Isro Eectrical Question

INDIAN SPACE RESEARCH ORGANISATION
SET
Recruitment Entrance Test for Scientist/Engineer
‘SC’ 2017 A
1. An inductance of one H carrying a current of two amperes will store the energy of
(a) 2 watts (b) 2 joules
(c) 4 watts (d) 4 joules
2. The square waveform of current has following relation between r.m.s value and
average value
(a) r.m.s. value of current is greater than the average value
(b) r.m.s. value of current is less than the average value
(c) r.m.s. value of current is equal to the average value
(d) There is no definite relation between the r.m.s. value and average value for a
square wave
3. Two numbers of 500 ohms one watt resistors are connected in parallel. Their combined
resistance and wattage rating will be
(a) 250 ohms, 1 watt (b) 250 ohms, 2 watts
(c) 1000 ohms, 2 watts (d) 500 ohms, 2 watts
4. In a long uniform coil of inductance 2L and associated resistance 2R ohms is

physically cut in to two exact halves which are rewound in parallel. The resistance and
inductance of the combination are
(a) R and L (b) 2R and 2L
(c) R/2 and L/2 (d) R/4 and L/4
5. For transfer function of a physical two-port network

(a) All zeros must lie only in the left half of the s-plane
(b) All poles may lie anywhere in the s-plane
(c) The poles lying on the imaginary axis must be simple
(d) All the above
Electrical 3 May 2017

SET
‘SC’ 2017 A
6. The starting torque of a three phase induction motor can be increased by
(a) Increasing rotor reactance (b) Increasing rotor resistance
(c) Increasing stator resistance (d) None of the above
7. The capacitor start-capacitor run single phase induction motor is operationally a

(a) Single phase motor (b) Two phase motor
(c) Three phase motor (d) A.C. series motor
8. What would happen if the field of a D.C. shunt motor is opened?

(a) Speed will be reduced
(b) Continue to run normally
(c) Speed will enormously increase damaging the motor
(d) None of the above
9. Equalizer rings in D.C. generator with lap windings are used for
(a) Equal distribution of current at brush for sparkless commutation
(b) Prevention of harmonics
(c) Reduction of noise and vibration
(d) Avoiding overhang
10. The Buchholz relay is normally used to protect the

(a) Alternators against all internal faults
(b) Oil immersed transformers against all internal faults
(c) Synchronous motors against all internal faults
(d) Transmission lines against all short circuit faults
11. The power transformer is a
SET
‘SC’ 2017 A
(a) Constant current device (b) Constant voltage device
(c) Constant power device (d) Pulsating main flux device
12. A change of 5% in supply voltage to an induction motor will produce a change of

approximately
(a) 5% in the rotor torque (b) 7.5% in the rotor torque
(c) 10% in the rotor torque (d) 25% in the rotor torque
13. If the supply frequency to the transformer is increased, the iron loss
(a) Will increase (b) Will decrease
(c) Will not change (d) May reach zero
14. The maximum temperature permitted for class A insulation is

(a) 180 degree centigrade (b) 105 degree centigrade
(c) 120 degree centigrade (d) None of the above
15. Two transformers connected in parallel share load in the ratio of their KVA ratings,
provided their ohmic impedance are
(a) Equal (b) In direct ratio of their ratings
(c) In inverse ratio of their ratings (d) Purely reactive
16. The high frequency hum in the transformers is mainly due to

(a) Loose laminations (b) Magnetostriction
(c) Impurity in oil (d) Weakness of tank wall
17. A 400/200 volts transformer has pu impedance of 0.05. The HV side voltage required
to circulate full load current during short circuit test is

SET
‘SC’ 2017 A
(a) 20 V (b) 40 V
(c) 10 V (d) 5V
18. Non-loading heat run test on transformers is performed by means of

(a) SC test (b) OC test
(c) Core balance test (d) Sumpner’s test
19. A three phase induction motor is driving full-load torque which is independent of
speed. If the line voltage drops to 90% of the rated value, % increase in motor copper
losses
(a) 23% (b) –18%
(c) 123% (d) None of these
20. A synchronous generator is feeding power to infinite bus bars at unity power factor.
Its excitation is now increased. It will feed
(a) The same power but at a leading power factor
(b) The same power but at a lagging power factor
(c) More power at unity power factor
(d) Less power at unity power factor
21. The steam input in to a turbogenerator connected to infinite bus is increased. Which of
the events will take place?
(a) The generator will feed more leading KVAR to bus bar and power angle will not
change
(b) The generator will feed more real power to bus bar and power angle will increase
(c) The generator will feed more power to bus bar and power angle will decrease
(d) The generator will feed more lagging KVAR to bus bar and power angle will not
change
22. In an ideal transformer, which of the following statement is correct?
(a) no voltage drops in resistance or leakage reactance

SET
‘SC’ 2017 A
(b) mmf required to maintain main flux is small
(c) no core loss
(d) all the above are correct
23. The voltage applied to a transformer primary is increased keeping v/f fixed. How
will core loss and magnetizing current change?
(a) Core loss will increase and magnetizing current remain same
(b) Core loss will remain same and magnetizing current will remain same
(c) Core loss will decrease and magnetizing current will increase
(d) Core loss will remain same and magnetizing current will decrease
24. Frequencies in the UHF range normally propagate by means of
(a) Ground waves (b) Sky waves
(c) Surface waves (d) Space waves
25. Indicate the antenna that is not wideband
(a) Discone (b) Folded dipole
(c) Helical (d) Marconi
26. The depth of penetration of a wave in a lossy dielectric increases with increasing
(a) Conductivity (b) Permeability
(c) Wavelength (d) Permittivity

27. Copper behaves as a
(a) Conductor always
(b) Conductor or dielectric depending on field strength

SET
‘SC’ 2017 A
(c) Conductor or dielectric depending on frequency
(d) Conductor or dielectric depending on the electric current density
28. Assuming constant transmission efficiency, if voltage is increased ‘n’ times, the size of
the conductor would be
(a) Reduced to 1 n 2 that of the original
(b) Increased to n 2 that of the original
(c) Reduced to 1 n that of the original
(d) Increased to n times that of the original
29. Shunt conductance in overhead power transmission lines is primarily due to

(a) Leakage over the insulators
(b) Leakage over the conductors
(c) Leakage over the poles
(d) Leakage between ground and conductors
30. The dielectric strength of SF6 gas (used in circuit breakers) is approximately
(a) Same as that of air (b) 2 to 3 times more than air
(c) 10 to 20 times more than air (d) 2 to 3 times less than air
31. Ferranti effect states that under certain conditions, the sending end voltage is
(a) Less than receiving end voltage
(b) Greater than receiving end voltage
(c) Equal to receiving end voltage
(d) Not having any impact on the receiving end voltage
32. The equal area criterion of stability is applicable to
(a) Two machine system and infinite bus bars
(b) One machine system and infinite bus bars

SET
‘SC’ 2017 A
(c) Multi-machine system only
33. The power transmission capacity of the transmission line is

(a) Inversely proportional to the square of the voltage
(b) Proportional to the voltage
(c) Inversely proportional to the voltage
(d) Proportional to the square of the operating voltage
34. If the torque angle ‘delta’ increases indefinitely, the system indicates
(a) Steady state stability (b) Permanent stability
(c) Instability (d) None of the above
35. Resistance switching is normally employed in

(a) All breakers (b) Bulk oil breaker
(c) Minimum oil breaker (d) Air-blast circuit breaker
36. Series capacitors are used to

(a) Improve line frequency and eliminate harmonics
(b) Compensate for line inductive reactance
(c) Neutralise line capacitive reactance
37. Over fluxing protection is normally recommended for
(a) Generator transformers in power stations
(b) Auto-transformers in power stations
(c) Station transformers in power stations

SET
‘SC’ 2017 A
(d) Distribution transformers
38. In general AC distribution systems, arc interruption in vacuum circuit breakers are
designed to function in a time period of
(a) One cycle
(b) Two to three cycles
(c) Within ten cycles
39. Systems for Protection from negative sequence current is provided normally for
(a) Transformers (b) Generators
(c) Transmission lines (d) Motors
40. Bundled conductors are mainly used in high voltage overhead transmission lines to
(a) Reduce line loss (b) Reduce harmonics
(c) Reduce corona (d) Increase strength
41. Surge impedance of overhead transmission line is normally in the order of

(a) 1 – 5 ohms (b) 20 – 30 ohms
(c) 300 – 500 ohms (d) 300000 – 500000 ohms
42. The bode diagram approach is applied to

(a) Non-minimum phase network (b) Minimum phase network
(c) Any network of a control system (d) None of the above
43. Which of the following methods is the strongest tool to determine the stability and the
transient response of the system?
(a) Routh-Hurwitz criterion (b) Bode plot
(c) Nyquist plot (d) Root locus

SET
‘SC’ 2017 A
44. If the gain of a critically damped system is increased, it will become
(a) Under damped system (b) Over damped system
(c) Oscillatory system (d) Critically damped system
45. The frequency domain and time domain are related through
(a) Laplace transform (b) Gauss elimination
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
46. A system with characteristic equation s4 + 2 s3 + 11 s 2 + 18 s + 18 = 0 will have closed loop

poles such that
(a) All poles lie in the left half of the s-plane
(b) All poles lie in the right half of the s-plane
(c) Two poles lie symmetrically on the imaginary axis of the s-plane.
(d) No pole lies on the imaginary axis of the s-plane.
47. If the gain of an open loop system is doubled, the gain margin
(a) Is not affected (b) Gets double
(c) Becomes half (d) Becomes one-fourth
48. An all pass network imparts only

(a) Negative phase to the input
(b) Positive phase to the input
(c) +/–90 degree phase shift to the input
(d) +/–180 degree phase shift to the input
49. An ON-OFF controller is
(a) P controller (b) Integral controller
(c) Non-linear controller (d) PID controller

SET
‘SC’ 2017 A
50. The transfer function of a phase lead controller is (1 + 3Ts) / (1 + Ts). The maximum
value of phase provided by this controller is
(a) 90 (b) 60
(c) 45 (d) 30
51. The thermal time constant is the time
(a) To reach the final steady temperature if the initial rate of increase of
temperature were maintained constant
(b) To reach 63% of final steady temperature
(c) To reach 66.66% of final steady temperature
(d) To reach half of the final steady temperature
52. Which of the following circuit will have no transients?
(a) Pure resistive circuit (b) L-C Circuit
(c) R-L-C Circuit (d) R-L Circuit
53. A conductor of length 100 cm moves right angles to a magnetic field of flux density of
2 wb/sq.m. with the velocity of 25 m/second. The induced emf in the conductor will be
(a) 25 volts (b) 50 volts
(c) 75 volts (d) 100 volts

54. Which of the following devices are required to measure three phase balanced power?
(a) One watt meter
(b) One watt meter and one voltage transformer of 1 : 1 ratio
(c) One watt meter and two voltmeters

SET
‘SC’ 2017 A
55. The sensitivity of an instrument is
(a) The smallest increment in the input that can be detected with certainty
(b) The largest input change to which the instrument fails to respond
(c) Ratio of the change in the magnitude of the output to the corresponding change
in the magnitude of the input
(d) Closeness of the output values for repeated application of a constant input
56. Potentiometer sensitivity can be increased by

(a) Decreasing current in the potentiometer wire
(b) Increasing the length of the potentiometer wire
(c) Decreasing the length of the potentiometer wire
(d) Replacing the cell by a regulated power supply
57. Low resistance is measured with

(a) De Sauty’s bridge (b) Maxwell’s bridge
(c) Kelvin’s double bridge (d) Wien bridge
58. Which bridge is used to determine frequency?

(a) Anderson bridge (b) De Sautys bridge
(c) Wien bridge (d) Campell’s bridge
59. The core of a moving iron instrument is made up of permalloy to
(a) Increase sensitivity
(b) Reduce temperature effect
(c) Reduce effect of stray magnetic field
(d) Reduce the size of the instrument

SET
‘SC’ 2017 A
60. Accuracy is defined as
(a) The measure of consistency of the readings
(b) Closeness with which an instrument reading approaches the true value of the
quantity being measured
(c) The smallest measurable input change
(d) The ratio of the input to output
61. If three amplifiers having the same bandwidth are cascaded, the bandwidth of the
resulting amplifier will be
(a) Better than that of each stage
(b) Worse than that of each stage
(c) Same as that of each stage
62. An element is said to have negative resistance when
(a) The element has negative temperature coefficient
(b) The current / voltage curve has negative slope
(c) The element has negative specific resistance
(d) The current / voltage curve has a positive slope

63. The operational amplifiers are seldom used for differentiation because
(a) Of the problem of drift with differentiating circuits
(b) Because of the poor efficiency
(c) Because of the complex circuitry requirements
(d) The noises are amplified and this can be significant in the output.
64. Which of the following multivibrator is called the flip flop?

SET
‘SC’ 2017 A
(a) Astable multivibrator (b) Monostable multivibrator
(c) Bistable multivibrator (d) Both (b) and (c)
65. The amount of feedback applied to an amplifier reduces the gain by a factor of 10. The
bandwidth
(a) Decreases by factor of 10 (b) Increases by a factor of 10
(c) Remains the same (d) None of the above
66. In a negative feedback amplifier, the output impedance is decreased

(a) If the signal sampled is a voltage
(b) If the signal sampled is a current
(c) If the feedback signal is a voltage
(d) If the feedback signal is a current
67. The ROM consists of

(a) A decoder followed by an encoder
(b) An encoder followed by a decoder
(c) A multiplexer followed by a decoder
(d) A multivibrator
68. An ideal rectifier should have transformer utilization factor (TUF) of 1. If the actual
TUF is 3.5, it shows that
(a) Diode is under-loaded
(b) The transformer must be 3.5 times larger
(c) The transformer should be only 1/3.5 times the ideal size
(d) The ripple factor is low
69. A power MOSFET is a

SET
‘SC’ 2017 A
(a) Voltage controlled device (b) Current controlled device
(c) Frequency controlled device (d) None of the above
70. When transistors are used in series or parallel, a snubber circuit is used to
(a) Control the current
(b) Control the voltage
(c) Limit di dt
(d) All of these
lim 
x + sin x 
71.
x →∞ 
 equals to
x 
(a) –∞ (b) 0
(c) 1 (d) ∞
72. A fair (unbiased) coin was tossed four times in succession and resulted in the following
outcomes: (i) Head (ii) Head (iii) Head (iv) Head. The probability of getting a ‘Tail’
when the coin is tossed again is
(a) 0 (b) 1/2
(c) 4/5 (d) 1/5
 2 − 1
73. What are the eigen values of the following 2 × 2 matrix  ?
− 4 5 
(a) –1 and 1 (b) 1 and 6
(c) 2 and 5 (d) 4 and –1
π π
2 2
74. ∫ ∫ sin (x + y ) dx dy is
0 0

SET
‘SC’ 2017 A
(a) 0 (b) π
π
(c) (d) 2
2
75. In the Taylor series expansion of ex + sin x about the point x = π , the coefficient
(a) eπ (b) 0.5 eπ
(c) e π +1 (d) e π −1
76. A deck of five cards (each carrying a distinct number from 1 to 5) is shuffled
thoroughly. Two cards are then removed from the deck, one at a time. What is the
probability that the two cards are selected with the number of the first card being one
higher than the number on the second card?
1 4
(a) (b)
5 25
1 2
(c) (d)
4 5
5.2
77. Using trapezoidal rule for the table given below ∫ ln x dx will be
4
x: 4 4.2 4.4 4.6 4.8 5.0 5.2
Ln x : 1.39 1.44 1.48 1.53 1.57 1.61 1.65
(a) 1.8277 (b) 1.9284

(c) 1.6424 (d) 0.98795
2
78. Find the z transform of (n + 1)

SET
‘SC’ 2017 A
z 2 (2 z + 1) (2z + 1)
(a) (b)
(z − 1)3 (z − 1)3
2+z (3z + 2)
(c) (d)
(z − 1)2 z −1
79. Consider the following system of equations in three real variables x1 , x 2 and x3
2x1 − x 2 + 3x 3 = 1
3x1 − 2x 2 + 5x 3 = 2
− x1 − 4 x 2 + x3 = 3
The system of equations has :
(a) No solutions
(b) A unique solution
(c) More than one but a finite number of solutions
(d) An infinite number of solutions
80. Which of the following functions would have only odd powers of x in its Taylor series
expansion about the point x = 0?
(a) sin (x 3 ) (b) sin (x 2 )
(c) cos (x 3 ) (d) cos (x 2 )

–––––––––––––––––

SET
‘SC’ 2017 A
Space for rough work

SET
‘SC’ 2017 A
Space for rough work

INDIAN SPACE RESEARCH ORGANISATION SET
ELECTRICAL A
1. For the system to be stable, in a negative feedback systems, with increase of feedback loops
the range of gain (K)
(a) Reduces
(b) Increases
(c) Does not change
(d) Exponentially increases
2. What is the impulse response for the system indicated below?
t
1 −T
(a) e u(t ) (b) Te −Ttu(t )
T
t
1 −T
(c) e (d) Te −Tt
T
3. The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback control system is

K
G( s ) = . Determine the range of gain ‘K’ for the unity feedback
( s + 2) ( s + 1) ( s 2 + 6s + 25)
control system to be stable.
(a) + 200 < K < 666.25
(b) − 200 < K < 112.17
(c) − 200 < K < 666.25
(d) 0 < K < 200
BE005/BE008 3 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
10( s − 2 )
4. For the step response C ( s ) = find initial and final value of C (s ) .
s ( s 2 + 4 s + 5)
(a) Initial value = 0, Final value = 0

(b) Initial value = 0, Final value = –4
(c) Initial value = 0, Final value = cannot determine
(d) Initial value = cannot determine, Final value = 0
5. What is the condition for the below system to be critically damped?
L R L
(a) R =1 (b) =1
C 2 C
1 R C
(c) =1 (d) =1
LC 2 L
6. Transfer function of two compensators are:
100(S + 3) S + 200
C1 = C2 =
(S + 200) 100(S + 3)
Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) C1 - lead and C2 - lag
(b) C1 - lag and C2 - lead
(c) Both C1 and C2 are lag
(d) Both C1 and C2 are lead
BE005/BE008 4 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
7. In the system shown below, what is steady state error in unit ramp response?
R(s)
+ C(s)
1
–
s2(s+12)
5(s+1)
(s+5)
+1
–1
(a) 5/4 (b) 4/5

(c) 3/5 (d) 5/5
8. Typical root locus diagram of a system is shown below. Find the point where the system is
critically damped.
(a) At Point ‘A’ (b) At Point ‘B’

(c) At Points ‘C’ and ‘D’ (d) None of the above
BE005/BE008 5 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
9. If a network consists of ‘n’ number of principle nodes and ‘b’ numbers of branches. Then,
mesh analysis becomes simpler than nodal analysis if ‘n’ is greater than
(a) b −1 (b) b +1
(c) b/2 −1 (d) b/2 +1
10. What is the equivalent resistance between the terminals A and B?
2Ω 4Ω
2Ω 6Ω
(a) 2.5 Ω (b) 2.83 Ω

(c) 3.33 Ω (d) 2.86 Ω
11. Find R eqv. across the terminals A and B.
1Ω 1Ω 1Ω 1Ω
A
1Ω 1Ω 1Ω 1Ω
Reqv. ∞
1Ω 1Ω
B
1Ω 1Ω
(a) (1 + 2 ) Ω (b) (1 + 2 2 ) Ω
(c) (1 + 3 ) Ω (d) (1 + 2 3 ) Ω
BE005/BE008 6 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
12. Calculate i 0 for the circuit diagram given below :
2Ω
Ω
2Ω
Ω io
30V
3Ω 6Ω
(a) 5/3 A (b) –5/3 A

(c) 10/3 A (d) –10/3 A
13. In the circuit given below, calculate the value of R xy .
20 kΩ
x
ix 99ix
200 Ω Rxy
(a) 100 Ω (b) 200 Ω

(c) 198.01 Ω (d) 20 kΩ
14. Calculate i x in the circuit diagram given below:

2Ω
1Ω
Ω
→
2 ix
ix
10V 4Ω 2Ω
(a) 2A (b) 10 A
(c) 5A (d) None of the above
BE005/BE008 7 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
15. For the circuit given below, what is the value of Thevenin equivalent resistance (Rth) across
the terminals x and y.
2Ω 20 V
1Ω
ia 5ia Rth
1Ω
(a) +1/2 Ω (b) –1/2 Ω

(c) 1Ω (d) 2Ω
16. What is the resonant frequency of circuit shown below?

Where R = 10 Ω, L1 = L2 = 20 mH, Mutual Inductance M = 5 mH, C = 0.05 µH.
L1
Vs M C
L2
(a) 4.18 kHz (b) 2.88 kHz

(c) 5.18 kHz (d) 3.18 kHz
BE005/BE008 8 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
17. What is the time constant of the circuit shown below, when t = 0 the Switch S is closed?
2Ω t=0
2Ω 2Ω
10 V 20µF 2Ω
(a) 26.67 µSec (b) 80 µSec

(c) 16 µSec (d) 24 µSec
18. At time t = 0 Switch S is closed in the circuit shown. What is the expression for the current
i(t) through the inductor?
20 Ω 20 Ω
t=0
60 V
S
20 Ω 2H ↓i(t)
(a) 6 − (3 × e −10 t ) (b) 6 − (3 × e −10 t / 3 )
(c) 6 − ( 3 × e −5 t ) (d) 6 − (3 × e −5 t / 3 )
BE005/BE008 9 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
19. Determine the steady state voltage across the capacitor C1 and C2 shown in the circuit
below. Initial voltage across VC2 = 0 V .
a b
1Ω 1Ω
t=0
S
10 V
C1 C2
6F 3F
(a) VC1 = VC2 = 20 / 3 V (b) VC1 = VC2 = 10 / 3 V
(c) VC1 = 20 / 3 V and VC2 = 10 / 3 V (d) VC1 = 10 / 3 V and VC2 = 20 / 3 V
20. What is the dynamic Impedance offered by Ideal tank circuit in a network?
(a) Zero (b) Resistive
(c) Infinity (d) None of the above
21. Find the voltage drop (Vd) across Silicon diode in the circuit below.
+ Vd -
Diode
2A 2Ω
(a) 0.7 V (b) 0.3 V

(c) 0.42 V (d) 0.052 V
BE005/BE008 10 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
22. In the circuit given below Inductor used is ideal inductor, What is the conduction angle of
diode?
Diode
Vs
Ideal Inductor
(a) 90° (b) 180°
(c) 270° (d) 360°
23. A single phase full bridge converter supplies power to constant current load. If the
triggering angle is 45°, what is the input power factor of the converter?
(a) 0.637
(b) 0.837
(c) 0.937
24. Input voltage v = 230 sin (100 π t ) Volts is given to a converter and the current drawn by the
 π  π
converter is i = 20 sin100π t −  + 10 sin(300 π t + 45o ) + 2 sin 700 π t −  Amps . What is the
 3  6
active power drawn by the converter?
(a) 2300 W (b) 1150 W
(c) 4324 W (d) 2162 W
BE005/BE008 11 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
25. If a boost converter operates with a duty ratio D = 1 then output voltage is
(a) Infinity
(b) Input voltage
(c) Zero
(d) Two times the input voltage
26. In a single phase asymmetrical half controlled rectifier with firing angle ‘ α ’ feeds a constant
current load. What will be conduction angle of diodes?
(a) π +α (b) π −α
(c) 2α (d) 2π
27. In a three phase half controlled rectifier with constant current load and freewheeling diode,
what is the fraction of cycle the diode conducts? Consider firing angle ( α ) of thyristors
greater than 60°.
(a) (α − π / 3) / 2 π
(b) (α + π / 3) / 2 π
(c) (α − π / 3) × 3 / 2 π
(d) (α + π / 3) × 3 / 2 π
28. A step down chopper operates from a D.C. voltage source Vs = 400 V and feeds a DC motor
armature with a back emf Eb = 300 V. From the oscilloscope traces it is found that the
current rises for a time tr = 10 m sec and falls to zero over time tf = 5 m sec and remains zero
for a time of to = 6 m sec in every chopping cycle. Then, average DC voltage across the
freewheeling diode will be
(a) 276 V (b) 257 V
(c) 262 V (d) 300 V
BE005/BE008 12 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
29. A single phase inverter has a square wave output voltage. What is the percentage of fifth
harmonic component in relation to fundamental component present in the output voltage?
(a) 40% (b) 30%
(c) 20% (d) 10%
30. In the LC circuit shown in the figure initial current through the inductor is zero, initial
voltage across the capacitor is 100 V. Switch S is closed at t = 0 sec. The current through the
circuit is
L= 20mH
S –
C = 1µF 100 V
t=0 +
(a) 7.07 sin (7.07 × 103 t )
(b) 0.707 cos (7.07 × 103 t )
(c) 0.707 sin (7.07 × 103 t )
(d) 7.07 cos (7.07 × 103 t )
31. Two DC machines are mechanically coupled. One is operating as a motor and the other as
generator. The iron and frictional losses of the machines will be identical when:
(a) Their speeds are identical
(b) Their speeds and excitation are identical
(c) Their speeds are equal and back emfs are half the supply voltage
(d) Their armature sizes are identical
BE005/BE008 13 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
32. If the terminal voltage of a DC shunt motor is halved, keeping load torque varying as square
of speed. Then, which of the following statements are correct?
i. Speed is halved
ii. Speed remains unaltered
iii. Armature current is doubled
iv. Armature current is unaltered
(a) i and iii (b) i and iv
(c) ii and iii (d) ii and iv
33. A DC shunt motor is excited from voltage source and its brush axis rotated by an angle ‘ α ’
from the geometrical neutral axis. The torque developed will be proportional to:
(a) sin α (b) cos α
(c) tan α (d) cos 2α
34. If the current drawn by a DC series motor is increased from 10 A to 12 A (neglect

saturation), what is the increase in torque expressed as percentage of initial torque?
(a) 21% (b) 25%
(c) 41% (d) 44%
35. Following data are obtained by slip test on a salient pole machine:
Idmax = 10 A Idmin = 6.5 A
Vdmax = 30 V Vdmin = 25 V
What is the direct axis reactance ‘Xd’ and quadrature axis reactance ‘Xq’?
(a) Xd = 3 Ω, Xq = 3.86 Ω (b) Xd = 4.61 Ω, Xq = 2.5 Ω
(c) Xd = 3 Ω, Xq = 2.5 Ω (d) Xd = 4.61 Ω, Xq = 3.86 Ω
BE005/BE008 14 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
36. Two mechanically coupled alternators deliver power at 50 Hz and 60 Hz respectively. What
is the highest speed of the alternators?
(a) 3600 rpm (b) 3000 rpm
(c) 600 rpm (d) 500 rpm
37. A 3 Phase, 11 kV, 5 MVA alternator has synchronous reactance of 10 Ω per phase. Its
excitation is such that the generated emf is 14 kV. If the alternator is connected to infinite
bus the maximum output of the alternator at a given excitation is
(a) 15400 kW (b) 8000 kW
(c) 6200 kW (d) 5135 kW
38. The resultant flux density in the air gap of synchronous generator is lowest during:
(a) Open Circuit (b) Solid Short Circuit
(c) Full Load (d) Half Load
39. A voltmeter gives 120 oscillations per minute when connected to the rotor of an induction
motor. When the stator frequency is 50 Hz, what is the slip of the motor?
(a) 2% (b) 2.5%
(c) 4% (d) 5%
40. A 6 pole, 3 phase alternator running at 1000 rpm supplies power to an 8 pole, 3 phase,
induction motor which has a rotor current of frequency 2 Hz. What is the speed at which the
motor operates?
(a) 1000 rpm (b) 960 rpm
(c) 750 rpm (d) 720 rpm
BE005/BE008 15 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
41. A 4 kVA, 400 V/200 V single phase transformer has resistance of 0.02 p.u and reactance of
0.06 p.u. The resistance and reactance referred to HV side are
(a) 0.2 Ω and 0.6 Ω (b) 0.8 Ω and 2.4 Ω
(c) 0.08 Ω and 0.24 Ω (d) 2 Ω and 6 Ω
42. A 100/5 A bar primary current transformer supplies an overcurrent relay set at 25% pick up
and it has a burden of 5 VA. The secondary voltage is
(a) 1V (b) 1.25 V
(c) 2.5 V (d) 4V
43. The distribution system indicated below is to be protected with overcurrent protection.
Identify the locations where essentially directional overcurrent relays will be required
considering proper fault discrimination.
Bus-1 Bus-2 Bus-3
Br-1 Br-2 Br-3 Br-4

Grid Grid
Br-6 Br-5
Br-7 Load
Bus-4
Grid
(a) Br-1, Br-4, Br-8 and Br-7 (b) Br-2, Br-3, Br-5 and Br-6
(c) Br-2, Br-3 and Br-6 (d) Br-1, Br-4, Br-7, Br-5
BE005/BE008 16 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
44. Impedance of single phase, two winding transformer referred to primary side is 0.1 + j 0.6 p.u.
The rating of the transformer is 200 V/400 V, 1 kVA. The per unit impedance is calculated
on transformer base, then what is the equivalent impedance of transformer referred to
secondary in ohms?
(a) 80+ j 400 Ω (b) 5 + j 25 Ω
(c) 16 + j 80 Ω (d) None of the above
45. What is the order of sequence of impedance in salient pole alternator?

(a) Z1 > Z2 > Z0 (b) Z1 < Z2 < Z0
(c) Z0 > Z1 > Z2 (d) None of the above
46. A schematic diagram of an alternator is shown below where Van = Vbn = Vcn = V1.
If a single phase to ground fault occurs at location ‘a’, what will be the voltage at ‘b’ and ‘c’?
(a) Vbn = Vcn = 3 V1 (b) Vbn = Vcn = V1
(c) Vbn = Vcn = 0 (d) None of the above
BE005/BE008 17 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
47. Which among the following are suitable for improving the transient stability limits of a
power system?
i. Increase system voltage by AVR
ii. Use high speed excitation systems
iii. Use high speed reclosing breakers
iv. Increase system frequency
(a) i, ii and iv (b) i, iii and iv
(c) i, ii, iii and iv (d) i, ii and iii
48. The Ybus matrix of a 100 bus interconnected system is 80% sparse. Then, the number of
transmission lines in the system must be
(a) 950 (b) 3000
(c) 1900 (d) 1500
49. What is the size of a Jacobian matrix for a 100 bus power system with 29 nos. of voltage
controlled buses?
(a) 29 × 29 (b) 170 × 170
(c) 169 × 169 (d) 30 × 30
50. The inductance of power transmission line increases with
(a) Decrease in line length
(b) Increase in diameter of conductor
(c) Increase in spacing between phase conductors
(d) Increase in load current carried by the conductor
BE005/BE008 18 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
51. Two buses in a system are maintained at the voltages V1 = 1.25∠ 30° and
V2 = 1.35∠ 25°. Bus 1 and Bus 2 are interconnected by a transmission line of impedance
(1.3 + j 7) Ω. The power flow direction is
(a) Real power flows from Bus 1 to Bus 2
(b) Real power flows from Bus 2 to Bus 1
(c) No real power flows between the buses
(d) Reactive power flows from Bus 2 to Bus 1
52. Inductance of transmission line for a length of 400 kms in unsymmetrical configuration are:
LR = 30 mH LY = 20 mH LB = 25 mH
What will be the inductance of each transmission line after transposing?
(a) LR = LY = LB = 30 mH
(b) LR = LY = LB = 20 mH
(c) LR = LY = LB = 25 mH
(d) LR = LY = LB = 75 mH
53. A short transmission line is having series impedance Z = 0.07 + j 0.12 p.u. If the
transmission line is operating under full load at leading p.f, what will be the possible voltage
regulation of transmission line?
(a) 17% (b) 5%
(c) 9% (d) 12%
BE005/BE008 19 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
54. Three networks are connected in cascade as shown below:
Z2
Z1 Z3
A B C D parameters of the system is:
A B  2.0∠ − 10o 5∠30o 

C = 
 D  1.0∠ − 20o 4.0∠10o 
What is the value of Z2?
(a) 5∠30o (b) 2∠10o
(c) 0.2∠20o (d) 1∠20o
55. The surge impedance of 400 km long overhead transmission line is 300 Ω. For a 200 km
length of the same transmission line surge impedance will be
(a) 150 Ω (b) 600 Ω
(c) 300 Ω (d) 75 Ω
56. In a power network, 380 kV is recorded at a 400 kV bus. A 60 MVAR, 400 kV shunt reactor
is connected to the bus. What is the reactive power absorbed by the shunt reactor?
(a) 57 MVAR (b) 54.15 MVAR
(c) 66.48 MVAR (d) 63.16 MVAR
BE005/BE008 20 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
57. Insulation resistance of a cable of length 20 km is 2 MΩ. What will be the insulation
resistance of the same cable but for a length of 200 km?
(a) 2 MΩ (b) 20 MΩ
(c) 0.2 MΩ (d) 200 MΩ
58. What is the 2’s Complement of binary number 0010 0110 1001 1101?
(a) 0010 0110 1001 1110
(b) 1101 1001 0110 0010
(c) 1101 1001 0110 1101
(d) 1101 1001 0110 0011
59. Zero has two representations in
(a) Sign magnitude (b) 1’s complement
(c) 2’s complement (d) None of the above
60. What is the output of XOR gate with A and B as input?
(a) AB + AB (b) ( A + B )( A + B )
(c) ( A + B ) AB (d) ( A + B ) + AB
61. How many numbers of half adders are required for m-bit numbers?
(a) 2 ×m −1 (b) 2m − 1
(c) 2 ×m +1 (d) 2×m
BE005/BE008 21 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
62. A Mod-6 counter is realized using 3 Nos. of flip-flops. The counter will skip
(a) 4 Counts
(b) 3 Counts
(c) 2 Counts
(d) Zero Counts
63. An amplifier with negative feedback has overall gain of 100. The percentage change in gain
with feedback and without feedback is 3% and 18% respectively. What is the feedback
factor?
(a) 0.05 (b) 0.02
(c) 0.04 (d) 0.10
64. Two voltmeters with ranges of 0 to 100 V has sensitivities as 10 kΩ/V and 20 kΩ/V. What is
the maximum voltage that can be measured when these voltmeters are connected in series?
(a) 200 V
(b) 150 V
(c) 100 V
65. An ammeter with range 0 to 2 mA has internal resistance of 10 Ω. What is the value of
shunt resistance in order to increase the range of ammeter to 100 A?
(a) 200 µΩ (b) 200 mΩ
(c) 2 µΩ (d) 2000 mΩ
BE005/BE008 22 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
66. In a Dynamometer type wattmeter if current coil and voltage coil connections are
interchanged then
(a) Current coil will damage
(b) Voltage coil will damage
(c) No damage
67. In a linear system, an input of 5 sin ω t produces an output of 10 cos ω t . The output
corresponding to input 10 cos ω t will be equal to:
(a) + 5 sin ω t
(b) − 5 sin ω t
(c) + 20 sin ω t
(d) − 20 sin ω t
68. In an induction motor r′2 is the rotor resistance. What is the resistance representing
mechanical output in the equivalent circuit of an induction motor as referred to stator side?
1 
(a) r2′  − 1  (b) r22 / s
s 
1 
(c) r22  −1  (d) r2′ / s
s 
BE005/BE008 23 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
69. The pressure coil of a dynamometer type wattmeter is
(a) Highly inductive
(b) Highly resistive
(c) Purely resistive
(d) Purely inductive
70. What is the octal equivalent of Hexadecimal number CD.AB?
(a) 320.506 (b) 215.546
(c) 205.516 (d) 315.526
71. The present age of father is twice that of the elder son. 10 years later the age of the father
will be three times that of the younger son. If the difference of ages of the two sons is
15 years, the age of father is
(a) 50 years
(b) 100 years
(c) 70 years
(d) 60 years
72. The volume of a cone is equal to that of a cylinder whose height is 9 cm and diameter 60 cm.
find the radius of the base of cone if its height is 108 cm.
(a) 12 cm (b) 18 cm
(c) 10 cm (d) 15 cm
BE005/BE008 24 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
73. Traffic light at one particular crossing change after every 40 seconds. The traffic light at the
next crossing changes after every 32 seconds. At a certain time they change together. After
what time they will change together?
(a) 2 min. 40 sec.
(b) 1 min. 20 sec.
(c) 3 min. 20 sec.
(d) 2 min. 20 sec.
74. A merchant has 120kg of rice. He sells a part of it at a profit of 10 % and the rest at a profit
of 25%. He gains 15% on the whole. The quantity of rice sold at a profit of 25% is
(a) 50 kg (b) 55 kg
(c) 40 kg (d) 30 kg
75. A software engineer has a capability of thinking 100 lines of code in 5 minutes and can type
100 lines of code in 10 minutes. He takes a break of 5 minutes after every 10 minutes. How
many lines of codes will he complete typing in 8 hours?
(a) 1600 lines (b) 2100 lines
(c) 2133 lines (d) 2400 lines
617 π
76. What is the value of K = ∫|sin x | dx ?
0
(a) 617 (b) 1234
(c) Zero (d) 617 π
BE005/BE008 25 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
77. Matrix A has following eigen values λ1 = +3 j , λ2 = +5 j , λ3 = +1 j , then the matrix is
(a) Symmetric matrix
(b) Skew Hermitian matrix
(c) Orthogonal matrix
78. In a school, 45% of the students play football, 30% of students play cricket and 15% of
students play both. If a student is selected at random what is the probability that he plays
football or cricket?
(a) 1/4 (b) 2/7
(c) 3/5 (d) 4/5
x2
79. The maximum value of function ( xy )6 on the ellipse + y2 = 1 occur at a point ( x , y ) for
4
which y2 is equal to
(a) 2 /3 (b) 1/2
(c) 2/3 (d) 5 / 11
dy
80. y = tan −1 ( x 2 / 2) what is ?
dx
(a) 4 x /(4 + x ) (b) 4 /(4 + x 2 )
(c) x /(4 + x 2 ) (d) 4 x /(4 + x 2 )
–––––––––––––––––––
BE005/BE008 26 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
BE005/BE008 27 April 2018

ELECTRICAL A
BE005/BE008 28 April 2018

Isro Eectrical Question

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Isro Eectrical Question

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

INDIAN SPACE RESEARCH ORGANISATION

4. In a long uniform coil of inductance 2L and associated resistance 2R ohms is

5. For transfer function of a physical two-port network

Electrical 3 May 2017

7. The capacitor start-capacitor run single phase induction motor is operationally a

8. What would happen if the field of a D.C. shunt motor is opened?

10. The Buchholz relay is normally used to protect the

12. A change of 5% in supply voltage to an induction motor will produce a change of

14. The maximum temperature permitted for class A insulation is

16. The high frequency hum in the transformers is mainly due to

Electrical 5 May 2017

18. Non-loading heat run test on transformers is performed by means of

(a) no voltage drops in resistance or leakage reactance

Electrical 6 May 2017

(c) no core loss

(d) all the above are correct

24. Frequencies in the UHF range normally propagate by means of

(a) Ground waves (b) Sky waves

(c) Surface waves (d) Space waves

25. Indicate the antenna that is not wideband

(a) Discone (b) Folded dipole

(c) Helical (d) Marconi

(a) Conductivity (b) Permeability

(c) Wavelength (d) Permittivity

Electrical 7 May 2017

29. Shunt conductance in overhead power transmission lines is primarily due to

Electrical 8 May 2017

33. The power transmission capacity of the transmission line is

35. Resistance switching is normally employed in

36. Series capacitors are used to

Electrical 9 May 2017

41. Surge impedance of overhead transmission line is normally in the order of

42. The bode diagram approach is applied to

Electrical 10 May 2017

46. A system with characteristic equation s4 + 2 s3 + 11 s 2 + 18 s + 18 = 0 will have closed loop

48. An all pass network imparts only

(a) P controller (b) Integral controller

(c) Non-linear controller (d) PID controller

Electrical 11 May 2017

51. The thermal time constant is the time

(b) To reach 63% of final steady temperature

(c) To reach 66.66% of final steady temperature

(d) To reach half of the final steady temperature

52. Which of the following circuit will have no transients?

(a) Pure resistive circuit (b) L-C Circuit

(c) R-L-C Circuit (d) R-L Circuit

(a) 25 volts (b) 50 volts

(c) 75 volts (d) 100 volts

Electrical 12 May 2017

56. Potentiometer sensitivity can be increased by

57. Low resistance is measured with

58. Which bridge is used to determine frequency?

(b) Reduce temperature effect

(c) Reduce effect of stray magnetic field

(d) Reduce the size of the instrument

Electrical 13 May 2017

(a) The measure of consistency of the readings

(c) The smallest measurable input change

(d) The ratio of the input to output

(a) Better than that of each stage

(b) Worse than that of each stage

(c) Same as that of each stage

(d) None of the above

62. An element is said to have negative resistance when