4) (i) – (e); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (b); (v) - (d)
(1) Meristematic tissue (2) Parenchyma
(3) Collenchyma (4) Sclerenchyma Solution Choice (2)

Solution Choice (1) 120. Ringing experiment is related with:

(1) Ascent of sap
117. Which of the following statement(s) is / are (2) Translocation of food
correct about Dorsiventral (dicotyledonous) leaf? (3) Both (1) and (2)
(i) The adaxial (upper surface) bears more (4) Mineral nutrition
stomata than the abaxial (lower surface)
epidermis
Solution Choice (3)
(ii) Mesophyll, which possesses chloroplasts
Ascent of sap takes place through xylem and
and carry out photosynthesis, is made up of
translocation of food takes place through
parenchyma
phloem. Both are proved by ringing experiment.
(iii) Mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade
and spongy parenchyma
121. Biodiversity of a geographical region represents
(1) Both (i) and (iii) (2) Only (ii)
(1) Endangered species found in the region
(3) Only (iii) (4) All of these
(2) The diversity in the organisms found in the
region
Solution Choice (2) (3) Genetic diversity present in the dominant
The abaxial epidermis bears more stomata than species of the region
the adaxial epidermis. Mesophyll has two types (4) Species endemic to the region
of cells the palisade parenchyma and the spongy
parenchyma. Solution Choice (2)

118. Which meristem helps in increasing grith? 122. “Reclamation” and “Little leaf” disease, caused
by deficiency of:
(1) Lateral meristem
(1) Zn and Mo (2) Cu and Zn
(2) Intercalary meristem
(3) Cu and B (4) Mn and Cu
(3) Primary meristem
(4) Apical meristem Solution Choice (2)
“Reclamation” and “Little leaf” disease, caused
Solution Choice (1) by deficiency of Cu and Zn.

25
123
3. Find the wrongly
w matched pair: 126. The diag
gram summaarizes the pa
athway of
glucose
e breakdown.. When two steps
s result in
n net
bium  Alfalffa
(1) Rhizob
increase
e of ATP?
a  Alnus
(2) Frankia
(3) Rhodospirillum  aerobic
a
(4) Bacillus  free-livin
ng

Solution Choice (3)

Rhodospirrillum is free--living, anaerrobic
photoautotrophic nitrog gen-fixing baacteria.

124
4. This questtion contain Statement
S – I (Assertion)
(1) A an
nd B (2) A and D
and Statem ason). It has 4 choices I, II,
ment – II (Rea
(3) B an
nd D (4) B and E
o of which only one is correct.
III and IV out c
Statementt I: Cyclic photophosphorylation
n Choice (2)
Solution
syntthesizes ATP
P
ATP fo ormation occurs both at 2, where w
Statementt II: ATPP synthesize in cyclic
glyceraldehydes-3-p phosphate is
i convertedd to
hoto
ophosphorylaation is not
pryuvate
e; and at 5, where the six-ca arbon
ociated with NADPH
asso
compou und, citrate, releases wa
ater and CO
O2 in
form
mation the Kreb
b’s cycle.
(1) Statem
ment I is true, Statement – II is true,
Statem
ment – II is a correct
c expla
anation for 127. The cheemiosmotic ccoupling hypoothesis of
Statem
ment - I oxidative phosphoryylation proposes that
(2) Statemment I is true, Statement – II is true, adenosiine triphosph s formed because:
hate (ATP) is
Statemment – II is NO
OT a correct explanation
e (1) High
h energy bonds are forme
ed in
for Stattement - I mito
ochondrial prroteins
(3) Statem
ment I is true, Statement – II is false (2) ADPP is pumped o
out of the ma
atrix into the
(4) Both th
he Statementts are false interrmembrane sspace
(3) A pro nt forms across the inner
oton gradien
Solution Choice (4) memmbrane
In case of cyclic photophosph
p horylation, the (4) Therre is a chang meability of the
ge in the perm
electron, while
w passinng between ferredoxin
f and er mitochondrial membrane toward
inne
plastoquin
none and/or over the e cytochrom me adenosine dipho osphate (ADP P)
complex the
t electron loses sufficcient energy to
form ATP from ADP an nd inorganic phosphate. Solutionn Choice (3)
Chemio osmotic theo ory postulateed by the British
125
5. The experrimental mateerial that hass largely been biochemmist Peter M Mitchell (19220-22) to exxplain
responsiblle for making
g rapid advan nces in the forrmation of ATP in th he mitochon ndrial
research on
o photosyntthesis is: electron
n transport chain. As s electrons are
(1) Chlamyydomonas transferrred along thhe electron carrier
c syste
em in
(2) Spinacch leaf the inner mitochon ndrial memb brane, hydroogen
(3) Chlorella ions (prrotons) are actively trannsported into
o the
(4) Hydrilla
a space between
b the iinner and ou
uter mitochon
ndrial
membra anes, which h thus con ntains a higher
Solution Choice (3) concenttration of prrotons than the matrix. This
creates an electrocchemical gra adient acrosss the
inner membrane,
m th
hrough whic ch protons move
m
back intto the matrix..

26
128. Statement 1: Alpha diversity is said to be Solution Choice (1)
higher if the dissimilarity
between communities is higher
131. Growth is primarily affected by two climatic
Statement 2: Alpha diversity is a measure of factors which are:
diversity between the
(1) Light and temperature
communities
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, (2) Temperature and relative humidity
and Statement-2 is a correct explanation for (3) Light and wind
Statement-1 (4) Rainfall and temperature
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True,
Statement-2 is a NOT correct explanation for Solution Choice (1)
Statement-1
(3) Statement 1 is True, Statement-2 is False 132. Statement 1: Net primary productivity is
(4) Both the Statements are False gross primary productivity
minus respiration
Solution Choice (4) Statement 2: Secondary productivity is
produced by heterotrophs
129. Match Column – I with Column – II and select the
(1) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
correct answer using the codes given below the correct and Statement 2 is the correct
Columns: explanation of Statement 1
Column I Column II (2) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
(i) Auxin (a) Fruit ripening correct and Statement 2 is the NOT correct
explanation of Statement 1
(ii) Citokinins (b) Phototopism
(3) If Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is
(iii) Abscisic acid (c) Antagonist to Gas
incorrect
(iv) Ethylene (d) Stomatal opening and
(4) If Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is
closing
correct
(e) Growth of lateral buds
(1) (i) – (d); (ii) - (e); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (a) Solution Choice (2)
(2) (i) – (b); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (a)
(3) (i) – (a); (ii) - (e); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (b) Net primary productivity is the rate of organic
(4) (i) – (c); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (a) matter built up or stored by producers in their
bodies per unit time and area. Net productivity is
Solution Choice (2) equal to gross primary productivity minus loss
due to respiration and other reasons. Rate of
130. Statement 1: A sanctuary is formed for the increase in energy containing organic matter or
conservation of animals only biomass by hetetrophs or consumers per unit
Statement 2: Restricted human activities time and area is known as secondary
are allowed in sanctuaries productivity.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True,
and Statement-2 is a correct explanation for 133. Most important determinant of marine ecosystem
Statement-1 is:
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, (1) Rainfall
and Statement-2 is a NOT correct (2) Geographical location
explanation for Statement-1 (3) Depth of distance from the shore
(3) Statement 1 is True, Statement-2 is False (4) All the above

(4) Both the Statements are False Solution Choice (3)

27
134
4. Cholecysto
okinin is a se
ecretion of: 137. If you in
ncreased the left atrial pre
essure from
(1) Stomacch which stim
mulates panccreas to 5 mmHg g to 15 mmH
Hg, what effec ct would thatt
release the pancre
eatic juice have on n pulmonary circulation?

(2) Liver syynthesized from choleste

erol and (1) It wo
ould force blo
ood the oppo
osite direction
n
controls secondaryy sexual charracters (2) It wo
ould increase
e the speed at
a which bloo od
(3) Duodenum makes the gall bladder to contra
act movves through tthe pulmonarry circulation
n
and re
elease bile (3) No change
c
(4) Hoblet cells of ileum
m and stimulates the (4) Bloo
od flow would
d almost or completely sto
op
secretion of succuss entericus

Solution
n Choice (4)
Solution Choice (3)

138. During inspiration, h

how does alveolar pressu
ure
135 olonged fasting:
5. During pro
compare e to atmosphheric pressurre?
(1) The firsst to be used
d up are carb
bohydrates,
(1) Alve
eolar pressure
e is greater than
t atmosph
heric
next fa
at is withdrawwn and proteins are
metabolised at the last (2) Alve
eolar pressure
e is less than
n atmospherric

(2) The firsst to be used

d up are fats, next (3) Alve
eolar pressure
e is the same
e as
atmoospheric
carboh hydrates are withdrawn frrom stored
glycoggen in the live
er and musclles and (4) Alve
eolar pressuree is one of th
he few pressures
wheere the refere
ence pressurre is not
proteinns are withdrrawn at the la
ast
atmoospheric
(3) First lip d up, then proteins and
pids are used
finally carbohydrate Solution
n Choice (2)
(4) None of
o the above
139. According to the Laaw of Laplace e, air shouldd flow
from the
e smaller alvveoli to the larger,
l collap
psing
Solution Choice (1)
them. In
n the lungs, several factors counterr that
tendenccy, and stab veolar structures.
bilize the alv
136
6. Choose th mbination off labelling from
he correct com
Which of
o the followin
ng is NOT on ne of them?
the given options.
o
(1) Surfa
actant lowerss surface tennsion to a greeater
degree when it iss on a smalle er surface arrea,
allow
wing the smaaller alveoli to stay open
(2) Mechanical stability is given by surroundiing
alve
eoli
nspulmonary pressure is lower for smaller
(3) Tran
eoli, allowing them to stab
alve bilize in
(1) I – Nose
e, II – Bronch
hus, III – Laryynx, commparison to thhe bigger one
es
aphragm, V – Trachea, VI - Lung
IV – Dia (4) Surfa
ace tension aat the gas-liq
quid interface
e
e, II – Larynxx, III – Bronchus, IV – Lung
(2) I – Nose g, incre
eases as alvveolar surfacee area
aphragm, VI - Trachea
V – Dia incre
eases

uth, II – Trachea, III – Laryn

(3) I – Mou nx, IV – Lung
g,
Solution
n Choice (3)
V – Dia
aphragm, VI - Bronchus
(4) I – Mou
uth, II – Diaph
hragm,III – Tra
achea,
IV – Bro
onchi, V – Larrynx, VI - Lun
ng

Solution Choice (1)

28
140. Punkinje’s fibres of the verteberate heart are 144. Water reabsorption in kidney is controlled by:
modified:
(1) Aldosterone
(1) Parasympathetic nerves
(2) ADH
(2) Sympathetic nerves
(3) Motor nerves (3) GH
(4) Muscle cells (4) Oxytocin

Solution Choice (4)

Solution Choice (1)
141. ECG records: Water reabsorption in the kidney is under the
(1) Electric current of the body control of ADH and aldosterone. ADH controls
(2) Potential differences that accompany cardiac the urine concentration by changing the
cycle permeability of the collecting tubule whereas
aldosterone does the same by retaining Na+ ions
(3) Pulse rate
in the intestinal tissues.
(4) Quantity of blood pumped per minute

145. Which one of the following statements in regard

Solution Choice (2)
to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct?
(1) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is
142. Lymph is colourless because: impermeable to water
(1) WBC are absent (2) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of
(2) WBC are present reabsorbing HCO3
(3) Haemoglobin is absent (3) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is
(4) RBC are present reabsorbed by the renal tubules
(4) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is
impermeable to electrolytes
Solution Choice (3)

Solution Choice (3)

143. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true?
Urine formation involves three main process
(I) Urine is hypertonic in distal convoluted tubule
called, gloerular filtration, reabsorption and
(II) When the urine passes into collecting tubule,
secretion. A comparison of the volume of the
it becomes hypotonic
filtrate formed per day (which is 180 litres per
(III) Urine is isotonic in proximal convoluted day) with that of urine released (about 1.5 litres)
tubule suggest that nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular
(IV) Urine becomes more and more hypotonic as filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules. The
it passes through Henle’s loop descending limp of loop of Henle is permeable to
(1) (I) and (IV) (2) (I), (II) and (III) water but impermeable to electrolytes. The
ascending limb is impermeable to water but
(3) (II) and (III) (4) (III) only
allows transport of electrolytes. Reabsorption of
sodium ions and water takes place in distal
Solution Choice (4) convoluted tubule.
The filtrate is isotonic to blood plasma (in
proximal convoluted tubule) and the filtrate
becomes hypertonic to blood plasma (in
descending limp of loop of Henle). The filtrate is
hypotonic to blood plasma (in ascending limp of
loop of Henle) in distal convoluted tubule. ADH
make the filtrate isotonic to blood plasma.

29
146. Consider the following statements (I – IV)
regarding kidney transplant and select the two
correct ones out of these:
(I) Even if a kidney transplant is proper the
recipient may need to take immune
suppressants for a long time
(II) The cell mediated immune response is
responsible for a long time
(III) The B-lymphocytes are responsible for
rejection of the graft
(IV) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney
transplant depends on specific interferons
The two correct statements are:
(1) (II) and (III)
(2) (III) and (IV)
(3) (I) and (III)
(4) (I) and (II)
Solution Choice (4)
Tissue and blood group matching are essential
before undertaking kidney transplant. Even if
kidney transplant is proper, the recipient may
need to take immune suppressant all his/her life.
The ability of body to differentiate self and
nonself and the cell-mediated immune response
is responsible for graft rejection.
147. Which one of the following correctly explains the
function of a specific part of a human nephron?
(1) Podocytes : create minute spaces (slit pores)
for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s
capsule
(2) Henle’s loop : most of the reabsorption of the
major substances from the glomerular filtrate
(3) Distal convoluted tubule : reabsorption of K+
ions into the surrounding blood capillaries
(4) Afferent arteriole : carries the blood away
from the glomerular towards renal vein
Solution Choice (4)
Glome podcytes are highly specialized cells with
a complex cytoarchitecture plays a major role in
establishing the selective permeability of
glomerular filtration barrier.
30
148. Actin protein occurs in two forms:
(1) Polymeric F-actin and monomeric G-actin
(2) Monomeric F-actin and polymeric G-actin
(3) The tail and a head
(4) F-actin and G-actin, but both globular
Solution Choice (1)
149. Which of the following statements about the
striated muscles is false?
(I) In the centre of each I-band is an elastic fibre
(Z-line) which bisects it
(II) Thin filaments are firmly attached to the
Z-line
(III) M-line is a fibrous membrane in the middle
of A-bands
(IV) A sarcomere comprises one full A-bands
and 2 half I-bands
(1) All (2) (IV)
(3) (I) and (II) (4) None of these
Solution Choice (4)
150. This question contain Statement – I (Assertion)
and Statement – II (Reason). It has 4 choices I, II,
III and IV out of which only one is correct.
Statement I: Ball and socket joints are the
most mobile joints
Statement II: Synovial fluid is present here
(1) Statement I is true, Statement – II is true,
Statement – II is a correct explanation for
Statement - I
(2) Statement I is true, Statement – II is true,
Statement – II is NOT a correct explanation
for Statement - I
(3) Statement I is true, Statement – II is false
(4) Both the Statements are false
Solution Choice (2)
Synovial fluid is a thick sticky fluid of egg white
consistency, secreted by synovial membranes
into the synovial cavity. Though the presence of
synovial fluid is one of the reasons behind the
mobility of the joints, but the most accurate
reason is the arrangement of the bones at the
joint, the spheroidal ball-like end of one bone
 articulatess here with th he cup-shap
ped depression 155. Occurre
ence of Leydig’s cells and
d their secrettion
in anotherr. This allow ws the bone e with the ball
b are:
head to be moved freely in many plane es. (1) Ovarry and estrog
gen
Shoulder joints and hip joints are the t
(2) Liver and cholesterol
ball-and-so ocket joints.
(3) Panccreas and glu
ucagon
(4) Testtes and testo
osterone
151. Clusters of
o neuron celll bodies emb bedded in the
e
white mattter of the bra
ain are referre
ed to as:
(1) Nuclei (2) Gyri Solution
n Choice (4)
(3) Sulci (4) Gang glia Leydig’ss cells are prresent in testtes and they
secrete male hormo one testostero one.
Solution: Choice (1) Small groups of polyygonal, large e cells presen
nt in
Nuclei are
e areas of gre
ey matter within the white
e the connnective tissue in between n the
matter, wh
here nerve immpulses are processed.
p seminifeerous tubuless are known as Leydig’s cells
are interstitial cells. They secrete
e male sex
152
2. Which one e of the follow
wing pairs off structures hormone testosteron ne.
distinguish
hes a nerve cell
c from othe er types of
cells?
156. Rhizome which grow
ws vertically upward is:
(1) Vacuolles and fibress
(1) Corm
m (2) Stolon
(2) Flagellum and med dullary sheath
h
(3) Bulb
bil (4) Ro
ootstock
(3) Nucleu
us and mitoch hondria
(4) Perikarryon and denndrites
Solution
n Choice (4)
Solution Choice (4)
The cytoplasm immediately surrounding the 157. Examine e the figuress given below
w and select thet
nucleus is loaded with protein synthetic ch all the 4 items
right opttions out of (A-D); in whic
machineryy and is calle ed perikaryon
n, dendrites A, B, C and D are identified corre ectly:
are usuallyy shorter, tap
pering and much
m brancheed
processess which may be one to se everal. Thesee
two types are only pressent in nervee cells.

153
3. Androgenss are secrete
ed by:
(1) Pituitarry (2) Teste
es
(3) Ovaries (4) Thyroid

Solution Choice (2)

Androgenss are secrete
ed by testes.

154
4. Role of thyymus in Hom
mo sapiens iss chiefly A B C D
concerned d with: (1) Tube
er Rhizo
ome Bulb
b Leaf buds
b
(1) Reprod
duction (2) Immunology (2) Offse
et Sucke
er Stolon Leaf buds
b
(3) Calcium
m balance (4) Blood coagulation (3) Offse
et Stolon
n Suc
cker Leaf buds
b
(4) Tube
er Rhizo
ome Bulb
bil Leaf buds
b
Solution: Choice (2)
Solution
n Choice (4)

31
158. Filliform apparatus is found in: 162. Which of the following option shows correctly
(1) Synergids matched pairs for Column I and Column II

(2) Anther wall Column I Column II

(3) Secondary nucleus (i) Endometrium (a) Uterus outer layer

(4) Egg cell (ii) Myometrium (b) Uterus innermost layer

(iii) Epimetrium (c) Fold at distal end of the
vagina
Solution Choice (1)
(iv) Hymen (d) Uterus middle layer

159. In angiosperms pollen tubes liberate their male

gametes into: (1) (i) – (b); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (c)
(2) (i) – (c); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (d)
(1) Central cell
(3) (i) – (a); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (b)
(2) Antipodal cell
(4) (i) – (d); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (b)
(3) Egg cell
(4) Synergids Solution Choice (1)

Solution Choice (4) 163. Which of the following is not true about the birth
control pill?
(1) The pill works by preventing ovulation
160. Fertilization occurs in:
(2) The pill works by preventing implantation
(1) Uterus (2) Ureter
(3) The ovarian cycle is suspended by the birth
(3) Vagina (4) Fallopian tube
control pill
(4) The birth control pill contains low doses of
Solution Choice (4) estrogen and progesterone

161. Withdrawal of which of the following hormones is Solution Choice (2)

the immediate cause of menstruation?
(1) FSH
(2) FSH-RH
(3) Progesterone
(4) Estrogen
Solution Choice (3)
Progesterone hormone which is secreted by the
corpus luteum in the ovaries is responsible to
stop ovulation (during pregnancy) and fixes the
foetus to the uterine wall, facilitates placenta
formation and controls the foetus development in
uterus. If this hormone is withdrawn then fixation
of foetus to uterine wall will not take place,
formation of placenta will also not take place,
ovulation starts from the ovaries and hence in
human female menstruation starts.
The birth control pill interferes with the
maturation of the follicles and the ova, inhibiting
release of an egg.
164. Correct statement with reference to a test tube
baby is :
(1) The fertilized egg is placed in the womb of
the mother where the gastrula period is
completed
(2) Unfertilized egg is placed in the womb and
allowed to grow parthenogenetically
(3) A prematurely born baby is reared in an
incubator
(4) Fertilized egg is taken out and grown in a
large test-tube
Solution Choice (1)

32
 For test-tu
ube babies, fertilization of
o egg is done 167. Sickle cell
c anaemia is:
in vitro and
a gote at gastrula stage is
the zyg (1) Caussed by substtitution of valline by glutam
mic
implanted in the wombb of the mother. acid
d in the beta g
globin chain of haemoglo obin
(2) Caussed by a cha
ange in a sing
gle base pairr of
165
5. What is the figure give
en below show
wing in DNAA
particular?
? (3) Charracterized byy elongated sickle
s like RB
BCs
with
h a nucleus
(4) An autosomal
a lin
nked dominan
nt trait

Solution n Choice (2)

c anaemia is caused by
Sickle cell b a change e in a
single base
b pair of DNA. Sicklee-cell anaem mia is
(1) Ovarian cancer
the nam me of a speciific form of sickle-cell disease
(2) Uterine
e cancer in which h there is hoomozygosity for the mutation
(3) Tubecttomy that ca auses HbS S. Sickle-ce ell disease,, or
(4) Vasecttomy sickle-ce ell anaemiaa (or drepanocytosis), is a
life-longg blood diso order charaacterized by red
blood cells
c assume an abnormal, rigid,
that a
Solution Choice (3)
sickle shape. Sicckling decre eases the cells
The figure shows th he tubectom my. This is a
flexibilityy and resu ults in a risk of various
surgical method
m to preevent pregnancy in wome en.
complications
In tubecto
omy small pa art of the fallopian tube is
removed or tied thro ough a sma all cut in the
abdomen or through vagina.
v It is very effective 168. The proocesses by wwhich DNA forms mRNA and
a
mRNA forms
f protein
n are respecttively:
method buut reversibilityy is very pooor.
(1) Tran
nslation and ttranscription
(2) Tran
nscription andd replication
166
6. Read the following
f statements and
d choose the (3) Tran
nscription andd translation
correct option: (4) Replication and ttranslation
(i) In phenylketonuria the affectedd person does
not seccrete the enzzyme to convvert
Solution
n Choice (3)
phenylalanine to tyyrosine
(ii) The po
ossibility of a male becomming
169. During replication
r off a bacterial chromosome
c e DNA
haemophilic is exttremely rare
synthessis starts from
m a replicatio on origin site::
(iii) Sickle cell anemia is caused byy the
substittution of gluta
amic acid byy valine at the
e (1) RNA
A primers are
e involved
fifth po
osition of beta chain of ha
aemoglobin (2) Is facilitated by te
elomerase
molecu ule
(3) Moves in one dirrection of the
e site
(iv) Myotonic dystrophyy is an autossomal
dominant trait (4) Moves in bi-direcctional way

(1) (i) and (ii) alone are e wrong

Solution
n Choice (4)
(2) (ii) andd (iii) alone arre wrong
Replicattion begins aat the Ori – orrigin of
(3) (ii) alon
ne is wrong
replication and proceeeds on both h sides from the
(4) (ii) andd (iv) alone arre wrong
Ori. Unidirectional re
eplication is rare.
r RNA
Solution Choice (2) primers are involved d in both prok karyotes andd
eukaryootes

33
170. Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends 173. In human beings retrovirus is considered as a
on the modulation in transcription by: cause of cancer because:
(1) Ribosome (1) In their genome oncogene is present
(2) Transcription factor (2) Their hereditary material made up of single
(3) Anticodon stranded RNA

(4) RNA polymerase (3) They have a gene for reverse transcriptase
(4) In their genome there may be cellular
Solution Choice (4) proto-oncogene
The process of formation of protein sequence
from DNA strand is called transcription which
Solution Choice (4)
requires RNA Polymerase chain. RNA
polymerase chains are of 3-types in eukaryotes
174. Match the following bacteria with the diseases
(i) RNA polymerase-I
and choose the correct option:
(ii) RNA polymerase II
(iii) RNA polymerase-III
Column I Column II
(i) Treponema pallidum (a) Plague
171. The animals of cold countries have relatively
(ii) Yersinia pestis (b) Anthrax
shorter and poorly developed ears, eyes, hairs
and other phenotypic characters. This is known (iii) Bacillus anthracis (c) Syphilis
by which law? (iv) Vibrio (d) Cholera

(1) (i) – (a); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (d)

(2) (i) – (c); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (d)
(3) (i) – (b); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (d)
(4) (i) – (d); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (b)

Solution Choice (2)

(1) Cope's law (2) Dollo's law

175. Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases?
(3) Bergmann's law (4) Allen's law
(1) Common cold, AIDS
(2) Dysentery, common cold
Solution Choice (4)
(3) Typhoid, tuberculosis
172. Praying mantis is a good example of: (4) Ringworm, AIDS

Solution Choice (1)

Common Cold, AIDS is a pair of viral diseases.
Viruses are a very common type of infectious
disease. Viruses are the smallest life-form
existing, since they are not even a single cell. It
is almost like they are not alive at all. They are
small strands of DNA-like cell material. A virus
consists mostly of RNA and cannot survive
(1) Camouflage (2) Mullerian mimicry
without host cells
(3) Warning colouration (4) Social insects

Solution Choice (1)

34
176. Which one of the following is correct match? 179. A genetic clone is:
(1) Reserpine –– Tranquilizer (1) A plant produced by asexual means
(2) Cocaine –– Opiate narcotic (2) Hybrid produced by sexual means
(3) Morphine –– Hallucinogenic (3) Homozygous plant produced by sexual
(4) Bhang –– Analgesic means
(4) Heterozygous plant produced by sexual
Solution Choice (1) means
Morphine is an opiate narcotic, Bhang is a
hallucinogen, Reserpine derived form Solution Choice (1)
Rauwolffia, is used as tranquilizer, cocaine is a
stimulant 180. One of the following bacterial groups are
exploited in biogas production:
177. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used in the (1) Methogens
formation of:
(2) Methanotrophs
(1) Ethanol (2) Methanol
(3) Organotrophs
(3) Acetic acid (4) Antibiotics
(4) Eubacteria
Solution Choice (1)
Solution Choice (1)

178. A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium Conversion of organic acid into CH4 gas by
which can also form symbiotic association with activity of methanogenic bacteria (anaerobes).
the water fern Azolla is:
(1) Anabaena (2) Tolypothrix
(3) Chlorella (4) Nostoc

Solution Choice (1)

35
 VERY SIMILAR PRACTICE PAPER FOR NEET - 02
SOLUTIONS

1. The length of a simple pendulum is about 100 cm fs   sR  smg  0.4  2  10  8 N

known to an accuracy of 1 mm. It's period of As F < fs therefore, block does not move.
oscillation is 2 s determined by measuring the Further, as static friction is self adjusting, it must
time for 100 oscillations using a clock of 0.1 s be equal to 3 N only.
resolution. What is the accuracy in the
determined value of g? 3. A body takes time t to reach the bottom of an
(1) 0.2% (2) 0.5% inclined plane of angle  with the horizontal. If
(3) 1.0% (4) 2% the plane is made rough, time taken now is 2t.
The coefficient of friction of the rough surface is:
Solution Choice (1)
3 2
1
(1) tan  (2) tan 
For a pendulum T = 2 4 3
g
1 1
(3) tan  (4) tan 
42 l 42 l 4 2
 T  2
g
g T2
Take logs and differentiate, Solution Choice (1)
g l T
 2
g l T
For maximum relative error, the individual errors
should be added up.
g l T
  2
g l T
l 0.1
  0.001
l 100
T 2  0.1 0.1
2    0.001
T 200 100
g
  100  0.002  100  0.2
g
 % error = 0.2% When the body moves on frictionless surface,
then
2. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on the floor. The 1
coefficient of static friction is 0.4. A force F of d g sin  t 2
2
3 N is applied on the block as shown in the When the body moves on rough inclined surface,
figure. The force of friction between the block then
and the floor is: (Take g = 10 m/s2)
1
d g (sin    cos ) (2t)2
2
or sin   4(sin    cos )
sin 
(1) 3 N (2) 8 N or  sin    cos 
4
(3) 4 N (4) 6 N
3 3
or  cos   sin  or   tan 
4 4
Solution Choice (1)
Here, m = 2 kg, s = 0.4, F = 3 N

36
4. A spring gun of spring constant 90 N/cm is 6. Two spherical bodies of masses M and 5 M and
compressed 12 cm by a ball of mass 16 g. If the radii R and 2 R respectively are released in free
trigger is pulled, the velocity of the ball is: space with initial separation between their
(1) 50 m s1 centres equal to 12 R. If they attract each other
(2) 40 m s1 due to gravitational force only, then the distance
(3) 60 m s1 covered by the smaller body just before collision
(4) 90 m s1 is:
(1) 2.5 R (2) 4.5 R
Solution Choice (4) (3) 7.5 R (4) 1.5 R

1 2
The potential energy of the spring = kx Solution Choice (3)
2
Let at O there will be a collision. If smaller sphere
1 1 16 2
  90  100 (N / m)  (0.12)2    moves x distance to reach at O, then bigger
2 2 1000
sphere will move a distance of (9 R  x)
 The velocity of the ball 90 ms1

5. If the angular momentum of a rotating body about

a fixed axis is increased by 10%. Its kinetic
energy will be increased by:
(1) 10% (2) 20%
(3) 21% (4) 5% GM  5 M
F
(12 R  x)2
Solution Choice (3) F G5M
asmall  
2
L M (12 R  x)2
Kinetic energy of rotation K R 
2I F GM
abig  
where L is the angular momentum 5 M (12 R  x)2
I is the moment of inertia 1 1 G5M 2
x asmall t 2  t ......... (i)
or KR  L2 2 2 (12 R  x)2
When the angular momentum of a body is 1 1 GM
increased by 10% (9 R  x)  abig t 2  t 2 ……..(ii)
2 2 (12 R  x)2
L
i.e., , its angular momentum will become Dividing (i) by (ii), we get
10
x
L 11L  5
L'  L   9R  x
10 10
2
or x = 45 R  5x or 6x = 45 R or x = 7.5 R
 11L 
K 'R L '2  10  121
  2  2

KR L L 100 7. Acceleration due to gravity is maximum at:
121 (R is the radius of earth).
K 'R  KR
100 R
(1) A height from the earth's surface
Percentage increase in the kinetic energy 2
K 'R  K R (2) The centre of the earth
=  100
KR (3) The surface of the earth
121 R
KR  KR (4) A depth from earth's surface
100 2
=  100  21%
KR
Solution Choice (3)

37
 Acceleration due to gravity at a height h above Spring constant of wire,
the earth's surface is F YA
k 
g l l
gh  2
 h k eq  k1  k 2
1  R 
 
Y 2 A  Y1 A Y2 A Y  Y2
where g is the acceleration due to gravity on the or   or Y  1
l l l 2
earth's surface
R g 4g
At h  , gh  2
 9. The velocity of the surface layer of water in a
2  R  9
river of depth 10 m is 5 m s-1. The shearing
1  
 2R stress between the surface layer and the bottom
g g layer is:
At h  R, gh  
 R
2
4 (Coefficient of viscosity of water,  = 10-3 SI units)
1  R 
  (1) 0.6  10-3 N m-2 (2) 0.8  10-3 N m-
 Acceleration due to gravity at a depth d below (3) 0.5  10-3 N m-2 (4) 10-3 N m-2
the earth's surface is
 d Solution Choice (3)
gd  g  1  
 R  Hence,  = 10-3 N m-2 s
-1
R  R  g  = 5 m s ; l = 10 m,
At d  , gd  g  1  
2  2R 2 
Strain rate =
l
 R
At the centre of the earth, d = R, gd = g  1    0 Shearing stress
 R Coefficient of viscosity,  =
Strain rate
Thus, the acceleration due to gravity is maximum
on the earth's surface.  Shearing stress =   Strain rate

=
10 3

N m2 s 5 m s 1   0.5  10 3
N m2
8. Two wires of equal length and cross-section area
suspended as shown in figure. Their Young's
10 m
modulus are Y1 and Y2 respectively. The
equivalent Young's modulus will be: 10. A black body radiates heat energy at the rate of
2  105 J/s m2 at the temperature of 120C.
Temperature of the black body at which rate of
heat radiation 32  105 J/s m2, is:
(1) 400 K (2) 600 K
(3) 800 K (4) 200 K
Y1  Y2
(1) Y1 + Y2 (2)
2 Solution Choice (3)
Y Y E1 = 2  105 J/s m2,
(3) 1 2 (4) Y1 Y2
Y1  Y2 Temperature T1 = 127 C = 400 K and
E2 = 32  105 J/s m2
Solution Choice (2) By Stefan's law, the rate of emission of radiated
energy per unit area is
E =  T4
14 14
E T4 T E   32  105 
 2  24 or 2   2   5 
2
E1 T1 T1  E1   2  10 
Young's modulus T2 = 2  T1 = 2  400 = 800 K
F l
Y 
A l

38
11. A Carnot engine whose efficiency is 40%,
l l 4l
receives heat at 500 K. If the efficiency is to be  T'  2  2 2  
g' 5 g 5 g
50%, the source temperature for the same  4 
 
exhaust temperature is:
(1) 900 K (2) 600 K 2T
T'  [Using (i)]
(3) 700 K (4) 800 K 5

Solution Choice (2)

13. A semicircular arc of radius a is charged
T
Efficiency of Carnot engine,   1  2 uniformly and the charge per unit length is  .
T1
The electric field at its centre is:
where T1 and T2 be the temperatures of source 
and sink respectively (1)
2  0 a2
T2 40 60 3
  1   1      40%  
T1 100 100 5 (2)
4  0 a
3 3
T2  T1   500 K  300 K ………..(i) 2
5 5 (3)
2  0 a
Let T1' be the temperature of the source for the

same sink temperature. (4)
2  0 a
T2 50 1
 '
 1   1 
T1 100 2
Solution Choice (4)
T1' = 2 T2 = 2  300 K = 600 K ……….(using (i))

12. A man measures time period of a simple

pendulum inside a stationary lift and find it to be
T. If the lift starts accelerating upwards with an
acceleration g/4, then the time period of
pendulum will be:

2T 5T
(1) (2) Electric intensity at centre O, due to small
5 2
element dl of charged ring
5 2  dl  (a d)
(3) (4) dE  
2T 5T 4  0 a2 4  0 a2
As is clear from figure, horizontal components of
Solution Choice (1) dE will cancel out in pairs and vertical
components will add.
In a stationary lift, time period of simple
  
pendulum is given by  E   dE sin    2
0 0 4  0 a
l
T2 
  cos 0

g
………………………(i) 4  0 a
where l is the length of a simple pendulum  
E   cos   cos 0  
When a lift accelerates upwards with an 4  0 a 2  0 a
acceleration g/4, it effective acceleration on bob
of pendulum
g 5g
g’ = g + =
4 4

39
14. Let there be spherrically symm
metric charrge 5.
15 What iss the electrric flux link
ked with closed
distribution
n with charge
c nsity varying
den surface?
?
5 r 
as =  (r)  0    upto r = R, R and  (r)  0
3 R
for r > R, where
w r is the distance from the origin.
The electrric field at a distance r (r < R) fro om (1) 1011 Nm2 C-1 012 Nm2 C-1
(2) 10
origin is givven by:
(3) 1010 Nm2 C-1 (4) 8.886  1013 Nm2 C-1
 r 5 r  4  0 r  5 r 
(1) 0
3 0 4  R (2) 
3 0  3 R 
 
Solution
n Choice (2)
 r 5 r  4 0 r  5 r  ng to Gauss’s law
Accordin
(3) 0    (4) 
4 0  3 R  3 0  4 R  q
Electric flux,
f 
0
Solution Choice (3) Where q = total charrge enclosed by closed
Consider a thin sphericcal shell of ra
adius x and surface
thickness dx
d as shown in the figure e.
25  7  1  0.4
1.2 0
 
0
8.85 C
=  1012 N m2 C1
8.85  1012 C2 N1 m2

16
6. Four me etallic plates,, each with a surface are
ea A,
2
V = 4  x dx
Volume of the shell, dV are placced at a dista ance d from each other. The
Let us draww a Gaussiann surface of radius r(r < R)
R alternating plates arre connected d to points A and
as shows in the figure above.
a B as shoown in the figgure. Then thhe capacitance of
Total chargge enclosed inside the Gaussian the systeem is:
surface is
r r
5 x 
V   0    4  x 2 dxx
Qin    dV
0 0 4 R
0 A 2 0 A
5
r x3  (1) (2)
= 4  0   x 2   dx
d d d
0 4 R
3 0 A 4 0 A
r (3) (4)
5 x4  5 3 r4  d d
= 4  0  x 3    4  0  r  
12
1 4 R 0 2
12 4 R

4  0  5 3 r 4   5 3 r4  Solution Choice (3)

=  r     0  r  
4 3 R 3 R
According to Gauss's la
aw
Qin
E 4  r2 
0

 0  5 3 r4 
E 4  r2   r  
0 The equ
uivalent arran
ngement is shhown in figurre.
3 R
The capacity of each s ( 0 A/d). He
h capacitor is ence,
 0 r 3  5 r 
E  the net capacitance
c between A and
a B is given
n by
4  r 2 0  3 R 
3 0 A
0 r 5 r  C AB  C  C  C  3 C 
E 3  R d
4 0  

40
17. Two identical capacitors have the same In steady state, both the capacitors are at the
capacitance C. One of them is charged to a same potential. Therefore,
potential V1 and the other to V2. The negative Q1 Q 2 Q Q
ends of the capacitors are connected together.  or 1  2
C1 C2 C 2C
When the positive ends are also connected, the
decrease in energy of the combined system is: Q2 = 2 Q1 ………..(i)
Also Q1 + Q2 = Q ………..(ii)
1 1
(1)
4

C V12  V22  (2)
4

C V12  V22  Solving (i) and (ii), we get

1 1 Q 2
C  V1  V2  C  V1  V2   Q1  and Q 2  Q
2 2
(3) (4)
4 4 3 3

Solution Choice (3) 19. Two point charges +5  C and -2  C are kept
The initial energy of the system, at a distance of 1 m in free space. The distance
between the two zero potential points on the line
1 1 1
Ui 
2 2 2

C V12  C V22  C V12  V22  joining the charges is:

When the capacitors are joined, they reach a 2 2

(1) m (2) m
common potential V. 7 3

q1  q2 C V1  C V2 V1  V2 22 20
V   (3) m (4) m
C1  C2 CC 2 21 21

The final energy of the system,

Solution Choice (4)
1 1
Uf = C + C V2 = 2 C V2
2 2
Decrease in energy,
2
1 1  V + V2 
2
 2

Ui  Uf = C V12 + V22   2 C   1
 2 


1 Let the potential be zero at points P and Q

C  V1  V2 
2
=
4 respectively. P is at a distance x1 from + 5  C
and Q is at a distance x2 from  2  C as shown
18. Two capacitors C1 and C2 = 2 C1 are connected in the figure above.
in a circuit with a switch between them as shown  Potential at P is:
in figure. Initially, the switch is open and C1 holds
5  10 6 2  10 6
charge Q. The switch is closed. At steady state, VP  
4  0 x1 4  0 (1  x1 )
the charge on each capacitor would be:
As VP = 0
5  10 6 2  10 6
 
4  0 x1 4  0 (1  x1 )

5  5 x1 = 2 x1
7 x1 = 5
Q 2Q
(1) Q, 2 Q (2) , 5
3 3 x1 
7
3Q 2Q 4Q
(3) ,3Q (4) , Potential at Q is
2 3 3
Solution Choice (2)

41
 5  10 6 2  10 6
VQ  
4  0 (1  x 2 ) 4  0 x 2

As VQ = 0
5 2
 
1  x2 x2

5 x2 = 2 + 2 x2
3 x2 = 2
2
x2 =
3
 Require
ed distance between
b
P an
nd Q = (1 – x1) + x2
5 2 21  15  14 20
= 1    m
7 3 21 21

(c)
20. Two wiress of same metal have the same leng gth
The resistances of 7  , 1  and 10  are in
but their cross
c sections are in th he ratio 3 : 1.
series, th
heir equivale
ent resistance
e is
They are joined
j in serries. The ressistance of the
thicker wirre is 10  . The total ressistance of the
t RS = 7  + 1  + 10  = 18 
combinatio on is: The equ
uivalent circuit is shown in
n figure (b).
(1) (5/2)  3) 
(2) (40/3 Now as RS (= 18  ) and 6  arre in parallel and
(3) 40  (4) 100  6  18
1
is equiva
alent to  4.5 
6  18
1

Solution Choice (3) uivalent circuit diagram is shown in fig

The equ gure
For the same length an
nd same matterial, (c).
So the equivalent
e ressistance of th
he circuit willl be
R2 A 1 3
  or R2  3 R1
R1 A 2 1 5 + 2 + 4.5 + 8 = 15 
Req = 0.5
Current drawn from tthe battery is
s
ance of thickker wire, R1 = 10 
The resista
The resista
ance of thinn 3 
ner wire, 3 R1 = 3 ˣ 10 = 30 V 15 V
I   1A
Req 15 
Total resisstance = 10  + 30  = 40 

22
2. What is the resistance between the points X and
21. The emf of
o the batterry  in the circuit show
wn
Y of thee circuit in tthe figure? Assume
A that the
figure is 15 nternal resisttance 0.5 ohm.
5 volt and in
resistancce of each re
esistor is 25 ohm:
o
What is the awn from the battery?
e current dra

(1) 100 ohm

o

(1) 1 A (2) 2 A (2) 50 oh

hm

(3) 3 A (4) 4 A (3) 25 oh

hm
(4) 75 oh
hm

Solution Choice (1) Solution Choice (3)

42
 4.
24 If the ressistance of th
he upper halff of a rigid lo
oop is
twice th hat of the lo ower half, th
he magnitud de of
magnetic induction at the cen ntre is equa al to:

This is Wheatstone’s bridge circuit.

Arm BD is ineffective in
n balanced bridge.
b AB an
nd
BC are in series.
s
0 I
 RABC = R + R = 2R (1) Zero (2)
4a
Similarly, RADC = R + R = 2R
0 I 0 I
ABC and ADC
A are in pa
arallel (3) (4)
12 a 3a
2 R 2 R 4 R2
 R AC    R  25 
2R  2R 4R
Solution Choice (3)
ance between X and Y = RAC = 25 
 Resista

23. An arc of a circle of ra

adius R subttends an ang
gle

e centre. It carries a current
at the c I. The
2
magnetic field
f at the ce
entre will be:
0 I 0 I
(1) (2)
2R 8R
 I1 R1  I2 R2
 I 2 0 I
(3) 0 (4) I1 R2 R 1
4R 5R   2 
I2 R1 2 R2 2

 I2  2 I1
Solution Choice (2)
and I = I1 + I2 = I1 + 2 I1 = 3 I1
I 2
 I  and I  I
1 3 2 3
Magnetic field at the centre of co
oil is
o
B I
2a
Magnetic field
f entre of a circular are of
at the ce
1   o 2I   oI
raidus R, carries
c current I and makking an angle e B2   . 
2  2a 3  6a a
 at the centre
c is given by
1   o I   oI
 I B1   . 
B 0 2  2a 3  12a a
4 R
 oI  oI
 B 
en problem  =
In the give a 12a
2
 oI
 
0 I   12a
 B  2   0 I
4 R 8R

43
25. The wire loop PQRS formed by joining two semi constant) where, n is the number of turns per unit
circular wires of radii R1 and R2 carries a current I length of solenoid.
as shown in the figure. The magnitude of
B1 n1  I1  200 I
magnetic induction at the centre O is:      6
B2 n2  I2  100  I 
 
3

B1 6.28  102
or B2    1.05  102 Wb m2
6 6

0 I  1 1 0 I  1 1 
(1)    (2)    27. In a series LCR circuit, the potential difference
4  R2 R1  4  R1 R2 
between the terminals of the inductance is 60 V,
 1 1  1 1  between the terminals of the capacitor is 30 V
(3) 0 I    (4) 0 I   
 R2 R1   R1 R2  and that between the terminals of resistance is
40 V. The supply voltage will be equal to:
(1) 130 V (2) 10 V
Solution Choice (2)
(3) 50 V (4) 70 V
The magnetic induction at O due to current
through QP and SR will be zero. Thus, the
magnitude induction at O will be only due to Solution Choice (3)
current through semicircles of radii R1 and R2
VR2   VL  VC 
2
In series LCR circuit, V =
respectively.
Magnetic field at O due to semicircular arc PS of
 40    60  30   1600  900
2 2
V
0  I
radius R1 will be B1  . Its direction is
4  R1 2500  50 V
perpendicular to coil directed outwards. Magnetic
field at O due to semicircular arc RQ of radius R2 28. A square wire loop PQRS of side 10 cm and
 I resistance 1  is moved with a constant velocity
will be, B2  0
4  R2 -2
 in a uniform magnetic field of B = 2 Wb m , as
Its direction is perpendicular to coil directed shown in the figure. The magnetic field lines are
inwards. The resultant magnetic field at O, perpendicular to the plane of the loop (directed
into the paper). The loop is connected to network
B = B1  B2 outwards
ABCD of resistors each of value 3  . The
0 1 1  0  1 1 resistance of the lead wires SB and RD are
or B  I   I  
4  R1 R2  4  R1 R2  negligible. The speed of the loop so as to have a
steady current of 1 mA in the loop is:

26. A solenoid has 200 turns per cm and carries a

current I. The magnetic field at its centre is
6.28 ˣ 10-2 Wb m-2. Another long solenoid has
100 turns per cm and it carries a current I/3. The
value of the magnetic field at its centre is:
(1) 1.05 ˣ 10-4 Wb m-2 (2) 1.05 ˣ 10-2 Wb m-2
(3) 1.05 ˣ 10-5 Wb m-2 (4) 1.05 ˣ 10-3 Wb m-2
(1) 2 m s-1 (2) 2  10-2 m s-1
(3) 20 m s-1 (4) 200 m s-1
Solution Choice (2)
Magnetic field induction at the centre of a long
solenoid is B = 0 n I or B  n I (as  0 is Solution Choice (2)

44
 As the network ABCD is a balanced Wheatstone Solution Choice (2)
bridge, no current will flow through AC, hence the Total average energy density of electromagnetic
effective resistance R of bridge is wave is
1 1 1 1 1 1
   or R '  3  <u> = 0 E2RMS  B2RMS
R' 6 6 3 2 2 0
Total resistance of the circuit, R = 1 + 3 = 4 
1 1  E2RMS   E RMS 
Induced emf in the loop   B l  = 0 E2RMS   2   B RMS  
2 2 0  c   c 
 
 Bl
Current in the circuit, I =  1 1  1 
R R = 0 E2RMS  E2RMS  0 0  c  
2 2 0   0 0 
 
IR

Bl 1 1
= 0 E2RMS  0 E2RMS  0 E2RMS
2 2
Substituting the given values, we get
= (8.85 ˟ 10-12) ˟ (720)2

 
1  103 A   4  
 2  102 m s 1 = 4.58 ˟ 10-6 J m-3
 2 Wb m   10  10
2 2
m 
31. If one face of a prism of prism angle 30° and
29. The magnetic flux across a loop of resistance   2 is silvered, the incident ray retraces its
10  is given by  = 5 t2 – 4 t + 1 weber. How initial path. The angle of incidence is:
much current is induced in the loop after 0.2 s? (1) 60° (2) 30°
(1) 0.4 A (2) 0.2 A (3) 45° (4) 90°
(3) 0.04 A (4) 0.02 A
Solution Choice (3)
Solution Choice (2)
Magnetic flux,  = 5 t2  4 t + 1 Wb

d
  10 t  4 W b s 1
dt
The induced emf is
d
   10 t  4 
dt
At t = 0.2 s It is clear from the figure that the ray will retrace
 = - (10 ˣ 0.2  4) = 2 V the path when the refracted ray QR is incident
normally on the polished surface AC. Thus angle
The induced current is
of refraction, r = 30° .
 2V
I   0.2 A sin
R 10  
sin r

 sin i   sin r
30. The RMS value of the electric field of the light
coming from the sun is 720 N C-1. The average 1 1
sin i  2  sin 30  2  
total energy density of the electromagnetic wave 2 2
is:
 i  45 
(1) 3.3 ˟ 10-3 J m-3 (2) 4.58 ˟ 10-6 J m-3
(3) 6.37 ˟ 10-9 J m-3 (4) 81.35 ˟ 10-12 J m-3

45
32. The speed at which the image of the luminous Here I = 90°  r; so sin i = sin(90°  r) = cos r
point object is moving, if the luminous point
2 sin i sin i sin i
object is moving at speed  0 towards a Also,   
1 sin r 1  cos r2
1  sin2 i
spherical mirror, along its axis, is:
(Given : R = radius of curvature, u = object or 12 sin2 i   22 sin2 i
distance) 2
 R 
 
or sin2 i 12  22  22 or sin i 
  22
2
(1) i    0 (2) i    0  
1

2u R
2
2u R  R  34. A concave lens forms the image of an object
(3) i   0   (4) i   0  
 R  2u R such that the distance between the object and
image is 10 cm and the magnification produced
1
Solution Choice (4) is . The focal length of the lens will be:
4
1 1 1 (1) – 6.2 cm
 
 u f
(2) – 4.4 cm
1 d 1 du (3) – 8.6 cm
Differentiating both sides,  2 
 dt u2 dt
(4) – 10 cm

2 2
d    du  Solution Choice (2)
  i         0
dt  u  dt u

1 1 1 2 1 2uR  R
Again       f  2 
 f u R u Ru  

uR
or   A concave lens forms virtual image I of a point
2uR
object O.
2 2
  R  1 
 i     i    0   As m  
u 2u R 4 u
u  4 
33. Light incident on a surface separating two media If  =  x, u =  4 x
is partly reflected and partly refracted as shown
Distance between object and image
in figure so:
O I  4 x  x  3 x  10 cm,

10
or x = cm
3
40 10
 u cm and   cm
3 3
1 1 1
2 1 Using lens formula  
(1) sin i  (2) tan i  f  u
  2
12
2
1  22
1 3 3 9
  
(3) sin i = tan r (4) sin I = sec r f 10 40 40
40
f cm   4.4 cm
Solution Choice (1) 9

46
35. The head lights of a jeep are 1.2 m apart. If the 37. The figure shows the variation of photocurrent
pupil of the eye of an observer has a diameter of with anode potential for a photo-sensitive surface
 for three different radiations. Let Ia, Ib and Ic be the
2 mm and light of wavelength 5896 A is used,
intensities and a , b and c be frequencies for
what should be the maximum distance of the
jeep from the observer if the two head lights are the curves a, b and c respectively. Then:
just separated?
(1) 33.4 km (2) 33.4 m
(3) 3.34 km (4) 3.34 m

Solution Choice (3)

Dd
Distance of jeep, x =
1.22   (1) a  b and Ia  Ib (2) a  c and Ia  Ic
D = Diameter of lens, d = separation between (3) a  b and Ia  Ib (4) b  c and Ib  Ic
sources

or x =
 2  10   1.2
3

m Solution Choice (1)

1.22  5896  1010 From the graph, we note that the saturation
3
x = 3.34  10 m = 3.34 km current is same for curves b and c but different
for curve a. Therefore, intensities of b and c will
be equal but different from that of a i.e., Ia  Ib
36. When a telescope is in normal adjustment, the
distance of the objective from the eyepiece is but Ib  Ic . As stopping potential is same for
found to be 100 cm. If the magnifying power of curves a and b, hence a  b . Thus answer (1)
the telescope, at normal adjustment, is 24, the is correct.
focal lengths of the lenses are:
(1) 96 cm, 4 cm (2) 48 cm, 2 cm
38. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation,
(3) 50 cm, 50 cm (4) 80 cm, 20 cm the graph of K.E of the photoelectron emitted
from the metal versus the frequency of the
Solution Choice (1) incident radiation gives a straight line graph,
In normal adjustment of telescope, magnifying whose slope:
power is (1) Depends on the intensity of the incident
radiation
f
M O

(2) Depends on the nature of the metal and also

fe
on the intensity of incident radiation
Where fo and fe be the focal lengths of the
(3) Is same for all metals and independent of the
objective lens and eye-piece respectively.
intensity of the incident radiation
In normal adjustment of telescope, distance
(4) Depends on the nature of the metal
between objective lens and eye piece is
L = fo + fe
Solution Choice (3)
According to the problem
According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation
f
24  o ………(i) K. Emax  h   0
fe

100 = fo + fe .................(ii) Where h = Plank’s constant

Solving (i) and (ii), we get  = Frequency of incident light

Fo = 96 cm, fe = 4 cm 0 = Work function of a metal

47
 Compare it with the equation of straight line The collector current IC is given by
y = mx + c VC 0.5 V
IC    0.625  103 A
We get, slope of the graph = h R 800 

IC 0.625  10 3
IB    26  10 6 A  26  A
39. Two identical photo cathodes receive light of  24
frequencies 1 and 2 . If the velocities of the
photo electrons (of mass m) coming out are
41. Which of the following circuits provides full wave
respectively 1 and  2 , then: rectification of an ac input?
2h
(1) 12   22   1  2  (1)
m
12
2 h
(2) 1  2    1  2 
 m 
2h
(3) 12   22   1  2 
m
(2)
12
2 h
(4) 1   2    1  2 
m 

Solution Choice (1)

According to Einstein’s equation,
(3)
Kinetic energy of emitted electron
= h   (work function 0 )

1
 m 12  h 1  
2
1
m  22  h 2   (4)
2
1

2
 
m 12   22  h  1  2 

2h
 12   22   1  2 
m
Solution Choice (4)

40. A transistor connected in common-emitter (CE)

42. Two slits, 4 mm apart, are illuminated by light of
configuration. The collector supply is 8 V and the 
voltage drop across a resistor of 800  in the wavelength 6000 A . What will be the fringe
collector circuit is 0.5 V. If the current gain factor width on a screen placed 2 m from the slits?
 is 0.96, the base current is: (1) 0.12 mm (2) 0.3 mm
(1) 26  A (2) 30  A (3) 3.0 mm (4) 4.0 mm

(3) 36  A (4) 40  A
Solution Choice (2)

Solution Choice (1)  D 6000  10 10  2

 
d 4  10 3
 0.96
   24
1   1  0.96 = 0.3 ˣ 10-3 m = 0.3 mm

48
43. A thin glass (refractive index 1.5) lens has optical 45. The image of an electric bulb fixed in a wall is to
power of  8 D in air. Its optical power in a liquid be obtained on the wall opposite to it at a
medium with refractive index 1.6 will be: distance of 3 m. The maximum possible focal
(1) 1 D (2) – 1 D length of the convex lens is:

(3) 25 D (4) – 25 D (1) 3.25 m (2) 1.55 m

(3) 0.75 m (4) 0.28 m

Solution Choice (1) Solution Choice (3)

In air For a real image (on wall), the minimum distance
1  g  1 1  between the object and image formed by the
P   1    convex lens should be four times the focal lens.
f  a  1R R 2 
 Maximum focal length of the convex lens is
In medium
4 fmax  3 m
1  g  1 1 
P'     1    3
f '  l  1R R 2 
fmax  m  0.75 m
4
 g 
  1  1.5  1   0.1 
P '  l    1.6    1.6  46. One litre hard water contains 12.00 Mg2  Milli

P  g   1.5  0.5 equivalents of washing soda required to remove
  1   1
 a   1  its hardness is:

1 2 1 (1) 1 (2) 12.16

P'   P     8 D   1D
16  1 8 (3) 1 10 3 (4) 12.16  10 3

44. A man’s near point is 0.5 m and far point is 3 m. Solution Choice (1)
Power of spectacle lenses required for (i) reading Mg   Na2 CO3 
 MgCO3  2Na
purposes, (ii) seeing distant objects, 1 g eq 1 g eq

respectively, are:
1 g eq. of Mg2  = 12 g of Mg2  = 12000 mg
(1)  2 D and + 3 D
= 1000 millieq of Na2 CO3
(2) + 2 D and  3 D
(3) + 2 D and  0.33 D  12 mg Mg   1milli eq. Na2 CO3

(4)  2 D and + 0.33 D

47. Choose the correct statements
Solution Choice (3) (1) Designation for the orital with the quantum
For reading purposes number n = 3,  = 1, m =  1 may be 3p x or

u =  25 cm,  =  50 cm, f = ? 3p y

1 1 1 1 1 1 (2) Designation for the orbital with the quantum

    
f  u 50 25 50 number n = 4,  = 1, m =  1 may be 4dxy or

100 4dx2  y2
P   2D
f
(3) Designation for the orbital with the quantum
For seeing distant objects number n = 5,  = 0 , m = 0 may be 5s
f’ = distance of far point =  3 m
(4) Designation for the orbital with the quantum
1 1 number n = 2,  = 1, m = 0 may be 3p z
P   D   0.33 D
f' 3

49
 Solution Choice (1 & 3)
(1) Since  = 1 corresponds to p-orbital and
m =  1 shows orientation either in x or y axis,
thus this orbital refers to 3p x or 3p y dsp2 hybridization sp3 d or dsp3
(2) 4dxy or 4x x2 y2 hybridization
Number of 90 angle Number of 90 angle
(3) 5s
between bonds = 4 between bonds = 6
(4) 2p z

48. Choose the correct order of atomic radius:

(1) Li > Be > B > C > N > O > F
(2) Li < Na < K <Rb< Cs

(3) Mn> Mn2 > Mn3 > Mn4 sp3 d2 hybridization

(4) O > O > O2 Number of 90 angle

Solution Choice (1) 50. Calculate the total pressure in a 10.0 L cylinder
Factors affecting atomic size are which contains 0.4 g helium, 1.6 g oxygen and
1.4 g nitrogen at 27C:
1
(1) Atomic radius 
Effective nuclear charg e (1) 0.492 atm
(2) 49.2 atm
Li > Be > B > C > N > O > F
(3) 4.52 atm
(2) Atomic radius  No. of shells
(4) 0.0492 atm
Li < Na > K <Rb < Cs
1
(3) Atomic size  Solution Choice: (1)
Magnitude of  ve charg e
Given T = 27C = 27 + 273 = 300 K
Mn> Mn2  Mn3  Mn4
V = 10.0 L
(4) Atomic size  Magnitude of ve charge
Mass of He = 0.4 g
Thus the correct order is
Mass of oxygen = 1.6 g
 2
OO O Mass of nitrogen = 1.4 g
0.4
nHe =  0.1
49. The maximum number of 90 angles between 4
bond pair bond pair of electrons is observed in: 1.6
nO2 =  0.05
2
(1) dsp hybridization 32
1.4
(2) sp3 d hybridization nN2 =  0.05
28
(3) dsp3 hybridization ntotal = nHe + n O2 + n H2 =
(4) sp3 d2 hybridization 0.1 + 0.05 + 0.05 = 0.2
nRT 0.2  0.082  300
P   0.492 atm
Solution Choice (4) V 10

50
51. The value of van der waal’s constant ‘a’ for 55. Which pair cannot exist together in solution?
gases O2 , N2 , NH3 and CH4 are 1.360, 1.390, (1) NaHCO3 and NaOH
4.170 and 2.254 litre 2 atm mol2 respectively. (2) NaHCO3 and NaCl
The gas which can be most easily liquefied is:
(3) NaHCO3 and Na2CO3
(1) O2 (2) N2
(3) NH3 (4) CH4 (4) NaCl and Na2CO3

Solution Choice: (3) Solution Choice (1)

Higher the value of ‘a’ more will be the value of NaHCO3 and NaOH cannot exist together.
TC , easier will be the liquefication
NaHCO3 being an acidic salt, while NaOH is a
base, will react with alkali to they react to form
52. Consider the following reactions at 1000C
sodium carbonate in solution.
1
(A) Zn(s)  O2 (g)  ZnO(s); G  360 kJ mol1
2 56. Which of the following types of forces bind
1 together the carbon atoms in diamond?
(B) C(g)  O2 (g)  CO(g); G  460 kJ mol1
2 (1) Ionic (2) Covalent
Choose the correct statement at 1000C: (3) Dipolar (4) van der Waals
(1) Zinc can be oxidized by carbon monoxide
(2) Zinc oxide can be reduced by graphite Solution Choice (2)

(3) Both Statements (1) and (2) are true In diamond each carbon atom is sp 3 hybridized

(4) Both Statements (1) and (2) are false and thus forms covalent bonds with four other
carbon atoms lying at the corners of a regular
Solution Choice (2) tetrahedron.

53. One mole of N2H4 loses 10 moles of electrons to 57. Geometrical isomerism is possible in case of:
form a new compound, y. Assuming that all (1) Pentene-2 (2) Propane
nitrogen appear in the new compound, what is (3) Pentane (4) Ethene
the oxidation state of nitrogen in y: ( There is no
Solution Choice (1)
change in the oxidation state of hydrogen)
Geometrical isomerism is shown by compounds
(1) 1 (2) 3 having C = C and the two groups attached to
(3) +3 (4) +5 each of carbon atom are different.

Solution Choice (3)

 N26  y  ;
loss of 10e
N 24 H44 
N

O.N of N changes  2 to + 3
58. Iodination of alkane is a reversible process. The
54. Hydrogen is evolved by the action of cold dil. reaction can be shifted towards the left by using
HNO3 on treatment with: agent:
(1) Fe (2) Mn (1) HIO3 (2) HgO
(3) Cu (4) Al (3) HNO3 (4) HClO3

Solution Choice (2) Solution Choice (1)

Mn  2HNO3  dil  Mn NO3 2  H2 HIO3 is a good oxidising agent and is capable of
shifting the reaction towards the left.

51
59. Today the concentration of green house gases is 62. A 0.5 M NaOH solution offers a resistance of
very high because of: 31.6 ohm in a conductivity cell at room
(1) Use of refrigerator temperature. What shall be the approximate
molar conductance of this NaOH solution if the
(2) Increased combustion of oils and coal
(3) Deforestation cell constant of the cell is 0.367 cm1.

(4) All of the above (1) 234 S cm2 mole1

(2) 23.2 S cm2 mole1

Solution Choice (4)
(3) 4645 S cm2 mole1

60. Copper crystallises in a face centred cubic lattice (4) 5464 S cm2 mole1
with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the
radius of copper atom in pm?
Solution Choice (2)
(1) 157 (2) 181
Here, R = 31.6 ohm
(3) 108 (4) 128
 Conductance
1 1
  ohm1  0.0316 ohm1
Solution Choice (4) R 31.6
Since Cu metal crystallises in face centred cubic Specific conductance = conductance  cell
lattice. constant

r 
a 2  0.0316 ohm1  367 cm1  0.0116 ohm1cm1
4
Now, molar concentration = 0.5 M (given)
a  1.414 361  1.414
r    128pm
4 4  0.5  103 mole cm3

k 0.0116
 Molar conductance  
61. The temperature at which 10% aqueous solution C 0.5  103
(w/v) of glucose will exhibit the osmotic pressure
of 14 bar is:  23.2 S cm2 mol1

(1) 307.3 C
63. Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be
(2) 307.3 K
determined by:
(3) 34 K
(1) Evaluating rate constant at standard
(4) 34 C temperature
(2) Evaluating velocities of reaction at two
Solution Choice (2) different temperatures

nRT V (3) Evaluating rate constant at two different

 or T  temperatures
V nR
10% (w/v) aqueous solution of glucose means (4) Changing concentration of reactants

10 g glucose is present in 100 mL of H2O

Solution Choice (3)
14  100  103  180
  307.3 K We know that the activation energy of a chemical
0.082  10
reaction is given by the formula
k Ea  T2  T1 
 2    , where k1 is the rate
k1 2.303 R  T1T2 
constant at temperature T1 and k 2 is the rate

52
 constant at temperature T2 and Ea is the 67. Oleum is chemically known as:
activation energy. Therefore activation energy of (1) H2SO3 (2) H2SO5
chemical reaction is determined by evaluating (3) H2S2O7 (4) H2S2O8
rate constant at two different temperatures.

Solution Choice (3)

64. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(1) Decrease of temperature and increase of Oleum is H2SO4  SO3 or H2S2O7
pressure, both tend to cause increase in the
magnitude of adsorption of a gas on a solid.
68. In which of the following metallic bond is
(2) The easily liquefiable gases adsorb more on strongest?
solid
(1) Fe (2) Sc
(3) Greater the surface area per unit mass of the
adsorbent, the greater is its capacity of (3) V (4) Cr
adsorption
(4) None of these Solution Choice (4)
Strength of a metallic bond directly depends on
Solution Choice (4) the number of unpaired electrons. More is the
All statements are correct.
number of unpaired electrons stronger is the
metallic bond. Hence, metallic bond is strongest
65. Aluminium is extracted from alumina  Al2O3  by
in Cr having maximum of 6 unpaired electrons
electrolysis of a molten mixture of:
among the given options, i.e., Sc (1 unpaired
(1) Al2O3  HF  NaAlF4
electron), V (3 unpaired electrons) and Fe (4
(2) Al2O3  CaF2  NaAlF4 unpaired electrons).
(3) Al2O3  Na3 AlF6  CaF2
(4) Al2O3  KF  Na3 AlF6 69. The blue complex formed on addition of conc.
NH4OH solution to a Cu2  salt solution has the
Solution Choice (3) structure?
Fused alumina  Al2O3  is a bad conductor of (1) Cu NH4 4 
2
(2) Cu NH3 2 
2

electricity. Therefore, cryolite Na3 AlF6  and

2 2
(3) Cu NH3 4  (4) Cu NH4 2 
fluorspar  CaF2  are added to purified alumina
which not only makes alumina a good conductor
of electricity, but also reduces the melting point Solution Choice (3)
of the mixture to around 1140 K. 2
Cu  4NH4OH  Cu NH3 4   4H2O
deep blue complex
66. Which one of the following property is not correct
for ozone?
(1) It oxidises lead sulphide 70. Ammonia will not form complex with:
2
(2) It oxidises potassium iodide (1) Ag2 (2) Pb
(3) It oxidises mercury 2 2
(3) Cu (4) Cd
(4) It cannot act as bleaching agent
Solution Choice (2)
Solution Choice (4) The complex formation is a characteristic of
Ozone can act as a bleaching agent and the d-block elements. Lead is a p-block element
process is called dry bleach. hence does not form complex compounds.

53
71. Polyethyleneglycols are used in the preparation Acidic strength of the four phenols should be
of which type of detergents? p-methylphenol < phenol < m-nitrophenol
(1) Cationic detergents
< p-nitrophenol
(2) Anionic detergents
(3) Non-ionic detergents
(4) Soaps 75. Which of the following is the correct decreasing
order of acidic strength?
Solution Choice (3)
(i) Methanoic acid (ii) Ethanoic acid
72. Phosgene is common name of: (iii) Propanoic acid (iv) Butanoic acid
(1) Carbonyl chloride
(2) Phosphine (1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(3) Phosphorus Oxychloride
(2) (ii) > (iii) > (vi) > (i)
(4) Phosphorus trichloried
(3) (i) > (iv) > (iii) > (ii)
Solution Choice (1) (4) (iv) > (i) > (iii) > (ii)

73. Which of the following is responsible for the

depletion of ozone layer in the upper strata of the
atmosphere?
(1) Polyhalogens (2) Ferrocene
(3) Fullerenes (4) Freons
Solution Choice (4)
Chloroflurocarbons e.g CF2Cl2 , CHF2Cl2 ,
HCF2CHCl2 .These are non-inflammable,
colourless and stable upto 550 C .These are
emitted as propellants in aerosol sprays, cans,
refrigerators, fire fighting reagents etc. They are
chemically inert and hence do not react with any
substance with which they come in contact and
therefore float through the atmosphere and as a
result enter the stratosphere. There they absorb
UV-rays and due to this they produce free atomic
chlorine which results in the decomposition of
ozone causing depletion of ozone layer.
Solution Choice (1)
An electron releasing substituent (  effect)
intensifies the negative charge on the anion
resulting in the decrease of stability and thus
decreases the acidity of the acid. Hence acidic
character decreases as the  -effect on the alkyl
group increases as
CH3  CH3 CH2  CH3 CH2 CH2  CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3
Hence the order of acidic strength becomes:
(i) > (ii) > (iii) >(iv)
76. Which of the following is incorrect?
(1) NaHSO3 is used in detection of carbonyl
compound
(2) FeCl3 is used in detection of phenolic group
(3) Tollens reagent is used in detection of
unsaturation

74. Acidic strength of the four phenols should be:
(1) p – methylphenol <phenol < m – nitrophenol
< p-nitrophenol
(2) p – methylphenol < m – nitrophenol < phenol
< p -nitrophenol
(3) p – methylphenol < phenol < m – nitrophenol
< p -nitrophenol
(4) phenol > p – methylphenol < p – nitrophenol
> m-nitrophenol
(4) Fehlings solution is used in detection of
glucose
Solution Choice (3)
Tollen’s reagent is used to detect saldehydes.
Tollen’s reagent is an ammonical solution of
silver nitrate. When aldehyde is added to
Tollen’s reagent, silver oxide is reduced to
metallic silver which deposits as mirror.

RCHO  Ag2 O  RCOOH  2 Ag

Solution Choice (3)

54
77. Match the compounds given in List - I with their
characteristic reactions given in List – II. Select H H H
HOOC
the correct option. CC CC
List I List II HOOC COOH H COOH
Compounds Reactions
(i) CH3CH2CH2CH2NH2 (a) Alkaline Hydrolysis

(ii) CH3C  CH (b) With KOH (alcohol)

and CHCl3 produces It shows geometrical isomerism but does not
bad smell show optical isomerism.

(iii) CH3CH2COOCH3 (c) Gives white ppt with

79. Ebonite is:
ammonical AgNO3
(1) Natural rubber
(iv) CH3 CH  OH CH3 (d) With Lucas reagent
(2) Synthetic rubber
cloudiness after 5
(3) Highly vulcanized rubber
minutes
(4) Psolypropene
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) (d) (b) (c) (a)
Solution Choice (3)
(2) (b) (a) (d) (c)
Ebonite is a hard highly vulcanized rubber,
(3) (c) (b) (a) (d)
containing 20–25%, rubber.
(4) (b) (c) (a) (d)

Solution Choice (4) 80. A medicine which promotes the secretion of

urine is called:
(1) CH3CH2  CH2  CH2  NH2
(1) Uretic (2) Monouretic
(ii) with KOH (alcohol) and CHCl3 produces
(3) Diuretic (4) Triuretic
bad smell
(2) CH3C  CH Solution Choice (3)

(iii) gives white ppt with ammonical AgNO3

81. Natural rubber is a polymer of:
(3) CH3CH2COOCH3 (1) Butadiene
(i) alkaline hydrolysis (2) Isoprene
(4) CH3CHOH  CH3 (3) 2-methylbutadiene

(iv) with Lucas reagent cloudiness appears (4) hexa-l,3-diene

after 5 minutes
Solution Choice (2)

78. Which of the following acids does not exhibit

82. Basic properties of hydroxides of lanthanoides is:
optical isomerism?
(1) Greater than Al(OH)3 but less than Ca(OH)2
(1) Maleic acid
(2) Greater than Ca(OH)2 but less than Al (OH)3
(2)  -amino acids
(3) Greater than Ca(OH)2 and Al(OH)3
(3) Lactic acid
(4) Less than Ca(OH)2 and Al(OH)3
(4) Tartaric acid

Solution Choice: (1)

Solution Choice (1)

55
83. The splitting of d-orbitals in tetrahedral 88. A closed flask contains water in all its three
complexes is: states solid, liquid and vapour at 0 C. In this
(1) Not comparable to octahedral complexes situation, the average kinetic energy of water
since the d-orbitals in tetrahedral complexes molecules will be:
does not split. (1) The greatest in all the three sates
(2) Reverse of the octahedral complexes (2) The greatest in vapour state
(3) Same as in octahedral complexes
(3) The greatest in the liquid state
(4) None of these
(4) The greatest in the solid state

Solution Choice: (2)

Solution Choice: (2)
Velocity and hence the KE is maximum in the
84. Which of the following is an example of
gaseous state.
vic-dihalide?
(1) Dichloromethane
89. Which of the following reaction involves neither
(2) 1,2-dichloroethane
oxidation nor reduction?
(3) Ethylidene chloride
(1) CrO24  Cr2 O72  (2) Cr  CrCl3
(4) Allyl chloride
(3) Na  Na (4) 2S2 O32   S4 O6

Solution Choice: (2)

Solution Choice (1)

85. Which of the following conversions can be
carried out by Clemmensen Reduction?
(1) Benzaldehyde into benzyl alcohol
(2) Cyclohexanone into cyclohexane
(3) Benzoyl chloride into benzaldehyde
(4) Benzophenone into diphenyl methane
CrO24  Cr2O72 O.N. of Cr does not change. It
remains +6 on both sides. Hence there is no
oxidation or reduction.
90. How can the following reaction be made to
proceed in the forward direction?

B  OH3  NaOH 

 NaBO2  Na [B  OH4 ]  H2 O


Solution Choice (2 & 4)
(1) Addition of borax
86. In which of the following defects equal number of (2) Addition of cis -1, 2-diol
anions and cations are missing from lattice site? (3) Addition of Na2HPO4
(1) Vacancy defect (2) Interstitial defect
(4) Addition of trans-1, 2-diol
(3) Schottkydefect (4) Frenkel Defect
Solution Choice (2)

Solution Choice (3) cis-1, 2-diol forms chelated complex ion with the
product, [B  OH 4 ] causing the reaction to
87. A solution which remains in contact with an proceed in forward direction.
undissolved solute is termed as a / an:
(1) Ideal solution
(2) Non-ideal solution
(3) Saturated solution
(4) Unsaturated solution

Solution Choice (3)

56
91. Which one of the following is correctly matched 96. Plant group with largest ovule, largest tree and
regarding an institute and its location? largest gametes:
(1) National Institute of Virology - Pune (1) Pteridophyte (2) Angiosperms
(2) National Institute of Communicable Disease -
(3) Gymnosperms (4) Bryophytes
Lucknow
(3) Central Drug Research Institute - Kasauli
(4) National Institute of Nutrition - Mumbai Solution Choice (2)

Solution Choice (1)
92. A self fertilizing trihybrid plant forms:
(1) 8 different gametes and 16 different zygotes
(2) 8 different gametes and 64 different zygotes
(3) 4 different gametes and 16 different zygotes
(4) 4 different gametes and 32 different zygotes
97. Angiosperms have dominated land flora primarily
because of their:
(1) Nature of self pollination
(2) Power of adaptability in diverse habitats
(3) Property of producing large numbers of seeds
(4) Domestication by man

Solution Choice (2) Solution Choice (2)

93. Employment of hereditary principles in the 98. In which of the following would you place the
improvement of human race is: plants having vascular tissue lacking seeds:
(1) Euthenics (2) Euphenics (1) Pteridophyte (2) Angiosperms
(3) Eugenics (4) Ethology (3) Bryophyte (4) Gymnosperms

Solution Choice (3)

Solution Choice (1)

94. Cladistic taxonomy places the birds as

99. Which of the following is without exception in
Archosaurs, along with the:
angiosperms?
(1) Mammals (2) Crocodilians
(1) Presence of vessels
(3) Turtles (4) Snakes
(2) Double fertilization
(3) Secondary growth
Solution Choice (2)
(4) Autotrophic nutrition
95. The separation of the Archaebacteria into a
separate domain indicates: Solution Choice (2)
(1) That these organisms are very different from
eubacteria and from eukaryotes 100. Typhlops is:
(2) That organisms should never be classified (1) Sea snake (2) Grass snake
according to how they appear (morphological
(3) Glass snake (4) Blind snake
characteristics)
(3) That early taxonomists rushed to classify
Solution Choice (4)
them without closely examining them
(4) That optical viewing techniques have greatly 101. Biotic potential is increase in population under:
improved so that we can better view these
(1) Optimum conditions (2) Climatic conditions
microorganisms
(3) Natural conditions (4) Given conditions

Solution Choice (1)

Solution Choice (1)

57
102. Which of the following feature is not common 107. Match the following with reference to Cockroach
between Newt and Hemidactylus? and choose the correct option:
(1) Body is divisible into head, neck, trunk and
tail (i) Phallomere (a) Chain of developing
(2) Head with pair of eyes and tympanic ova
membrane (ii) Gonopore (b) Bundles of sperm
(3) Trunk has 2 pairs of limb for locomotion (iii) Spermatophere (c) Opening of the
(4) Heart is 3 chambered ejaculatory dust
(iv) Ovarioles (d) The external genitlia
Solution Choice (1)
(1) (i) – (c); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (a)
103. Which one of the following is the characteristic
(2) (i) – (d); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (a)
for birds?
(3) (i) – (d); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (a)
(1) They are flying animals
(4) (i) – (b); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (a)
(2) They are warm blooded
(3) They are bipedal and have feather Solution Choice (2)
(4) They are quadruped and have scales
108. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
Solution Choice (3)
(1) Transcription - Writing information from DNA
to t RNA.
104. To which one of the following categories does (2) Translation - Using information in m-RNA to
adipose tissue belong? make protein.
(1) Epithelial (2) Connective (3) Repressor protein - Binds to operator to stop
(3) Muscular (4) Neural enzyme synthesis.
(4) Operon - Structural genes, operator and
Solution Choice (2) promoter

Solution Choice (1 & 4)

105. Which one of the following is not a connective
tissue?
109. Which is distributed more widely in a cell?
(1) Bone (2) Cartilage
(3) Blood (4) Muscles

Solution Choice (4)

106. The clitellum is a distinct part in the body of

earthworm, it is found in? (1) DNA
(1) Segments 13 – 14 – 15 (2) RNA
(2) Segments 14 – 15 – 16 (3) Chloroplast
(3) Segments 12 – 13 – 14 (4) Sphaerosomes
(4) Segments 15 – 16 – 17
Solution Choice (2)

Solution Choice (2)

58
110. What are the most diverse molecules in the cell? 113. The key events shown by the telophase stage is:
(1) Lipids (a) Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle
(2) Proteins poles and their identity is lost as discrete
elements.
(3) Carbohydrates
(b) Nuclear envelope assembles around the
(4) Mineral salts
chromosome clusters.
(c) Nucleolus, golgi complex and ER reform.
Solution Choice (2)
(1) a only (2) a and b only
111. Which of the following is a reducing sugar? (3) b and c only (4) b and c

Solution Choice (4)

114. Choose the incorrect one w.r.t. cytokinesis in

(1) Sucrose
(2) Galactose
(3) β-Methyl galactocidase
(4) Gluconic acid
Solution Choice (2)
112. Choose the correct statements w.r.t.
completion of prophase:
(a) Chromosomal material condenses to form
compact mitotic chromosomes.
Chromosomes are seen to be composed of
two chromatids attached together at the
centromere.
(b) Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle,
the microtubules, the proteinaceous
components of the cell cytoplasm
(c) Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed
under the microscope, do not show golgi
complexes, endoplasmic reticulum,
nucleolus and the nuclear envelope.
(1) a only (2) b only
(3) a and b (4) a, b, and c
plants:
(1) In plant cells, wall formation starts in the
centre of the cell and grows outward to meet
the existing lateral walls.
(2) The formation of the new cell wall begins with
the formation of a simple precursor, called
the cell-plate.
(3) The cell-plate represents the middle lamella
between the walls of two adjacent cells.
(4) The cytokinesis in a plant cell is achieved by
the appearance of a furrow in the plasma
membrane called the cell cleavage.
the
Solution Choice (4)
115. Which of the following is not the key feature of
meiosis?
(1) Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of
nuclear and cell division called meiosis I and
meiosis II but only a single cycle of DNA
replication.
(2) Meiosis I is initiated after the parental
chromosomes have replicated to produce
identical sister chromatids at the S phase.
(3) Meiosis involves pairing of homologous
chromosomes and recombination between
them.
(4) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of m

Solution Choice (4)

Solution Choice (2)

59
116. Choose the correct option for A and B: 119. Many pulses of daily use belong to one of the
families below: (tick the correct answer)
(1) Solanaceae (2) Fabaceae
(3) Liliaceae (4) Poceae

Solution Choice (2)

(1) A  Cymose, B  Racemose
(2) A  Racemose, B  Cymose
120. The placenta is attached to the developing seed
(3) A  Racemose, B  Racemose near the:
(4) A  Cymose, B  Cymose (1) Testa (2) Hilum
(3) Micropyle (4) Chalaza
Solution Choice (2)
Solution Choice (4)
117. Choose the correct option:
121. Which of the following plants is used to extract
the blue dye?
(1) Trifolium
(2) Indigofera
(3) Lupin
(1) A – Epicarp; B  Mesocarp; C  Seed;
(4) Cassia
D  Endocarp
(2) A  Epicarp; B  Mesocarp; C  Ovule;
Solution Choice (2)
D  Endocarp
(3) A  Epicarp; B  Mesocarp; C  Ovary; 122. Conversion of starch to organic acids is required
for:
D  Endocarp
(1) Stomatal opening (2) Stomatal closing
(4) A  Epicarp; B  Mesocarp; C  Embryo;
(3) Stomatal formation (4) Stomatal activity
D  Endocarp
Solution Choice (1)
Solution Choice (1) Starch is converted to mallic acid (organic acid)
through the action of an enzyme
118. Column I Column II phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase (PEP Case)
(i) Apple (a) Outer portion of receptacle under condition of pH when most of the CO2 is
(ii) Coconut (b) Fleshy thalamus utilized.

(iii) Jack fruit (c) Thalamus & pericap

123. The transfer of minerals from top soil to sub soil
(iv) Guava (d) Endosperm
through soil water is called:
(v) Pineapple (e) Bract, perinath & seeds (1) Transpiration
(2) Conduction
(1) (i) – (b); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (e); (v) - (a)
(3) Percolation
(2) (i) – (e); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (d); (v) - (b)
(3) (i) – (b); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (e); (v) - (d) (4) Leaching
(4) (i) – (b); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (e); (iv) - (c); (v) - (a)
Solution Choice (3)
Solution Choice (4)

60
124. Function of Zinc is: 129. Connection link between EMP pathway and TCA
(1) Synthesis of chlorophyll b cycle is:

(2) Biosynthesis of Indole 3 – IAA (1) Pyruvic acid (2) Citric acid

(3) Closing of Stomata (3) Acetyl CO-A (4) Oxalosuccinic acid

(4) Oxidation of carbohydrate

Solution Choice (3)

Solution Choice (2)

130. If 5 molecules of glucose respired aerobically
and another 5 molecules anaerobically, how
125. Besides Fe, Cytochrome a and a3 carry an
many ATP and CO2 are expected to form?
additional atom involved in ETC. The deficiency
(1) 200 ATP and 60 CO2
of the same leads to -----
(2) 140 ATP and 40 CO2
(1) Necrosis
(3) 200 ATP and 40 CO2
(2) Die back of shoot
(4) 190 ATP and 36 CO2
(3) Brown heart disease
(4) Premature leaf abscission
Solution Choice (3)

Solution Choice (2)

131. An organic acid which undergoes both
dehydrogenation and decarboxylation in Kreb’s
126. Storage capacity of the soil is the extent it can
cycle:
hold:
(1) Sucinic acid (2) A-ketoglytatric acid
(1) Gravitational water (2) Capillary water
(3) Citric acid (4) Malic acid
(3) Hygroscopic water (4) All of these

Solution Choice (2)

Solution Choice (2)
132. Primary precursor of IAA is:
127. Which of the following factor affect the (1) Methionine (2) Adenine
absorption of water by root?
(3) Tryptophan (4) Alanine
(1) Soil temperature
(2) Soil aeration Solution Choice (3)
(3) Relative humidity of the atmosphere
(4) All of these 133. Which of the following in FALSE concerning CO2
uptake?

Solution Choice (4) (1) If PO2 = PCO2, then there will be more total
CO2 in the blood

128. Which of the following is wrongly matched? (2) Oxygenation moves the CO2 uptake curve
downward
(1) Sorghum – Kranz anatomy
(3) The CO2 uptake curve is generated by
(2) PS – II – P700
comparing the total CO2 per unit volume of
(3) Photorespiration – C3 plants blood, and the PCO2
(4) PEP carboxylase – Mesophyll cells (4) Deoxygenated blood carries less CO2 than
oxygenated
Solution Choice (2)
Reaction center in PS – II is P680+ Solution Choice (4)

61
134. Which of the following is INCORRECT concerning 138. Salivary amylase is also known:
the O2 / CO2 movement and processing through (1) Ptyalin (2) Gastrin
the lungs and tissues?
(3) Glyoxylase (4) Pepsin
(1) Binding of O2 to Hb changes its configuration
so that CO2 and H+ ions are more likely to
Solution Choice (1)
dissociate
(2) When CO2 diffused into the alveoli, the
psaCO2 is lowered 139. Pacemaker of heart is:
(3) Carbonic acid is an intermediate in the (1) A node (2) Bundle of His
reaction combining H+ with HCO3 to form (3) SA node (4) Purkinje fibers
H2O and CO2
(4) Arterial blood flows to the tissues where H+ Solution Choice (3)
ions combine with HCO3- to form H2O

140. Pulmonary artery differ from pulmonary vein in

Solution Choice (4) having:
(1) No endothelium (2) Valves
135. Which of the following can cause stagnant (3) Large lumen (4) Thick muscular wall
hypoxia?
(1) COPD
Solution Choice (4)
(2) Shock or heart failure
(3) Cyanide poisoning
141. Angitensinogen is converted in Angiotensin by:
(4) Carbon monoxide poisoning
(1) Dil HCl (2) Casein
(3) Renin (4) Hippuric acid
Solution Choice (2)

136. If you blocked the blood supply to an alveolus, Solution Choice (3)
which of the following would NOT occur as a
result? 142. Secretion of renin from JG cell is due to:
(1) The ventilation perfusion ratio would be 0 (1) A fall gloerular blood flow
(2) The PAO2 would be greater than normal (2) Glomerular blood pressure
(3) The PACO2 would be 0 (3) GFR
(4) All of the above are true (4) All of these

Solution Choice (1)

Solution Choice (4)

137. Hormone involved in discharge of pancreatic

juice and contraction of gall bladder in mammals 143. ADH is secreted by:
is: (1) Liver
(1) Secretin (2) Neurohypophysis
(2) Secretin and cholecystokinin (3) Kidney
(3) Gastrin (4) JG cells
(4) Enterogastrone
Solution Choice (2)
Solution Choice (2)

62
144. It is also activate the adreral cortex to release 149. Differentiation of colour is the property of the
aldosterone: cone, it is because of the:
(1) Angiotensin II (2) Adrenal gland (1) Types of cones sensory of different colours
(3) Cortisol (4) ADH only
(2) Different types of cones along with the
different type of colour sensory centres in the
Solution Choice (1)
brain
(3) Single type of cones but it has the properties
145. What are the number of tarsal and metatarsal
to differentiate the colour
respectively in each limb of human ?
(4) The colour differentiation is entirely a
(1) 5, 7 (2) 7, 5
property of the colour sensory centre in
(3) 8, 3 (4) 5, 14 the brain

Solution Choice (2) Solution Choice (2)

150. In mammals, the colour is perceived by or which

146. How many bones are present in the axial
is responsible for colour detection:
skeleton of human?
(1) Rod cells of retina
(1) 80
(2) Cone cells of retina
(2) 100
(3) Cornea lens complex of eye
(3) 125
(4) Rods and cones
(4) 106

Solution Choice (2)

Solution Choice (1)
151. A trial natriuretic hormone is produced by:
147. How many numbers of carpals and metacarpals (1) Kidney (2) Heart
are present respectively in each forelimb of
(3) Duodenum (4) Thyroid gland
human?
(1) 8,5
Solution Choice (2)
(2) 5,8
The Atrial natriuretic hormone is produced by
(3) 10,8 heart.
(4) 14, 30 The Atrial natriuretic hormone is produced by
heart which helps in regulating the sodium and
Solution Choice (1) water balance of the body.

152. Occurrence of dieresis following saline ingestion

148. Cavity of vitreous humour in the eyes are
is due to:
situated:
(1) Suppression of adrenocorticoid release
(1) Behind the lens
(2) Seduction in the rate of water absorption by
(2) In front of the lens
kidney capillaries
(3) Behind the retina
(3) Suppression of ADH release
(4) Between the retina and sclerotic
(4) Reduction of colloidal osmotic pressure of
blood
Solution Choice (1) Solution Choice (3)

63
153. Which of the following statement is not false? 156. Match the items in column – I with those in
(1) Hormone produced in thyroid stimulates column – II and choose the correct option.
metabolism Column I Column II
(2) Hormone produced in ovary affects the (i) Animals which give
uterine contraction birth to young one (a) Hydra
(3) Hormone produced in small intestine (ii) Animals which
stimulates heart
produces bud (b) Planaria
(4) Hormone produced in adrenal cortex
(iii) An animal which
stimulates heart beat
shows regeneration (c) Viviparous
(iv) Provides nutrition to
Solution Choice (1)
the developing (d) Auxin
(1) (i) – (a); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (c)
154. The hormones of posterior pituitary are oxytocin
(2) (i) – (b); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (c)
and vasopressin; but latter is better known as:
(3) (i) – (b); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (a)
(1) Antidiuretic hormone (4) (i) – (a); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (b)
(2) Growth hormone
(3) Corticotrophic hormone Solution Choice (2)
(4) Neurohypophyseal A sexual reproduction takes place in many ways:
(I) binary fission, e.g., Amoeba
Solution Choice (1) (II) spore formation – by motile zoospores, e.g.,
Ulothrix, Chlamydomonas or by non motile
conidia, e.g. Penicillium.
155. Read the following statements and select the
correct ones.
157. Find out the wrongly matched pair.
(I) Conidia are the asexual propagules
restricted to kingdom Fungi (1) Tuber - Potato
(II) A piece of potato tuber having atleast one (2) Rhizome - Ginger
eye (or node) is capable of giving rise to a (3) Bulbil - Agave
new plant (4) Leaf of buds - Banana
(III) Ginger propagates vegetatively with the help
of its underground roots
Solution Choice (4)
(IV) Fleshy buds which take part in vegetative
Banana is vegetatively propagated by modified
propagation are called bulbils, present in
stem (Rhizomes).
Dioscorea, Agave, etc

158. Fertilization in which male gametes are carried

(1) (II) and (III) through pollen tube is known as:
(2) (I) and (IV) (1) Porogamy
(3) (I), (II) and (IV) (2) Syngamy
(4) (I), (II) and (III) (3) Siphonogamy
(4) Chalazogamy
Solution Choice (3)

Solution Choice (3)

64
159. Assertion: Zygote transforms into blastocyst by
cleavage
Reason: All these changes take place in a
period of one week
(1) Assertion are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(2) Assertion are true and the reason is not a
correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Solution Choice (4)
160. Which is incorrect for sexual dimorphism of male?
(1) Mammary gland is namesake only
(2) Voice is shrill
(3) Muscles are strong
(4) Beard and mustache develops
Solution Choice (2)
161. The technique called gamete intrafallopian
transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those
females:
(1) Whore cervical canal is too narrow to allow
passage for the sperms
(2) Who cannot provide suitable environment for
fertilisation
(3) Who cannot produce an ovum
(4) Who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
Solution Choice (3)
162. In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves
transfer of which one of the following into the
fallopian tube?
(1) Zygote only
(2) Embryo only, up to 8 cell stage
(3) Either zygote or early embryo up to 8 cell
stage
(4) Embryo of 32 cell stage
Solution Choice (3)
65
163. Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intra
Uterine Devices (IUDs):
(1) Prevent ovulation
(2) Make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(3) Increase phagocytosis sperms
(4) Suppress sperm motility
Solution Choice (4)
164. A normal- visioned man whose father was colour
blind, marries a woman whose father was also
colour blind. They have their first child as a
daughter. What are the chances that this child
would be colour blind?
(1) 100%
(2) zero percent
(3) 25%
(4) 50%
Solution Choice (2)
If a normal visioned man marries a woman
whose father was also colourblind. Then his wife
would be carried of this disease if her mother
was normal. This trait passed in to children but
daughters produce by this couple are carrier not
the colourblind. 50% of sons would be
colourblind
165. Which one of the following conditions correctly
describes the manner of determining the sex in
the given example?
(1) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ)
determine female sex in birds
(2) XO type of sex chromosomes determine
male sex in grasshopper
(3) XO condition in human as found in Turner
syndrome, determines female sex
(4) Homozygos sex chromosomes (XX) produce
male in Drosophila
Solution Choice (2)
In grasshopper the males lack a Y-sex
chromosome and have only an X-chromosome.
They produce sperm cells that contain either an
X chromosome or no sex chromosome, which is
designated as O.
166. The chromosome constitution 2n –– 2 of an 169. The difference (s) between mRNA and tRNA is
organism represents: that:
(1) Monosomic (a) mRNA has more elaborated 3-dimensional
(2) Nullisomic structure due to extensive base – pairing

(3) Haploid (b) tRNA has more elaborated 3-dimensional

structure due to extensive pairing
(4) Trisomic (c) tRNA is usually smaller than mRNA
(d) mRNA bears anticodon but tRNA has codons
Solution Choice (2) (1) a and c (2) All of these
(3) b and c (4) a, b and c
167. Down’s syndrome is caused by non-disjunction
of: Solution Choice (3)

(1) X-chromosome 170. Which one(s) / are correct?

(2) Y-chromosome (a) In prokaryotes single type of RNA polymerase
(3) Autosome can transcribe mRNA, tRNA and rRNA
(4) 42nd chromosome of Drosophila (b) In eukaryotes RNA polymerase I transcribes
rRNA (28s, 18s and 5.8s) whereas RNA pol
III is responsible for transcription of tRNA, 5s
Solution Choice (3)
rRNA and Sn RNAs
(c) RNA pol II transcribes hnRNA in eukaryotes
168. Select the two correct statements out of the four
(d) Ribosomal large subunit has P and A-sites
(a – d) given below about lac operon:
(a) Glucose or galactose may bind with the
(1) a and c (2) All of these
repressor and inactivate it
(3) b, c and d (4) a, b and c
(b) In the absence of lactose the repressor binds
with the operator region
Solution Choice (2)
(c) The z-gene codes for permease
(d) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and
Jacque Monod 171. Which of the following is false?
(1) Most plant viruses are RNA viruses
(1) b and c
(2) Most animal viruses are DNA viruses
(2) a and c
(3) TMV has double stranded RNA molecule
(3) b and d
(4) a and b (4) T4 bacteriophage has double stranded DNA
molecule
Solution Choice (3)
Jacob and Monod proposed the lac operon of E.
coli. The lac operon contains a promoter, an Solution Choice (3)
operator, and three structural genes called Z, Y,
and A, coding for the enzyme,  galactosidase, 172. Bacteriophage is made up of:
permease and transacetylase respectively. The
(1) Carbon and nitrogen
lac regulator gene, designated as I gene, codes
(2) DNA
for repressor. In the absence of the inducer, the
repressor binds to the lac operator, preventing (3) Nucleoprotein (Nucleic acid + protein)
RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter (4) Protein only
and thus transcribing the structural gene.

Solution Choice (3)

66
173. Haeckel's theory of recapitulation (Biogenetic 177. Maximum application of animal cell culture
law) means that: technology today is in the production of:
(1) All organisms start as an egg (1) Insulin (2) Interferons
(2) Life history of an animal reflects its (3) Edible proteins (4) Vaccines
evolutionary history
(3) Progeny of an organism resembles its Solution Choice (4)
parents
(4) Body parts once lost are regenerated 178. An association of individuals of different species
living in the same habitat and having functional
Solution Choice (2) interactions is:
(1) Biotic community (2) Ecologic niche
174. Name the first organic acid produced by (3) Population (4) Ecosystem
microbial fermentation:
(1) Citric acid Solution Choice (1)
(2) Lactic acid
(3) Acetic acid 179. Animals that have adapted themselves to live in
(4) None of these deserts are known as:
(1) Fossorial (2) Xerocoles

Solution Choice (2) (3) Arboreal (4) Terrestrial

175. Vinegar is obtained from molasses with the help of: Solution Choice (2)

(1) Rhizopus (2) Acetobacter

(3) Yeast (4) Both (2) and (3) 180. Association between sea Anemone and Hermit
crab in gastropod shell is that of
(1) Parasitism (2) Commensalism
Solution Choice (1)
(3) Symbiosis (4) Amensalism

176. Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with

the following improved trait: Solution Choice (2)

(1) Insect resistance

(2) High protein content
(3) High vitamin A content
(4) High lysine content

Solution Choice (3)

67
 VER
RY SIMILA
AR PRAC
CTICE PA
APER FO
OR NEET
T - 03
S
SOLUTION
NS

1. A particle moves so that its possition vector is m2 g  k m1g

 a
given by r  cos txˆ  sin tyˆ . Where
W  is a m1  m2
constant. Which
W of the following is true?
t  m g  k m1g 
m2 g  T  m2   2 
(1) Velocityy and accele
eration both are
a  m1  m2 

perpen
ndicular to r
 Solving we
w get tensio
on in the string
(2) Velocityy and accele
eration both are
a parallel to
o r
 m1m2 g 1  k  g m1m2 g 1  k  g
(3) Velocityy is perpendicular to r and T 
m1  m2 m1  m2
accelerration is direccted towardss the origin

(4) Velocityy is perpendicular to r and
3.. What is the minimum m velocity with
w which a body
accelerration is direccted away fro
om the origin
n
of mass m must ente er a vertical loop of radiu
us R,
so that itt can comple
ete the loop?
Solution Choice (3)
(1) gR
R (2) 2gR
2
Given: Possition vector
 (3) 3gR
R (4) 5
5gR
r  cos t xˆ  sin t yˆ

 Velocitty, v   sin n t xˆ   coss tyˆ
Solution Choice (4)
and accele eration To com oop, a body must entter a
mplete the lo
 
a  2 cos txˆ   sin tyˆ  2 r adius R witth the minimum
vertical loop of ra
     velocity v  5gR
ence r  v and
r  v  0 he a a is direccted towardss
the origin.
4.. A masss m moves in a circle e on a sm mooth
h velocity v0 at a radiuss R0 .
horizontal plane with
2. A block A of mass m1 rests on a ho orizontal tab
ble.
A light string conneccted to it passes
p over a The mass is attached to a strin ng which pa
asses
frictionlesss pulley at the edge of the table and through a smooth ho
ole in the plan
ne as shown
n.
from its oth her end anotther block B of mass m2 is
suspended d. The coe efficient of kinetic friction
between th he block andd the table iss k. When the
t
block A is sliding on th
he table, the tension in the
t
string is:
The tension in the string is increased grad
dually
(m2  km1 )g m1m2 (1  k )g
(1) (2) R0
(m1  m2 ) m1  m2 )
(m and fina
ally m movess in a circle
e of radius .
2
1  k )g
m1m2 (1 (m2  k m1 )g The final value of KE
E is:
(3) (4)
(m1  m2 ) m1  m2 )
(m
1
(1) mvv 02 mv 02
(2) 2m
4
Solution Choice (2)
1
For the mo
otion of both the blocks (3) mvv 02 (4) mv 02
2
m1a  T  k m1g ...(1)
Solution Choice (2)
m2 a  m2 g  T ...(2) Applying
g anglular mo
omentum conservation

68
 R  mgh
 
m0R0  m  v1  0 
 2 
i.e.,
4
 mL

 v1  2v0 4L 4  3.4  105

 h   136 km
1 g 10
m  2v 0   2mv 02
2
Therefore new KE 
2
7. If n1 , n2 and n 3 are the fundamental frequencies
5. Kepler’s third law states that the square of period
of three segments into which a string is divided,
of revolution (T) of a planet around the sun, is
then the original fundamental frequency n of the
proportional to third power of average distance r
string is given by:
between the sun and the planet i.e., T2  Kr 3
here K is constant. If the masses of sun and 1 1 1 1
(1)   
planet are M and m respectively then as per n n1 n2 n3
Newton’s law of gravitation force of attraction 1 1 1 1
GMm (2)   
between them is F  2 , here G is the n n1 n2 n3
r
gravitational constant. The relation between G (3) n  n1  n2  n3
and K is described as:
(4) n  n1  n2  n3
(1) GMK  4 2
(2) K = G
1 Solution Choice (1)
(3) K  (4) GK  42
G Total length of string
l  l1  l2  l3 (A string is divided into 3 segments)
Solution Choice (1)
GM 1  1 T
As we know orbital speed, Vorb  But frequency   f  
r length  2 l m 
2r 2r
Time period T   r 1 1 1 1
Vorb GM so   
n n1 n2 n3
Squaring both sides
 2r r  42 3
T2    r
 GM  Gm 8. A wire carrying current I has the shape as shown
  in figure. Linear parts of the wire are very long
T 2 4 2 and parallel to X-axis while semicircular portion
  K
r 3 GM of radius R is lying in Y-Z plane. Magnetic field at
 GMK  42 point O is:

6. A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts

completely. Only one quarter of the heat
prodcued is absorbed by the ice and all enegy of
ice gets convertd into heat during its fall. The
value of h is: [Latent heat of ice is 3.4  105 J/kg
and g = 10 N/kg]
  I ˆ   I ˆ
(1) 34 km (2) 544 km (1) B   0
4 R
u i  2kˆ   (2) B   0
4 R

 i  2kˆ 
(3) 136 km (4) 68 km
  I   I
(3) B  0
4 R

 ˆi  2kˆ  (4) B  0
4 R

 ˆi  2kˆ 
Solution Choice (3)
According to question only one quarter of the
heat produced by falling piece of ice is absorbed Solution Choice (2)
in the melting of ice. Magnetic field due to segment ‘1’

69
   I 11. The unit of permittivity of free space,  0 is:
B1  0  sin 90  sin 0 kˆ
4R
 
(1) Coulomb2 / (Newton-metre)2
0 I 
4 R
 
k̂  B3 (2) Coulomb / Newton-metre

Magnetic field due to segment 2 (3) Newton  meter 2 / Coulomb 2

  I  I
 
B2  0  ˆi  0  ˆi
4R 4R
  (4) Coulomb 2 / Newton  meter 2


 B at centre Solution Choice (4)
    0I
Bc  B1  B2  B3 
4 R
 ˆi  2kˆ  0 
q2
r  4F
2

9. Consider the 3rd orbit of He  (Helium) using non  unit of 0 is

relativistic approach, the speed of electron in this Coulomb2 / Newton-metre2
orbit will be [given K = 9  109 constant, Z = 2
12. The water drops fall at regular intervals from a
and h (Plank’s constant) = 6.6  1034 Js ]
tap of about 5 m above the ground. The third
(1) 1.46  106 m / s (2) 0.73  106 m / s drop is leaving the tap at an instant when the first
(3) 3.0  108 m / s (4) 2.92  106 m / s drop touches the ground. How far above the
ground is the second drop at that instant?
(Take g = 10 m / s2 )
Solution Choice (1)
Speed of electron in nth orbit (1) 1.25 m (2) 2.50 m

2 KZe 2 (3) 3.75 m (4) 5.00 m

vn 
nh


v  2.19  106 m / s  Zn Solution Choice (3)


v  2.19  106  32  z  2 & n  3  13. The displacement of a particle is represented by
the following equation : s  3t 3  7t 2  5t  8 where
6
v = 1.46  10 m/s s is in metre and t is in second. The acceleration
of the particle at t is:
10. According to Newton, the viscous force acting
(1) 14 m/s2 (2) 18 m/s2
between liquid layers of area A and velocity
(3) 32 m/s2 (4) Zero
V
gradient  V /  Z is given by F   A where
Z
 is constant called coefficient of viscosity. The Solution Choice (3)
dimensional formula of  is: Displacement s = 3t3 + 7t2 + 5t + 8

(1) ML2 T2 (2) M0L0 T0 ds

Velocity   9t 2  14t  5
dt
(3) ML2 T2 (4) ML1T 1
d2 s
Acceleration   18t  14
dt 2
Solution Choice (4)
Acceleration at (t =1s) = 18  1 + 14 = 18 + 14 =
Susbstitute the dimensional formula of F, A,  V 32 m/s2
and  Z on both sides and find that for 

70
14. Two bodies A (mass 1 kg) and B (mass 3 kg) are 16. A block B is pushed momentarily along a
dropped from heights of 16 m and 25 m, horizontal surface with an initial velcoity V If  is
respectively. The ratio of the time taken by them the coeffient of sliding friction between B and the
to reach the ground is: surface, block B will come to rest after a time:
12 5 g g
(1) (2) (1) (2)
5 12 V V
V V
4 5 (3) (4)
(3) (4) g g
5 4
Solution Choice (4)
Solution Choice (3)
17. Two identical balls A and B moving with
15. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45 with the velocities +0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s respectively,
horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its collide head on elastically. The velocities of the
highest point as seen from the point of projection balls A and B after collision, will be respectively:
is: (1) + 0.5 m/s and + 0.3 m/s
 1 (2) 0.3 m/s and + 0.5 m/s
(1) 60 (2) tan1  
2 (3) + 0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s
 3 (4) 0.5 m/s and + 0.3 m/s
(3) tan1  (4) 45
 2 
 
Solution Choice (2)
Solution Choice (2) When the identical balls collide head on their
Use the formula R = 4 Hmax/tan Q velocities are exchanged

If you will sovle it placing Q = 45 then the

equation will be R = 4 Hmax (consider it as 18. A person holding a rifle (mass of person and rifle
equation 1) together is 100 kg) stands on a smooth surface
and fires 10 shots horizontally, in 5 s, Each bullet
Noe make a right angle triangle considering line
has a mass of 10 g with a muzzle velocity of 800
AB (from the point of projection of Hmax) and line
ms 1 . The final velocity acquired by the person
R
AC (from the point of projection to i.e., half and the average force exerted on the person are:
2
range (1) 1.6 ms 1 ; 8 N (2) 0.08 ms 1 ; 16 N
R (3) 0.8 ms 1 ; 8 N (4) 1.6 ms 1 ; 16 N
Now you have perpendicular Hmax and Base
2
Solution Choice (3)
Write tan Q for this triangle which will be
H max 19. A tube of length L is filled completely with an
tan Q  incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at
R
2 both the ends. The tube is then rotated in a
 
horizontal plane about one of its ends with a
Place the value of R from equation 1
uniform velocity . The force exerted by the liquid
H max at the other end is:
You will get tan Q 
 4 Hmax 
  ML2 
 2  (1) (2) ML2
2
After solving it you will get the tan Q which will be ML2 2 ML2
(3) (4)
1 2 2
tan Q 
2
Solution Choice (4)

71
20. A rod PQ ofo mass M an nd length L iss hinged at 3.
23 h m
A black body has a maximum wavelength
end P. The e rod is kept horizontal byy a masslesss at tempperature 20000 K. Its s correspon nding
string tied to
t point Q ass shown in fig gure. When wavelen
ngth at tempe
erature 3000 K will be:
string is cu
ut, the initial angular
a acceeleration of th
he
3 2
rod is: (1) m (2) m
2 3

4 9
(3) m (4) m
9 4

Solution Choice (2)

g 2g
(1) (2)
L L 24
4. If Q, E and W de enote respe ectively the heat
2g 3g added, the change in internal energy and d the
(3) (4)
3L 2L work don
ne in a close
ed cyclic proc
cess is:
(1) W = 0 (2) Q = W = 0
Solution Choice (4) (3) E = 0 (4) Q = 0
Torque = I
L 1 2 Solution Choice (3)
 Mg   ML 
2 3 From thee 1st law of th
hermodynammics,
Q=E+W
3g
g For cycliic process, E = 0, Q = W  0
 
2L
L
25
5. The equ ate for 5 g of oxygen at a
uation of sta
21. The escap o a sphere of mass m is
pe velocity of pressure
e P and tempperature T, when
w occupying a
given by: volume V,
V will be:
(G = universal gravitational constannt; M = Masss  5 
(1) PV    RT
h and Re = Radius
of the earth R of the
e earth)  16 
GM 2G
GM  5 
(1) (2) (2) PV    RT
Re Re  32 
(3) PV = 5RT
2GMmm GM  Re
2G
(3) (4)
Re Re 5
(4) PV    RT
2
Solution Choice (2)
Solution Choice (2)
22. The follow
wing four wires are made e of the sam
me 5
n
material. Which
W of these will havve the largeest 32
extension when
w the sam
me tension iss applied? 5
 PV  RT  PV  nRT 
3
32
(1) Length = 100 cm, diameter = 1 mm
(2) Length = 200 cm, diameter = 2 mm 26
6. A simple e pendulum has a metal bob, whicch is
(3) Length = 300 cm, diameter = 3 mm negative
ely charged.. If its allow
wed to osccillate
ameter = 0.5 mm
(4) Length = 50 cm, dia above a positively ch
harged metaallic plate, the
en its
time perriod will:

Solution Choice (4) (1) Incre

ease (2) De
ecrease
(3) Beco
omes zero emains the same
(4) Re

Solution Choice (2)

72
27. A square surface
s of sid
de L metres is in the plane 0.
30 A coil of inductive e 31  ha
e reactance as a

of the papper. A uniforrm electric field
f E (volt/m) resistancce of 8  if it is placed in series with
w a
also in the he paper, is limited only to
e plane of th condensser of capaccitative reactance of 25 .
the lower half
h of the sq quare surfacce. The electtric The com
mbination is cconnected to o an AC sourrce of
flux in SI units assocciated with the
t surface is: 110 volt,, The power factor of the circuit is:
(1) 0.64
(2) 0.80
(3) 0.33
(4) 0.56

Solution Choice (2)

2
EL
(1) 31
1. The prim
mary of a tra
ansformer wh hen connecte ed to
2
a DC baattery of 10 vvolt draws a current of 1 mA.
(2) Zero
The number of tu urns of the e primary and
(3) EL2 secondaary windings are 50 and 100 respectiively.
The voltage in the secondary and the cu urrent
EL2
(4) drawn by the ccircuit in the secon ndary
 20 
respectivvely:
(1) 20 V and 0.5 mA
Solution Choice (2)
(2) 20 V and 2.0 mA
  EA coss ,  - angle between E and normal to
(3) 10 V and 0.5 mA
the surfacee,
 (4) Zero and thereforre no currentt
Here      0
2
Solution Choice (4)
28. A galvano ometer has a coil of reiistance 100 
32
2. The elecctric and the magnetic fie eld associated
and givess a full sca ale deflectio
on for 30 mA m
with an eme wave pro opagating alo
ong the +Z-axxis
current. It is oltmeter of 30
i to be convverted as a vo
can be represented
r b
by:
volt range, the resistaance required d to be added
 
with: (1) E  E0 ˆi, B  B0 ˆj 
(1) 900  0
(2) 1800  
(2) E  E0k,ˆ B  B ˆi 
0 
(3) 500  0
(4) 1000
 
(3) E  E0 ˆj, B  B0 ˆi 
Solution Choice (1)  
(4) E  E0 ˆj, B  B0kˆ 
29. Nickel sho
ows ferroma agnetic prop perty at roo
om
temperaturre. If the temperature
t is increased
beyond Cuurie temperatture, then it will
w show: Solution Choice (1)
(1) Anti ferrromagnetism
m
(2) No mag gnetic properrty 33
3. The elecctric field asssociated witth an em waave in

(3) Diamag gnetism vacuum is given by: E  ˆi 40 0 cos(kz  6  108 t)
(4) Parama agnetism where E,
E z and t are in volt/m, meter
m and secconds
respectivvely. The vallue of wave vector
v k is:
Solution Choice (4)
Beyond Cuurie temperature, ferromaagnetic (1) 2 m1 5 m1
(2) 0.5
substancess behaves likke a paramagnetic (3) 6 m1 (4) 3 m1
susbstance
e.
Solution Choice (1)

73
34. A source of sound S is moving with a velocity 36. An ideal heat engine exhausting heat at 77 C. If
50 m/s towards a stationary observer. The its efficiency is 30%, it must take heat at:
observer measures the frequency of the source
(1) 127 C (2) 227 C
as 1000 Hz. What will be the apparent frequency
of the source when it is moving away from the (3) 327 C (4) 673 C
observer after crossing him?
The velocity of sound in the medium is 350 m/s. Solution Choice (2)
(1) 750 Hz (2) 857 Hz T1  T2

(3) 1143 Hz (4) 1333 Hz T1

 = 0.3 and T2 and 273 + 77 = 350 K

Solution Choice (1) T1  350
 0.3  or T1  227 C
When the source is moving towards a stationary T1
observer
 v  37. A body cools from 60 C and 50 C in 10 minutes.
n   n
 v  vs  If the room temperature is 25 C and assuming
 350  Newton’s law of cooling to hold good, the
100   n
 350  50  temperature of the body at the end of the next
10 minutes will be:
1000  300
Or n 
350 (1) 38.5 C (2) 40 C
When the source is moving away from stationary (3) 42.85 C (4) 45 C
observer
 v  Solution Choice (3)
n   n
 v  vs  According to Newton’s law of cooling rate of loss
of heat
 350  1000  300   (T  T0)
    750 Hz
 350  50  350  Where T is the average temperature in the given
time interval. Hence
M  60  50   60  50 
35. Two vibrating strings of the same material but   25  and
lengths L and 2L have radii 2r and r respectively. 10  2 
They are stretched under the same tension. Both M  50  T   50  T 
  25 
the strings vibrate in their fundamental modes, the 10  2 
one of length L with frequency n1 and the other Solving we get T = 42.85 C
with frequency n2. The ratio n1/n2 is given by:
(1) 2 (2) 4 38. Electrons are caused to fall through a potential
(3) 8 (4) 1 difference of 1500 volt. If they were initially at
rest, their final speed is:

Solution Choice (4) (1) 4.6  107 m/sec (2) 2.3  107 m/sec
(3) 0.23  102 m/sec (4) 5.1  109 m/sec
1  T 
n1   
2L  4r 2   Solution Choice (2)
1 2
1  T  mv  eV
and n2  2
 
4L  r 2   2eV 2  1.6  1019  1500
v 
1 m 9  1031
 n1 / n2  2  1 V = 2.3  107 m/sec
2

74
39. A battery of emf 10 V and internal resistance 0.5  42. An eye specialist prescribes spectacles having a
is connected across a variable resistance R. The combination of convex lens of focal length 40 cm
value of R for which the power delivered in it is in contact with a concave lens of focal length
maximum is given by: 25 cm. The power of this lens combination in
diopters is:
(1) 2.0  (2) 0.25 
(1) + 1.5 (2)  1.5
(3) 1.0  (4) 0.5 
(3) + 6.67 (4)  6.67
Solution Choice (4)
According to maximum power theorem, the Solution Choice (2)
power in the circuit is maximum, when internal 100
Power of convex lens P1   2.5 D
resistance = external resistance 40
 R = 0.5  100
Power of concave lens P2    4 D g
25
40. A circular current carrying coil has a radius R. Now
The distance from the centre of the coil on the P = P1 + P2 = 2.5 D  4 D =  1.5 D
axis where the magnetic induction will be (1/8)th
of its value at the centre of the coil is: 43. In the Young’s experiment with sodium light, the
(1) R 3 slits are 0.589 m apart. What is the angular width
of the fourth maximum? Given that  = 589 nm
(2) 2R 3
(1) sin1(3  106 )
(3) R / 3
(2) sin1(3  108 )
(4) 2R / 3
(3) sin1(0.33  106 )

Solution Choice (1) (4) sin1(0.33  108 )

According to the given question
0 2iR2 1  0 2i  Solution Choice (1)
  
4 3
8  4 R  n D x n n
R 2
x 
2 2
xn 
2d
or 
D 2d
3 3


8R3  R2  x 2  2
3

(or)  2R   R2  x 2  2
 sin  
n 3  589  109

2d 0.589
1


2R  R2  x 2  2 (or) 4R2  R2  x 2  = sin1 (3  106)

Solving, we get x  3R 44. In nuclear fission 0.1% mass is converted into

energy. The energy released by the fission of
41. A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 V 1 kg mass is:
lamp from a 220 V mains. If the main current is (1) 2.5  105 kWH
0.5 amp, the efficiency of the transformer is: (2) 2.5  107 kWH
(1) 11% (2) 50% (3) 2.5  109 kWH
(3) 80% (4) 90% (4) 2.5  107 kWH

Solution Choice (4) Solution Choice (3)

Input power = 220 V  0.5 V = 110 W 0.1
E   1 9  1016 J
Output power will be 100 W 100
9  1013
100 W  kWH  2.5  109 kWH
   90.9%  90% 36  105
110 W

75
45. The energy of a photon is equal to the kinetic 48. Which one of the following is not Lewis acid?
energy of a proton. The energy of the photon is (1) AlCl3  6H 2 O
E. Let 1 be the de Broglie wavelength of the
(2) A lC l3
proton and 2 be the wavelength of the photon.
(3) SnCl4
The ratio 1 / 2 is proportional to:
1
(4) FeCl3
0
(1) E (2) E 2

(3) E 1
(4) E2 Solution Choice (1)
Anhydrous AlCl3 is Lewis Acid but hydrous AlCl3
Solution Choice (2)
(AlCl3  6H2O) is not Lewis acid and its p and
h h
We know that    d-orbitals are fully filled. So, it can’t accept
mv p
electrons and does not acts Lewis acid
1 p2
Here mv 2  E
2 2m
49. The interaction energy of London force is
or p  2mE
inversely proportional to the sixth power of the
h
 1  ...(1) distance between two interacting particles but
2mE their magnitude depends upon:
hc
And  2  ...(2) (1) Charge of interacting particles
E
 h E (2) Mass of interacting particles
Therefore, 1  
2 2mE hc (3) Polarizing power and polarisability of
1 interacting particles
E 2
 (4) Strength of permanent dipoles in the particles
2mc 2
1
1
Or  E2 Solution Choice (3)
2

50. An ideal gas will have maximum density when:

46. The order of increasing energies of the orbitals
follows: (1) P = 1 atm, T = 300 K

(1) 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p (2) 3s, 3p, 3d, 4s, 4p (2) P = 2 atm, T = 150 K
(3) 3s, 3p, 4s, 4p, 4d (4) 3s, 3p, 3d, 4p, 4s (3) P = 0.5 atm, T = 600 K
(4) P = 1.0 atm, T = 500 K
Solution Choice (1)
Follow (n + l) rule
Solution Choice (2)
47. The correct order of acidic strength: PV = nRT (By gas equation)
(1) Cl2 O7  SO2  P4 O10 M
Where V 
(2) K 2 O  CaO  MgO d
(3) CO 2  N2 O 5  SO 3 M
P  nRT or PM   dT  nR
(4) Na 2 O  MgO  Al2 O 3 d
From above relation
Solution Choice (1)
1 P
Acidic character of oxide  Non-metallic nature P  d or d  or d 
T T
of element
Non-metallic character increases along the Therefore, an ideal gas will have maximum
period P
density when ratio of is more
Hence order or acidic character is T
Cl2 O7  SO2  P4 O10

76
51. Which one of the following statements is false? 54. White lead is:
(1) Work is a state function (1) Basic lead acetate
(2) Temperature is a state function (2) Acidic lead carbonate
(3) Change in the state is completely defined (3) Basic lead carbonate
when the initial and final states are specified (4) Basic lead hydroxide
(4) None of these

Solution Choice (3)

Solution Choice (1) White lead is also called basic lead carbonate,
Pb(OH)2 2PCO3
52. Atomic number of an element is 22. The highest
O.S. exhibited by it in its compound is:
55. Nitrolim is a mixture of:
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) CaC 2 and Ga (2) CaCN 2 and C
(3) 3 (4) 4
(3) Ca(CN) 2 and Ga (4) CaCN 2 and N2

Solution Choice (4)

Solution Choice (2)
The element is Ti (At, no. 22). Electronic
Nitrolim is a mixture of caCN2 and graphite (C)
configuration is 1s2, 2s2, p6, 3s2 p6 d2, 4s2 the
energy level of 3d and 4s is very close. It can which is used as fertilizer.
have Ti4+ O.S.
56. The IUPAC name of neopentane is:
53. Consider the following statements: (1) 2, 2 dimethylpropane (2) 2-methylpropane
(1) Atomic hydrogen is obtained by passing (3) 2, 2 dimethylbutane (4) 2-methylbutane
hydrogen through an electric arc
(2) Hydrogen gas will not reduce heated Solution Choice (1)
aluminium oxide
CH3
(3) Finely divided palladium absorbs large |
volume of hydrogen gas 1 2 3
H3 C C  CH3
(4) Pure nascent hydrogen is best obtained by |
CH3
reacting Na with C 2 H5 OH.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Neopentane or 2, 2-Dimethylpropane
(1) Only 1
(2) Only 2 Na liquid NH
57. R  CH  CH2 
3
R.CH2 .CH3
(3) 1, 2 and 3 Et.OH

(4) 2,3 and 4 The reaction is called:

(1) Birch’s reduction
Solution Choice (3) (2) Clemensen’s reduction
Pure hydrogen is evolved by reacting absolute (3) Catalytic reduction
alcohol and Na (4) All of these
1
C2H5 OH  Na 
 C2H5 ONa  H2
2 Solution Choice (1)
This given reaction is Birch reduction

77
58. Identify the incorrect statement from the Solution Choice (2)
following: Solvent having high cryoscopic constant
(1) Ozone absorbs the intense ultraviolet (camphor) can be used in determination of
radiation of the sun molecular masses of organic compounds like
naphthalene, anthracene et., by cryosopic
(2) Depletion of ozone layer is because of its
method
chemical reactions with chlorofluoro alkanes
(3) Ozone absorbs infrared radiations
61. How long a current of 3 amperes has to be
(4) Oxides of nitrogen in the atmosphere can
passed through a solution of AgNO3 to coat a
cause the depletion of ozone layer
metal surface of 80 cm2 and 0.005 mm thick
layer? Density of Ag is 10.5 g cm-3.
Solution Choice (3)
(1) 127.7 seconds (2) 12.5 seconds
The ozone layer existing between 20 and 35 km
(3) 155.2 seconds (4) 200 seconds
above the earth’s surface, shield the earth from
the harmful U.V. radiations from the sun
Depletion of ozone is caused by oxides of Solution Choice (1)
nitrogen Volume = Area  thickness

N2 O  h 
 NO  N Reactive nitric oxide  Mass of Ag to be deposited
80  0.005
NO  O3 
 NO2  O2   10.5  0.42g
10
O3  h 
 O2  O E  wt  i  t
Amound deposited 
96500
NO2  O 
 NO  O2
108  3  t
 0.42 
2O3  h 
 3O2 Net reaction 98500

The presence of oxides of nitrogen increase the  t = 127.7 seconds

decomposition of O3.
62. The rate of a chemical reaction doubles for every
59. Solid CH4 is: 10 C rise of temperature. If the temperature is
raised by 50 C the rate of the reaction increases
(1) Ionic solid
by about:
(2) Covalent solid
(1) 10 times (2) 24 times
(3) Molecular solid
(3) 32 times (4) 64 times
(4) Does not exist

Solution Choice (3)

Solution Choice (3)
Since for every 10 C rise in temperature rate
Solid CH4 is molecular solid. In this, the
doubles, for 50 C rise in temperature increase in
constituent molecules are held together by van
reaction rate
der Waal’s forces.
= 25 = 32 times

60. Camphor is often used in molecular mass

63. Adsorption of gases on solid surface is
determination because:
exothermic reaction because:
(1) It is readily available
(1) Free energy increases
(2) It has a very high cryoscopic constant
(2) Enthalpy is positive
(3) It is volatile
(3) Entropy increases
(4) It is solvent for organic substances
(4) Enthalpy is negative

78
 Solution Choice (4) 68. The electronic configuration of four elements are
Adsorption is accompanied by evolution of heat given below. Which element does not belong to
as the residual forces acting along the surface of the same family as others?
adsorbent decrease i.e., adsorption is
(1)  Xe  4f14 5d10 6s2
accompanied by decrease in enthalpy
(2)  Kr  4d10 5s2
64. Bronze is a mixture of:
(3)  Ne  3s2 3p5
(1) Pb + Sn (2) Cu + Sn
(3) Cu + Zn (4) Pb + Zn (4)  Ar  3d10 4s2

Solution Choice (2) Solution Choice (3)

Bronze is a mixture of Cu + Sn Ne  3s 2

3p5 is the electronic configuration of p-
block elements whereas other configuration are
65. The lowest boiling point of helium is due to its: those of d-block elements

(1) Inertness
69. The primary valency of Cr in the complex
(2) Gaseous nature

(3) High polarisability Cr H2O  Cl2  is:
 4 
(4) Weak van der Waals forces between atoms (1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 6
Solution Choice (4)
Due to weak van der Waal’s forces, He has Solution Choice (2)
lowest boiling point. The primary valency if given by O.S. In

Cr H2 O 4 Cl2  . O.S. of Cr is +3 hence valency
66. Which of the following statements is not correct
for nitrogen? of Cr is +3.
(1) Its electronegativity is very high
(2) d-orbitals are available for bonding 70. The compound which is added to soap to impart
(3) It is a typical non-metal antiseptic properties is __________.
(4) Its molecular size is small (1) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(2) Sodium dodecyl benzene sulphonate
Solution Choice (2) (3) Rosin
In case of nitrogen, d-orbitals are not available (4) Bithional

Solution Choice (4)

67. The final products formed on the addition of
Potassium Iodide to copper sulphate solution are:
71. The colour discharge tubes for advertisement
(1) K 2 SO4 ,CuI2 and I2 mainly contain:
(2) K 2 SO4 ,Cu2 I2 and I2 (1) Argon
(3) K 2 SO4 and Cu2 O (2) Neon
(4) K 2 SO4 , CuO and I2 (3) Helium
(4) Xenon
Solution Choice (2)
2 CuSO4  4 KI  2 K 2 SO4  Cu2I2  I2 Solution Choice (2)

79
72. Ce is an important member of Lanthenoid series
which of following is wrong statement for Ce?
(1) The general oxidation state of Ce is +3 and +4
(2) +3 oxidation state of Ce is more stable than +4
(3) +4 oxidation state of Ce is not available in its
aqueous solution
(4) Ce (IV) behave as oxidizing agent
Solution Choice (1)
78.
73. Carbonate ion (CO32  ) acts as a:
77. Which of the following alternatives does not
represent a colligative property?
(1) Lowering of vapour pressure
(2) Osmosis
(3) Elevation of boiling point
(4) Depression of freezing point
Solution Choice (2)
At what centigrade temperature will the volume of
gas becomes 2x, if the volume of this gas is ‘x’ at
0 C at constant pressure?

(1) Tridentate ligand (1) 0 C (2) 237 C

(2) Bidentate ligand (3) 273 C (4) 546 C
(3) Monodentate ligand
(4) Tetradentate ligand Solution Choice (3)
By ideal gas equation
Solution Choice (2) P1V1 P2 V2

T1 T2
74. Which of the following is an example of vicinal Given that
dihalide? P1 = P2, V1 = x, V2 = 2x
(1) Dichloromethane (2) 1,2-dichloroethane T1 = 273 K, T2 = ?
(3) Ethylidene chloride (4) Allyl chloride On putting value
P2 x P2 2x

Solution Choice (2) 273 T2
T2 = 2  273 = 546 K or 273 C
75. The reagent which does not react with both,
acetone and benzaldehyde: 79. The oxidation number of phosphorus in
(1) Sodium hydrogen sulphite pyrophosphoric acid is:
(2) Phenyl hydrazine (1) +3 (2) +1
(3) Fehling’s solution (3) +4 (4) +5
(4) Grignard reagent

Solution Choice (3) Solution Choice (4)

Pyrophosphoric acid H4P2O7
Let oxidation state of phosphorus is
76. The metal excess defect, the sites occupied by the
extra electrons are known as: x (4  1 + (2)  7 + 2 x) = 0
(1) F-centres  2x = 10 or x = +5
(2) Vacant site
(3) Interstitial site 80. The approximate percentage of silica in cement is:
(4) Site of defect (1) 5  10% (2) 15  20%
(3) 20  25% (4) 25  30%
Solution Choice (1)
Solution Choice (3)

80
 The approximate composition of cement is 83. Match the compounds given in Column-I with
Lime (CaO) = 50  60% Column-II and select the suitable option using the
code given below.
Silica (SiO2) = 20  25%
Column - I Column - II
Alumina (Al2O3) = 5  10%
Magnesia (MgO) = 2  3% (i) Benzaldehyde (a) Phenolphthalein

Ferric oxide (Fe2O3) = 2  3% (ii) Phthalic (b) Benzoin

anhydride condensation

81. Aryl halides do not undergo nuclephilic (iii) Phenyl benzoate (c) Oil of
substitution reaction under ordinary conditions wintergreen
because: (iv) Methyl salicylate (d) Fries
(a) Approach of nucleophile is retarded rearrangement
(1) (i) – (d); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (b)
(b) Carbon carrying halogen atom is sp 3
(2) (i) – (d); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (a)
hybridised
(3) (i) – (b); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (a)
(c) The substrate molecule is destabilised due to (4) (i) – (b); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (c)
resonance
(d) Partial double bond character between Solution Choice (4)
carbon and halogen
84. Carbonyl compounds undergo nucleophilic
addition mainly because of:
(1) (b) and (d) only
(1) Electronegativity difference of carbon and
(2) (a) and (d) only oxygen atoms
(3) (b) and (c) only (2) Electromeric effect
(4) (b), (c) and (d) only (3) More stable anion with negative charge on
oxygen atom and less stable carbonium ion
Solution Choice (2) (4) None of these
Aryl halides are less reactive towards
nucleophilic substitution because of the parital Solution Choice (3)
double bond character of carbon-halogen bonds.
85. Match the compounds in Column-I with their
It is also party due to repulsion between the
nature from Column-II, as seen in aqueous
electron cloud of the benzene ring and the
medium
nucleophile.
Column - I Column - II

82. Which one of the following alcohols is least (i) Acetamide (a) Acidic
soluble in water?
(ii) Benzonitrile (b) Basic
(1) CH3 OH (2) C3H7 OH
(iii) Triethylamine (c) Neutral
(3) C4H9 OH (4) C10H21OH
(iv) Phenol

Solution Choice (4)

(1) (i) – (c); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (a)
Solubility of alcohol in water decrease with (2) (i) – (b); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (a)
increase in molecular mass due to increase in (3) (i) – (c); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (c)
water repelling alkyl part in alcohol. (4) (i) – (a); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (b)

Solution Choice (1)

81
 Acetamide is basic due to the presence of lone 87. Starch is converted into maltose by the:
pair of electrons of N; it is also acidic because its (1) Maltase (2) Invertase
conjugate base shows resonance.
(3) Zymase (4) Diastase
O
||
base
CH3  C  NH2   Solution Choice (4)
Diastase enzyme converts starch into maltose
O O
|| |
CH3  C  NH  CH3  C  NH 88. The polymer used in making synthetic hair wigs
is made up of:
(more stable due to –ve charge on O)
(1) CH2  CHCl (2) CH2  CHCOOCH3
Acetamide is neutral. Benzonitrile
(C6H5C  N)acts as an electrophile (3) C6H5 CH  CH2 (4) CH2  CH  CH  CH2
(Lewise acid) due to electron deficiency of C of
CN as well as nucleophile (Lewis base) in nature Solution Choice (1)
due to presence of lone pair electrons on N; SARAN, a polymer of vinyl chloride
hence it is neutral. (CH2 = CHCl) and vinylidence chloride, is used
for making synthetic hair wigs.
Triethyl amine and phenol are basic and acidic in
nature respectively.
89. An antibiotic with a broad spectrum:
(1) Kills the antibodies
86. Match Items of Column I with the items of
Column II and assign the correct code: (2) Acts on a specific antigen
(3) Acts on different antigens
Column I Column II
(4) Acts on both the antigens and antibodies
(i) Cyanide process (a) Ultra pure Ge

(ii) Froth flotation (b) Dressing of ZnS Solution Choice (3)

process Broad spectrum antibiotics act on different
(iii) Electrolytic (c) Extraction of Al antigens.
reduction
90. Which of the following polymers is a thermosetting
(iv) Zone refining (d) Extraction of Au
polymer?
(e) Purification of Ni (1) Polyethene (2) Polystyrene
(3) Polyvinyl chloride (4) Bakelite
(1) (i) – (d); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (a)
(2) (i) – (b); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (e)
(3) (i) – (a); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (d) Solution Choice (4)
(4) (i) – (c); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (e); (iv) - (a)
91. Which one of the following is correctly matched
Solution Choice (1) regarding an institute and its location?
Highly electropositive metals like Al, K, Na, etc.,
(1) National institute of Virology- Pune
are extracted by the electrolytic reduction.
(2) National Institute of Communicable Diseases-
zone refining method is used for obtaiing metals Lucknow
of high purity e.g., Ge (3) Central Drug Research Institute- Kasauli
Froth flotation process is suitable for sulphide (4) National Institute of Nutrition- Mumbai
ores
Solution Choice (1)
Cyanide process is used for the extraction of
gold.

82
92. A self fertilizing trihybrid plant forms:
(1) 8 different gametes and 16 different zygotes
(2) 8 different gametes and 64 different zygotes
(3) 4 different gametes and 16 different zygotes
(4) 4 different gametes and 32 different zygotes
Solution Choice (2)
98. Angiosperms have dominated land flora primarily
because of their:
(1) Nature of self pollination
(2) Power of adaptability in diverse habitats
(3) Property of producing large numbers of seeds
(4) Domestication by man

93. Employment of hereditary principles in the

improvement of human race is: Solution Choice (2)

(1) Euthenics (2) Euphenics

(3) Eugenics (4) Ethology 99. In which of the following would you place the
plants having vascular tissue lacking seeds:
Solution Choice (3)
(1) Pteridophyte (2) Angiosperms

94. Cladistic taxonomy places the birds as (3) Bryophyte (4) Gymnosperms
Archosaurs, along with the:
(1) Mammals (2) Crocodilians Solution Choice (1)
(3) Turtles (4) Snakes

Solution Choice (2) 100. Which of the following is without exception in

angiosperms:
95. The separation of the Archaebacteria into a (1) Presence of vessels
separate domain indicates: (2) Double fertilization
(1) That these organisms are very different from (3) Secondary growth
eubacteria and from eukaryotes
(4) Autotrophic nutrition
(2) That organisms should never be classified
according to how they appear (morphological
characteristics) Solution Choice (2)

(3) That early taxonomists rushed to classify

them without closely examining them 101. Typhlops is:
(4) That optical viewing techniques have greatly (1) Sea snake (2) Grass snake
improved so that we can better view these (3) Glass snake (4) Blind snake
microorganisms

Solution Choice (4)

Solution Choice (1)

96. You might find methanogens: 102. Which of the following feature is not common
(1) In swamps (2) In a cow's stomach between Newt and Hemidactylus?
(3) In marshes (4) All of these (1) Body is divisible into head, neck, trunk and tail
(2) Head with pair of eyes and tympanic
Solution Choice (4)
membrane
(3) Trunk has 2 pairs of limb for locomotion
97. Plant group with largest ovule, largest tree and
largest gametes: (4) Heart is 3 chambered
(1) Pteridophyte (2) Angiosperms
(3) Gymnosperms (4) Bryophytes
Solution Choice (1)

Solution Choice (3)

83
103.. Which one e of the follo
owing is the
e characterisstic (1) (i) – (c); (ii) - (d)); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (a)
for birds: (2) (i) – (d); (ii) - (c)); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (a)
(1) They arre flying anim
mals (3) (i) – (d); (ii) - (b)); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (a)
(2) They arre warm bloo
oded (4) (i) – (b); (ii) - (d)); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (a)

(3) They arre bipedal an

nd have feath
hers
Solution Choice (2)
(4) They arre quadruped
d and have scales
s

09. Stateme
10 ent 1: DNA is associated with
Solution Choice (3)
prrotiens
104.. Monocondyic skull, wa arm blooded d animals with
w Stateme
ent 2: DNA coils aro ound histone
air sacs are present in: prrotiens that form
f a pool
(1) Reptilia
a (2) Birdss annd the entire
e structure is
ca
alled nucleos some
(3) Amphib
bia (4) Mam
mmals
(1) State
ement 1 and Statement 2 are true;
Solution Choice (2) State
ement 2 is the
e correct exp
planation for
State
ement 1.
105.. To which one of the following ca
ategories do
oes (2) State
ement 1 and Statement 2 are true;
adipose tisssue belong?
? State
ement 2 is no
ot the correctt explanation for
(1) Epitheliial (2) Conn
nective State
ement 1.
(3) Muscular (4) Neurral (3) State
ement 1 is tru
ue, Statemennt 2 is false.
(4) State
ement 1 and d 2 are both false.
f
Solution Choice (2)
Solution Choice (1)
106.. Which one
e of the follo
owing is nott a connective 11
10. What are e the most diverse molec
cules in the cell?
c
tissue? (1) Lipids
(1) Bone (2) Cartiilage (2) Prote
eins
(3) Blood (4) Musccles (3) Carbbohydrates
(4) Mineeral salts
Solution Choice (4)
Solution Choice (2)
107.. The clitellu
um is a disstinct part in
n the body of
11
11. Which of
o the followin
ng is a reduc
cing sugar?
earthwormm, it is found in?
(1) Segments 13 – 14 – 15
(2) Segments 14 – 15 – 16
(3) Segments 12 – 13 – 14
(4) Segments 15 – 16 – 17

Solution Choice (2)

108.. Match the following with

w reference
e to Cockro
och (1) Sucro
ose
and choose the correctt option (2) Galactose
(3) β-Me
ethyl galactoccidase
Colu
umn I Colum
mn II
(4) Gluconic acid
(i) Phallomere (a) Chain
n of developiing
ova Solution Choice (2)
(ii) Gonopore (b) Bund
dles of sperm
m
(iii) Spermatophore (c) Openning of the
ejacu
ulatory dust
(iv) Ovarioles (d) The external
e geniitalia

84
112. Choose the correct statements w.r.t. the
completion of prophase.
(a) Chromosomal material condenses to form
compact mitotic chromosomes.
Chromosomes are seen to be composed of
two chromatids attached together at the
centromere
(b) Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle,
the microtubules, the proteinaceous
components of the cell cytoplasm
(c) Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed
under the microscope, do not show golgi
complexes, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus
and the nuclear envelope
(1) a only (2) b only
(3) a and b (4) a, b, and c
115. Which of the following is not the key features of
meiosis :
(1) Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of
nuclear and cell division called meiosis I and
meiosis II but only a single cycle of DNA
replication
(2) Meiosis I is initiated after the parental
chromosomes have replicated to produce
identical sister chromatids at the S phase
(3) Meiosis involves pairing of homologous
chromosomes and recombination between
them
(4) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of
meiosis

Solution Choice (4)

Solution Choice (2)
113. The key events shown by the telophase stage
is/are: 116. Choose the correct option for A and B:
(a) Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle
poles and their identity is lost as discrete
elements
(b) Nuclear envelope assembles around the
chromosome clusters
(c) Nucleolus, golgi complex and ER reform
(1) ACymose, BRacemose
(1) a only (2) a and b only
(2) ARacemose, BCymose
(3) b and c only (4) a, b and c
(3) ARacemose, BRacemose

Solution Choice (4) (4) ACymose, BCymose

114. Choose the incorrect one w.r.t. cytokinesis in Solution Choice (2)
plants:
(1) In plant cells, wall formation starts in the
117. Choose the correct option:
centre of the cell and grows outward to meet
the existing lateral walls
(2) The formation of the new cell wall begins with
the formation of a simple precursor, called the
cell-plate
(3) The cell-plate represents the middle lamella
between the walls of twoadjacent cells (1) A-Epicarp; B-Mesocarp; C-Seed; D-Endocarp
(4) The cytokinesis in a plant cell is achieved by (2) A-Epicarp; B-Mesocarp; C-Ovule; D-Endocarp
the appearance of a furrow in the plasma (3) A-Epicarp; B-Mesocarp; C-Ovary; D-Endocarp
membrane called the cell cleavage
(4) A-Epicarp; B-Mesocarp; C-Embryo; D-Endocarp

Solution Choice (4)

Solution Choice (1)

85
118. Match ColumnI with ColumnII 123. Fertility of the soil in rice fields can be improved
by:
Column I Column II
(2) Chlamydomonas (2) Sodium chloride
(i) Apple (a) Outer portion of
(3) Anabaena (4) Rhizopus
receptacle

(ii) Coconut (b) Fleshy thalamus

Solution Choice (3)
(iii) Jack fruit (c) Thalamus & pericarp

(iv) Guava (d) Endosperm 124. Besides Fe, Cytochrome a and a3 carry an
additional atom involved in ETC. The deficiency
(v) Pineapple (e) Bract, perianth &
of the same leads to -----:
seeds
(1) Necrosis
(2) Die back of shoot
(1) (i) – (b); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (e); (v) - (a)
(2) (i) – (e); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (d); (v) - (b) (3) Brown heart disease
(3) (i) – (b); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (e); (v) - (d) (4) Premature leaf abscission
(4) (i) – (b); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (e); (iv) - (c); (v) - (a)

Solution Choice (4) Solution Choice (2)

119. Many pulses of daily use belong to one of the

125. Storage capacity of the soil is the extent it can
families below:
hold:
(1) Solanaceae (2) Fabaceae
(3) Liliaceae (4) Poceae (1) Gravitational water
(2) Capillary water
Solution Choice (2) (3) Hygroscopic water
(4) All of these
120. The placenta is attached to the developing seed
near the:
Solution Choice (2)
(1) Testa (2) Hilum
(3) Micropyle (4) Chalaza
126. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
Solution Choice (4) (1) Sorghum – Kranz anatomy
(2) PS – II – P700
121. Which of the following plants is used to extract (3) Photorespiration – C3 plants
blue dye?
(4) PEP carboxylase – Mesophyll cells
(1) Trifolium (2) Indigofera
(3) Lupin (4) Cassia
Solution Choice (2)
Reaction centrer in PS – II is P680+
Solution Choice (2)

127. Connecting link between EMP pathway and TCA

122. The transfer of minerals from top soil to sub soil cycle is:
through soil water is called: (1) Pyruvic acid
(1) Transpiration (2) Conduction (2) Citric acid
(3) Percolation (4) Leaching (3) Acetyl CO-A
(4) Oxalosuccinic acid
Solution Choice (3)
Solution Choice (3)

86
128. An organic acid which undergoes both 132. Which of the following can cause stagnant
dehydrogenation and decarboxylation in Kreb’s hypoxia?
cycle is: (1) COPD
(1) Sucinic acid (2) a-ketoglytatric acid (2) Shock or heart failure
(3) Citric acid (4) Malic acid (3) Cyanide poisoning
(4) Carbon monoxide poisoning
Solution Choice (2)
Solution Choice (2)
129. Primary precursor of IAA is:
(1) Methionine (2) Adenine 133. If you blocked the blood supply to an alveolus,
(3) Tryptophan (4) Alanine which of the following would NOT occur as a
result?
Solution Choice (3) (1) The ventilation perfusion ratio would be 0
(2) The PAO2 would be greater than normal
130. Which of the following in FALSE concerning CO2 (3) The PACO2 would be 0
uptake?
(4) All of the above are true
(1) If PO2 = PCO2, then there will be more CO2 in
the blood Solution Choice (1)
(2) Oxygenation moves the CO2 uptake curve
downwards 134. Hormone involved in the discharge of pancreatic
(3) The CO2 uptake curve is generated by juice and contraction of gall bladder in mammals
comparing the total CO per unit volume of is:
blood, and the PCO2 (1) Secretin
(4) Deoxygenated blood carries less CO2 than (2) Secretin and cholecystokinin
oxygenated (3) Gastrin
(4) Enterogastrone
Solution Choice (4)
Solution Choice (2)
131. Which of the following is INCORRECT
135. Pace maker of heart is:
concerning the O2 / CO2 movement and
processing through the lungs and tissues? (1) AV node
(2) Bundle of His
(1) Binding of O2 to Hb changes its configuration
(3) SA node
so that CO2 and H+ ions are more likely to
(4) Purkinje fibers
dissociate
(2) When CO2 diffused into the alveoli, the Solution Choice (3)
PaCO2 is lowered
(3) Carbonic acid is an intermediate in the 136. Pulmonary artery differs from pulmonary vein in
reaction combining H+ with HCO3- to form having:
H2O and CO2 (1) No endothelium
+
(4) Arterial blood flows to the tissues where H (2) Valves
ions combine with HCO3- to form H2O (3) Large lumen
(4) Thick muscular wall
Solution Choice (4)
Solution Choice (4)

87
137. Secretion of renin from JG cell is due to: 144. The hormones of posterior pituitary are oxytocin
(1) A fall glomerular blood flow and vasopressin; but latter is better known as:
(2) Glomerular blood pressure (1) Antidiuretic hormone
(3) GFR (2) Growth hormone
(4) All of these
(3) Corticotrophic hormone
Solution Choice (4) (4) Neurohypophyseal

138. ADH is secreted by (60):

Solution Choice (1)
(1) Liver (2) Neurohypophysis
(3) Kidney (4) JG cells
145. Read the following statements and select the
Solution Choice (2) correct ones.
I. Conidia are the asexual propagules restricted
139. Protein helping in opening of DNA helix to form a to kingdom Fungi
replication fork is:
II. A piece of potato tuber having atleast one eye
(1) DNA gyrase (2) DNA polymeraseI
(or node) is capable of giving rise to a new
(3) DNA ligase (4) DNA topoisomerase
plant
Solution Choice (1) III. Ginger propagates vegetatively with the help
of its underground roots
140. What are the number of tarsal and metatarsal IV. Fleshy buds which take part in vegetative
respectively in each limb of human?
propagation are called bulbils, present in
(a) 5, 7 (b) 7, 5 Dioscorea, Agave, etc.
(c) 8, 3 (4) 5, 14
(1) (II) and (III) (2) (I) and (IV)
Solution Choice (2) (3) (I), (II) and (IV) (4) (I), (II) and (III)

141. How many bones are present in the axial

Solution Choice (3)
skeleton of human?
(1) 80 (2) 100
(3) 125 (4) 106 146. Match the items in column – I with those in
column – II and choose the correct option.
Solution Choice (1)
Column I Column II
142. How many numbers of carpals and metacarpals (i) Phallomere (a) Chain of developing
are present respectivly in each forelimb of ova
human?
(ii) Gonopore (b) Bundles of sperm
(1) 8,5 (2) 5,8
(3) 10,8 (4) 14, 30 (iii) Spermatophore (c) Opening of
ejaculatory duct
Solution Choice (1)
(iv) Ovarioles (d) The external
143. Cavity of vitreous humour in the eyes are geniztalia
situated: (1) (i) – (c); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (a)
(1) Behind the lens (2) (i) – (d); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (a)
(2) Infront of the lens (3) (i) – (d); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (b)
(3) Behind the retina (4) (i) – (c); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (a)
(4) Between the retina and sclerotic
Solution Choice (2)
Solution Choice (1)

88
147. Find out the wrongly matched pair. (3) XO condition in human as found in Turner
(1) Tuber - Potato syndrome, determines female sex
(2) Rhizome - Ginger (4) Homozygos sex chromosomes (XX) produce
(3) Bulbil - Agave male in Drosophila
(4) Leaf of buds - Banana
Solution Choice (2)
Solution Choice (4) In grasshopper the males lack a Y-sex
Banana is vegatatively propagated by modified
chromosome and have only an X-chromosome.
stem (Rhizomes)
They produce sperm cells that contain either an
X chromosome or no sex chromosome, which is
148. The technique called gamete intrafallopian
designated as O.
transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those
females:
(1) Whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow 152. A normal-visioned man whose father was colour,
passage for the sperms blind, marries a woman whose father was also
(2) Who cannot provide suitable environment for colour blind. They have their first child as a
fertilisation daughter. What are the chance that this child
(3) Who cannot produce an ovum would be colour blind?
(4) Who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus (1) 100% (2) 0%
(3) 25% (4) 50%
Solution Choice (3)

149. In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves Solution Choice (2)

transfer of which one of the following into the If a normal visioned man marries a woman
fallopian tube? whose father was also colour blind, then his wife
(1) Zygote only would be a carrier of this disease if her mother
(2) Embryo only, up to 8 cell stage was normal. This trait is passed to children but
(3) Either zygote or early embryo up to 8 cell daughters produced by this couple are carriers
stage are not colourblind. 50% of sons would be
(4) Embryo of 32 cell stage colourblind.

Solution Choice (3) 153. The chromosome constitution 2n ––– 2 of an

organism represents
150. Cu2+ ions released from copper-releasing Intra
Uterine Devices (IUDs): (1) Monosomic (2) Nullisomic
(1) Prevent ovulation (3) Haploid (4) Trisomic
(2) Make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(3) Increase phagocytosis sperms Solution Choice (2)
(4) Suppress sperm motility

Solution Choice (4)
151. Which one of the following conditions correctly
describes the manner of determining the sex in
the given example?
(1) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ)
determine female sex in birds
(2) XO type of sex chromosomes determine male
sex in grasshopper
154. The difference between mRNA and tRNA is / are
that –
(a) mRNA has more elaborated 3-dimensional
structure due to extensive base – pairing
(b) tRNA has more elaborated 3-dimensional
structure due to extensive pairing
(c) tRNA is usually smaller than mRNA
(d) mRNA bears anticodon but tRNA has codons

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 (1) a and c (2) All of these 159. Haeckal’s theory of recapitulation (Biogenetic
(3) b and c (4) a, b and c law) means that:
(1) All organisms start as an egg
Solution Choice (3) (2) Life history of an animal reflects its
evolutionary history
(3) Progeny of an organism resembles its parents
155. Which one(s) / are correct?
(4) Body parts once lost are regenerated
(a) In prokaryotes single type of RNA polymerase
can transcribe mRNA, tRNA and rRNA
(b) In eukaryotes RNA polymerase I transcribes Solution Choice (2)
rRNA (28S, 18S and 5.8S) whereas RNA pol
III is responsible for transcription of tRNA, 5S 160. Name the first organic acid produced by
rRNA and Sn RNAs microbial fermentation:
(c) RNA pol II transcribes hnRNA in eukaryotes (1) Citric acid (2) Lactic acid
(d) Ribosomal large subunit has P and A-sites (3) Acetic acid (4) None of these
(1) a and c (2) All of these
(3) b, c and d (4) a, b and c Solution Choice (2)

Solution Choice (2) 161. The technique of obtaining large number of

plantlets by tissue culture method is called:
156. Which of the following is false? (1) Plantlet culture (2) Micropropagation
(1) Most plant viruses are RNA viruses (3) Organ culture (4) Macropropagation
(2) Most animal viruses are DNA viruses
(3) TMV has double stranded RNA molecule Solution Choice (2)
(4) T4 bacteriophage has double stranded DNA
molecule 162. Maximum application of animal cell culture
technology today is in the production of:
Solution Choice (3) (1) Insulin (2) Interferons
(3) Edible proteins (4) Vaccines
157. Bacteriophage is made up of:
(1) Carbon and nitrogen
Solution Choice (4)
(2) DNA
(3) Nucleoprotein (Nucleic acid + protein)
163. In tissue culture medium, the embryoids formed
(4) Protein only from pollen grains is due to:
(1) Organogenesis (2) Cellular totipotency
Solution Choice (3)
(3) Double fertilization (4) Test tube culture

158. A bacteriophage is:

Solution Choice (2)
(1) A virus attacking a bacterium
(2) A bacterium attacking a virus
164. Biotic potential is increase in population under:
(3) A stage in the life-cycle of bacterium
(1) Optimum conditions (2) Climatic conditions
(4) A virus attacking another virus
(3) Natural conditions (4) Given conditions

Solution Choice (1) Solution Choice (1)

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165. The abundance of a species population within its 170. Morphine, which is used as an analgesic is
habitat is called: obtained from:
(1) Relative density (2) Regional density (1) Taxus brevifolia
(3) Absolute density (4) Niche density (2) Papaver somniferum
(3) Cinchona officinalis
Solution Choice (4) (4) Berberis nilghiriensis

166. Which of the followings is not the characteristic of Solution Choice (2)
the anatomy of xerophytes?
(1) Well developed conducting tissue 171. Study the followings related to uses of plants and
(2) Spongy parenchyma identify the correct match for the sorghum and
(3) Thick cuticle cotton respectively.

(4) Well developed mechanical tissue I. Blood purification and organic fertilizer
II. Animal feed and paper industry
Solution Choice (2) III. 'B' Vitamin and cosmetics
IV. Explosives and organic fertilizer
167. Competition is most severe between two:
(1) Distantly related species growing in the same
The correct pair is:
habitat
(1) I, II
(2) Closely related species growing in the same
(2) II, III
habitat
(3) III, IV
(3) Closely related species growing in different
niches (4) II, IV
(4) Distantly related species growing in different
niches Solution Choice (4)

172. The Triticum aestivum (wheat) is:

Solution Choice (2)
(1) Haploid (7 chromosomes)
168. When one animal copies the appearance, (2) Diploid (14 chromosomes)
actions, or sounds of another animal to avoid (3) Tetraploid (30 chromosomes)
predators, it is called:
(4) Hexaploid (42 chromosomes)
(1) Mimicry (2) Commensalism
(3) Competition (4) Symbiosis Solution Choice (4)

Solution Choice (1) 173. In tissue culture medium, the embryoid formed
from pollen grain is due to:
169. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic (1) Cellular totipotency
engineering experiments are:
(2) Organogenesis
(1) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
(3) Double fertilization
(2) Rhizobium and Diplococcus
(4) Test tube culture
(3) Nitrosomonas and Kliebsiella
(4) Escherichia and Agrobacterium
Solution Choice (2)

Solution Choice (4)

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174. Select the correct statement from the ones given and B cell and T cell is specific for a particular
below? antigen
(1) Barbiturates when given to criminals make
them tell the truth 177. Pick up the correct pair:
(2) Morphine is often given to persons who have (1) Xenopsylla –– plague
undergone surgery as a pain killer (2) Pediculus –– Typhoid
(3) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and (3) Culex –– Human malaria
heart rate
(4) Stegomyia –– Yellow fever
(4) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it
stimulates recovery
Solution Choice (1)
Plague is transmitted by rat fleas (Xenopsella)
Solution Choice (2)

178. Which of the follwing is an accessory

175. Which one of the following is categorized as a
reproductive gland in male mammals?
parasite in true sense?
(1) Prostate gland
(1) The female Anopheles bites and sucks blood
from humans (2) Gastric gland

(2) Human foetus developing inside the uterus (3) Mushroom shaped gland
draws nourishment from the mother (4) Inguinal gland
(3) Head louse living on the human scalp as well
as laying eggs on human hair Solution Choice (1)
(4) The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow’s nest
179. The seminiferous tubules of the testis are lined
by the germinal epithelium consisting of:
Solution Choice (3)
(1) Cells of sertoli (2) Spermatocytes
Head louse is an obligate ectroparasite of human
(3) Spermatogonium (4) Spermatids
scalp and as well as laying eggs on human hair.

Solution Choice (1)

176. Select the correct statement with respect to
diseases and immunization:
(1) If due to some reason B-and T-lymphocytes 180. Sperm cells are produced in:
are damaged, the body will not produce (1) Seminiferous tubules (2) Interstitial space
antibodies against a pathogen (3) Epididymis (4) Prostate gland
(2) Injection of dead / inactivated pathogens
causes passive immunity Solution Choice (1)
(3) Certain protozoans have been used to mass
produce hepatitis B vaccine
(4) Injection of snake antivenom against snake
bite is an example of active immunization

Solution Choice (1)

B and T-lymphocytes produce antibodies against
pathogen in the body, if due to some reasons B
and T – lymphocytes are damaged the body will
not produce antibodies against a pathogen. Each

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