Professional Documents
Culture Documents
1. Which of the following statements does not describe a property or characteristic of glucose.
a) Glucose is an aldoheptose.
Answer: a
c) which always give a positive Benedict's test as well as a positive Tollen's test.
Answer: a
3. Fructose is:
a) an aldopentose sugar.
c) a monosaccharide of lactose.
Answer: d
a) sucrose
b) dextrose
c) lactose
d) maltose
Answer: c
c) Their solubility in water is a result of the many hydroxyl groups dispersed through out the
molecule.
Answer: b
a) The carbon atom is single bonded to four different atoms or groups of atoms.
Answer: b
Answer: c
b) indigestible polysaccharides, such as starch and cellulose have been completely or partial
hydrolyzed to maltose.
c) heating destroys the carbonyl bond within these compounds.
d) the glycosidic linkages have condensed producing a mixture of dextrin, maltose and
glucose.
Answer: b
a) monosaccharide
b) disaccharide
c) glucose
d) hemiacetal
Answer: a
10. The actual ring structure of a carbohydrate is not a true ring shape as is drawn when
using the formulas, but really should be drawn in a form.
b) molecular, straight-chain
d) chemical, cyclic
Answer: c
11. Which of the following statements does not accurately characterize or describe
enantiomers:
a) When enantiomers are equally mixed together they become optically active.
b) Enantiomers are compounds who have a mirror image or twin-like molecular structures.
Answer: a
b) lactose
c) starch
d) glycogen
Answer: d
13. The designations alpha and beta indicates whether the on the carbon numbered as #1 in
a monosaccharide is or the plane of the molecule.
Answer: c
14. The designations alpha and beta indicates the position of the between two
monosaccharides in a .
Answer: b
15. To make some starches more soluble, phosphate ester groups are inserted into these
straight-chain molecules. Inserting phosphate ester groups .
a) disrupts the molecule's intermolecular forces thereby permitting water to disperse within the
chain more effectively.
b) changes the chemical composition of the starches, thereby decreasing their polarity.
c) alters their optical reactivity and thus causes their solubility to increase.
d) all of the above are true.
Answer: a
16. The Benedict's test is used to determine whether or not a mono or disaccharide is a:
a) simple sugar
b) reducing sugar
c) pentose sugar
d) polyhydroxyl sugar
Answer: b
17. The final product produced when starch is completely hydrolyzed is:
a) dextrin
b) sucrose
c) glucose
d) carbon dioxide
Answer: c
c) a ionic bond
d) is a hydrogen bond
Answer: a
19. Fructose is also known as levulose. This name suggest that fructose most abundant
enantiomer:
d) is a ketoheptose sugar.
Answer: b
Answer: b
21. There is a(n) relationship between the number of unsaturated bonds in a fatty acid and
their melting point. As the degree of unsaturation in the fatty acid's carbon chain, its melting
point will .
Answer: c and d
22. Soap improves the cleansing power of water, because soap molecules have two portions:
Answer: a
23. Which of the following statements is not true about a fat or oil's iodine number test:
a) It is a measure of the degree of unsaturation in a fat or oil.
b) It is the amount of iodine in grams that will react with 100 grams of saponifiable lipid.
d) The larger the value of the iodine number the fewer the number of double bonds present in
the fat or oil.
Answer: d
a) halogenation
b) hydrogenation
c) hydration
d) hydrolysis
Answer: b
a) tollen's test.
b) iodine/starch test.
c) benedict's test.
Answer: d
26. Fat metabolism diseases, such as the Tay-Sachs disease, are most often associated with
having a deficiency in specific enzymes which hydrolyze . In Tay-Sachs, the enzyme
-galactosidase, is missing or is present in extreme low quantities.
a) phospholipids
b) cholesterol
c) glycolipids
d) triglycerides
Answer: c
27. Glycerol is an alcohol which can be classified as triol. Triols are alcohols which have:
Answer: c
28. A fatty acid that contains a mixture of single and double bonds is said to be:
a) unsaturated.
b) saturated.
c) nonsaponifiable.
d) saponifiable.
Answer: a
29. Triglycerides are glycerols which have had of their hydroxyl groups esterified with fatty
acids.
a) none
b) one
c) two
d) all
Answer: d
a) mineral acids.
b) carboxylic acids.
c) phosphoric acids.
d) weak acids.
Answer: b
31. The bond between a glycerol molecule and a fatty acid in a lipid is called a:
a) glyceride bond
b) hydrogen bond
c) ester bond
d) glycosidic bond
Answer: c
b) cholesterolase
c) terpene
d) sterol
Answer: a
33. A lipid is a fat or oil which can undergo hydrolysis in alkaline solutions. When triglycerides
undergo hydrolysis in an alkaline solution and the salts of the are produced.
Answer: c
34. The rancidity of fats and oils is caused either by the or the of the lipid's fatty acids
molecules.
a) hydration, reduction
b) hybridization, reflexation
c) hydrogenation, oxidation
d) hydrolysis, oxidation
Answer: d
35. The hydrogenation of a(n) fatty acid converts all the bonds to , bonds.
Answer: c
b) Lipids are a diversified group of compounds, whose common characteristic is that they are
insoluble in water.
Answer: a
37. Unsaturated fatty acids are often grouped by the and of bonds within the molecule's
carbon chain.
Answer: b
38. An unsaturated fatty acid given the shorthand code of (14:4n-2) means this particular fatty
acid has carbon atoms, bonds, with the first double bond beginning at the carbon from the
molecule's methyl end.
Answer: c
39. A simple saponifiable lipid differs from a compound saponifiable lipid by the products it
yields when it undergoes:
a) saponification
b) hydrolysis
c) hydrogenation
d) hydration
Answer: b
40. Which of the following chemical substances can not be classified as a lipid?
a) beef tallow
b) linseed oil
c) lanolin
d) amylose
Answer: d
41. When determining the iodine number for an unsaturated fatty acid, it is the of the molecule
that reacts with the iodine.
a) carboxylic acid
b) hydroxyl group
c) alkene bonds
d) alkane bonds
Answer: c
CH3CH2CH=CHCH2CH=CHCH2CH=CH(CH2)7COOH
a) (12:9n-3)
b) (13:3n-3
c) (15:3n-9)
d) (18:n-3)
Answer: d
43. An esterification reaction with the two moles of the above fatty acid one mole of glycerol
and one mole of galactose would produce a:
a) simple lipid
b) nonsaponifiable lipid
c) glycolipid
d) sterol
Answer: c
Fatty acid labeled #1 has an iodine number of 185, whereas fatty acid labeled #2 has an
iodine number of 130.
Answer: b
Answer: b
Given the following amino acid and their alkyl (-R) groups:
Answer: alanine
47. The amino acid when undergoing an oxidation reaction would yield a aldehyde group.
Answer: serine
48. The amino acid whose chemical and physical properties are most similar to ethanamine:
Answer: lysine
Answer: asparagine
50. The amino acid(s) which when placed in an electric field at a pH of 7 would migrate
towards the positive pole.
Answer: lysine
Questions #51 through #55
a) peptide
b) dipeptide
c) tripeptide
d) oligopeptide
Answer: d
52. If the above molecule were to be placed in an electric field a pH of 7 the molecule would
most likely:
Answer: b
53. The N-terminal end of the above molecule is the amino acid:
a) Ala
b) Phe
c) His
d) Asn
Answer: b
a) primary structure
b) secondary structure
c) tertiary structure
d) quaternary structure
Answer: a
a) H3N+-Phe-Asn-Ala-His-COOH
b) H2N+-Phe-Asn-Ala-His-COO-
c) H3N+-Phe-Asn-Ala-His-COO-
d) H2N-Phe-Asn-Ala-His-COO-
Answer: c
56. Given the following amino acids and their alkyl (-R) groups
a) glycine
b) aspartic acid
c) serine
d) lysine
Answer: a
d) Its quaternary and tertiary structure play an important role in its functionality.
Answer: b
58. Which of the following is not an interaction or linkage observed in maintaining a protein's
tertiary structure:
a) disulfide bridges
b) hydrophobic interactions
c) hydrogen bonding
d) ionic bonding
Answer: d
59. The ionic interactions between lysine's amino group and aspartic acid's carbonyl group
result in the formations of in a protein's tertiary structure.
a) hydrophilic bridges
b) amide linkages
c) salt bridges
d) peptide linkages
Answer: c
60. The interaction or bonding most prevalent in a protein's secondary structure is:
a) amide linkage
b) disulfide bridges
c) salt bridges
d) hydrogen bonding
Answer: d
61. Organic reagents, such as ethanol, have the greatest disruptive effect on a protein's
native configuration because:
b) they interfere with the hydrophobic interactions between the non polar amino acid side
chains.
c) they disrupt the hydrogen bonding and salt bridges between the protein's amino acids.
d) they disrupt the amide linkages between the individual amino acids.
Answer: b
62. The bond between individual amino acid molecules is called a peptide bond. A peptide
bond is a(n)
a) ester bond
b) amide bond
c) ionic bond
d) amine bond
Answer: b
Answer: c
64. Denaturation is the disruption of a protein's tertiary structure. Which of the following
solvents would not have denature a protein.
a) ethanol
b) acetone
c) acetic acid
d) water
Answer: d
65. A protein is soluble at its .
a) most, normal pH
b) least, normal pH
c) least, pI
d) most, pI
Answer: c
a) coenzyme
b) apoenzyme
c) proenzyme
d) cofactor
Answer: c
67. Which of the following does not describe the active site of an enzyme:
a) It is enantiomer specific.
Answer: b
69. Ribonuclease hydrolyzes ribonucleic acids. Its enzymes is part of a class of enzymes
known as the hydrolase.
70. Enzymes which catalyze the removal of hydrogen atoms from a substrate belong to the
dehydrogenases group of enzymes.
71. The amide linkages between amino acid groups in a protein are very stable and inert from
changes in pH, solvents and salt concentrations. These bonds can be broken by the
peptidases.
72. In order for oxygen to combine with a substrate it must be activated by this class of
enzymes, the oxidases.
74. When an amino acid's functional group at the enzyme's active site or a cofactor, such as
iron, are destroyed or permanently altered, the enzyme's functionality decease. This type of
enzyme inhibition is referred to as .
a) denaturation inhibition
b) irreversible inhibition
c) reversible inhibition
Answer: b
75. inhibition of a enzyme's activity can result from either inhibition, where an inhibitor alters
the tertiary shape of the enzyme or inhibition, where an inhibitor vies with the substrate for the
enzyme's active site.
Answer: d
76. The use of antibiotics to fight bacteria infections and 5-flurouracil, an antimetabolite used
to destroy cancer cells, both work by an enzyme's activity.
a) irreversibly inhibiting
b) destroying
c) reversibly inhibiting
d) denaturalizing
Answer: c
77. The or enzyme is inhibited by the final or end product of a multienzyme step metabolic
process. This type of enzyme activity inhibition is referred to as inhibition.
Answer: a
78. Which of the following statements is not true about allosteric enzymes.
a) They can be inhibited by the end product of a metabolic process they initially catalyzed.
c) Their flexibility allows them to deactivate an enzyme's active site, thus making the site more
or less receptive to the substrate.
d) They have only one site of attachment for both the substrate and the regulatory enzyme.
Answer: d
79. Hormones are considered to be messengers, whereas cyclic AMP acts as a messenger.
Cyclic Amp is activated only when a hormone .
a) proenzyme, intracellular, passes through the cell membrane and attaches itself to a
receptor site in the cell's nucleus.
b) primary, secondary, attaches at a specific receptor site on the outside of the cellular
membrane.
d) coenzyme, proenzyme, passes through the cell membrane and attaches itself to the cell's
intracellular receptor site.
Answer: b
a) Vitamins need to be supplemented through diet because either the body can not
manufacture the vitamin or it can not synthesize sufficient amounts to promote cellular
function, growth, repair and/or reproduction.
Answer: d
81. The first step in the Lock and Key theory of enzyme specificity can be illustrated by the
following symbolic notation:
a) S (substrate) P (product)
Answer: c
Answer: a
Answer: d
84. This vitamin is essential for the synthesis of prothrombin, a blood-clotting agent.
a) Vitamin B
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin K
Answer: d
a) Vitamin B
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin K
Answer: b
86. Which of the following facts is not true about acetyl-CoA.
c) It is produced from the oxidation of pyruvate to acetic acid and forms an ester linkage with
coenzyme A.
Answer: c
d) is an endothermic process.
Answer: a
88. The unusually high amount of potential energy stored in a molecule of ATP:
b) results from the specific spatial arrangement of the atoms in the molecule.
Answer: b
90. The enzyme responsible for the digestion of starch in the mouth is:
a) amylase
b) glucosase
c) peptidase
d) carboylase
Answer: a
91. Insulin:
Answer: b
92. The end products of the anaerobic stage of cellular respiration are:
Answer: c
Answer: d
94. Which of the following statements does not describe the aerobic stage of cellular
respiration.
b) It occurs in two independent set of metabolic reactions, the citric acid cycle and the
electron transport chain.
d) The end products of the aerobic stage of cellular respiration are water, carbon dioxide and
ATP.
Answer: b
95. The electron transport or respiratory chain of the aerobic oxidation of glucose:
a) produces the majority of the ATP in the entire cellular respiration process.
Answer: a
b) is an anaerobic process.
d) is an aerobic process.
Answer: b
a) an aerobic process
b) is a process which is similar to the citric acid cycle.
c) a process whose end products are independent of the organism it is taking place.
d) is an anaerobic process.
Answer: d
a) The synthesis of lipids from stored fatty acids in the body's adipose tissue is called
lipogenesis.
b) A dynamic equilibrium exists between the lipids flowing in the blood stream and the fatty
acids stored in the adipose tissue.
c) Lipid metabolism produces more energy per mass than cellular respiration.
Answer: d
99. The complete beta oxidation of a 16-carbon fatty acid would yield ATP molecules.
a) 36
b) 72
c) 114
d) 130
Answer: d
100. Ketosis:
a) is the metabolic process of ketone bodies being produced from excess acetyl-CoA.
b) is where the pH of the blood drops because of the presents of excess ketone bodies.
Answer: b
101. The main dietary source of nitrogen is:
a) the metabolism and absorption of amino acids into the blood stream
d) the oxidative deamination of amino acids and their eventually absorption into the blood
stream
Answer: a
Answer: c
103. Amino acids are synthesized from other free amino acids and also from -keto acids by .
a) oxidative deamination
b) transamination
c) translation
d) ornithination
Answer: b
104. The fatty acid cycle removes units per cycle, until the fatty acid has been completely
oxidized.
a) one carbon
b) one acetyl-CoA
c) two carbon
d) four acetyl-CoA
Answer: c
105. is the metabolic pathway that prepares amino acids for entrance into the citric acid cycle.
a) transamination
b) transamidation
c) oxidative phosphorylation
d) oxidative deamination
Answer: d
106. Which of the following is not a characteristic of both RNA and DNA.
a) The backbone for each strand of DNA and RNA is composed of a phosphate group and a
pentose sugar unit.
c) Each nucleic acid does exist as a single strand, however, DNA in its native state is found in
a double helix conformation.
d) Both nucleic acids are involved directly in the transcription process of protein synthesis.
Answer: d
107. are the nitrogen-containing bases which consist of a double heterocyclic nitrogen ring.
a) cytosine
b) purines
c) uracil
d) pyrimidines
Answer: b
108. A polypeptide consists of 48 amino acid residues. The minimum number of base pairs in
a DNA strand needed to code for this particular polypeptide would be:
a) 48
b) 24
c) 16
Answer: c
a) primary structure
b) secondary structure
c) tertiary structure
d) quaternary structure
Answer: a
a) primary structure
b) secondary structure
c) tertiary structure
d) quaternary structure
Answer: b
111. The intermolecular force responsible for native DNA's double helical shape is:
a) salt bridges
b) disulfide linkages
c) London forces
d) hydrogen bonding
Answer: d
112. The replication process of DNA is controlled to assure exact copies of DNA during
mitosis through .
a) identical base pairing
Answer: b
113. Which of the following nitrogen bases do not participate directly in transcription.
a) Adenine
b) Cytosine
c) thymine
d) uracil
Answer: c
a) cytoplasm
b) endoplasmic reticulum
c) nucleus
d) histones
Answer: c
Answer: b
116. Which of the following is not involved at any step during protein synthesis.
a) DNA
b) mRNA
c) rRNA
d) hnRNA
Answer: d
117. During translation, attaches itself to the located in the cell's endoplasmic reticulum.
a) hnRNA, ribosomes
b) tRNA, ribosomes
c) rRNA, ribosomes
d) mRNA, ribosomes
Answer: c
a) genome
b) generic code
c) genetic code
d) genes
Answer: c
a) mRNA, anticodon
b) tRNA, anticodon
c) tRNA, codon
d) rRNA, codon
Answer: b
C TAG G G C AAT T G
Its complementary daughter strand would have the following base pair sequence:
a) G A T C C C T T A A C
b) G U T C C C T T U U C
c) G A U C C C U U A A C
d) C U U T T G C C T A G
Answer: a
C TAG G G C AAT T G
The mRNA strand would have the following base pair sequence:
a) G A T C C C T T A A C
b) G U T C C C T T U U C
c) G A U C C C U U A A C
d) C U U T T G C C T A G
Answer: c
b) In a codon, the first two base pairs remain constant for a given amino acid residue; it is the
third base pair which may differ.
Answer: c
123. In Eukaryotic cells, segments within a DNA molecule which do not code for an amino
acid are referred to as and the areas within the DNA molecule that do code for amino acids is
called .
a) introns, exons
b) anticodons, introns
c) codons, exons
d) exons, introns
Answer: a
124. The intermolecular force responsible for codon and anticodon interaction is:
a) ribosomal linkages
b) hydrogen bonding
c) salt bridges
d) disulfide linkages
Answer: b
a) bacterial DNA
b) Recombinant DNA
c) clonoid
d) plasmid
Answer: d