PERFORMANCE & FLIGHT PLANNING + Weight and balnce - ATPL

1. The lowest limit for VR ( rotation speed ) is / are :

a. 1.1 VMCG
b. V1
c. 1.05 VMCA
d. Both b and c above

2. A maximum limit for V1 is :

a. 1.05 VMCG
b. 0.9 VMCA
c. VMCG
d. V

3. A lower limit for V1 ( engine failure speed ) is :

a. VMCG
b. 0.8 VMCG
c. VMCA
d. 1.05 VMCA

4. The V2 minimum (minimum take-off safety speed) is the greater of 1.1 VMCA or 1.2
VS
a. True
b. False

5. A climb gradient is the ratio (in the same units) expressed as percentage of :
a. Horizontal distance traveled over change in height
b. Change in height over vertical distance traveled
c. Change in distance over horizontal distance traveled
d. Change in height over horizontal distance traveled

6. Gross performance is the performance of the aircraft as established from the

certification test.
a. True
b. False

7. Given : change in height 1500 ft/min, ground speed 150 kt.

Calculate the climb gradient !
a. 0.1 %
b. 0.5 %
c. 5.0 %
d. 10.0 %

8. Minimum Control Speed ( VMC ) is based on all engine operative and angle of bank
in excess 5 degrees.?
a. True
b. False
9. A take-off field length is said to be balance if :
a. TODA = ASDA = TORA
b. TODA = ASDA < TORA
c. TODA < ASDA = TORA
d. Both a and c above

10. The availability of clearway permits :

a. A better climb gradient capability
b. Take-off at higher ambient temperature
c. Take-off at greater payload if otherwise; limiting conditions.
d. Both a and b above

11. A higher flap setting offers :

a. A shorter runway req. length for take off than a lesser flaps
b. A Better climb gradient capability than a lesser flap setting.
c. The same climb gradient capability as a lesser flap setting
d. Higher second segment limiting weight than a lesser flap setting

12. Accelerate-stop distance in normally based on use of :

a. Idle power, maximum allowable wheel brakes (e.g. anti skid), and other
approved means of braking (e.g. spoilers).
b. Brakes alone because they most effective and reliable
c. Reverse thrust and brakes
d. Brakes, spoilers and reverse thrust

13. The gross take-off flight path may be considered to extend from lift-off to :
a. The point where a height of 1500 ft above take-off surface is reached.
b. The point where the transition from take-off to clean configuration is
completed and the speed for compliance with the final take-off climb
requirement is reached.
c. Flaps retraction height is reached.
d. Both a and b above

14. Second segment may be considered to extend from :

a. 35 ft to height of 1200 ft above the take-off surface
b. The point where the gear is fully retracted to height of 900 ft above the take-
off surface.
c. 400 ft to a height of 1500 ft above the take-off surface
d. The point where the gear is fully retracted to flaps retraction height.

15. The minimum first segment climb gradient for 4-engined aircraft is :
a. 0.6 %
b. 0.5 %
c. 0.3 %
d. Positive climb gradient

16. The final take-off segment will also limit the TOW, if take- off at height field
elevation and high ambient temperature.
 a. True
b. False
17. The minimum required second segment gross climb gradient for twin engined
aircraft is :
a. 1.6 %
b. 2.1 %
c. 2.4 %
d. 2.7 %

18. The minimum required final segment gross climb gradient for 3- engined aircraft is :
a. 1.1 %
b. 1.2 %
c. 1.5 %
d. 1.7 %

19. The minimum vertical clearance for obstacle clearance is :

a. 35 feet
b. 50 feet
c. 75 feet
d. 90 feet

20. True air temperature and density altitude will be higher than indicated pressure
altitude if ambient temperature at the altitude higher than standard temperature.
a. True
b. False

21. The minimum flaps retraction height is :

a. 800 above the take off surface
b. 600 above the take off surface
c. 400 above the take off surface
d. 200 above the take off surface

22. If the rotation is too early or too much, the aircraft will pass low over the end of the
runway, well below normal rotation climb gradient.
a. True
b. False

23. Landing climb requirements based on one engine inoperative and speed not less
than 1.3 VS :
a. True
b. False

24. The minimum width of the clear way is :

a. 150 feet
b. 200 feet
c. 400 feet
d. 500 feet
25. The Approach climb requirements based on one engine inoperative and speed not
in excess of 1.5 VS
a. True
b. False

26. If the runway is expected to be wet or slippery at arrival the available landing field
length should be factored by 100/115 :
a. True
b. False

27. The two-engine net en route flight path for four-engined aircraft should be
determined by reducing the gross climb performance by a climb gradient of :
a. 0.2 %
b. 0.5 %
c. 0.1 %
d. 0.3 %

28. Which condition reduces the required runway for take off ?
a. Higher than recommended airspeed before rotation
b. Lower than standard air density
c. Decreased head wind component
d. Increased head wind component

29. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on engine
performance ?
a. As temperature increases, thrust decreases.
b. As temperature decreases, thrust decreases.
c. As air density decreases, thrust increase.
d. As temperature increases, thrust increases.

30. Which condition increases the required runway for take off ?
a. Higher than recommended airspeed before rotation
b. Lower than standard air density
c. Increased tail wind component
d. All answer above are correct.

31. What effect does a tail wind have upon take off performance?
a. Decreases take off speed
b. Decreases take off distance
c. Increases take off distance
c. Both answer b and c above are correct

32. The stalling speed ( VS ) depends primarily on

a. Altitude and temperature
b. Temperature and weight
c. Weight and altitude
d. Weight and flaps setting
33. Relative to a wet runway condition :
a. 115 % of the available landing distance is required
b. 115 % of the required landing field length is required
c. The required landing field length will be decreased
d. The available landing field length will be increased

34. Taxi fuel includes the fuel for :

a. The engine starting
b. Taxiing to the runway take off position
c. The APU
d. All answer above are correct

35. Selected cruising altitude determine by :

a. Distance from departure to destination
b. Weight of the aircraft
c. MORA, MOCA and MEA
d. All answer above are correct

36. The performance table of an aircraft for take off and climb are based on :
a. Cabin altitude
b. True altitude
c. Pressure and density altitude
a. Both b and c above are correct

37. Take off distance is displayed in the aircraft operating manual in graph form or on
chart, the variables are :
a. Pressure altitude and temperature
b. Aircraft weight
c. Head wind or tail wind component
d. All answer above are correct
38. The trip distance is :
a. The distance from departure airport destination
b. The distance along this route plus the longest STAR
c. The distance along this route plus the longest SID and STAR
d. All answer above are correct
39. Rate of climb has calculated in :
a. Feet per minutes
b. Feet per knots
c. Feet per hours
d. Feet per nautical miles

WEIGHT & BALANCE

40. The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a:
a. low gross mass and forward centre of gravity.
b. low gross mass and aft centre of gravity.
c. high gross mass and aft centre of gravity.
d. high gross mass and forward centre of gravity.
41. The actual 'Take-off Mass' is equivalent to:
A Actual Zero Fuel Mass plus the traffic load
B Dry Operating Mass plus the take-off fuel
C Actual Landing Mass plus the take-off fuel
D Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic load

42. Which of the following is unlikely to have any effect on the position of the centre of
gravity on an aeroplane in flight ?
A Lowering the landing gear.
B Movement of cabin attendants going about their normal duties.
C Normal consumption of fuel for a swept wing aeroplane.
D Changing the tailplane horizontal stabiliser. incidence angle.
43. The distance from the datum to the Centre of Gravity of a mass is known as
A the lever.
B the moment.
C the index.
D the moment arm or balance arm.
44. To calculate a usable take-off mass, the factors to be taken into account include:
A Maximum zero fuel mass augmented by the fuel burn.
B Maximum take-off mass decreased by the fuel burn.
C Maximum landing mass augmented by the fuel burn.
D Maximum landing mass augmented by fuel on board at take- off.

45. An aeroplane is weighed prior to entry into service. Who is responsible for deriving
the Dry OperationalMass from the weighed mass by the addition of the 'operational
items' ?
A Theaeroplane manufacturer or supplier.
B The commander of the aeroplane.
C The Operator.
D The appropriate Aviation Authority.

46. With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be
expected?
A. A decrease in the landing speed.
B. A decrease of the stalling speed.
C. A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off.
D. A decrease in range.
47. If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will:
A require elevator trim which will result in an increase in fuel consumption.
B benefit from reduced drag due to the decrease in angle of attack.
C require less power for a given airspeed.
D tend to over rotate during take-off.

48. The maximum quantity of fuel that can be loaded into an aeroplane's tanks is given
as 3800 US Gallons. If the fuel density specific gravity.is given as 0.79 the mass of
fuel which may be loaded is
A 13647 kg.
B 11364 kg.
 C 14383 kg.
D 18206 kg.
49. A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's
structural limits:
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg
-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg
The performance limited take off mass is 67 450kg &the performance limited landing
mass is 55 470 kg. Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kg Trip Fuel: 6 200 kg Taxi Fuel:
250 kg
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 300 kg Alternate Fuel: 1 100 kg
The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
A 25 800 kg
B 17 840 kg
C 18 170 kg
D 13 950 kg
At maximum certificated take-off mass an aeroplane departs from an airfield which is not
limiting for either take-off or landing masses. During initial climb the number one engine
suffers a contained disintegration. An emergency is declared and the aeroplane returns to
departure airfield for an immediate landing. The most likely result of this action will be
A a high threshold speed and a shorter stop distance.
B a landing further along the runway than normal.
C a landing short resultant from the increased angle of approach due to the very
high aeroplane mass.
D a high threshold speed and possible undercarriage or other structural failure.

50. At a given mass the CG position is at 15% MAC. If the leading edge of MAC is at a
position 625.6 inches aft of the datum and the MAC is given as 134.5 inches
determine the position of the CG in relation to to the datum.
A 228.34 inches aft of datum
B 645.78 inches aft of datum
C 20.18 inches aft of datum
D 605.43 inches aft of datum
51. A location in the aeroplane which is identified by a number designating its distance
from the datum is known as:
A Station.
B Moment.
C MAC.
D Index.
52. An aircraft basic empty mass is 3000 kg.The maximum take-off, landing, and zero-
fuel mass are identical, at 5200 kg. Ramp fuel is 650 kg, the taxi fuel is 50 kg. The
payload available is :
A 1 600 kg
B 1 550 kg
C 2 200 kg
D 2 150 kg
53. The maximum mass to which an aeroplane may be loaded, prior to engine start, is :
 A maximum certificated taxi ramp. mass.
B maximum regulated taxi ramp. mass.
C maximum certificated take - off mass.
D maximum regulated take - off mass.

54. In relation to an aeroplane the Dry Operating Mass is the total mass of the
aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation but excluding
A usable fuel and crew.
B potable water and lavatory chemicals.
C usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals.
D usable fuel and traffic load.
55. An aeroplane has a mean aerodynamic chord MAC. of 134.5 inches. The leading
edge of this chord is at a distance of 625.6 inches aft of the datum. Give the
location of the centre of gravity of the aeroplane in terms of percentage MAC if the
mass of the aeroplane is acting vertically through a balance arm located 650 inches
aft of the datum.
A 75,6%
B 85,5%
C 10,5%
D 18,14%
56. With respect to aeroplane loading in the planning phase, which of the following
statements is always correct ?
LM = Landing Mass
TOM = Take-off Mass
MTOM = Maximum Take-off Mass
ZFM = Zero Fuel Mass
MZFM = Maximum Zero Fuel Mass
DOM = Dry Operating Mass
A LM = TOM - Trip Fuel
B MTOM = ZFM + maximum possible fuel mass
C MZFM = Traffic load + DOM
D Reserve Fuel = TOM - Trip Fuel

AIRCRAFT SYSTEM
57. In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually:
a Electrically driven.
b Hydraulically driven.
c Mechanically driven.
d Pneumatically driven.

58. Max. Exhaust Gas Temperature is theoretically associated with :

A Mixture ratio very close to idle cut-out.
B Mass ratio of 1/15.
C Cruising mixture setting.
D Full rich setting.

59. The power output of a piston engine can be calculated by :

 A Force times distance.
B Pressure times arm.
C Torque times RPM.
D W ork times velocity.
60. In modern aircraft, a pilot can actuate the feather system by :
A pulling the power levers backwards.
B pulling the RPM lever backwards.
C pushing the RPM lever forward.
D pushing the power lever forward.

Questions
61. Where would you find information regarding Customs and Health facilities?
A ATCC broadcasts
B NOTAMs
C NAV/RAD supplements
D AIPs

62. Where would you find information regarding Search and Rescue procedures?
A ATCC broadcasts
B NOTAMs
C SIGMETs
D AIPs

63. In which document would you find information on known

short-term unserviceability of VOR, TACAN, and NDB?
A NOTAM
B Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
C SIGMET
D ATCC

64. Where may details of temporary Danger and Restricted Airspace be found?
A SIGMETs
B Aeronautical Information Circulars (AIC)
C NOTAM and Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
D ATCC

65. Details of temporary danger areas are published:

A in AICs
B on the appropriate chart
C by VOLMET
D in NOTAMs
66. Given:
Dry Op Mass = 33510 kg Traffic Load =7600kg
Final reserve fuel = 983 kg Alternate fuel = 1100 kg
Contingency fuel = 102 kg
The estimated landing mass at the alternate should be:
A. 42312 kg
B. 42 093 kg
C. 42210 kg
D. 42195 kg

67. What is the purpose of Decision Point Procedure?

A Carry minimum fuel to increase Traffic Load
B Increase safety of the flight
C Reduce landing mass to avoid stressing the aircraft
D Reduce contingency fuel to below that required from Decision Point to destination

68. What is Decision Point Procedure?

It is a procedure to reduce the amount of fuel carried on a flight by:
A reducing contingency fuel from 10% to 5% of trip fuel
B reducing contingency fuel to only that required from Decision Point to destination
C reducing trip fuel to only that required from Decision Aerodrome to destination
D reducing contingency fuel to below that required from Decision Point to
destination

69. Turbojet a/c; taxi fuel 600 kg; fuel flow cruise 10000 kg/h; fuel flow hold 8000
kg/h; alternate fuel 10200 kg; flight time 6 hours; visibility at destination 2000 m.
What is the minimum ramp fuel?
A. 80 500 kg
B. 79 200 kg
C. 77800 kg
D. 76100 kg

70. Given: DOM 33510 kg; Traffic load 7600 kg. Trip fuel 2040 kg. Final reserve
983 kg. Alternate fuel 1100 kg. Contingency 5% of trip fuel. Which of the following is
correct?
A Est. landing mass at destination 43193 kg
B Est. landing mass at destination 43295 kg
C Est. take-off mass 43295 kg
D Est. take-off mass 45233 kg