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Vidya Sagar Institute

K-50, Bhawna Tower, Income Tax Colony, Tonk Road,
Near Durga Pura, Bus Stand, Jaipur - 302018
Mobile :- 93514-68666 Ph. :- 7821821250, 7821821251, 7821821252,
7821821253, 7821821254. web : www.vsijaipur.com
 Result of Sure Success Batch
S. No. Name of the Student Sure Success Batch Rank Marks
1 Nikhil Kumar May 2012 AIR 1 605
2 Tanu Garg May 2015 AIR 1 559
3 Gunjan Garg May 2015 AIR 2 559
4 Gaurav Sarawagi May 2017 AIR 1 565
And Many more Rankers from Sure Success Batch
 VIDYA SAGAR
CAREER INSTITUTE LIMITED
CPT Minor Test – 2 (Part – A)

Instruction: Maximum Marks: 100

1. Use HB Pencil to fill ovals for correct answer. Time : 2 Hours
2. Each question carry one mark. Date : 30.9.2018
3. Negative marking .25 marks for each wrong answer.
4. No negative marking for unattempted questions.

___________________________________________________
1. Inventories cost does not include:
(a) Transit Insurance (b) Storage Cost
(c) Tax and duties on purchases (d) Invoice price less discounts

2. E Ltd., a dealer in second-hand cars has the following five vehicles of different models and makes in
their stock at the end of the financial year 2010-2011:
Car Fiat Ambassador Maruti Esteem Maruti 800 Zen
Cost (Rs.) 90,000 ? 2,75,000 1,30,000 2,10,000
Net realizable value (Rs.) 95,000 1,55,000 2,65,000 ? 2,00,000
The value of stock included in the balance sheet of the company as on March 31, 2011 was Rs
7,95,000. Cost of ambassador and net realizable value of Maruti 800 are respectively:
(a) Rs. 1,60,000 and Rs.80,000 (b) Rs. 80,000 and Rs. 1,60,000
(c) Rs. 1,15,000 and Rs. 1,25,000 (d) Rs. 1,05,000 and Rs. 1,35,000

3. The following data has been provided by Omega Ltd.:

Item No. Units Cost per unit Realization value per unit
1 2 10 11
2 10 5 4
3 2 2 2
The value of Inventories on item by item basis will be
(a) Rs. 40. (b) Rs.64.
(c) Rs.66. (d) Rs.60.

4. Record of purchase of T.V. parts

Date Quantity Price per unit
Units Rs.
March 4 900 5
March 10 400 5.50
Record of issues
March 5 600
March 12 400
The value of T.V. sets on 15 March, as per LIFO will be
(a) Rs.1,500 (b) Rs.1,650
(c) Rs.1,575. (d) None of the three.
5. Perpetual Inventories valuation system entails
(a) Maintenance of records of each receipts and issues.
(b) Direct determination of cost of goods issued and closing stock is taken as residual figure.
(c) Reconciliation of physical stocks with the stock as per records.
(d) All of the above
6. On April 07,2011, i.e., a week after the end of the accounting year 2010-11, a company undertook
physical stock verification. The value of stock as per physical stock verification was found to be Rs.
35,000.
The following details pertaining to the period April 01, 2011 to April 07, 2011 are given:
1. Goods costing Rs. 5,000 were sold during the week.
2. Goods received from consignor amounting to Rs. 4,000 included in the value of stock.
3. Goods earlier purchased but returned during the period amounted to Rs. 1,000.
4. Goods earlier purchased and accounted but not received Rs. 6,000.
After considering the above, the value of stock held as on March 31, 2011 was:
(a) Rs. 27,000 (b) Rs. 19,000
(c) Rs. 43,000 (d) Rs. 51,000

7. Bank overdraft as per trial balance is Rs.1,60,000. Bank has allowed the customer to overdrew 80%
of the hypothecated value of the stock. Hypothecation of stock has been done by the bank at 80% of
the original closing stock value. The amount of closing stock is
(a) Rs. 2,00,000. (b) Rs. 2,50,000.
(c) Rs. 1,02,400. (d) Rs. 1,28,000.

8. Chetan Ltd. recorded the following information as on March 31, 2010

Stock (1-4-2009) Rs. 40,000
Purchases Rs. 80,000
Sales Rs. 1,00,000
It is noticed that goods worth Rs. 30,000 were destroy due to fire against this, the insurance
company accepted a claim of Rs. 14,000.
The company sells goods at cost plus 33.33% . The value of closing Inventories , after taking into
account the above transaction is :
(a) Rs. 75,000 (b) Rs. 15,000
(c) Rs. 25,000 (d) Rs. NIL

9. The books of T Ltd. revealed the following information:

Particular Rs.
Opening inventory 6,00,000
Purchases during the year 2010-2011 34,00,000
Sales during the year 2010-2011 48,00,000
On March 31, 2011, the value of inventory as per physical stock-taking was Rs. 3,25,000. The
company's gross profit on sales has remained constant at 25%. The management of the company
suspects that some inventory might have been pilfered by a new employee. What is the estimated
cost of missing inventory?
(a) Rs. 75,000 (b) Rs. 25,000
(c) Rs. 1,00,000 (d) Rs. 1,50,000

10. Consider the following data pertaining to R LTd. for the month of June 2011:
Particulars Rs.
Opening stock 30,000
Closing stock 40,000
Purchases 5,60,000
Returns outward 15,000
Returns inwards 20,000
Carriage inward 5,000
If the gross profit is 20% of net sales, the gross sales for the month of June 2011 is:
(a) Rs. 6,95,000 (b) Rs. 6,75,000
(c) Rs. 5,40,000 (d) Rs. 6,68,750
11. X sells goods at cost plus 60%. Total sales were of Rs. 16,000 cost price of goods will be
(a) Rs. 10,000 (b) Rs.9,000
(c) Rs. 15,000 (d) None of the three

12. Mohan sells goods at cost plus 50%: total sales were 2.00,000. Cost price of the goods will be
(a) Rs. 1,22,222 (b) Rs. 1,11,111
(c) Rs. 1,33,333 (d) Rs. 1,44,444

13. On 31st March 2001, the closing stock of X Ltd. was Rs. 3,45,000. On 1st April 2001, stock of Rs.
2,25,000 was destroyed by fire. if the Balance sheet of the company on 31st March 2001 was
finalized on 25th April, 2001 then the Balance sheet will show closing Stock at :
(a) Rs. 3,45,000 with no mention of fire
(b) Rs. 1,20,000 with no mention of fire
(c) Rs. 3,45,000 showing loss by fire in footnote
(d) Rs. 1,20,000 showing loss by fire in footnote

14. Which of the following statement is false?

(a) Under periodic inventory system, inventory control is possible
(b) Periodic inventory system is simple and less expensive
(c) Periodic system requires closure of business for counting of stock
(d) All the above

15. A new firm commenced business on 1st January, 2009 and purchased goods costing Rs. 90,000
during the year. A sum of Rs. 6,000 was spent on freight inwards. At the end of the year the cost of
goods still unsold was Rs. 12,000. Sales during the year Rs. 1,20,000. What is the gross profit earned
by the firm?
(a) Rs. 36,000 . (b) Rs. 30,000
(c) Rs. 42,000 (d) Rs. 38,000

16. Goods in Transit but not taken in Closing Stock will be credited to:
(a) Purchase A/c or Trading a/c (b) Supplier A/c
(c) Goods in Transit a/c (d) Cash A/c

17. Mr Prakash sells goods at 25% on sales. His sales were Rs.10,20,000 during the year. However, he
sold damaged goods for Rs.20,000 costing Rs.30,000. This sale is included in Rs.10,20,000. The
amount of gross profit is:
(a) Rs. 1,90,000 (b) Rs.2,50,000
(c) Rs.2,40,000 (d) Rs.2,00,000.

18. Stock at start 2400 Carriage inward 524

Purchases 15205 Manufacturing wages 2800
Sales 20860 Manufacturing wages outstanding 96
Closing stock 3840 Loss due to fire 1000
Return outward 185 Indirect expenses 200
Return Inward 860
On the basis of the above information. Gross Profit will be
(a) Rs. 4000 (b) 5000
(c) Rs. 6,000 (d) None of the three
19. Following figures have been taken from the trial balance of a trader
Gross Purchase Rs. 60,000 Gross Sales Rs. 1,00,000
Purchase Returns Rs. 5,000 Sales Returns Rs. 7,000
Duty Drawback Rs. 6,000 Sales Tax Rs. 12,000
The amount of G.P. will be:
(a) Rs. 32,000 (b) Rs. 38,000
(c) Rs. 40,000 (d) Rs. 26,000

20. While finalizing the current year's profit, the company realized that there was an error in the
valuation of closing stock of the previous year. In the previous year, closing stock was valued more
by ` 50,000. As a result:
(a) Previous year's profit is overstated and current year's profit is also overstated
(b) Previous year's profit is understated and current year's profit is overstated
(c) Previous year's profit is understated and current year's profit is also understated
(d) Previous year's profit is overstated and current year's profit is understated

21. Postal expenses account is shown in:

(a) P & L A/c (b) Trading A/c
(c) Balance Sheet (d) Manufacturing A/c

22. Following are the extracts from the Trial Balance of a firm as at 31st March, 2010:
Name of Account Debit Balance Credit Balance
Rs. Rs.
Salaries 16,000
P.F. deducted from salaries 1,000
Provide for employer's share of P.F. equivalent to employee's share to P.F. The amount at which
salaries expense will be shown in the Profit and Loss A/c is
(a) Rs.15,000 (b) Rs.17,000
(c) Rs.16,000 (d) None of the above.

23. Rs. Rs.

Gross Profit 50,000 Provision for Bad Debts (old) 2,000
Rent paid 6,000 Apprentice Premium (Credit) 4,000
Salaries 5,800
Net profit of the firm will be
(a) Rs. 44,200 (b) Rs. 40,000
(c) Rs. 42,000 (d) Rs. 45,000

24. Loan @ 9% 10,000

Interest on loan 600
Outstanding interest on loan will be
(a) Rs. 300 (b) Rs. 250
(c) Rs. 350 (d) None of the three

25. Rent has been paid for 11 months from April to February 2010 amounting Rs. 55,000 The amount of
outstanding rent shown in balance sheet will be
(a) Rs. 6,000 (b) Rs. 5,000
(c) Rs. 4,000 (d) None of the above.

26. Suspense Account given in the Trial Balance will be entered in the :
(a) Manufacturing A/c (b) Balance sheet
(c) Trading a/c (d) Profit and loss a/c
27. Following are the items of the balance sheet of Mr. X:

Capital Rs. 7,00,000; Machinery Rs. 5,00,000 and cash Rs. 2,00,000. If Mr. X spends Rs. 5,000 to meet
his family expenses, the balance of capital and cash accounts will be
(a) Rs.7,00,000 and Rs. 2,00,000. (b) Rs.6,95,000 and Rs. 1,95,000.
(c) Rs.7,00,000 and RS. 1,95,000. (d) Rs.6,95,000 and Rs. 2,00,000.

28. Trial Balance shows the following balance

Dr. Cr.
Rs. Rs.
Capital 50,000
Income tax 10,000
Income tax advance payment 1,600
Capital A/c balance will be
(a) Rs. 38,400 (b) Rs. 38,000
(c) Rs. 40,000 (d) None of the three

29. Drawing is a type of

(a) Expenses (b) Withdrawal of Capital
(c) Income (d) None of the above

30. On April, 2009, Gita invested capital of Rs. 60,000. She withdrew Rs. 5,000 on the first day of each
month interest on drawing is provided @ 20%. The amount of interest on drawings deducted from
capital will be
(a) Rs. 6,000 (b) Rs. 12,000
(c) Rs. 6,500 (d) Rs. 1,000

31. What will be the treatment of prepaid expenses if adjustment of it is appearing outside the trial
balance?
(a) Prepaid Expenses account will be debited and respective expenses account will be credited.
(b) Respective expense account will be debited and prepaid expenses account will be credited.
(c) Prepaid expense account will be debited and profit and loss account will be credited.
(d) Profit and loss account will be debited and prepaid expenses account will be credited.

32. Depreciation on machinery in trial balance is recorded in_________

(a) Trading A/c (b) Profit & Loss A/c
(c) Balance Sheet (d) None of the three

33. Following are the extracts from the Trial Balance of a firm was on 31st December, 2010. Particulars
Rs. Sundry debtors 30,000 Bad debts 5,000 Additional information:
(i) After preparing the trial balance, it is learnt that a debtor, Mohan became insolvent and
therefore, the entire amount of Rs.3,000 due from him was irrecoverable.
(ii) 10% provision for bad and doubtful debts is generally created.
The amount of provision for bad and doubtful debts will be:
(a) Rs.3,000. (b) Rs.2,700.
(c) Rs. 2,500. (d) None of the three.

34. Bad debts Rs. 3,000

Provision for bad debts Rs. 3,500
It is desired to make a provision of Rs. 4,000 at the end of the year The amount debited to P & L A/c
is :
(a) Rs. 4,000 (b) Rs. 5,000
(c) Rs. 6,500 (d) Rs. 3,500
35. A purchased a computer costing Rs.10,000. Repairing expenses Rs.1,000 and miscellaneous
expenses Rs.500 were incurred by him. He sold the computer at 20% margin on selling price. The
sales value will be
(a) Rs.12,500. (b) Rs.11,000
(c) Rs.14,375 (d) Rs.13,800

36. G's trial balance contains the following information -

Bad debts Rs. 4,000; Provision for Bad debts Rs. 5,000; Sundry debtors Rs. 25,000
It is desired to create a provision for Bad debts at 10% on Sundry debtors at the end of the year.
Sundry debtors will appear in the balance sheet at
(a) Rs. 21,000 (b) Rs. 22,500
(c) Rs. 22,000 (d) None of the three

37. Opening Balance of cash = Rs. 4,000. Closing balance = Rs. 7000. Payment to creditors = Rs. 80.000,
B/P matured = Rs. 6000, B/R discounted = Rs. 9,000, Sundry expenses = Rs. 3,000, Drawings
= Rs.12,000 What is the amount received from debtors?
(a) Rs. 95,000 (b) Rs. 1,01,000
(c) Rs. 83,000 (d) Rs. 91,000

38. Which one is correct?

(a) Goodwill is a fictitious asset (b) Closing stock is a wasting asset
(c) Preliminary expense is a current asset (d) Patent is an intangible asset

39. What is the order in which the accounting transactions and events are recorded in the books?
(a) Journal, Subsidiary books, Ledger, Balance sheet , Profit and loss account.
(b) Ledger, Journal, Ledger, Balance sheet , Profit and loss account
(c) Journal, Ledger, Profit and loss account, Balance sheet .
(d) Profit and loss account, Ledger, Balance sheet, Journal.

40. Stock worth Rs. 10,000 (cost price Rs. 7,500) taken by Mohan office clerk. Amount to be deducted
from his salary in the subsequent month. Journal entry will be
(a) Dr Salary and Cr Purchases A/c 10000
(b) Dr Mohan and Cr purchases 10000
(c) Dr Salary and Cr Purchases 7500
(d) None of the above

41. The manufacturing account is prepared:

(a) To ascertain the profit or loss on the goods produced
(b) To ascertain the cost of the manufactured goods
(c) To show the sale proceeds from the goods produced during the year
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Considering the following information answer the Question 42 given below:

1 st January 31st December
Stock of raw-materials 17,400 18,100
Work-in-progress 11,200 11,400
Stock of finished goods 41,500 40,700
During the year manufacturing overhead expenses amounted Rs.61,100, manufacturing wages Rs.
40,400 and purchase of raw materials Rs. 91,900. There were no other direct expenses.

42. The cost of raw materials consumed issued and used were:
(a) Rs. 1,09,300 (b) Rs. 91,200
(c) Rs. 91,900 (d) Rs. 92,600
43. Which one is not considered to calculate historical cost of inventory?
(a) Carriage Inward (b) Duty Drawback
(c) Normal Loss (d) Abnormal Loss

44. In the situation of inflation which method of valuation stock shows low tax liability?
(a) FIFO (b) LIFO
(c) Simple Average Method (d) Weighted Average Method

45. From the given information calculate historical cost of inventory using adjusted selling price
method?
Sales For The period Rs 2,00,000
Cost of Purchase Rs 2,00,000
Opening Stock Nil
Sale Value of Closing Stock Rs 50,000
(a) Rs 50000 (b) Rs 40000
(c) Rs 10000 (d) None of Above

46. Effect of over valuation of opening stock will be?

(a) Reduction in profit (b) Reduction in cost of goods sold
(c) Creation of secret reserve (d) All of the above

47. Trade Discount is:

(a) Debited to Profit & Loss A/c (b) Credited to Profit & Loss A/c
(c) Debited to Trading A/c (d) None of these

48. Which is based on book records for valuation of inventory?

(a) Periodic system (b) Perpetual system
(c) (a) and (b) (d) None of above

49. From the given information calculate correct net profit?

Net Profit 40000
On scrutiny following error’s detected
1. Carriage inward of Rs. 500 entered as carriage outward
2. Closing stock is overvalued by Rs 5000
3. Interest received of Rs. 100 entered as interest paid
(a) Rs 34100 (b) Rs 34600
(c) Rs 35200 (d) None of above

50. From the given information calculate amount of interest to be shown in Profit & Loss account for
the year ended 31st Dec. 2015?
Interest received in year 2015 Rs 80000
Outstanding interest an on 1st Jan. 2015 Rs 2000
Outstanding interest an on 31st Dec. 2015 Rs 1000
st
Balance of interest received in advance as on 1 Jan 2015 Rs 500
(a) Rs 82500 (b) Rs 79500
(c) Rs76500 (d) None of above

51. Which method is approved by AS- 2 For valuation of closing finished goods?
(a) Market prices method (b) Absorption cost method
(c) Marginal cost method (d) All of the above
52. Goods costing Rs 5000 (invoice price Rs 6000) Drawing by proprietor for personal use, what will be
effect on gross profit and net profit:

(a) No change in gross profit, Net profit reduced by Rs. 1,000

(b) Gross profit reduced by Rs. 6,000, Net profit reduced by Rs. 6,000
(c) Gross profit reduced by Rs. 5,000, Net profit reduced by Rs. 5,000
(d) No effect on Gross Profit and Net Profit.

53. Which is non cash expense:

(a) Depreciation (b) Preliminary expenses written off
(c) Deferred Revenue expenditure written off (d) all of the above

54. Income tax paid for sole proprietor business and company is treated as:
(a) Drawings. Drawings (b) Expense, Drawings
(c) Drawings, Expense (d) Expense, Expense

55. From the given information calculate amount of debtors:

Further Bad Debts = Rs. 10,000
Provision for doubtful debts = 10%
Provision for Discount = 5%
Net Debtors = Rs. 32,490
(a) Rs. 44,200 (b) Rs. 38,000
(c) Rs. 85,500 (d) Rs. 48,000

56. M/s Johri Trading Company Running Business of Building Material. Building Material of Rs.
1,00,000 used for construction of building of the proprietor to be let out to the Johri Trading
Company. Entry will be :
(a) Building A/c Dr 1,00,000
To Building Material A/c 1,00,000
(b) Drawing A/c Dr 1,00,000
To Building Material A/c 1,00,000

(c) Building A/c Dr 1,00,000

To Purchase A/c 1,00,000

(d) Drawing A/c Dr 1,00,000

To Purchase A/c 1,00,000

57. Outstanding salary of March 2015 given in the trial balance is Rs. 85,000. It is known that Rahul &
Hamid Two employees having salary of Rs. 6,000 pm and Rs. 5,000 per month has been paid for
salary of march 2015. Salary will be debited for March ending 2015:
(a) Rs. 10,20,000 (b) Rs. 10,31,000
(c) Rs. 11,52,000 (d) Rs. 9,35,000

58. Match the following:

(I) Inventory not ordinarily interchangeable i Historical cost method
(II) Average Price Method ii Perpetual Inventory method
(III) Adjusted Selling Price iii Specific identification method
(IV) System Based on Book Record iv Non Historical cost method
I II III IV
(a) iii i ii iv
(b) iii i iv ii
(c) i iii iv ii
(d) i ii iv iii
59. Calculate cost of Goods sold on the basis of information, Given in trial balance:
Opening Balance = Rs. 10,000
Purchase = Rs. 2,00,000
Closing stock = Rs. 20,000
(a) Rs. 1,90,000 (b) Rs. 2,10,000
(c) Rs. 1,70,000 (d) None of these

60. Calculate average capital on the basis of following information:

Opening Capital = Rs. 2,00,000
Sales = Rs. 5,00,000
Total cost of goods available for sale = Rs. 5,00,000
Cost of Goods sold = Rs. 4,00,000
Direct expenses = Rs. 20,000
Indirect expenses = Rs. 10,000
Tax Rate = @50%
(a) Rs. 1,97,500 (b) Rs. 2,22,500
(c) Rs. 1,17,500 (d) Rs. 1,92,500

61. On the valid performance of the contractual obligations by the parties, the contract
(a) is discharged. (b) becomes enforceable.
(c) becomes void. (d) none of these.

62. A promises to paint a picture for B at a certain price. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) A is not bound to perform the promise himself.
(b) A can appoint some other painter to paint the picture on his behalf.
(c) A dies before painting the picture, the contract can be enforced either by representatives of A or
by B.
(d) All of the above are incorrect.

63. Assignment of contract may be done by

(a) Operation of law (b) The act of parties
(c) (a) or (b) (d) None of the above

64. A,B and C jointly promise to pay D a sum of Rs. 90,000 , C is compelled to pay the whole of the
amount to D. Can he recovers any things form A and B both A and B were solvent?
(a) Yes, C can recover Rs. 60,000 from A
(b) Yes, C can recover Rs. 90,000 from A
(c) Yes, C can recover Rs. 30,000 each from a and B
(d) No C cant recover anything from A and B

65. Where the contingency of event merely indicates the mode or manner of performance, the contract
is not
(a) Valid (b) Void
(c) Contingent (d) Lawful
66. Match the following

1. mutual and concurrent (a) performance of promise by one party depends

upon prior performance by the other
2. mutual an independent (b) promises to be performed simultaneously
3. conditional and dependent (c) where each party is promisor as well as promisee
4. reciprocal promises (d) promise by each party to be performed
without waiting for the other to perform
1 2 3 4
(a) b d a c
(b) b d c a
(c) c d b a
(d) d c b a

67. When performance of promise becomes impossible or illegal by occurrence of an unexpected event
or change of circumstances beyond the contemplation of parties, the contract becomes void. The
situation is dealing with.......
(a) Remission (b) Recission
(c) Supervening impossibility (d) Alteration

68. In clayton's case where a debtor owes several distinct debts to a creditor and debtor make payment
it was held that appropriation will be make according to intention of:
(a) Debtor (b) Creditor
(c) First come first serve basis (d) None of these

69. Rescission of a contract means...........:

(a) The renewal of original contract (b) Cancellation of contract
(c) Substitution of new contract (d) Alteration of contract

70. Discharge by mutual agreement may involve................

(a) Novation (b) Rescission
(c) Alteration (d) Novation, rescission and alteration

71. Commercial impossibility does not make the contract _________.

(a) Valid (b) Void
(c) Illegal (d) Voidable

72. Contracting parties may not remain same in______________.

(a) Remission (b) Rescission
(c) Novation (d) Alteration

73. When an inferior right accruing to a party in a contract merges into a superior right accruing to the
same party, then:
(a) The contract conferring the superior right is discharged
(b) The contract conferring the inferior right is discharged
(c) Both contracts are discharged
(d) Both contracts are not discharged
74 In case of anticipatory breach the aggrieved party may treat the contract
(a) As operative and wait till the time for performance arrives
(b) As discharged and bring an immediate action for damages
(c) Exercise option either (a) or (b)
(d) Only option (a) is available

75. Damages are:

(a) Punitive in nature (b) Vindictive in nature
(c) Compensatory in nature (d) None of the above

76. Vindictive Damages are awarded:

(a) For wrongful dishonour of cheque by a banker (b) For a breach of promise to marry
(c) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) Either (a) or (b)

77. Quantum meirut means

(a) as much as is merited (b) as much as is credited
(c) as much as is performed (d) None of these

78. In which of the following case a claim is not enforceable on the ground of quantum meruit?
(a) A is engaged by B to write a book to be published in installments in weekly magazine. The
magazine is abandoned after a few issues.
(b) A is employed as a managing director in a company. After he renders service for sometime it is
found that the directors were not qualified to appoint him as such
(c) A undertakes to build a house for B for Rs. 25,000, but after having done half the work he
abandons the contract. B afterwards completes the house
(d) A decorated B's flat and fits a wardrobe and a book-case for a lump sum fo Rs. 15,000. The work
is done but B complaints of faulty workmanship

79. Match the following:

1. liquidated damages (a) Disproportionate and unfair estimate of probable
damages
2. Special damages (b) Part of purchase price paid in advance
3. Penalty (c) Damages due to special or unusual circumstances
4. Earnest money (d) Genuine pre-estimate of probable damages
1 2 3 4
(a) d c a b
(b) d c b a
(c) c d a b
(d) c d b a

80. An agency can be created by the following ways:

(a) Agency by actual authority. (b) Agency by ratification.
(c) Agency by ostensible authority. (d) All of the above.

81. In case of reciprocal promise, first to do do things which are legal are ________and Second to do
things which are illegal are__________
(a) Valid, void (b) Void, voidable
(c) Valid, illegal (d) Void, void
82. A contingent contract is _____________________.
(a) A contract to do something if some event collateral to such contract does or does not happen
(b) A contract not to do something if some event collateral to such contract does or does not
happen
(c) A contract to do or not to do something if some event collateral to such contract does or does
not happen
(d) A contract to do or not to do something if some event collateral to such contract does not
happen

83. A collateral event is an event:

(a) The performance for which is agreed upon by the parties in a Court of Law
(b) It is the entire consideration for the promise
(c) The performance for which is neither directly promised nor it is the entire consideration for the
promise
(d) The performance for which is directly promised

84. A, a tradesman, left certain goods at B's house by mistake. In this case B
(a) Is under obligation to make a fresh contract with A for the use of these goods
(b) Is bound to return the goods under quasi-contractual obligations
(c) Is not bound to return the goods as there is no agreement between the two
(d) Can use the goods as his own and can also claim compensation from A

85. A contracts to pay B Rs. 1,00,000 if the latter's house is burnt to ashes. This is an example of.............
(a) Contingent contract (b) Quasi-contract
(c) Guarantee (d) Bailment

86. Quasi contractual right is a right, which is available against

(a) The entire world (b) Any person
(c) A particular person (d) Both (b) & (c)

87. It is the duty of the finder of goods to trace the true owner of the goods, and if does not do so, he
shall be guilty of
(a) Theft (b) Extortion
(c) Criminal misappropriation of property (d) None of the above

88. 'A' polished 'B' is shoes without being accepted by 'B' to do so. 'B' does not make any attempt to
stop 'A' from polishing the shoes. Decide.
(a) B is bound to pay (b) B is not bound to pay
(c) B is bound to pay damages any incurred by A (d) None of these

89. Where the promisor has not undertaken to perform the promise without an application by the
promisee, and the promise is to be performed on a certain day:
(a) It is the duty of the promisee to apply for performance
(b) Such application must be at a proper place and within usual hours
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) It will be treated as non performance of promise
90. Supervening impossibility may not arise due to:
(a) Impossibility of act
(b) Unlawful of act
(c) Change of circumstance beyond the contemplation of parties
(d) Commercial impossibility

91. No consideration is required in:

(a) Novation (b) Rescission
(c) Alteration (d) Partial or complete remission

92. Novation may take place between:

(a) Different parties (b) The same parties
(c) (a) or (b) (d) (a) and (b)

93. The parties to the contract are deprived of remedy at law due to limitation act if:
(a) Not performed within period of limition
(b) No action is taken by the promising within specified period of limition
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these

94. X agrees to sell to Y one quintal of wheat @ Rs. 100 per quintal to be delivered on 3rd march, on 2nd
February he gives notice expressing his unwillngness to sell wheat. The price of wheat on that date
was Rs. 110 per quintal. Y keepts the contract alive till 3rd march on which date price of rice was Rs.
125 per quintal. Y can claim damage for
(a) Rs. 10 per quintal (b) Rs. 25 per quintal
(c) Rs. 100 per quintal (d) Rs. 125 per quintal

95. Ordering the relief by way of specific performance of contract is:

(a) Right of a person and the court must give it (b) At the discretion of the court
(c) Provided in the Indian Contract Act (d) Both (a) & (c)

96. Match the following:

(i) Wagering agreement (a) Agreement the meaning of which is uncertain
(ii) Uncertain agreement (b) Returning benefit received under void contract
(iii) Restitution (c) Contract dependent on something else
(iv) Contingent Contract (d) Agreement to pay money or money's worth on the
happening or non - happening of an uncertain event
i ii iii iv
(a) d a c b
(b) c a b d
(c) d a b c
(d) a b c d

97. Which of following are legal requirement of a valid contingent contract?

(i) It must be a valid contract
(ii) It must be certain
(iii) The performance of the contract must be conditional
(iv) The event must be collateral to the contract
(a) ii, iii, iv (b) i, ii, iii
(c) i, ii, iv (d) i, iii, iv
98. Which is correct :
(a) A wagering agreement is essentially of a contingent nature where as a contingent contract may
not be of a wagering nature
(b) Wagering agreement is a game of chance
(c) Contingent contracts are not a game of chance
(d) All of these

99. Quasi contracts are enforceable even if the essential elements of contract are not there:
(a) True, as quasi-contractual obligations have been specifically made enforceable
(b) False, as an agreement which lacks essential elements is void and unenforceable
(c) May be made enforceable by ratification
(d) May be made enforceable by novation

100. A person to whom.........by mistake, or under coercion, must repay or return it:
(a) Money has been paid (b) Anything has been delivered
(c) (a) or (b) above (d) (a) and (b) above
 VIDYA SAGAR
CAREER INSTITUTE LIMITED
CPT Minor Test – 2 (Part – B)
Instruction: Maximum Marks: 100
5. Use HB Pencil to fill ovals for correct answer. Time : 2 Hours
6. Each question carry one mark. Date : 30.10.2018
7. Negative marking .25 marks for each wrong answer.
8. No negative marking for unattempted questions.
__________________________________________________________________________________
1. Before financial reforms, the banking system was characterised by all of the following except:
(a) Administered interest rate structure
(b) Quantitative restrictions on credit flow
(c) High revenue requirements
(d) Keeping very less lendable resources for the priority sector

2. At present, 100 percent FDI is allowed in ______________ .

(a) defence (b) drugs and pharmaceuticals
(c) banks (d) insurance

3. From 2005 FDI limit in certain services of telecom sector was increased from 49% to.........
(a) 51% (b) 64%
(c) 74% (d) 100%

4. Duty Free Export Credit Scheme has been revamped and re-cast into :
(a) Made in India model (b) Served from India Scheme
(c) India's Shining Scheme (d) EPCG Scheme

5. In July, 1991 Indian devalued the rupee by about:

(a) 19% (b) 29%
(c) 13% (d) 9%

6. Fiscal policy means:

(a) policy relating to money and banking in a country.
(b) policy relating to public revenue and public expenditure.
(c) policy relating to non banking financial institutions.
(d) none of the above.

7. FRBMA, 2003 emphasises on the following except:

(a) Revenue-Led Fiscal Consolidation
(b) Rationalisation of Tax Regime
(c) Improve competitiveness of domestic goods and services in a globalised economic environment

(d) Capital - led fiscal consolidation

8. FEMA stands for:

(a) Fiscal Exchange Management Act (b) Foreign Exchange Monetary Act
 (c) Foreign Exchange Management Act (d) Foreign Exchange Money Act

9. Main objective of fiscal policy in developing countries is to :

(1) Promote economic growth (2) Mobilise resources for economic growth

(3) Ensure economic growth and distribution (4) Increase employment opportunities
(a) only 1 and 2 are correct (b) only 2 and 3 are correct
(c) only 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct

10. In__________we remove tariff, subsidies on the flow of goods and services between countries.
(a) globalisation (b) liberalisation
(c) privatisation (d) disinvestment

11. Privatization in India has taken place in all of the cases except:
(a) CMC (b) BALCO
(c) VSNL (d) None of the above.

12. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) The disinvestments programme has been successfully carried out in India.
(b) Privatization up to 100 percent has been carried out in all the PSUs in India
(c) Under strategic sale method of disinvestments, the government sells a major share to strategic
buyer
(d) None of the above

13. Which one of the following is not a method of disinvestment?

(a) Equity offer (b) Cross holding
(c) Warehousing (d) None of the above

14. India achieved full convertibility on current account in:

(a) 1994 (b) 1991
(c) 2001 (d) 2005

15. The present membership of IMF is:

(a) 148 (b) 177
(c) 189 (d) 149

16. In World Trade Organization, each member country has:

(a) One vote
(b) Depends upon National Income of the nation
(c) Depends upon UNO ranking
(d) Depends upon whether the country is developed, developing or underdeveloped

17. Three economic pillars do not include

(a) World Bank (b) IMF
(c) WTO (d) UNO
18. Match the following:
(1) WTO I. Provides loans to address short-term balance
of payments problems
(2) RBI II. Multilateral trade negotiating body.
(3) IMF III. Facilitating lending and borrowing for
reconstruction and development.
(4) IBRD IV. Central Bank of India
1 2 3 4
(a) ii iv I iii
(b) ii iv iii i
(c) iv ii i iii
(d) iv ii iii i

19. Which is not near money?

(a) Balance in saving account (b) Balance in current account
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Time deposits

20. In the present context, money stock in India refers to:

(a) NM1 (b) NM2
(c) NM3 (d) NM4

21. Fiat money is something which:

(a) Depreciates fast (b) Has stability in value
(c) Has huge intrinsic value (d) Has no intrinsic value

22. NABARD is a ---------------------:

(a) bank. (b) board.
(c) exchange programme for consumer goods. (d) department.

23. In terms of lending, priority sectors constitute about ...................of total bank lending. (June, 2016)
(a) 60 (b) 80
(c) 30 (d) 34

24. Nationalised Banks include:

(a) Punjab National Bank (b) Citibank
(c) American Express Bank (d) All of the above

25. Population per bank in India is 2013:

(a) around 5000 (b) around 20000
(c) Less than 10,000 (d) around 45000

26. The bank lending in June 2016 was (modified):

(a) 72,50,000 crore (b) 12,69,090 crore
(c) 13,69,090 crore (d) 14,69,090 crore
27. Find the odd one out:
(a) State Bank of India. (b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Bank of Baroda. (d) Bank of India.

28. Who is the official “lender of the last resort” in India?

(a) SBI (b) PNB
(c) RBI (d) OBC

29. Who is the custodian of nation reserves of international currency?

(a) SBI (b) IDBI
(c) RBI (d) ICICI

30. Which of the following is not a quantitative measure of credit control?

(a) Bank Rate Policy (b) Open Market Operation
(c) Consumer Credit Regulation (d) Variable Reserve Requirement

31. Monetary Policy refers to:

(a) Public Revenue and Public Expenditure Policy (b) Policy to control money supply
(c) M 1 and M2 (d) Policy linked to banking

32. Which of the following is not the objective of Monetary Policy?

(a) To regulate monetary growth
(b) To ensure adequate expansion in credit to assist economic growth
(c) To introduce measures for strengthening the banking system
(d) To increase Public Revenue

33. Monetary policy includes:

(a) Regulation of Money (b) Provides Employment
(c) Credit Control (d) All of these.

34. Who is the fiscal agent and adviser to government in monetary and financial matters in India?
(a) SBI (b) IDBI
(c) ICICI (d) RBI

35. The present cash reserve ratio as in (Sept. 2016) is:

(a) 5% (b) 5.5%
(c) 6.5% (d) 4%

36. Which is the following statement is correct?

(a) in 1991 national debt constituted 65%of the GNP
(b) in1991foreign exchange reserve were just sufficient to finance export of 3 weeks
(c) in1991foreign exchange reserve were just sufficient to finance import of 3 weeks
(d) None of these.

37. During 1990-92 the SLR was……and at present it is…..(sep.2017).

 (a) 38.5%, 4% (b) 22%,38.5%
(c) 38.5%,20% (d) 15%,4%

38. Which of the following is not related to tax reforms in India:

(a) the basic exemption limits have been increased.
(b) materialization of TDS certificates
(c) reduce peak rate of customs duties
(d) none of these.

39. Basel IInd frame work is relate form:

(a) to ensure financial stability (b) increasing bank liquidity
(c) both (a)&(b) (d) none of these.

40. Privatisation in India generally is in the form of…..

(a) Franchising (b) leasing
(c) contracting (d) disinvestment

41. Who is reservoir of the currencies:

(a) W.T.O (b) IMF
(c) World bank (d) IDA

42. Indian’s share in the world export (2016) is ……………….…:

(a) 0.53% (b) 1.78%
(c) 1% (d) 1.6%

43. Which of the following function of IMF……………………

(a) it provides machinery for International consultations.
(b) it is a sort of lending institution in foreign exchange.
(c) it monitors economic and financial developments of its members
(d) all of the above.

44. Which of following is not dynamic function of money:

(a) Direct economic trends (b) Encouragement to division of labour
(c) Transform saving into investment (d) Medium of exchange

45. Term deposits maturing within a year excluding FCNR (B) deposits are included is :
(a) NM1 (b) NM2
(c) NM3 (d) Both (b) and (c)

46. Pure money includes:

(a) Cash (b) Chequable deposits with commercial bank
(c) Government bonds (d) Both (a) and (b) above

47. Fastest possible money transfer system through banking channel is :

(a) NEFT (b) RTGS
(c) ATM (d) All of above

48. Eleven digit alphanumeric code which is required for NEFT and RTGS indicates:
(a) First four letters indicate identity of bank and remaining seven indicate single branch
(b) First four letters indicate single branch and remaining seven indicate identity of bank
(c) Any of the above
(d) None of the above
49. RBI ACT was Constituted in ________ and it start its operations on______:
(a) 1934, 1935 (b) 1948, 1949
(c) 1949, 1950 (d) 1969, 1980

50. Margin requirements means:

(a) Value of loan - Amount of security (b) Value of security – Amount of loan
(c) Any of the above (d) None of the above

51. If ≤ , the solution set is:

(a) (b)

(c) (d) None of these

52. Graphs of the inequations are drawn below :

y

9
8 L1
7 L2
6
5 L3
L4
4
3
2
1
x
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12

L1 : 2x + y = 9 L2 : x + y = 7 L3 : x + 2y = 10 L4 : x + 3y = 12
The common region (shaded part) indicated on the diagram is expressed by the set of inequalities:
(a) 2x + y ≤ 9 (b) 2x + y ≥ 9
x+y≥7 x+y≤7
x + 2y ≥ 10 x + 2y ≥ 10
x + 3y ≥ 12 x + 3y ≥ 12
(c) 2x + y ≥ 9 (d) None of these
x+y≥7
x + 2y ≥ 10
x + 3y ≥ 12
x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0

53. A sum of Rs. 46875 was lent out at simple interest and at the end of 1 year 8 months the total
amount was Rs. 50000. Find the rate of interest percent per annum:
(a) 2% (b) 10%
(c) 4% (d) 8%

54. If Simple Interest on Rs. 2,000 increases by Rs. 40, when the rate percent increases by 2% per
annum. Find the time (in years)?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 1½ (d) None of these

55. If P = Rs. 1000, R = 5% p.a, n = 4; then compound amount and C.I. is :

 (a) Rs. 1215.50, Rs. 215.50 (b) Rs. 1125, Rs. 125
(c) Rs. 2115, Rs. 115 (d) None of these

56. Mr. Natrajan wants to make an investment of Rs. 50,000 in one of the two banks that fetches him
the maximum returns after 6 years. One bank offers 8% interest compounded annually and the
other offers compounded annually and the other offers 7.5% interest compounded semi-annually.
Which bank should be chosen, so that he gets the maximum returns:
(a) First Bank (b) Second Bank
(c) Any of two banks (d) Both the Bank

57. A = Rs. 1200 n = 12 yrs i = 0.08 v = ?

Using the formula V = value of v will be :

(a) Rs. 3039 (b) 3990

(c) Rs. 9930 (d) None of these

58. Suppose your mom decides to gift you Rs. 10000 every year starting from today for the next five
years. You deposit this amount in a bank as and when you receive and get 10% per annum interest
rate compounded annually. What is the present value of this annuity:
(a) 51698.70 (b) 32700
(c) 41698.70 (d) 500000

59. If n1 + n2 P2 = 132, n1 – n2P2 = 30 then:

(a) n1 = 6, n2 = 6 (b) n1 = 10, n2 = 2
(c) n1 = 9, n2 = 3 (d) None of these

60. If six times the number permutations of n things taken 3 at a time is equal to seven times the
number of permutations of (n - 1) things chosen 3 at a time, find n :
(a) 36 (b) 21
(c) 35 (d) None of these

61. A family of 4 brothers and three sisters is to be arranged for a photograph in one row. In how many
ways can they be seated if all the sisters sit together ?
(a) 1440 (b) 360
(c) 720 (d) None of these

62. A code word is to consist of two distinct English alphabets followed by two distinct number from 1
to 9. How many such code words are there?:
(a) 6,15,800 (b) 46,800
(c) 7,19,500 (d) 4,10,800

63. A room has 10 doors. In how many ways can a man enter the room by one door and come out by
same door :
(a) 1 (b) 100
(c) 90 (d) 10
64. How many numbers greater than 1000 can be formed with the digits of the number 23416; if the
digits are not repeated in the same number:
(a) 120 (b) 200
(c) 240 (d) None of these

65. The number of ways in which 7 boys sit at a round table so that two particular boys may sit together
is :
(a) 240 (b) 200
(c) 120 (d) None of these

66. How many different triangles can be formed joining the angular points of a polygon of m sides?
(a) (b)
(c) m (d) None of these

67. A committee of 3 ladies and 4 gents is to be formed out of 8 ladies and 7 gents. Mrs. X refuse to
serve in a committee in which Mr. Y is a member. The number of such committees is :
(a) 1530 (b) 1500
(c) 1520 (d) 1540

68. A question paper contains 6 questions, each having an alternative. The number of ways an examine
can answer one or more question is :
(a) 720 (b) 728
(c) 729 (d) None of these

69. Solution of inequation : 7x + 6 < 12x + 21 is:

(a) (-3 , 3) (b) (0 , -3)
(c) (-3, ∞) (d) (3, ∞)

70. BY mistake a clerk calculated the simple interest on principal for 5 months at 6.5%
p.a. instead of 6 months at 5.5% p.a. if the error in calculation was Rs. 25.40. The original sum of
principal was:
(a) 5080 (b) 2540
(c) 5000 (d) None of these

71. A person deposited Rs 5000 in a bank. The deposit was left to accumulate at 5% compounded
annually for first three years and 8% compounded annually for next two years. The compound
amount at the end of 5 years:
(a) 6548.50 (b) 6751.26
(c) 6962.75 (d) 6458

72. In an election the number of candidates is one more than number of members to be elected. If a
voter can vote any number of votes but not more than to be elected .If a voter can vote in 254
different ways. Find the number of candidates:
(a) 8 (b) 10
(c) 7 (d) None of these
73. The number of permutation of n distinct things taken r together, in which 2 particular things must
occur, is:
n-2
(a) pr-2 (b) n-2cr-2 . r!
n-2
(c) cr-2 (d) None of these

74. The number of proper factors the number 75600 has is:
(a) 120 (b) 121
(c) 119 (d) 118

75. A company sets aside a sum of Rs. 5000 annually for 10 years to pay off a debenture issue of Rs.
60,000. If the fund accumulates at 5% per annum. Find the surplus after full redemption of the
debenture issue:
[Given (1.05)10 = 1.629]
(a) Rs. 62,900 (b) Rs. 5,400
(c) Rs. 2,900 (d) Rs. 6,050.27

76. Correlation methods are used to study the relationship between two time series of data which are
recorded annually, monthly, weekly, daily and so on.
(a) true (b) false
(c) both (a) & (b) (d) none of these

77. If the value of correlation coefficient is positive, then the points in a scatter diagram tend to cluster:
(a) From lower left corner to upper right corner (b) From lower left corner to lower right
corner
(c) From lower right corner to upper left corner (d) From lower right corner to upper right
corner

78. If cov (x, y) = 15, what restrictions should be put for the standard deviations of x and y:
(a) No restriction
(b) The product of the standard deviations should be more than 15.
(c) The product of the standard deviations should be less than 15.
(d) The sum of the standard deviations should be less than 15.

79. For 10 pairs of observations following data is recorded :

Variables X Y
Average 161 162
Sum of squares of deviations from mean 254 150
Sum of products of deviation from mean 164
Calculate correlation coefficient:
(a) 0.004 (b) - 0.68
(c) - 0.84 (d) 0.84

80. Find the coefficient of concurrent deviations from the following data :
Years : 1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997
Price : 25 28 30 23 35 38 39 42
Demand : 35 34 35 30 29 28 26 23
(a) 0.65 (b) - 0.65
 (c) 0.37 (d) - 0.37

81. Formula for probable error is given by :

(a) (b) 0.6745 x

(c) 0.6745 x (d) None of these

82. The following data is given, based on 450 students for marks in statistics and Economics at a certain
examination:
Means marks in Statistics = 40
Means marks in Economics = 48
S.D of marks (Statistics) = 12
Variance of marks (Economics) = 256
Sum of the products of deviations of marks from their respective mean = 42075
The average marks in Economics of candidates who obtained 50 marks in Statistics is:
(a) 45 (b) 54.5
(c) 54 (d) 47.5

83. ________ of the regression Coefficients is greater than the correlation coefficient.
(a) Combined mean (b) Harmonic mean
(c) Geometric mean (d) Arithmetic mean

84. Given the regression equation as 2x + y = 30 and 3x + 2y = 20, which one is the regression equation
of y on x ?
(a) 1st equation (b) 2nd equation
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these

85. The two regression equations are :

2x + 3y + 18 = 0 ; x + 2y - 25 = 0
find the value of y if x = 9
(a) -8 (b) 8
(c) - 12 (d) 0

86. Index number is equal to:

(a) Sum of price relatives (b) Product of price relatives
(c) Ratio of price relatives (d) Average of price relatives

87. The simple index number for the Current year using simple aggregative method for the following
data is ___________.
Commodity Base year Current year
price price
(P0) (P1)
Wheat 80 100
Rice 100 150
Gram 120 250
 Pulses 200 300
(a) 200 (b) 150
(c) 240 (d) 160

88. From the following data by the method of relatives using Arithmetic mean the price index number
is:

Commodity Wheat Milk Fish Sugar

Base Price 5 8 25 6
Current Price 7 10 32 12
(a) 140.35 (b) 148.25
(c) 140.75 (d) None of these

89. The consumer price index for 2006 on the basis of 2005 from the following data is:
Commodities Quantities consumed in 2005 Price in 2005 Price in 2006
A 6 5.75 6.00
B 6 5.00 8.00
C 1 6.00 9.00
D 6 8.00 10.00
E 4 2.00 1.50
F 1 20.00 15.00
(a) 128.77 (b) 108.77
(c) 138.77 (d) 118.77

90. From the following data base year:

Commodity Base year Current year
Price Quantity Price Quantity
A 4 3 6 2
B 5 4 6 4
C 7 2 9 2
D 2 3 1 5
Fisher's Ideal Index is:
(a) 117.3 (b) 115.43
(c) 118.35 (d) 116.48

91. Suppose a business executive was earning Rs. 2050 in the base period, what should be his salary in
the current period if his standard of living is to remain the same? Given *ΣW = 25 and ΣIW = 3544+:
(a) Rs. 2096 (b) Rs. 2906
(c) Rs. 2106 (d) Rs. 2306

92. From the following data :

Commodity Base year Current year
Price Quantity Price Quantity
A 4 3 6 2
B 5 4 6 4
C 7 2 9 2
D 2 3 1 5
 Value Ratio is :
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

93. Marshall Edge worth Index number satisfies ___________ test:

(a) Unit (b) Time Reversal
(c) Factor reversal (d) (a) & (b)

94. From the following data, index number using GM of relatives is:
Commodities Base Year Current Year
A 25 50
B 30 45
C 40 50
(a) 375.21 (b) 155.36
(c) 193.65 (d) None of these

95. Wages of a workers is increased from Rs. 800 to Rs. 1200. If base price index is 160 then the current
prices index is:
(a) 100 (b) 200
(c) 240 (d) None of these

96. Price of a commodity increases from Rs. 5 to Rs. 7.5 and its production in base year was 120 units. If
the product of price ratio and quantity ratio is 1.25 then by how much the production of unit
changes in current year:
(a) Increase by 30 (b) Decrease by 20
(c) Increase by 100 (d) None of these

97. Given the following information , find the number of items where dx = x- and dy = y-
r = 0.8, ∑dxdy = 60, σy =2.5, ∑dx2 =90
(a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 11 (d) 13

98. A student computed regression coefficient of Y on X as 1.2 and that of X on Y as 0.9. Are these
results correct:
(a) Yes (b) No
(c) Can, t say (d) None of these

99. The line of regression of marks in statistics (x) on marks in accountancy (y) for a class of 50 students
is 3y - 5x + 180=0. Variance of marks in statistics is 9/16 of variance of marks in accountancy. The
value of correlation coefficient is:
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.6
(c) 0.7 (d) 0.8
100. If regression equation of x on y is 4x – 5y + 33=0, σx =3 and σY =2.5 then Cov (x,y) is
(a) 6.25 (b) 1.25
(c) 7.8125 (d) 3.125
 Minor Test 2 Dt 30.09.2018
Part A
1 B 21 A 41 B 61 A 81 A
2 C 22 B 42 B 62 D 82 C
3 B 23 A 43 D 63 C 83 C
4 A 24 A 44 B 64 C 84 B
5 D 25 B 45 B 65 C 85 A
6 C 26 B 46 A 66 A 86 C
7 B 27 B 47 D 67 C 87 C
8 B 28 A 48 B 68 A 88 A
9 A 29 B 49 C 69 B 89 C
10 A 30 C 50 B 70 D 90 D
11 A 31 A 51 B 71 B 91 D
12 C 32 B 52 D 72 C 92 C
13 C 33 B 53 D 73 B 93 C
14 A 34 D 54 C 74 C 94 B
15 A 35 C 55 D 75 C 95 B
16 A 36 B 56 D 76 D 96 C
17 C 37 A 57 C 77 A 97 D
18 A 38 D 58 B 78 C 98 D
19 A 39 C 59 B 79 A 99 A
20 D 40 C 60 B 80 D 100 C
 Part B
1 D 21 D 41 B 61 C 81 B
2 B 22 A 42 D 62 B 82 B
3 C 23 D 43 D 63 D 83 D
4 B 24 A 44 D 64 C 84 B
5 A 25 C 45 D 65 A 85 B
6 B 26 A 46 D 66 A 86 D
7 D 27 B 47 B 67 D 87 D
8 C 28 C 48 A 68 B 88 B
9 D 29 C 49 A 69 C 89 D
10 B 30 C 50 B 70 D 90 A
11 D 31 B 51 B 71 B 91 B
12 C 32 D 52 C 72 A 92 A
13 D 33 C 53 C 73 B 93 D
14 A 34 D 54 A 74 D 94 B
15 C 35 D 55 A 75 C 95 C
16 A 36 C 56 A 76 A 96 B
17 D 37 C 57 D 77 A 97 A
18 A 38 B 58 C 78 B 98 B
19 C 39 A 59 C 79 D 99 D
20 C 40 D 60 B 80 B 100 C