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GATE AR 2018

Q.1 In a Colour Wheel, Red and Blue colours are


(A) Tertiary (B) Complementary (C) Secondary (D) Primary
Ans: (D) Primary
o Primary Colours: Red, Blue, Yellow
o Secondary Colour: Orange, Green and Violet
o Tertiary Colour: Red-Orange, Yellow-Orange, Yellow Green, Blue- Green, Blue Violet, Red Violet
The first circular colour diagram was designed by Newton in 1666. It is two dimensional colour scheme
depicting variables of hue. Colour wheel is helpful in suggesting
colour scheme. Six prominent colour schemes are
 Complementary- exactly opposite
 Analogous - neighbour
 Split complimentary- neighbour of complementary colour.
 Triadic- three colours evenly spaced on colour wheel
 Tetradic- four colors arranged into two complementary
pairs.
 Square – all four colours spaced evenly.

Q.2 In a bird’s eye perspective view of a cuboid, the maximum number of


vanishing points is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 6
Ans: (C) 3
There are some points to consider when working in three point perspective.
 All vertical construction lines lead to the third vanishing point
 The closer you place your vanishing points to the center of your canvas, the greater
the distortion
 All horizontal construction lines lead to a single vanishing point, based on the plane
on which they are located on
 The further away you place your vanishing points, the closer your image will appear as captured through a
tele-photo lens (very little distortion)
 If you place your third vanishing point above the horizon line, you create an image from the "Ant's
Perspective" (looking up)
 If you place your third vanishing point below the horizon line, you create an image from the "Bird's Eye
View" (looking down)

Q.3 The compressive strength of M-25 concrete is


(A) 25 kg/sqm (B) 25 N/sqmm (C) 250 N/sqmm (D) 2.5 N/sqmm
Ans: (B) 25 N/sqmm
MPa= Mega Pascal (Pascal is N/𝑚2, so 1 MPa= 106 𝑁/𝑚2)
Interesting to note : 6 MPa= 6 N/𝑚𝑚2 (see the conversion below)
6 MPa= 6 × 106 N/𝑚2 (Mega is 106 )
6 × 106 N
= (1000×1000)𝑚𝑚 2
(Converting 𝑚2 to 𝑚𝑚2)
2
= 6 N/𝑚𝑚

Q.4 In Critical Path Method (CPM) for time scheduling, ‘forward pass calculation’ is carried out for
determining
(A) Late start and early finish time (B) Early start and early finish time
(C) Late start and late finish time (D) Early start and late finish time
Ans: (B) Early start and early finish time
Forward Pass and BackwardPass: These terms are related to ways of determining the early or late start
[forward pass] or early or late finish [backward pass] for an activity. Forward pass is a technique to
move forward through a diagram to calculate activity duration. Backward pass is its opposite
GATE AR 2018

Q.5 Collapse of the World Trade Center (WTC), New York, in 2001, was due to
(A) Wind load failure
(B) Foundation failure
(C) Thermal performance failure of reinforcement steel in RCC
(D) Thermal performance failure of structural steel
Ans: (D) Thermal performance failure of structural steel

Q.6 During the construction of tall buildings, the equipment used for hoisting building materials to the upper
floors is a
(A) Goods lift (B) Capsule lift (C) Gantry crane (D) Tower crane
Ans: (D) Tower crane
(adjacent fig is tower crane and Gantry crane)

Q.7 A Rock-cut style of architecture is represented by


(A) Shyama Rama Temple, Bishnupur (B) Kailasa Temple, Ellora
(C) Kandariya Mahadeva Temple, Khajuraho (D) Sanchi Stupa, Sanchi

Ans: (B) Kailasa Temple, Ellora

Q.8 ‘Area based development’ and ‘Pan city development’ are part of
(A) Smart City Mission (B) Digital India Mission
(C) Swachh Bharat Mission (D) Atal Innovation Mission
Ans: (A) Smart City Mission
Specified Minimum area for Smart City Mission.
 Redevelopment- more than 50 acre
 Green Field Development- more than 250 acre
 Retrofitting- more than 500 acre.
 Pan city development-Pan-city development envisages application of selected Smart Solutions to
the existing city-wide infrastructure.

Q.9 In mass transportation, LRTS stands for


(A) Light Rail Transit System (B) Linear Rail Transit System
(C) Light Rail Transportation System (D) Linear Rail Transportation System
Ans: (A) Light Rail Transit System
o MRTS- Mass Rapid Transit System
o BRTS- Bus Rapid Transit System

Q.10 The structural grid type shown in the figure below is a


(A) Tartan Grid
(B) Square Grid
(C) Rectangular Grid
(D) Irregular Grid
Ans: (A) Tartan Grid
GATE AR 2018

Q.11 Assuming other variables remaining constant, the Tropical Summer Index
(A) Increases with increase in air velocity
(B) Decreases with increase in wet-bulb temperature
(C) Decreases with increase in globe temperature
(D) Increases with increase in vapour pressure
Ans: (D) Increases with increase in vapour pressure
"Tropical Summer Index" (TSI) is defined as the air/globe temperature of the still air at 50% RH which
produces the same overall thermal sensation as the environment under investigation. This index takes into
account all four environmental variables.
i. air temperature,
ii. globe temperature,
iii. humidity,
iv. air velocity
Use of the TSI is justified in the prevailing hot-dry and warm-humid conditions in India when radiant flux is
not excessively high and the subjects have sufficient air motion for any visible perspiration to evaporate off.
Determining the thermal comfort conditions in this index is according to observations of four effective
environmental variables and Bradford’s five scales thermal sensation. A simple and approximate equation for
the rapid determination of TSI values for any combination of environmental variables is as follows:
𝟏 𝟑
TSI = 𝟑tw + 𝟒tg - 2 √𝒗
Where: TSI = Tropical Summer Index, tw= Wet-bulb Temperature (°C), tg = Globe temperature (°C), √𝑣 =
Square root of air velocity (m/s).

Q.12 Government of India’s urban development program ‘HRIDAY’ stands for


(A) Heritage Rejuvenation Implementation Development Aayog Yojana
(B) Heritage Review Implementation Development Augmentation Yojana
(C) Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana
(D) Heritage City Improvement and Development Aawas Yojana
Ans: (C) Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana

Q.13 As per the Urban and Regional Development Plan Formulation and Implementation (URDPFI) guidelines,
the plan period considered in a ‘Perspective plan’ is
(A) 1-10 years (B) 11-15 years
(C) 20-30 years (D) 35-45 years

Ans: (C) 20-30 years

Q.14 The Hall of Nations, New Delhi, was designed by


(A) Charles Correa (B) Raj Rewal
(C) Joseph Allen Stein (D) A. P. Kanvinde
Ans: (B) Raj Rewal
 Hall of Nations and Halls of Industries, Pragati Maidan, New Delhi 1971 - 72. Designed as space frame in
reinforced concrete; the first of its kind in India.
 Demolished in 2017.

Q.15 As per the National Building Code of India 2016, the minimum turning radius (in metres) required for fire
tender movement is
(A) 8.0 (B) 8.5 (C) 9.0 (D) 9.5
Ans: (C) 9.0
 Minimum width of road for fire tender movement= 6 m
 The road surface must be mettled and free from obstruction.

Q.16 Sidi Bashir Mosque with ‘Shaking Minarets’ is located in


(A) Ajmer (B) Allahabad (C) Ahmedabad (D) Amritsar
GATE AR 2018

Ans: (C) Ahmedabad

Q.17 ‘Sight Distance’ is considered in the design of


(A) Road intersection (B) Fenestration
(C) Open kitchen (D) Auditorium
Ans: (A) Road intersection

Q.18 In India, the term ‘Town Planning Scheme’ refers to


(A) Land renewal
(B) Land rejuvenation
(C) Land reclamation
(D) Land readjustment
Ans: (D) Land readjustment
[Refer GATE 2005, Q70]
o Land Renewal: no such term (renewal is used for driving license, passport after expiry of term)
o Land rejuvenation: give newer life to land
o Land reclamation: get newer land from sea by filling the low lying area
o Land readjustment: A legal procedure that allows pooling of lands by owners, preparation of layout
and redistribution of final plots also known as ‘Town Planning Scheme’.

Q.19 Bamboo is a type of


(A) Shrub (B) Timber
(C) Evergreen tree (D) Perennial grass
Ans: (D) Perennial grass
Scientific name: Bambusoideae

Q.20 According to the UN, one of the components for measuring ‘inclusive
growth’ is
(A) Economic well-being (B) Physical infrastructure
(C) Education (D) Life expectancy
Ans: (A) Economic well-being

Q.21 The unit of measurement of Damp Proof Course (DPC) in building construction is
(A) kg (B) cum (C) sqm (D) rm
Ans: (C) sqm

Q.22 Which of the following is NOT a Building Information Modeling software tool
(A) Adobe Illustrator (B) Bentley Microstation
(C) Autodesk Revit (D) Graphisoft ARCHICAD
Ans: (A) Adobe Illustrator
BIM (Building Information Modeling) is an intelligent 3D model-
based process that gives architecture, engineering, and construction
(AEC) professionals the insight and tools to more efficiently plan,
design, construct, and manage buildings and infrastructure.

Q.23 The concentric circles in a solar chart represent


(A) Azimuth angle
(B) Altitude angle
(C) Horizontal shadow angle
(D) Vertical shadow angle
Ans: (B) Altitude angle
GATE AR 2018

Q.24 A room of 3m × 3m × 3m has a reverberation time of 0.8 sec. Using Sabine’s method, the total absorption in
the room is _____________ sabin (up to one decimal place).
Ans:54 sabine
0.16V
RT=
𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 𝑎𝑏𝑠𝑜𝑟𝑏𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑙 ×𝑎𝑏𝑠𝑜𝑟𝑏𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑐𝑜𝑒𝑓𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑡
3
Volume of room = 3m ×3m×3m =27 𝑚
0.16×27
0.8 = 𝑠𝑎𝑏𝑖𝑛𝑒
0.16 ×27
Sabine = 0.8
= 54 sabine

Q.25 A 25 storeyed building has 5 lifts. The resulting waiting time is 35 sec and ‘Return Travel Time’ is 175 sec.
The number of lifts required for reducing waiting time to 25 sec, without increasing the lift speed, is
_______________
Ans: 7 lifts
Return Trip Time (RTT)
Soln: Waiting time (T) = 𝑁𝑜 𝑜𝑓 𝐿𝑖𝑓𝑡𝑠 (𝑁)
Waiting time has to be reduced to 25 sec, while return time remains the same i.e. 175 sec
175 𝑠𝑒𝑐
So, 25sec = which gives N= 7 lifts.
𝑁

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 Match the planning documents in Group-I with their respective government schemes in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P. Integrated Cluster Action Plan 1. NULM
Q. Service Level Improvement Plan 2. Make in India
R. Housing for All Plan of Action 3. RuRBAN mission
S. City Livelihood Centre Development Plan 4. PMAY
5. AMRUT
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2 (B) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2
(C)P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (D) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1

Ans: (D) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1

Q.27 Associate the fire safety requirements for high rise buildings in Group-I with corresponding standards of
the National Building Code of India 2016 in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P. Minimum Refuge area 1. 12.5 sqm/person
Q. Maximum Travel distance 2. 2.0 m
R. Maximum Occupant load 3. 0.3 sqm/person
S. Minimum Stair case width 4. 12.0 ton
5. 30.0 m
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2 (B) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3
Ans: (C) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2

Q.28 Match the photometric quantities in Group-I with their respective units in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Illuminance 1 Candela
Q Luminous Intensity 2 Candela/sqm
R Luminance 3 Lumens/sqm
S Luminous Efficacy 4 Lumens/watt
5 Lumens
(A) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4 (B) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(C) P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
GATE AR 2018

Ans: (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

Q.29 Associate the symbols in Group I with their meanings in Group II


Group II
1. Hearing Impaired
2. Emergency Lamp
3. Electical and Electronic waste disposal
4. Biohazard
5. Speech impaired

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (B) P-1, Q-5, R-3, S-4
(C) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-5 (D) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2
Ans: (D) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2

Q.30 Match the elements in Group-I with the building components in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P King post 1 Curtain glazing
Q Grade beam 2 Door
R Metal decking 3 Plinth
S Jamb 4 Intermediate floor
5 Truss

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(C) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-3 (D) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2

Ans: (D) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2

Q.31 Match the iconic architectural examples in Group-I with their predominant structural systems in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P. S. Maria del Fiore Cathedral, Florence 1. Shell
Q. Notre Dame Cathedral, Paris 2. Suspended roof
R. Olympic Arena, Tokyo 3. Space frame
S. Bahá’i Temple, Delhi 4. Double-walled dome
5. Flying buttress
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-5, S-4 (B) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(C) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1 (D) P-5, Q-4, R-3, S-2

Ans: (C) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1

Q.32 Match the building materials in Group-I with their distinctive properties in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P. Cement 1. Charring
Q. Steel 2. Brittle
R. Wood 3. Evaporation
S. Glass 4. Tensile strength
5. Setting Time

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (B) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2
GATE AR 2018

(C) P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

Ans: (B) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Q.33 Match the built forms in Group-I with their descriptions in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P. Agora 1. Custodial precincts
Q. Ziggurat 2. Place of Jewish worship
R. Mastaba 3. Built in diminishing stages of masonry with buttressed wall
S. Synagogue 4. Market place or public square
5. Tomb made of mud bricks
(A) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-2

Ans: (C) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-2

Q.34 Match the building configuration characteristics in Group-I with their seismic consequences in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P. Re-entrant corner 1. Soft storey
Q. Floating column 2. Stress concentration at corner
R. Irregular storey stiffness 3. Load path discontinuity
S. Gap between adjacent buildings 4. Vertical asymmetry
5. Pounding
(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5 (D) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1

Ans: (B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5


 Floating column is a vertical member which rest on a beam but doesn't transfer the load directly to
the foundation. The floating column acts as a point load on the beam and this beam transfers the
load to the columns below it.
 Types of irregularity in Buildings

Q.35 Match the landscaping terms in Group-I with their descriptions in Group-II
GATE AR 2018

Group-I Group-II
P. Xeriscaping 1. Wide vegetated drain
Q. Drip line 2. Tree rings
R. Swale 3. Outermost circumference of a tree canopy
S. Turf block paver 4. Solution to topsoil erosion and water permeability
5. A little or no irrigation
(A) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (B) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-4
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5 (D) P-5, Q-2, R-4, S-1

Ans: (A) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4


 Xeriscaping is landscaping designed specifically for areas that
are susceptible to drought, or for properties where water
conservation is practiced. Derived from the Greek xeros meaning
"dry," the term means literally "dry landscape."
 Drip line is used in drip irrigation where plant is watered at roots. It is also Outermost circumference of a tree
canopy.
 A swale is a low tract of land, especially one that is moist or marshy. The term can refer to a natural landscape
feature or a human-created one. Artificial swales are often infiltration basins designed to manage water
runoff, filter pollutants, and increase rainwater infiltration.
 Turf Block grass paving unit turns driveway, parking area, and emergency access lane into a beautiful
greenbelt that is easily mowed and cared.

Q.36 Match the planning principles in Group-I with their descriptions in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P. Transit oriented development 1. Four stage model of regional development
Q. Core periphery theory 2. Compact and walkable mixed use development
R. Bid rent theory 3. Geographic concentration of inter-connected institutions
S. Cluster theory 4. Change of land price with relative distance from the CBD
5. Interactive and participatory planning process
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3
(C) P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-3 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-4

Ans: (A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3


TOD Model: a transit-oriented development (TOD) is a type of urban development that maximizes the
amount of residential, business and leisure space within walking distance of public transport

Friedman’s four stage of model of regional development


 STAGE 1: When towns/regions are developing independently with very
minimal contact between them - possibly some basic trading of goods.
 STAGE 2: One town or region becomes dominant, probably because it
has more physical or human resources. The core starts attracting people
and investment from other regions.
 STAGE 3: New smaller cores (semi-periphery) start to develop and there
is an increase in flows between the core and the semi-periphery (two
ways flows e.g. FDI)
 STAGE 4: All areas are now developed and fully dependent upon each
other with flows of capital and people in both directions.

Bid rent theory is a geographical economictheory that refers to how the price and demand for real estate
change as the distance from the central business district (CBD) increases.

Cluster theory is a theory of strategy. Alfred Marshall, in his book Principles of Economics, published in
1890, first characterised clusters as a "concentration of specialised industries in particular localities" that he
termed industrial districts.
GATE AR 2018

Q.37 Match the cities in Group-I with their planners in Group-II


Group-I Group-II
P. Islamabad 1. Patrick Geddess
Q. Tel Aviv 2. C.A. Doxiadis
R. Bhubaneswar 3. Lucio Costa
S. Brasilia 4. B. V. Doshi
5. O. Koenigsberger
(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (B) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5

Ans: (C) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3


Other planned cities of India.
i. Auroville- Ar Roger Anger along with Mirra Alfassa, the Spiritual collaborator of Sri Aurobindo.
ii. Bhubaneshwar- Otto Konigsberger (German Architect and planner)
iii. Chandigarh- Le Corbusier
iv. Durgapur- Joseph Allen Stein and Benjamin Polk
v. Gandhi Nagar- H K Mewada and Prakash M Apte
vi. Jaipur- Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh
vii. Jamshedpur- FC Temple, Otto Konigsberger, Maple (Master plan prepared by Konigsberger)
viii. Kolkata- Job Charnok
ix. New Delhi- Leutyens
x. Vidyadhar Nagar (city close to Jaipur) – B V Doshi.
xi. Navi Mumbai- Charles Correa

Major planned cities of World


i. Brasilia- Lucio Costa (urban planner), Oscar Niemeyer (architect) Brasila is the capital of Brazil planned
in 1956. This city is a World Heritage Site listed by UNESCO.
ii. Canberra- Walter Burley Griffin and Marion Mahony Griffin
iii. Horizon City, Texas- Lucio Costa (GATE 2004)
iv. Islamabad- Constantine Doxiadius
v. London- Wren, Abercrombie
vi. Paris- Voisin
vii. Philadelphia- Louis Kahn (City of Philadelphia is based on ‘Stop and Go Roads’ and emphasis on
parking towers)
viii. Radburn, New Jersey- Clarence Stein and Henry Wright (known as ‘Town for the Motor Age) (GATE
2011)
ix. Tokyo- Kenzo Tange’s (metabolism)

Conceptual Cities
i. Broadacre cities- F L Wright (GATE 1995)
ii. Garden City- Ebenezar Howard (GATE 2012)
iii. Eco Skyscrapers- Ken Yeang (GATE 2012)
iv. Radiant City- Le Corbusier (GATE 2012)
v. Space City- Yona Friedman

List of urban planners chronological by initial year of plan.

c. 332 BC Dinocrates – Alexandria, Egypt (City of Alexander the Great)


c. 408 BC Hippodamus of Miletus – Piraeus, Thurii, Rhodes (Hippodamus is known as Father of City
Planning)
c. 1450 AD Nezahualcoyotl – Texcoco (altepetl), Aztec Mexico
GATE AR 2018

c. 1590 Tokugawa Ieyasu, Tokugawa Hidetada, Tokugawa Iemitsu, Takatora Todo- Edo, later Tokyo.

1666 Christopher Wren – London


1682 William Penn and Thomas Holme – Philadelphia (later on Louis Kahn)
1727 Maharaja Jai Singh II, astronomer, city planner – Jaipur, Rajasthan, India
1791 Peter Charles L’Enfant and Andrew Ellicott – Washington, D.C.
1805 Augustus B. Woodward – Detroit
1811 Gouverneur Morris, John Rutherfurd, and Simeon De Witt – Commissioners’ Plan of New York
City
c. 1838 Joseph Smith and later Brigham Young – Nauvoo, Illinois and Salt Lake City.
1853 Georges-Eugène Haussmann – responsible for the broad avenues of Paris
1859 Ildefons Cerdà – planner of the Eixample district of Barcelona
c. 1880 Solon Spencer Beman and George Pullman – Pullman, Chicago
1882 Arturo Soria y Mata – the Ciudad Lineal, Madrid
1898 Ebenezer Howard – Garden city movement
1901 Charles Follen McKim – Washington, D.C. revised plan
1909 Daniel Burnham – Chicago
1912 Walter Burley Griffin – Canberra (His tomb is in Lucknow graveyard)
1924 Clarence Stein – Sunnyside Gardens, Queens, New York; Chatham Village, Pittsburgh; Baldwin
Hills Village, Los Angeles
1925 Ernst May – city plan and housing units in Frankfurt, Germany, including Siedlung
Römerstadt
1927 Bruno Taut – Hufeisensiedlung (Horseshoe Projects), Berlin
1928 Henry Wright – Radburn, New Jersey
c. 1930 Robert Moses, responsible for the urban renewal of New York City
1935 Frank Lloyd Wright – Broadacre City (concept)
1950 Le Corbusier – Chandigarh, India
1957 Lucio Costa – Brasília, Brazil
1958 Ludwig Mies van der Rohe, Ludwig Hilberseimer, Alfred Caldwell – Lafayette Park, Detroit
1960 Edmund Bacon – engaged in the redevelopment of parts of Philadelphia
1960 Konstantinos Doxiadis – Islamabad, Pakistan
1970 Paolo Soleri – Arcosanti, Arizona, as well as his concept of arcologies
1970 William Pereira, Ian McHarg – The Woodlands, Texas
1971 H. K. Mewada, Prakash M. Apte – Gandhinagar, Gujarat, India
1973 Moshe Safdie – Coldspring New Town, Baltimore
2003 Christopher Charles Benninger, Thimphu, Bhutan

Q.38 Match the Temples in Group-I with their Dynastic period in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P. Brihadeshvara Temple 1. Gupta
Q. Kailasanatha Temple 2. Chalukya
R. Bhitragaon Temple 3. Lodhi
S. Lad Khan Temple 4. Chola
5. Pallava
(A) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-2 (B) P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(C) P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-3 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5

Ans: (A) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-2

Q.39 Match the Buildings in Group-I with their Architects in Group-II


Group-I Group-II
P. Guggenheim Museum, Bilbao 1. Richard Rogers
Q. The Shard, London 2. Norman Foster
GATE AR 2018

R. Commerz Bank, Frankfurt 3. Frank Gehry


S. Heydar Aliyev Centre, Baku 4. Renzo Piano
5 Zaha Hadid
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(C) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5 (D) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-3

Ans: (A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5

Q.40 Match the following urban conservation themes in Group-I with their respective descriptions in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P. Restoration 1. Piece by piece re-assembly
Q. Reconstitution 2. Returning to previous stage
R. Reconstruction 3. Physical addition
S. Replication 4. Re-creation of vanished elements
5. Reproduction of an exact copy
(A) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-3 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-3, S-5

Ans: (B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5

Q.41 A Single Phase Neutral (SPN) electrical circuit has a power consumption of 330W. Considering a voltage of
110V and power factor of 0.8, the electrical current drawn is ___________ Amp (up to one decimal place).
Ans: 3.75 Amp
Soln: Power factor of an AC electrical power system is defined as the ratio of the ‘real power flowing to the
load’ to the apparent power in the circuit.
Wattage = Volt × current × power factor
330 watt = 110 volt × current ×0.8
330
Current= 110×0.8 = 3.75 Amp

Q.42 A building with 100 sqm roof area is connected to a 72 cum rainwater collection tank. If the rainfall is 60 mm
per hour and the loss during water storage is 20%, then the time taken to fill the tank completely is_______
hours.
Ans:15 hr
60 𝑚
Soln: Intensity of rainfall = 60 mm/hr= 1000 ℎ𝑟 (converting to SI unit)
Let the tank fill in ‘t’ hr
Total rainfall collected = surface area of roof× Intensity of rainfall × effective storage × ‘t’
Note- Here effective storage is 100-20=80 %
60 𝑚 80
So 72 cum= 100 sqm × 1000 ℎ𝑟 × 100 × ‘t’ hr
Solving for ‘t’we get t= 15 hr

Q.43 The planning norms for provision of schools in a given town is shown in the table below
Schools Population norm Land requirement per school
Elementary School One per 2500 persons 0.4 hectare
Primary School One per 5000 persons 1.0 hectare
Secondary School One per 12500 persons 2.0 hectare
Total land area required for providing all types of schools for a population of 200,000 is
____________hectares

Ans: 104 ha
Soln:
2,00,000
Total no. of Elementary School = 2,500
= 80 so land required = 80 × 0.4= 32 ha
GATE AR 2018

2,00,000
Total no. of Primary School = 5,000
= 40 so land required = 40 × 1.0 = 40 ha
2,00,000
Total no. of Secondary School = 12,500
= 16 so land required = 16 × 2.0 = 32 ha
Total Land area required = 32+ 40 + 32= 104 ha

Q.44 In a mixed use development on a 2.0 hectare site with 2.0 FAR, the ratio of residential to commercial floor area
is 3:2. The minimum parking (in ECS) needed per 100 sqm of residential and commercial floor area is 1.0
and 1.25 respectively. Considering full FAR utilization, the total parking requirement is ____________
ECS.

Ans:440
Soln: 2 ha= 2×10,000 sqm= 20,000 sqm
FAR=2 so total floor area = 20,000 ×2= 40,000 sqm
3
Total Residential area = 5 ×40,000= 24,000 sqm
2
Total Commercialal area = ×40,000= 16,000 sqm
5
24,000 16,000
Total ECS for Residential and Commercial respectively is ( × 1)+( ×1.25) = 240 + 200= 440
100 100

Q.45 A plotted housing scheme on a site of 12 hectare has 60% saleable area. The average unit cost of land
development is INR 300 million per hectare. If the profit margin is 20%, then the selling price of land per
hectare is __________ million INR.
Ans: 600 million INR
60
Soln: saleable area= ×12 ha = 7.2 ha
100
Total land development cost = 300 million ×12 ha= 3600 million INR
120
A profit of 20 % is expected so total selling price = 3600 ×100 = 4320 million INR
4320
This is obtained by selling 7.2 ha of land, so selling price of land per ha = = 600 million INR
7.2

Q.46 An isolated enclosure shown in the Figure has inlet P and outlet Q of 2 sqm each, on the opposite walls. The
outdoor wind speed is 5 m/sec. If the coefficient of effectiveness is 0.6, the
rate of natural ventilation in the enclosure due to wind action is
_________ cum/hr.
Ans: 21600 cum/hr
Wind speed is 5m/s and window opening through which wind will pass is
2 sqm.
𝑚
Amount of wind entering per second = 2 sqm × 5 × 0.6= 6 cum/sec
𝑠𝑒𝑐
𝑚3
Ventillation in cum/hr = 6 𝑠𝑒𝑐 ×3600 = 21600 cum/hr

Q.47 A 5m × 5m × 3m room has four 230 mm thick external brick walls. Total wall fenestration is 10 sqm. The
temperature difference between indoor and outdoor is 2 degC. The air to air transmittance values for 230 mm
thick brick wall and 200 mm thick aerated concrete block wall are 2.4 and 1.7 W/sqm degC respectively. If
the brick walls are replaced with the aerated concrete block walls, then the change in conductive heat flow
through the walls is _________W.
Ans: 70 Watt
Total wall area = 60 sqm- 10 sqm= 50 sqm
U-value of brick wall = 2.4 W/sqm degC and that of aerated concrete block= 1.7 W/sqm degC
ΔT= 2° C
Conductive heat flow = surface area × U-value × ΔT
For brick wall = 50 m² × 2.4 W/sqm degC × 2 deg C= 240 watt
For aerated concrete block wall = 50 m²×1.7 W/sqm degC × 2 deg C= 170 watt
Change in heat flow rate = 240-170= 70 watt
GATE AR 2018

Q.48 For an activity, ‘optimistic time duration’ is 4 days, ‘pessimistic time duration’ is 11 days and ‘most-likely
time duration’ is 8 days. The PERT value of time duration is______ days (up to one decimal place).

Ans: 7.8 days


𝑜𝑝𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑐 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒+4(𝑚𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑙𝑖𝑘𝑒𝑙𝑦 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒)+ 𝑝𝑒𝑠𝑠𝑖𝑚𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑐 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
PERT value of time duration = 6
4+4(8)+ 11 47
= 6
= 6
= 7.83 days

Q.49 In the Figure, the negative bending moment at point A of the cantilever is ________ kNm.
Ans:225 kNm
Moment due to udl = concentrated load at centre × 2.5 m
= (10kN/m ×5m) × 2.5m = 125 kNm
Moment due to point load at end= 20 kN × 5 m = 100 kNm
Total BM at A= 225kNm

Q.50 The water consumption of a high rise apartment building with 60 dwelling units having an average household
size of 5 persons is 135 lpcd. Assuming 80% of the total use is met with recycled water supply, the daily
domestic demand for the building is _________ litres.
Ans: 8,100 litres
Soln: Total no. of person = 60 ×5= 300
Total water needed = 135 lpcd ×300= 40,500 litres
80 % is met through recycled so, 20 % will be domestic demand
20
× 40,500= 8,100 litres
100

Q.51 In India, for 1.0 cum of M-20 grade concrete, the number of cement bags required is ________ (up to two
decimal places).
Ans: 5-9 bags (any one who answerd 5,6,7,8 or 9 bags got marks)
NOMINAL MIX CONCRETE DESIGN FOR ONE CUBIC METER OF M20 CONCRETE BY VOLUME
It takes 1.55 cubic meters of total dry material to prepare one cubic of concrete with 20mm aggregate because
cement and sand will fill the gaps between the aggregate(crushed stone) in the beginning before it increases
the volume of concrete. But, if we use 40mm aggregate then total dry materials needed will be 1.52 cubic
meter.

Let’s calculate material required for M20 grade to prepare one cubic meter concrete. Cement sand and
aggregate ratio for M20 grade concrete is 1:1.5:3
Cement = 1 Part
Sand = 1.5 Part
Aggregate = 3 Part
Total Parts = 1 + 1.5 + 3 = 5.5
Total Material Required per cubic meter of concrete= 1.55
1
Volume of 1 part = x 1.55
5.5
= 0.282 cu.m and density of cement is 1440 kg/cu.m.
Weight of cement = volume of cement x density
= 0.282 cu.m x 1440 kg/cu.m
= 406 (approximately 400 kg)
No of cement bags required to prepare 1 cubic meter = 400 / 50 = 8 bags

Q.52 The sound power level of an outdoor non-directional point source is 90 dB. Considering an atmospheric
impedance of 400 rayls, the sound pressure level at 10 m distance from the source is _______ dB.
GATE AR 2018

Ans: 59 dB
For full sphere propagation the sound power level (measured in watt) is equal to sound pressure level
(measured in MPa) or intensity level (measured in 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡/𝑚2 ) at the distance of r = 0.2821 m from the
source.
When it is given ‘Sound power Level’ is 90dB, it means 90dB is at a distance of 0.2821 m.
(this 0.2821 m is the radius of a sphere whose surface area is 1 sqm)
Now we calculate the power (in watt) of the source.
𝑑 𝐼
dB= 10 log 10( 10−12𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡/𝑚 2)

here dB= 90 dB
𝐼𝑑
90 = 10 log 10( )
10−12 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡/𝑚 2
𝐼𝑑 90
log 10( ) =
10−12 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡/𝑚 2 10
𝐼𝑑 𝐼𝑑
log 10( ) = 9 (removing log) we get = 109
10−12 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡/𝑚 2 10−12 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡/𝑚 2
Id= 10 × 10−12 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡/𝑚2
9

Id= 10−3 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡/𝑚2 (this is intensity at distance of 0.2821 m from source)


Note : This 10−3 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡 is distributed in the surface area of a sphere whose radius is 0.2821 m and surface
area of 1 sqm.
So the power of the source is 10−3 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡.
Now this watt is distributed in a larger sphere whose radius is 10 m (since dB at 10 m is asked)
10−3 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡
So intensity of sound (in watt/𝑚2) is 4(𝜋)(10)2𝑚2
10−5 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡
= 4(𝜋)𝑚 2

Now again putting it in equation of sound (dB)


𝑑 𝐼
dB= 10 log 10( 10−12𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡/𝑚 2)

10−5𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡
4(𝜋)𝑚2
= 10 log 10 [ 10−12 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡
]
𝑚2
107
= 10 log 10 [4(𝜋)]
= 10 [log 10 (107 ) - log 10 (4 π)]
= 10 (7-1.09)
= 10 (5.90)
= 59 dB
(Note: No role of atmospheric impedence here)

Q.53 The live load and dead load in a three storeyed residential building, transferred through a single column, is
12 tons and 18 tons respectively. If the soil bearing capacity is 10 ton/sqm and the factor of safety is 1.5, the
area of column footing is _____________ sqm (up to one decimal place).
Ans: 4.5 sqm
Soln: Total load on column= live load + dead load = 12 ton + 18 ton= 30 ton
Soil bearing capacity is 10 ton/sqm, so for 30 ton→ 3 sqm would have been used.
But factor of safety is 1.5 so 3sqm×1.5= 4.5 sqm of column footing required.

Q.54 The indoor illumination requirement for a building is 350 Lux. If the daylight factor is 2.7 and the design sky
illuminance is 9000 Lux, then the required supplementary artificial lighting is ____________ Lux.
Ans:107 Lux
E
DF = E i × 100%
o
where, Ei = illuminance due to daylight at a point on the indoors working plane,
GATE AR 2018

Eo = simultaneous outdoor illuminance on a horizontal plane from an unobstructed hemisphere of


overcast sky.
Ei 2.7 ×9000
Here, 2.7= = × 100 solving for Ei we get Ei= = 243 Lux
9000 100
We need 350 Lux so the required supplementary artificial lighting is 350- 243= 107 Lux.

Q.55 Two design options of a business building on a 10.0 hectare site are being compared for built up area. Floor
to floor height of Option A is 3.6 m and that of Option B is 4.5 m. If the maximum allowable building
height is 45 m with same ground coverage for both options, the additional built up area achievable in Option
A over Option B is______percent.

Ans: 20 percent
Soln: It says about same ground coverage but FAR is not mentioned.
Let us assume ground coverage as 50 %
Option A
Total Ground coverage = 5 ha = 50,000 sqm
45
No of floors= (since height is max. 45 m and fllor to floor height is 3.6 m in Option A)
3.6
= 12.5 ( since 12.5 storey is not possible, so max 12 storey can be built)
Total Built up area = 50,000 × 12 = 6,00,000 sq m

Option B
Total Ground coverage = 5 ha = 50,000 sqm
45
No of floors= 4.5 (since height is max. 45 m and fllor to floor height is 4.5 m in Option B)
= 10 storey
Total Built up area = 50,000 × 10 = 5,00,000 sq m

Additional built up area in Option A over Option B = 1,00,000 sqm


1.00.000
Percentage = 5,00,000 × 100 = 20 %
GATE AR 2018

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