A321 Question Bank 2017

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QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016
A321 QUESTION BANK

1. According to the Chicago convention, aircraft of contracting states shall have the right to
make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting states and to
make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This
applies to the following flights:
a. To aircraft on non-commercial flights only.
b. To aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services.
c. To aircraft of scheduled air services only.
d. To aircraft engaged in commercial non-scheduled flights only.
2. For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?
a. The rules established under the convention of international civil aviation.
b. The rules established by the state of registry of the aircraft.
c. The rules established by the state of the operator of the aircraft.
d. The rules established by the state(s) adjacent to the high seas overflown.
3. Which of the following ICAO documents contain international standards and recommended
practices (SARPS)?
a. Procedures for air navigation services (PANS).
b. Regional supplementary procedures (SUPPS).
c. Annexes to the convention on international civil aviation.
d. ICAO technical manuals.
4. According to which convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person
committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft?
a. The convention of Rome.
b. The convention of Tokyo.
c. The convention of Warsaw.
d. The convention of Chicago.
5. Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to
third parties on the surface?
a. The Montreal convention.
b. The Rome convention.
c. The Tokyo convention
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d. The Guatemala convention

6. Annex 17 to the convention of Chicago covers:
a. Aerodromes
b. Security
c. Facilitation
d. Operation of aircraft
7. The international civil aviation organization (ICAO) establishes:
a. Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the
Chicago convention.
b. Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.
c. Aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
d. Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
8. The international civil aviation organization (ICAO.) was established by the international
convention of:
a. Chicago
b. Warsaw
c. The Hague
d. Montreal
9. The second freedom of the air is the:
a. Right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states.
b. Right to land for a technical stop
c. Right to overfly without landing
d. Right to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic).
10. The first freedom of the air is:
a. The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to
another state.
b. The right to land for a technical stop.
c. The right to overfly without landing.
d. The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states.
11. The loading limitations shall include:
a. All limiting mass, centers of gravity position and floor loadings
b. All limiting mass, centers of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loadings
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c. All limiting mass and centers of gravity

d. All limiting mass, mass distributions and centers of gravity
12. Load factors has the following meaning:
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a. The loads assumed to occur in the anticipated operating conditions

b. The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft, the former being expressed in
terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground reactions
c. The ratio of a specified load to the mass of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of
aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground reactions
d. The ratio of a specified load to the mass or the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of
aerodynamic and inertia forces
13. The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made
by:
a. The state of registry
b. The international civil aviation organization
c. The state of registry and accepted by the international telecommunication union
d. The international telecommunication union
14. The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and
shall be that assigned by:
a. The state of registry or common mark registering authority
b. The international civil aviation organization
c. The state of registry only
d. The international telecommunication union
15. The certificate of registration shall:
a. Be visible to the passengers at all times.
b. Be carried on board the aircraft at all times.
c. Be reproduced on the portion of the airline ticket that stays with the passenger
d. Both a and c are correct.
16. The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is :
a. 6 months
b. 5 years
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
17. The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot license shall not be less than :
a. 18 years of age
b. 21 years of age
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c. 17 years of age
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d. 16 years of age
18. An applicant for a commercial pilot license shall hold:
a. A current class 1 medical assessment
b. A current class 3 medical assessment
c. A current class 2 medical assessment
d. A current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the license
19. The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:
a. The license is issued or validated
b. The medical assessment is issued
c. The license is issued or renewed
d. The license is delivered to the pilot
20. When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licenses - aeroplane and helicopter - have passed
their 40th birthday, the medical examination shall be reduced from :
a. 12 months to 6 months
b. 24 months to 12 months
c. 12 months to 3 months
d. None of the answers are correct
21. Type ratings shall be established:
a. Only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots
b. Only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each
type of helicopter
c. For any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority
d. All the answers are correct
22. According to VAR, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform
as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for:
a. A minimum crew of two pilots under IFR
b. Operations by pilots under training.
c. For the carriage of passengers at night.
d. A minimum crew of two pilots plus a flight engineer.
23. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a
control zone when ceiling is less than:
a. 1,500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
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b. 2,000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km

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c. 1,000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km

d. 1,000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km
24. The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:
a. The airliner operator
b. The commander
c. The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace
d. The aircraft owner
25. Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?
a. Military aircraft
b. Emergency aircraft
c. VIP (head of state) aircraft
d. Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention
26. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless
otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following codes in mode "A":
a. 7500
b. 7600
c. 7700
d. 7000
27. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio
communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
a. 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz
b. 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
c. 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
d. 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz
28. Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to
communicate to the intercepted aircraft "you may proceed”?
a. Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.
b. Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.
c. Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the
intercepted aircraft.
d. Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.
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29. Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing
radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate
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assistance?
a. Switching on and off three times the landing lights
b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
c. Switching on and off four times the landing lights
d. Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
30. A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
a. The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling
b. Give way to other aircraft in emergency
c. Continue circling and wait for further instructions
d. The airport is unsafe, do not land
31. Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the
track?
a. Inform the ATC unit immediately
b. Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
c. If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions
d. Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions
32. While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC
clearance. What action must be taken?
a. Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan
b. Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours
c. Squawk 7700
d. The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances
permit
33. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
a. Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
b. Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then clench
fist
c. Crossing arms extended above his head
d. Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground
34. An aircraft is flying under instrument flight rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited
and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to
be followed is:
a. Adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination
b. Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise air traffic services of landing
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c. Continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight
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plan.
d. Descend to en-route minimum safe altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations
35. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means :
a. Dangerous airfield. Do not land.
b. Come back and land.
c. Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being
d. Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
36. An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
a. On the ground when the engines are running
b. Outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable
c. Outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed
d. While taxiing, but not when it is being towed
37. The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
a. Taxiing needs not be confined to the taxiways
b. Landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only
c. Gliderflying is performed outside the landing area
d. This aerodrome is using parallel runways
38. An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert
from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:
a. Fly the emergency triangle

b. Declare an emergency
c. Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1,000 feet when
above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290
d. As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference between
cabin pressure and outside pressure
39. Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes
from the tower. The aircraft:
a. Must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
b. Must give way to another aircraft.
c. Is cleared to land.
d. Must land immediately and clear the landing area.
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40. While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower, series of
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red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:

a. Must stop.
b. Must vacate the landing area in use
c. Must return to its point of departure
d. May continue to taxi to the take-off area
41. To cross lighted stop bars on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome, the following applies:
a. Lighted stop bars may only be crossed with the authorization of the aerodrome control tower.
b. An aircraft shall stop and hold at all lighted stop bars unless otherwise authorized by the
aerodrome control tower.
c. An aircraft has to stop and hold at all lighted stop bars if so required by the aerodrome control
tower.
d. An aircraft may only proceed further if the lights are switched off.
42. When has a flight plan to be filed at the latest?
a. 60 minutes before departure or, if filed in flight, 10 minutes before the aircraft is estimated
to reach the intended point of entry into a control area or advisory area or the point of
crossing an airway or advisory route.
b. 60 minutes before the flight plan becomes active.
c. 10 minutes before departure into an advisory area.
d. 60 minutes before departure or, if filed in flight, 30 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to
reach the intended point of entry into a control area or advisory area or the point of crossing an
airway or advisory route.
43. If the time estimated for the next reporting point differs from that notified to ATS, a revised
estimate shall be notified to ATS if the time difference is:
a. Three minutes or more.
b. Plus or minus two minutes or more.
c. In excess of three minutes.
d. None of the above is correct.
44. Which of the following signals is a distress signal?
a. A parachute flare showing a red light.
b. In radiotelephony the spoken words pan, pan.
c. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights.
d. The repeated switching on and off of the navigation lights.
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45. A horizontal white dumb-bell when displayed on a signal area of an aerodrome means:
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a. Aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runways and taxiways only.
b. Aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not be
confined to runways and taxiways.
c. Aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways only.
d. Aircraft are not required to land, take-off and taxi on runways and taxiways
46. An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall set its transponder to:
a. Mode A, code 2000 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit.
b. Mode A, code 7000 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit.
c. Mode A, code 7700 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit.
d. Mode A, code 7600 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit.
47. "Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist".
This signal from a signalman to an aircraft means:
a. Start engines.
b. Chocks removed.
c. Engage brakes.
d. Release brakes.
48. (IR) An ETA for an IFR flight refers to the following:
a. FAF/FAP.
b. IAF.
c. Touch down.
d. None of the above.
49. Aircraft on the manoeuvring area have to give way to:
a. Aircraft landing.
b. Aircraft taking off.
c. Aircraft landing and taking off.
d. Follow-me vehicles (and pedestrians)
50. What defines a danger area?
a. A zone where military activity includes firing projectiles in the air.
b. Notified airspace (zone or area) where activities dangerous to flight may exist.
c. NOTAM activated airspace where the normal flight rules are disregarded.
d. Airspace of defined dimension where activities dangerous to flight may exist.
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51. The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a
sector of :
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a. 25 nm
b. 30 nm
c. 10 nm
d. 15 nm
52. As a rule, while establishing the departure procedures, the operator reckons that aeroplane
has a climb gradient of:
a. 3.3% with all engines operating.
b. 2.4% with two engines, 2.7% with three engines, 3% with four engines.
c. 5% with all engines operating and a climb gradient margin respectively of 0.8%, 0.9%, 1%
with two, three and four engines, taking in account one engine inoperative.
d. 2.4% with all engines operating and 1.5% with one engine inoperative.
53. If in an instrument departure procedure, the track to be followed by the aeroplane is
published, the pilot is expected:
a. To request from ATC different heading for wind correction.
b. To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.
c. To ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track.
d. To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction.
54. In an instrument departure procedure, the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure
end of runway equals:
a. 0 ft.
b. 35 ft.
c. 3.3 % gradient.
d. 0.8 % gradient
55. In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway center
line within:
a. 45°
b. 30°
c. 12.5°
d. 15°
56. Turning departures provide track guidance within:
a. 20 km
b. 10 km
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c. 5 km
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d. 15 km
57. The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with
the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:
a. 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach
or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without
prescribed flight tracks)
b. 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach
instrument procedures, 25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15° for missed
approach procedures.
c. 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach
instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach procedures.
d. The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to
aeroplane categories.
58. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descent
below the OCA?
a. When the aircraft has the control tower in sight
b. When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet
c. When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight
d. When it seems possible to land
59. If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descent shall be made so as to :
a. Pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory.
b. Follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path.
c. Leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPT.
d. Pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude.
60. In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:
a. Mean sea level.
b. Aerodrome elevation.
c. Aerodrome reference point.
d. Relevant runway threshold.
61. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the
opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the
designated track is called a:
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a. Base turn.
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b. Procedure turn.
c. Race track.
d. Reversal track.
62. You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descent below the MDA should
not be made until: 1. The pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2. Visual reference has been
established and can be maintained 3. The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a
landing can be made. The combination regrouping all the correct answers is:
a. 1, 2, 3.
b. 2, 3.
c. 1, 2.
d. 1, 3.
63. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for
landing are made is called:
a. Initial approach segment.
b. Intermediate approach segment.
c. Arrival segment.
d. Final approach segment.
64. In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above
runway elevation from:
a. 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).
b. 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1,968 ft).
c. 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2,955 ft)
d. 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2,955 ft).
65. In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset
track is limited to:
a. 1 minute.
b. 2 minutes.
c. 1 minute 30 seconds.
d. 3 minutes.
66. How many separate segments does an instrument approach procedure have?
a. 3
b. 4
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c. Up to 5
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d. Up to 4
67. In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from
the start of the turn for categories c, d, e aircraft for:
a. 1 minute 30 seconds.
b. 1 minute.
c. 2 minutes
d. 1 minute 15 seconds.
68. In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not
normally deviate from the centerline, after being established on track, more than:
a. One and a half of scale deflection.
b. Half a scale deflection
c. One scale deflection.
d. A quarter of scale deflection.
69. Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
a. Initial, intermediate and final.
b. Arrival, intermediate and final.
c. Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.
d. Initial and final.
70. Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb
gradient of:
a. 0.8%.
b. 3.3%.
c. 2.5%.
d. 5%.
71. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach,
to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-
in approach, is:
a. Visual manoeuvring (circling).
b. Contact approach.
c. Visual approach.
d. Aerodrome traffic pattern.
72. A circling approach is:
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a. A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring.

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b. A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.

c. A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.
d. A contact flight manoeuvre.
73. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected
that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:
a. Map.
b. FAF.
c. Landing runway.
d. Final missed approach track.
74. On a non-precision approach, a so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered acceptable, if
the angle between the final approach track and the runway centerline is:
a. 30 degrees or less
b. 40 degrees or less
c. 20 degrees or less
d. 10 degrees or less
75. Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure
the required minimum obstacle clearance, is :
a. 6,5%.
b. 8%.
c. 5%.
d. 7%.
76. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle
clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is:
a. 30 m (98 ft)
b. 90 m (295 ft)
c. 50 m (164 ft)
d. 120 m (384 ft)
77. Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These
sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:
a. 5 nm
b. 25 nm
c. 20 nm
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d. 10 nm
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78. In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:

a. 200 ft
b. The OCH
c. 350 ft
d. 400 ft
79. (IR) If, during a visual circling, visual reference is lost while circling to land from an
instrument approach, the pilot shall:
a. Require immediate assistance from ATC which is obliged to provide radar vectors in order to
maintain obstacle clearance.
b. Make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and follow the missed
approach procedures.
c. Descend further in order to reach an altitude where visual reference can be maintained.
d. Climb straight ahead to the minimum sector altitude
80. (IR) Where does the missed approach procedure start?
a. At the missed approach point.
b. At DH/MDH.
c. At any point that the criteria to continue the approach is lost.
d. Over the threshold of the instrument runway
81. (IR) Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach
segment?
a. It is not possible to guarantee full obstacle clearance in this segment.
b. This is the segment in which speed and configuration are adjusted.
c. Usually track guidance is poor in this segment resulting in a requirement for a high MOC.
d. Pilots cannot cope with track maintenance a high rate of descent.
82. What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure?
a. 3°
b. 3.3 %
c. 2.5 %
d. 2.5°
83. What will be your action if you cannot comply with a standard holding pattern?
a. Inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance.
b. Follow the radio communication failure procedure.
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c. A non-standard holding pattern is permitted.

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d. It is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilot’s discretion.

84. In a holding pattern, all turns are to be made at a :
a. Rate of 3°per second.
b. Maximum bank angle of 25°.
c. Rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank.
d. Rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank.
85. Entering a holding pattern at FL110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed?
a. 230 kt IAS.
b. 230 kt TAS.
c. 240 kt IAS.
d. 240 kt TAS.
86. Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding
pattern shall be made into which direction?
a. To the right.
b. Teardrop to the left and then to the right.
c. To the left.
d. First right and then to the left.
87. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?
a. 1 minute
b. 30 seconds
c. 2 minutes
d. 1,5 minutes
88. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?
a. 2 minutes 30 seconds.
b. 1 minute 30 seconds
c. 1 minute.
d. 2 minutes.
89. In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:
a. Bearing.
b. Course.
c. Track.
d. Heading.
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90. In a standard holding pattern, turns are made:

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a. In a direction depending on the entry.

b. To the right.
c. To the left.
d. In a direction depending on the wind direction.
91. Standard airway holding pattern below 14,000 ft:
a. Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound
b. Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound
c. Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound
d. Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound
92. (IR) The entry into a holding pattern shall be according to:
a. Magnetic track in relation to the three entry sectors.
b. Magnetic heading in relation to the three entry sectors.
c. True heading in relation to the three entry sectors.
d. True track in relation to the three entry sectors.
93. (IR) Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?
a. Yes.
b. Yes even where DME is used, the maximum length is always in time.
c. No, where DME is used, it may be specified in terms of distance.
d. No, where g/s is less than 65 kt, the outbound leg must be at least 2 nm long.
94. The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:
a. 1,500 ft.
b. 2,500 ft.
c. 1,000 ft
d. 3,000 ft.
95. In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft, the vertical position of
the aircraft shall be expressed in:
a. Altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude
b. Altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude
c. Flight level on or below the transition level
d. Flight level on or below the transition altitude
96. During flight through the transition layer, the vertical position of the aircraft should be
expressed as:
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a. Altitude above mean sea level during descent

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b. Flight level during descent

c. Altitude above mean sea level during climb
d. Either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb
97. The transition level:
a. Shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established
b. For the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP
c. Shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been
established
d. Is calculated and decided by the commander
98. Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:
a. At transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.
b. At transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.
c. Only at transition altitude.
d. Only at transition level.
99. What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?
a. Mode A code 7600.
b. Mode B code 7600.
c. Mode A code 7500.
d. Mode A code 7700.
100. When the aircraft carries serviceable mode C equipment, the pilot:
a. Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by ATC.
b. Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions.
c. Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC.
d. Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace.
101. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate
the situation by setting the transponder to:
a. 7500.
b. 7000.
c. 7700.
d. 7600.
102. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in
conjunction with secondary surveillance radar (SSR)?
a. Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.
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b. Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600

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c. Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communication failure 7500.

d. Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.
103. Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to
route segments of:
a. 60 nm or more
b. 100 nm or more
c. 75 nm or more
d. 50 nm or more
104. Required navigation performance (RNP) shall be prescribed:
a. By regional air navigation agreements
b. By states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
c. By states but not on the basis of regional air agreements
d. By ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
105. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level
where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:
a. 5 minutes.
b. 15 minutes.
c. 10 minutes.
d. 3 minutes
where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding
aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
a. 3 minutes.
b. 10 minutes.
c. 5 minutes.
d. 15 minutes
where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding
aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
a. 5 minutes.
b. 3 minutes.
c. 6 minutes.
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d. 10 minutes
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108. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft "on
track" uses DME stations, is:
a. 20 nm.
b. 5 nm.
c. 10 nm.
d. 20 nm when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the
succeeding aircraft.
109. When applying longitudinal separation based on distance (DME), the minimum separation
between two aircraft on reciprocal tracks climbing or descending through the same flight level
shall be at least:
a. 6 nm
b. 10 km
c. 3 nm
d. 2 km
110. Two aircraft are departing from a reporting point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum
track separation required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the
other aircraft's level?
a. 30° and a distance of 15 nm or more.
b. 15° and a distance of 15 nm or more.
c. 15° and a distance of 15 km or more.
d. 30° and a distance of 15 km or more
111. ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include
cloud cover, when the clouds are:
a. Below 1,500 m (5,000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the
greater
b. Below 2,000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
c. Below 900 m (3,000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
d. Cumulonimbus
112. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated a342 z, means that all turns shall be made within the
allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of :
a. 15 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190
b. 15 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200
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c. 22.5 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250
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d. 25 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190

113. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated b235 y, means that all turns shall be made within the
allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a
radius of:
a. 25.0 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250
b. 22.5 nm between 30° and 90° at and above FL 260
c. 22.5 nm between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200
d. 20 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200
114. A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:
a. 30 minutes prior to leave the blocks.
b. 10 minutes prior to departure.
c. 50 minutes prior to leave the blocks.
d. 60 minutes prior to departure.
115. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended
or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:
a. 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
b. 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
c. 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
d. 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure
116. Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?
a. The aircraft operator.
b. The pilot in command.
c. The ATC.
d. The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan.
117. In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, the
flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when:
a. The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.

b. The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.
c. The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.
d. The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off departure.
118. Change from IFR to VFR will always take place :
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a. When the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC

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b. On the initiative of the aircraft commander

c. At the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions
d. As instructed by an air traffic control unit
119. Aircraft in which wake turbulence category shall include their category immediately after
the call sign in the initial radiotelephony contact with the aerodrome control tower or the
approach control office prior to departure or arrival?
a. Medium aircraft.
b. Heavy aircraft.
c. Medium and heavy aircraft.
d. Medium, heavy and light aircraft
120. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:
a. The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan filed
with ATC.
b. He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned has to accept the pilot request.
c. He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.
d. The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned.
121. Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as:
a. Prescribed by the aircraft operations.
b. Decided on pilot's discretion.
c. The weather permits.
d. Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.
122. A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed,
provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on track" waypoint. This
minimum is:
a. 80 nm.
b. 50 nm.
c. 60 nm.
d. 20 nm.
123. One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks
diverging by at least:
a. 45° immediately after take-off.
b. 15° immediately after take-off.
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c. 30° immediately after take-off.

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d. 25° immediately after take-off

124. Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the
same track, when:
a. The preceding aircraft is 30 kt or faster than the following aircraft.
b. The preceding aircraft is 20 kt or faster than the following aircraft.
c. The preceding aircraft is 40 kt or faster than the following aircraft.
d. The preceding aircraft is 10 kt or faster than the following aircraft.
125. What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
a. 500 feet
b. 1,500 feet
c. 1,000 feet
d. 2,000 feet
126. During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling, the pilot should contact departure
control:
a. Before penetrating the clouds.
b. When clear of the airport and established on the first heading given in the clearance.
c. When advised by tower.
d. After take-off.
127. Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that :
a. The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the
missed approach track of the adjacent approach
b. The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the
c. The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the
d. The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the
128. When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the
ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the
aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater
than :
a. 25 degrees
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b. 20 degrees
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c. 30 degrees
d. 15 degrees
129. Under which circumstances may a pilot deviate from a published instrument approach
procedure?
a. If visual reference is established before the completion of the instrument approach
procedure and the aircraft is cleared for a visual approach.
b. If visual reference is established before the completion of the instrument approach procedure.
c. Under no circumstances a pilot may deviate from a published instrument approach procedure.
130. Which wake turbulence radar separation minima shall be applied between a heavy aircraft
and a succeeding medium aircraft during the approach and departure phases of a flight?
a. 5 nm.
b. 2.5 nm.
c. 4 nm.
d. 6 nm
131. What is meant when a departure controller instructs you to "resume own navigation" after
you have been vectored to an airway?
a. Radar service is terminated.
b. Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.
c. You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.
d. You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
132. The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?
a. The radar identity of the aircraft has been established
b. Position reports may be omitted
c. The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft
d. The aircraft is subject to positive control
133. When a radar operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must
fly heading:
a. 030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track)
b. 030° true
c. 030° magnetic
d. 030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)
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134. "A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as
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a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off" is the
definition for:
a. Stopway.
b. Runway strip.
c. Runway end safety area.
d. Clearway.
135. "An area symmetrical about the extended runway centerline and adjacent to the end of the
strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or
overrunning the runway" is the definition for:
a. Clearway.
b. Stopway.
c. Runway end safety area.
136. The stopway is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run
available prepared as a suitable area where:
a. An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.
b. A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.
c. A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.
d. An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.
137. "ASDA" (acceleration stop distance available) is:
a. The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided)
b. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided)
c. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if provided)
d. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway
138. "Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft
using instrument approach procedures:
a. Precision approach runways in general.
b. Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
c. Precision approach runways category I, II and III.
d. Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
139. "TODA" take-off distance available is:
a. The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
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b. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if
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provided).
c. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
d. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway.
140. In the "PAPI" system, the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the
runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
a. Above the approach slope.
b. Below the approach slope.
c. Only on the approach slope
d. On or close to the approach slope.
141. Taxiway edge lights shall be:
a. Fixed showing green.
b. Fixed showing yellow.
c. Flashing showing blue.
d. Fixed showing blue.
142. Runway end lights shall be:
a. Fixed lights showing variable white.
b. Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.
c. Fixed lights showing variable red.
d. Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway
143. Runway threshold lights shall be:
a. Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.
b. Fixed lights green colors.
c. Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.
d. Fixed lights showing green or white colors
144. Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
a. Fixed lights, white or yellow color.
b. Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.
c. Fixed lights showing variable white.
d. Flashing white.
145. Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:
a. Fixed green.
b. Flashing white.
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c. Flashing green.
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d. Fixed white.
146. The light shown by an "aerodrome identification beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be:
a. Green color identification given by Morse code.
b. White and green color identification given by Morse code.
c. Blue color identification given by Morse code.
d. White color identification given by Morse code.
147. In the "VASIS", how many light units are in each wing bar?
a. 3.
b. 4.
c. 2.
d. 5.
148. What color is taxiway edge lighting?
a. Blue
b. White
c. Green
d. Yellow
149. What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate?
a. The threshold.
b. The beginning of the touch down zone.
c. A displaced threshold.
d. 1,000 ft from the end zone.
150. What color are runway edge lights?
a. White
b. Blue
c. Yellow
d. Red
151. Where a runway has a displaced threshold, what color are the edge lights between the
beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold showing in the direction of the approach?
a. Red
b. Blue
c. White
d. Green
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152. What lighting is required for runways to be used for take-off in an operating minimum
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below an RVR of approximately 400 m?

a. Centerline lighting.
b. Edge lighting.
c. Edge lighting and centerline lighting.
d. Either edge lighting or centerline lighting.
153. High intensity obstacle lights should be:
a. Fixed orange.
b. Flashing white.
c. Flashing red.
d. Fixed red.
154. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
a. Fixed red.
b. Flashing yellow.
c. Flashing red.
d. Fixed orange.
155. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing
survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code:
a. Blue for blankets and protective clothing.
b. Black for food and water.
c. Red for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
d. Yellow for miscellaneous equipment.
a. Red for food and water.
b. Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
c. Yellow for blankets and protective clothing.
d. Black for food and water.
a. Blue for food and water.
b. Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
c. Black for food and water.
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d. Red for miscellaneous equipment.

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158. The ground - air visual code illustrated means:

a. Require assistance
b. Proceeding in the direction shown
c. Please indicate direction
d. Require medical assistance
159. Which of the following is not an international distress frequency?
a. 2430 kHz
b. 2.182 kHz
c. 121.5 MHz
d. 243.0 MHz
160. Selecting an alternate aerodrome, the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to
allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:
a. 80% of the landing distance available.
b. 70% of the landing distance available.
c. 50% of the landing distance available
d. 60% of the landing distance available.
161. For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that :
a. Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with all engines
operating.
b. Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one
engine operative.
c. Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one
engine operative.
d. Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed all engines
operating.
162. One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the
available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or,
at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are:
a. At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for
aerodrome use.
b. At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted
time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
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c. At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions
required for
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aerodrome use.
d. At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome
use.
163. When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the
aircraft, it is necessary that:
a. Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on
board.
b. All the flight crew be on board.
c. The aircraft's stairs be completely extended.
d. Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.
164. The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :
a. The manufacturer
b. The aircraft manufacturer's list
c. The operator
d. The aircraft state of registry
165. The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :
a. The operator.
b. The aircraft manufacturer's list.
c. The manufacturer.
d. The aircraft state of registry.
166. A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a
runway visual range of at least :
a. 550 m
b. 800 m
c. 350 m
d. 500 m
167. The term decision height (DH) is used for :
a. A conventional approach.
b. An indirect approach.
c. A precision approach.
d. A conventional approach followed by a visual maneuver.
168. A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the
shore by more than :
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a. 50 NM
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b. 100 NM
c. 200 NM
d. 400 NM
169. The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following
into account: 1. Equipment available for navigation 2. Dimensions and characteristics of the
runways 3. Composition of the flight crew 4. Obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed
approach areas 5. Facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions.
a. 1,2,4,5
b. 2,4,5
c. 1,2,3,4,5
d. 2,3,5
170. For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled
destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of
a. 0.6
b. 0.5
c. 0.7
d. 0.8
171. A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out
with a runway visual range of at least :
a. 50 m
b. 200 m
c. 100 m
d. 250 m
172. A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out
with a runway visual range of at least :
a. 75 m
b. 250 m
c. 150 m
d. 200 m
173. A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with :
a. A decision height of at least 200 ft
b. A decision height of at least 50 ft
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c. A decision height of at least 100 ft

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d. No decision height
174. During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and
received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point
beyond which the approach must not be continued is:
a. The outer marker (OM).
b. The start final descent point (glide slope intersection).
c. The FAF.
d. The middle marker.
175. In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:
a. Mach number.
b. Indicated airspeed.
c. Ground speed.
d. True airspeed.
176. For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes unless otherwise specified,
an aircraft must be equipped with at least:
a. One Inertial Navigation System (INS).
b. Two Inertial Navigation Systems (INS).
c. One Long Range Navigation System (LNRS).
d. Two independent Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS).
177. In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation
Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-air
communications is:
a. 118.800 MHz
b. 121.800 MHz
c. 131.800 MHz
d. 128.800 MHz
178. The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from :
a. 30° North to 90° North.
b. 27° North to 70° North.
c. 27° North to 90° North.
d. 30° North to 70° North.
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179. The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically
between flight levels:
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a. 275 and 400.

b. 280 and 400.
c. 280 and 390.
d. 285 and 420.
180. The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same
Mach number is :
a. 15 minutes.
b. 5 minutes.
c. 20 minutes.
d. 10 minutes.
181. The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS Airspace
is:
a. 30 NM.
b. 60 NM.
c. 90 NM.
d. 120 NM.
182. For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the optimum altitude and the lock- on
altitude increase. The most cost-effective flight plan will consist of choosing cruising levels which
increase during the flight in order to fly :
a. About the optimum altitude
b. Between the lock-on altitude and the optimum altitude
c. About the lock-on altitude
d. Just below the optimum altitude
183. During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts:
a. At the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage).
b. At the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
c. At the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
d. At the end of the first stage (de-icing stage).
184. When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the
following effects: 1. an increase in the take-off distance 2. a diminution of the take-off run 3. an
increase in the stalling speed 4. a diminution of the stalling speed 5. a diminution of the climb
gradient. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
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a. 2, 4, 5
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b. 1, 3, 5
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 2, 3, 5
185. The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on: 1. The type and intensity of the
showers 2. The ambient temperature 3. The relative humidity 4. The direction and speed of the
wind 5. The temperature of the airplane skin 6. The type of fluid, its concentration and
temperature. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a. 1, 3, 5, 6
b. 2, 3, 4, 5
c. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
d. 1, 2, 4, 6
186. The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary
considerably depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given
ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of:
a. Freezing fog
b. Rain on a cold soaked wing
c. Frost
d. Steady snow
187. For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the
following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest ?
a. Freezing rain
b. Frost
c. Steady snow
d. Freezing fog
188. Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when
penetrating a windshear?
a. Pitch angle.
b. Vertical speed.
c. Indicated airspeed.
d. Groundspeed.
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189. In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will: 1. Set the maximum take-off
thrust 2. Increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker 3. Pull in the
drag devices (gear and flaps) 4. Keep the airplane's current configuration 5. Try to reach the
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maximum lift-to-drag ratio. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a. 1, 2, 4
b. 3, 5
c. 1, 3, 5
d. 2, 3
190. Windshear is:
a. A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction variation over a short
distance
b. A vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance
c. A horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance
d. A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance
191. To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should
manoeuver :
a. Below and downwind from the larger aircraft
b. Above and upwind from the larger aircraft
c. Above and downwind from the larger aircraft
d. Below and upwind from the larger aircraft
192. The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a :
a. High weight and high speed
b. Low weight and low speed
c. High weight and low speed
d. Low weight and high speed
193. For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar
separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on
the approach to the same runway?
a. 9.3 km (5 NM)
b. 11.1 km (6 NM)
c. 3.7 km (2 NM)
d. 7.4 km (4 NM)
194. According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2
minutes shall be applied to :
a. MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel
separated by less than 760 m
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b. LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same
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runway
c. MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
d. LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
195. According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3
minutes shall be applied to :
a. LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
b. LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by
less than 760 m. (using whole runway)
c. LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same
runway
d. MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
196. DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a
grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off
mass. Heavy (H) Category includes all aircraft types of :
a. 136,000 Kg or more
b. 146,000 Kg or more
c. 135,000 Kg or more
d. Less than 136,000 Kg but more than 126,000 Kg
197. In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft
and disregarding any fuel considerations:
a. You descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety
altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach
configuration.
b. You go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane
in a clean configuration until the final approach.
c. You carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude.
d. You climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization.
198. Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander
should submit a report of the act?
a. The Authority of the State of the operator only
b. The local authority only
c. Both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator
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d. The Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of the unlawful
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interference
199. What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being
subjected to unlawful interference :
a. Code 7700
b. Code 7500
c. Code 7600
d. Code 2000
200. An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is necessary to :
a. Increase its approach speed, because the rain affects the lift by deteriorating the
boundary layer
b. Carry out an approach with flaps up, in order to avoid exposing too much lifting surface to the
rain
c. Reduce the approach speed, because the runway may be very slippery on landing
d. Maintain the normal approach speed up to landing
201. Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will: 1.
remain on the runway, 2. clear the runway using the first available taxiway, 3. keep one engine
or the APU running in order to maintain the electrical power supply on, 4. turn off all systems.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a. 1,4.
b. 2,3.
c. 1,3.
d. 2,4.
202. The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:
a. An inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on
board
b. A landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants
c. An inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries
on board or on the surface
d. A voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and
its occupants
203. If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:
a. Under flight level 50 (FL50).
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b. In a holding stack, after control clearance.

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c. In a straight line and at a relatively high flight level.

d. During final phase of approach.
204. The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by :
a. The operator.
b. The captain.
c. The shipper.
d. The handling agent.
205. In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, what language should be set
for the markings related to dangerous goods :
a. English
b. English, French or Spanish
c. French
d. Spanish
206. The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the :
a. Aircraft's weight.
b. Strength of the headwind.
c. Depth of the standing water on the runway.
d. Amount of the lift off speed.
207. In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain: 1. You increase your approach
speed, 2. You land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and
immediately land your nose gear, 3. You decrease your approach speed, 4. You use systematically
all the lift dumper devices, 5. You land as smoothly as possible, 6. You brake energetically. The
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a. 3, 5
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 4, 5, 6
208. A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be:
a. Contaminated.
b. Flooded.
c. Wet.
d. Damp.
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209. The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is :

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a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 6 hours
d. 3 hours
210. Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing
distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway
may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must
be increased by:
a. 15 %
b. 20 %
c. 18 %
d. 17,6 %
211. Crew members shall, on request of a law enforcement officer or the Authority, yield to a
test to indicate the presence of alcohol or psychoactive substances in the blood at any time:
a. Up to 8 hours before acting as a crew member.
b. Immediately after attempting to act as a crew member.
c. Immediately after acting as a crew member.
d. All of the above are correct.
212. Crew members must not commence a flight duty period with a blood alcohol level in excess
of:
a. 0.05 grams per litre.
b. 0.15 grams per litre.
c. 0.2 grams per litre.
213. A crew member should not donate blood within:
a. 48 hours before a flight assignment.
b. 36 hours before a flight assignment.
c. 24 hours before a flight assignment.
214. An augmented flight crew is scheduled to carry out no more than:
a. 02 landings within a flight duty period.
b. 03 landings provided that the block time for one sector ≤ 03 hours and the rest period
immediately following this flight duty period is increased by 06 hours.
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c. Both a and b are correct.

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215. Blocktime calculation method for each duty augmented flight crew member:
a. Blocktime for each flight crew member = (Blocktime of a sector of flight x 2) / Number
of duty flight crew member.
b. Blocktime is the period of time from “wheel chocks away” to “wheel chocks on”.
c. None is correct.
216. The standard weight of crew, passengers and cargo for normal flights is as follows:
a. Flight crew: 75kgs, Cabin crew: 70kgs; Passengers: 90kgs; Children: 37kgs
b. Flight crew: 80kgs, Cabin crew: 70kgs; Passengers: 70kgs; Children: 30kgs
c. Flight crew: 90kgs, Cabin crew: 75kgs; Passengers: 75kgs; Children: 35kgs
217. When the passenger checked baggage (loaded in the cargo compartment) is not weighed,
the following standard weight per piece of checked baggage is used:
a. Domestic flights: 11kgs; International flights: 15kgs
b. Domestic flights: 15kgs; International flights: 25kgs
c. Domestic flights: 15kgs; International flights: 15kgs
218. A pilot ------accept a clearance with which he cannot safely comply or which exceeds the
capabilities of the aircraft. The commander is the final authority as to the operation of the
aircraft.
a. Must.
b. May co-operate and.
c. Must not.
219. If a flight is cleared to hold, ATC holding instructions must be complied with. …
a. These instructions may be issued by the controller or they may be required on the
charts.
b. These instructions may be issued by the controller only.
c. These instructions may be required on the charts only.
220. If the time difference (TD) between the countries of origin and destination is 04 hours or
more:
a. 04 hours ≤ TD ≤ 06 hours: the subsequent rest period is at least as long as the preceding flight
duty period or 14 hours, whichever is greater.
b. TD > 06 hours: the subsequent rest period is at least as long as the preceding flight duty
period or 16 hours, whichever is greater.
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221. A clearance must be read back to ATC and for a confirmation between both pilot crew
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members in the case of clearances received:

a. In areas of high terrain.
b. That include heading, flight level, frequency, route/waypoint changes.
c. That include instructions for holding short of a runway.
222. Which statement is correct?
a. When showing compliance with the take-off obstacle clearance: Track changes shall not be
allowed up to the point at which the net take-off flight path has achieved a height equal to the
full wingspan but not less than 35 ft above the elevation of the end of the take-off run available.
Thereafter, up to a height of 400 ft it is assumed that the aircraft is banked by no more than
25°. Above 400 ft height bank angles greater than 15°, but not more than 25° may be scheduled.
b. When showing compliance with the take-off obstacle clearance: Track changes shall not
be allowed up to the point at which the net take-off flight path has achieved a height equal
to one half the wingspan but not less than 50 ft above the elevation of the end of the take-
off run available. Thereafter, up to a height of 400 ft it is assumed that the aircraft is
banked by no more than 15°. Above 400 ft height bank angles greater than 15°, but not
more than 25° may be scheduled.
c. Both a and b are incorrect.
223. For depressurization, it may be necessary to descend below the en-route minimum altitude
determined for normal operation in order to cope with passenger oxygen requirements. At any
time, the aircraft gross (actual) flight path must clear vertically all obstacles by:
a. 2,000 ft.
b. 1,500 ft.
c. 1,000 ft.
224. Temperature correction: The calculated minimum safe altitudes/heights must be corrected
when the OAT is much ----- than that predicted by the standard atmosphere.
a. Higher.
b. More.
c. Lower.
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225. Where no outer marker or equivalent position exists, the pilot in command shall make the
decision to continue or stop the approach before descending below --------------- on the final
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approach segment.
a. 1,500 AGL
b. MDA.
c. 1,000 feet above the airport.
226. Final Reserve Fuel is the amount of fuel to fly:
a. For 30 minutes at holding speed at FL150 at last holding pattern of airport’s STAR in standard
conditions, calculated at the estimated mass on arrival at the destination alternate airport.
b. For 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 FT above airport elevation in standard

conditions, calculated at the estimated mass on arrival at the destination alternate airport.
c. For 30 minutes at holding speed at go-around altitude at the holding pattern of the approach in
standard conditions, calculated at the estimated mass on arrival at the destination alternate
airport.
227. For IFR planning purposes, a destination alternate is not required if the airport is isolated
and no suitable alternate is available, but a -----------will be calculated and included in the flight
plan remarks.
a. ETP.
b. CP.
c. Point-of-no-return
228. ACARS computerized Load and trim sheet must show name and staff ID number of the
person preparing the sheet. The Commander acknowledges his receipt of ACARS computerized
Load and trim sheet via ACARS data link network, giving his ….
a. Full name.
b. ID number
c. Name and his position.
229. Which statement is correct?
a. A pilot should make a visible record of each ATC clearance, and all route changes should be
recorded on any paper adjacent to the waypoint where the clearance for route change was
issued.
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b. A pilot should make a visible record of each ATC clearance, and all route changes should
be
recorded on the flight plan log adjacent to the waypoint where the clearance for route
change was issued.
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230. All flight crew members when on duty MUST bring:

a. Their licenses and medical certificates.
b. Their licenses only.
c. Their licenses, medical certificates and logbooks.
231. A pilot shall not be assigned to operate an aeroplane as part of the minimum certified crew,
either as pilot flying or pilot non-flying:
a. Unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings in the previous 120 days
as pilot flying in an aircraft or an approved flight simulator;
b. Unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings in the previous 90
days as pilot flying in an aircraft or an approved flight simulator
c. Unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings in the previous 06
calendar months as pilot flying in an aircraft or an approved flight simulator.
232. As a relief pilot, a first officer can operate on the left hand seat as PNF/PM only:
a. At take-off and landing.
b. From 20,000 feet and above.
c. At any time during the flight.
233. The objective of CRM is to enhance:
a. The communication skills of the flight crew.
b. The management skills of the flight crew.
234. Crew members should keep walking in line (single or double) when walking in the terminal
or public areas in the following orders:
a. Double line: Captain - First officer, female cabin crew, male cabin crew
b. Single line: Captain, First officer, female Purser, female cabin crew and male cabin
crew.
c. Single line: Female crew followed by male crew.
235. Pressure correction: When flying at levels with the altimeter set to 1013hPa, the minimum
safe altitude must be corrected for deviations in pressure when the pressure is -----------than the
standard atmosphere (1013hPa).
a. Higher.
b. More.
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c. Lower.
236. Airport categories B and C are considered special airports and:
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a. Special flight crew qualifications are required.

b. Special flight crew qualifications are required for airport category C only.
c. None of them requires special flight crew qualifications.
237. Which statement is TRUE concerning the cargo compartment ventilation?
a. Both cargo compartments are pressurized and heated using both cabin air and hot trim air.
b. Recirculated air, conditioned air, and hot trim air are mixed then distributed to each cargo
compartment.
c. Only the aft cargo compartment is heated and ventilated. Cabin ambient air is mixed
with hot trim air and drawn through isolation valves by extraction fans.
238. Placing the BLOWER push button to override:
a. Insures the blower fan will continue to run.
b. Places the avionics ventilation system in the open configuration.
c. De-energizes the blower fan.
d. Places the avionics ventilation system in the closed configuration.
239. Pressurization is normally automatic on the A321. Can you interfere with it?
a. Yes, manually set landing elevation using the LND ELEV AUTO selector.
b. Yes, CABIN PRESS MODE SEL to OVERRIDE and MAN V/S CTL toggle switch.
d. No.
240. Pressurization controllers receive inputs from:
a. LGCIU, ADIRU, FMGS, and EIU.
b. LGCIU's and the MCDU.
c. LGCIU's and pitot static sources.
d. MCDU and LGCIU'S.
241. Which configuration is the avionics ventilation system in while airborne with no abnormals
present?
a. Open.
b. Smoke.
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c. Fire.
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d. Closed.
242. The Ram Air valve:
a. Will open automatically.
b. Should be opened for increased ventilation while on the ground.
c. Should be opened for increased ventilation while in flight.
d. Must be manually activated.
243. What is the function of the ram air valve?
a. Emergency smoke removal and ventilation in the event of dual pack failure.
b. Ventilation while on the ground.
c. Avionics cooling.
d. Cargo ventilation.
244. What position do the pack valves go to in the event of a loss of the bleed system pressure?
a. They remain in their last position.
b. Full open.
c. Mid position.
d. Closed.
245. What is the maximum altitude associated with the pressurization system?
a. 41,100 feet.
b. 38,500 feet
c. 39,800 feet
d. 39,500 feet
246. Aft cargo ventilation is controlled by:
a. The aft cargo rotary selector knob.
b. The zone controller and the SDCU.
c. The cargo ventilation controller.
247. What limitation is associated with the ram air valve?
a. Do not open if cabin pressure is greater than 1 psi.
b. Only open while on the ground.
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c. Will not open if the DITCHING switch is off.

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d. Operation is automatic.
248. Which of the following statements is correct concerning conditioned air?
a. Recirculated air, conditioned air and hot trim air are mixed then distributed to each zone.
b. Conditioned air and trim air are mixed then distributed to each zone.
c. Recirculating fans draw cabin air to a mixing unit where conditioned air is added.
d. Hot trim air is added to the mixing unit before distribution to each zone.
249. What happens when a temperature selector rotary knob is adjusted?
a. A signal is sent to the zone controller requesting a different temperature.
b. The associated trim air valve immediately moves to a different position.
c. Nothing as there is no relationship between a temperature selector knob and the trim air
valve.
250. With the pressurization system in the automatic mode, which valves are closed when the
ditching push button is selected on?
a. All valves below the water line.
b. APU inlet.
c. Only the avionics cooling valves.
d. The engine bleed valves.
251. How many temperature selectors are there on the A321? How many temperature zones are
there?
a. Three rotary temperature selectors and one zone.
b. Three rotary temperature selectors, one each for the cockpit zone, the forward cabin
zone, and the aft cabin zone.
c. Two rotary temperature selectors, one for the cockpit and first class zone and one for the aft
cabin zone.
d. Four rotary temperature selectors and four zones.
252. How many pressurization controllers are installed on the A321?
a. Three: two automatic, and one manual controller.
b. Two: one automatic and one manual.
c. Two independent controllers. They both operate in the automatic mode.
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d. One controller with AC and DC motor backups.

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253. Placing the avionics ventilation system in the smoke configuration:

a. Opens the #1 GLC.
b. Opens the cargo under-floor valve.
c. De-energizes the blower fan, extract fan runs, opens the air conditioning extract valves.
d. Opens the #2 GLC.
254. Aft cargo indications may be found on which ECAM page(s)?
a. Only the ECAM cruise page.
b. Only the CAB PRESS page.
c. The ECAM cruise page and the COND page.
d. Only the BLEED page.
255. What are the different sources of air for air conditioning and pressurization?
a. Engine bleed air.
b. Engine bleed air and recirculated air.
c. Engine bleed air and recirculated air, or if selected, APU bleed air and recirculated air.
256. Engine flow demand, when the heating or cooling demand in one zone cannot be satisfied:
a. The minimum idle must be increased manually.
b. In any case, flight idle is sufficient.
c. The minimum idle is increased automatically.
d. The APU must be used to supply additional air.
257. Which statement is correct regarding illumination of the amber AFT ISOL VALVE fault
light?
a. Automatically closes the aft cargo compartment isolation valves.
b. Means that either the inlet or outlet isolation valve(s) disagrees with the switch position.
c. Indicates that the extract fan has stopped.
258. When would you select ECON FLOW ON?
a. If number of passengers is below 140.
b. When passengers are complaining it is too cold.
c. Below FL 350.
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d. Below FL 391.
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259. How can you change pressurization controllers during flight?

a. Cycle the LDG ELEV AUTO knob out of the AUTO position then back to AUTO.
b. Cycle the CABIN PRESS MODE SEL pushbutton to the MAN position then back to
AUTO.
c. Cycle the cabin pressurization MAN V/S CTL switch.
260. When does normal pressurization occur?
a. Pressurization occurs during the takeoff roll.
b. Pressurization occurs during taxi for takeoff.
c. After second engine start.
d. After rotation.
261. Pressurization indications are found on which ECAM page(s)?
a. Only on the CAB PRESS page.
b. BLEED page.
c. The in-flight ECAM cruise page and the PRESS page.
d. Both a and b are correct.
262. During the exterior preflight on a warm day, in what position would you expect to find the
avionics ventilation system INLET and EXTRACT valves to be in?
a. Open.
b. Intermediate.
c. Closed.
d. Fire.
263. What computers control the cabin and cockpit conditioned air?
a. Two zone controllers that pass information and requests to two pack controllers.
b. Two pack controllers that pass information and requests to three zone controllers.
c. Three zone controllers that pass information and instructions to two pack controllers for three
zones.
d. One zone controller that passes information and instructions to two pack controllers
for three zones.
264. When would you select RAM AIR ON?
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a. Dual pack failure or smoke removal.

b. If additional cooling is required on the ground.
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c. When pack temperatures are too high.

d. When there is smoke in the cabin.
265. How many trim air valves are there?
a. One trim air valve.
b. Three: one each for the cockpit zone, the forward cabin zone, and the aft cabin zone.
c. Two: one for the cockpit and first class zone, and one for the cabin zone.
d. Four: one each for the cockpit zone, the first class zone, and two for the aft zone.
266. What happens to the pack flow control valves during engine start?
a. They must be selected off.
b. They must be selected off on cold days only.
c. They must be selected off on hot days only.
d. They automatically close.
267. How many Air Data/Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs) are installed on the A321?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
268. What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?
a. The PFD should be outboard and the ND should be inboard.
b. The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be outboard.
c. The PFD should be to the left of the ND for both seat positions.
d. The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be inboard.
269. Where is the information displayed by DMC #1 and DMC #2?
a. DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1 and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for
PFD #2, ND #2, and UPPER ECAM.
b. DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #2, ND #2 and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for
PFD #1, ND #1, and UPPER ECAM.
c. DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1, and UPPER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies
data for PFD #2, ND #2, and LOWER ECAM.
d. DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1 and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for
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PFD #2, ND #2, and LOWER ECAM.

270. If the LOWER ECAM DU fails, is there a way to retrieve that information?
a. Pressing and holding the related systems page pb on the ECAM control panel; the page will
be displayed on the UPPER ECAM.
b. Rotating the ECAM/ND XFER switch, the LOWER ECAM page will be transferred to either
the Captain or First officers ND.
271. In normal law all protections are active, which of the following lists is the most complete list?
a. Protections; Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, Alpha floor, angle of bank, and
High speed.
b. Protections; Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, and High speed.
c. Protections; Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, Vls, Alpha floor, and High speed.
d. Protections; Load Factor.
272. The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?
a. Alignment has been completed.
b. The respective IR is operating normally.
c. Air data output has been disconnected.
273. An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:
a. Present position needs to be reentered.
b. Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode.
c. A complete failure of the respective IR has occurred.
274. How long does a normal IR alignment take?
a. Approximately 4 minutes.
b. Approximately 3 minutes.
c. Approximately 15 minutes.
d. Approximately 10 minutes.
275. If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:
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a. IR information will be disconnected.

b. ADR information will be disconnected.
c. ADR and IR information will be disconnected.
d. The ADIRU is not energized; ADR and IR information is lost.
276. High and low speed stabilities may be available in alternate law, stabilities:
a. Will not allow the pilot to stall the aircraft.
b. Prohibit steep bank angles.
c. Can be overridden by the pilot, and it is possible to exceed VMO, MMO and
stall the aircraft.
d. Prohibit steep climb angles.
277. The DDRMI provides the pilot with:
a. Bearing and DME information for VOR 1 and ADF 1.
b. Bearing and DME information for VOR 2 and ADF 2.
c. Bearing only for VOR 1 and VOR 2.
278. In normal law, MMO and VMO limits depicted on each pilot’s PFD:
a. Are displayed as green x's.
b. Are displayed as green ='s.
c. Are never displayed and must be memorized by each A321 pilot.
279. Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?
a. Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.
b. Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Direct law.
c. Extending the landing gear will have no effect on the status of the flight controls.
280. While in flight operating in Normal law, movement of the sidestick and subsequent return to
neutral will command:
a. Control surface movements proportional to stick deflection, then return the aircraft to straight
and level flight.
b. The control surfaces to continue rolling the aircraft until reaching 55 degrees roll angle.
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c. Control surface movements proportional to stick deflection, disconnect auto trim, and
maintain its current attitude.
d. A load factor proportional to stick deflection, then maintain one G flight corrected for
pitch attitude.
281. The ON BAT light will illuminate amber:
a. When one or more IR's are operating on aircraft battery power.
b. For a few seconds at the beginning of the alignment process.
282. The white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean?
a. No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected
ON.
b. In addition to answer a, an alignment fault may exist.
c. Attitude and heading information have been lost.
283. On an autoland approach, with both autopilots on, which FMGC is master?
a. FMGC 1
b. FMGC 2
c. Both
284. In normal law, the low speed limits depicted on each pilot’s PFD:
c. Are displayed as Alpha prot and Alpha max. These Limits vary with to GW, CG,
altitude and other environmental factors.
d. Are displayed as green =o's.
285. After a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the display units?
a. Once a DMC has failed the information is unrecoverable.
b. Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC
#3.
c. No action is needed as recovery is automatic.
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286. In normal law, pitch and roll attitude limits depicted on each pilot’s PFD:
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c. Are never displayed and must be memorized by each A321 pilot.
287. Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?
a. The OFF light will illuminate and air data output will disconnect.
b. The respective ADIRU will become deenergized.
c. Both AD and IR information will be disconnected.
d. Both b and c are correct.
288. Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?
a. Pitch attitude.
b. ALPHA SPD (alpha speed)
c. Vls.
d. Alpha floor.
289. Can the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and autoland?
a. Yes
b. No
290. What action should be taken if IR #2 is lost:
a. Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to CAPT 3.
b. Move the EIS DMC rotary selector knob to F/O 3.
c. Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/0 3.
d. Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/0 1.
291. While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha prot range:
a. The flight controls revert to direct law.
b. The sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side stick
deflection is proportional to AOA.
c. The flight controls remain in the load factor demand law.
292. What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?
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a. 1 inop, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 off.

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b. 1 off, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 inop.

293. What action should be taken if ADR #1 is lost?
a. Nothing.
b. Move the ATT HDG knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.
c. Move the AIR DATA knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.
294. If both ELACs fail, what controls the elevator and stabilizer?
a. SECS.
b. FACS.
c. Nothing, they revert to mechanical backup.
d. ELAC's
295. What information is supplied by the IR's and displayed on the PFD?
a. Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.
b. Heading, altitude, and vertical speed
c. Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.
d. Heading, attitude, and altitude.
296. What is the function of the FACs? 1. Rudder & Yaw Damping inputs. 2. Flight envelope &
Speed computations. 3. Windshear protection.
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3
297. What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?
a. No power.
b. DMC failure.
c. The circuit breaker for that particular DU has popped.
298. What does amber SPEED BRAKES mean on lower ECAM?
a. Speed brakes are extended and flap handle is not at 0.
b. Speed brakes have a fault.
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c. Speed brakes are extended and engines are not at idle.

299. To communicate with a mechanic for manual start valve operation at the engine:
a. Select the transmission key push button labeled CAB and the audio selector labelled
CAB.
b. Select the transmission key push button labelled INT and the INT audio selector.
c. Select the INT/RAD selector to INT, and INT audio selector on.
300. Normally how should you call a Flight Attendant?
a. Using the ACP CAB pb.
b. Using an overhead FWD or AFT call push button.
c. Selecting the ATTND ADV pb on.
d. Use the P.A. microphone.
301. Which ACP transmission key will illuminate if the flight attendants are calling?
a. PA
b. CAB
c. VHF3
d. ALERT
302. The VHF 3 transmission key illuminated amber showing the word “CALL” indicates:
a. An ACARS message is waiting.
b. A SELCALL
c. The lead flight attendant is calling
d. ATC is calling
303. To make a PA announcement, …
a. Depress and hold the PA transmission key push button.
b. Use the pedestal mounted handset.
304. When the aircraft is in the Emergency Electrical Configuration, ...
a. RMP's 1 and 2, and ACP's 1 and 2 are both operative.
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b. RMP 1 and ACP's 1 and 2 are operative.

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c. RMP 1 and ACP 1 are operative.

d. RMP 2 and ACP's 1 and 2 are operative.
305. The AUDIO SWITCHING rotary selector allows replacement of a failed #1 or #2 ACP with
ACP #3.
a. True.
b. False.
306. If RMP navigation tuning is currently in use for VOR tuning and ATC assigns a new
communication frequency, what must be done?
a. The NAV key must be deselected.
b. Tune the new frequency on the offside RMP.
c. Select the appropriate VHF communication radio transmission key, tune using the
rotary selector, press the transfer key.
307. While operating on Emergency Electrical Power with the landing gear lowered which of the
following control laws is in effect?
a. Backup.
b. Direct.
c. Alternate.
308. Can you reconnect an IDG in flight?
a. Yes, but only after contacting maintenance control.
b. Yes, push and hold the IDG pb until the GEN fault light is no longer illuminated.
c. No.
309. Engine #1 has just been started and the APU is inoperative. The EXT PWR push button blue
ON light is illuminated. Which of the statements below is correct?
a. External power is supplying all electrical needs.
b. Engine Gen #1 is supplying AC bus #1 and the downstream systems, and AC bus #2 through
the bus tie contactors.
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c. Gen #1 supplies AC bus #1 and (generally) the downstream systems; Ext power supplies
AC
bus #2.
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310. What is the function of the GEN 1 LINE push button?
a. When selected OFF the avionics compartment isolation valves close.
b. When selected OFF the #1 generator powers all AC busses.
c. When selected OFF generator # 1 is removed from all busses but continues to power
one fuel pump in each wing.
311. If the source of power for the ESS AC bus is lost, does another source of power automatically
power the bus?
a. Yes, transfer is automatic.
b. Yes, only if AUTO was selected on the AC ESS FEED push button.
c. No, this must be done by the crew.
312. Which flight control computers are operational in the Emergency Electrical Power
configuration (gear down and batteries powering the system)?
a. All are operational.
b. ELAC 1, SEC 1 and FAC 1.
c. ELAC 1 and 2, SEC 1 and 2, FAC 1.
d. ELAC 1 and SEC 1.
313. While operating on Emergency Electrical Power (EMER GEN powering the system, FAC #1
reset) which of the following control laws are in effect?
a. Alternate.
b. Manual
c. Backup.
314. Which communication and navigation radios are operational in the Emergency Electrical
Configuration with the EMER GEN powering the system?
a. VHF1, RMP1, VOR1.
b. ACP1and2, VHF1, HF, RMP1, VOR1 and ILS1.
c. RMP #1 & #2, VHF #1, HF (if equipped), ACP #1, VOR #l and ILS #1.
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d. All radios are lost.

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315. While operating on Emergency Electrical Power (EMER GEN powering the system) how is
it possible to properly complete the ECAM checklist with only an upper display?
a. Depress and hold the specific ECAM page push button on the ECAM control panel.
b. Transfer occurs automatically.
c. This is not possible. Use the cockpit operating manual.
316. While operating on Emergency Electrical Power (EMER GEN powering the system) what
should the crew accomplish prior to lowering the landing gear?
a. Check to see that the FMGC has auto tuned the appropriate NAV facility for the approach to be
accomplished.
b. Depress the guarded RMP NAV push button and tune the appropriate NAV facility and
course for the approach to be accomplished.
317. Are there any limitations associated with disconnecting an IDG?
a. No.
b. Never disconnect an IDG in flight, or push the IDG disconnect push button for more than 30
seconds.
c. Never disconnect an IDG in flight, or push the IDG disconnect push button for more than 5
seconds.
d. Never disconnect an IDG unless the engine is running, nor push the IDG disconnect push
button for more than 3 seconds.
318. What is the function of APU GEN push button located on the overhead electrical panel?
a. Push this button to automatically start the APU.
b. When selected to OFF the APU generator field is de-energized.
319. If both engine generators are powering the system, and one subsequently fails, are any busses
unpowered?
a. No, but some loads are shed in both main galleys.
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b. Only the AC ESS shed bus.

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c. Yes, those associated with the failed generator.

320. What cockpit lighting is available during an emergency electrical situation?
a. Emergency path lighting only.
b. Right side dome light, main panel flood lights (left two columns only), and the standby
compass light.
c. Right side dome light, main panel flood lights, and the standby compass.
d. Located on normal circuit breaker panels.
321. Is it possible to determine the source of power for aircraft busses?
a. It is indicated on the electrical schematic overhead.
b. No.
c. Only when operating in the Emergency Electrical Configuration.
d. Yes, press the ECAM ELEC push button and view the electrical schematic on the ECAM.
322. What is the significance of the green collared circuit breakers?
a. Green collared circuit breakers are monitored by the ECAM.
b. Green collared circuit breakers are pulled when flying on battery power only.
c. Green collared circuit breakers are not to be reset.
323. While operating on Emergency Electrical Power with the landing gear lowered which of the
following statements is correct?
a. If the APU is not operating, it should be started at this time.
b. The APU will not start until the aircraft has come to a complete stop and all power has been
removed for 15 seconds.
c. On the ground at 100 knots, the DC BATTERY BUS automatically reconnects to the
batteries.
d. At 70 knots, ESS AC is disconnected from the batteries.
324. With the EMER EXIT LT selector in the ARM position, which situation will activate the
emergency lights and exit signs?
a. AC bus #1 unpowered
b. AC SHED bus unpowered
c. DC ESS SHED bus unpowered
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d. All of the above is correct.

325. If during a normal flight the BUS TIE push button is depressed to 'OFF', what effect would
this have on power to the busses?
a. The power transfer would switch to the opposite bus.
b. All power would be lost and the aircraft would be powered by the batteries until the RAT was
up to speed.
c. None.
d. This is not possible as the bus tie contactors are locked out during flight.
326. The RAT is connected directly (mechanically) to the Emergency Generator.
a. False
b. True
327. If EXTERNAL power is available and within limits:
a. It will automatically close the bus tie contactors when connected by the ground crew.
b. The green AVAIL light will illuminate on the EXT PWR push button.
c. The BUS TIE push button illuminates.
328. Which busses will be powered after the RAT is extended and the EMER GEN begins
producing power?
a. BATT HOT busses, ESS DC, ESS DC SHED, ESS AC and ESS AC SHED.
b. The BATTERIES would power both HOT BATT busses, ESS DC and ESS AC through the
STATIC INVERTER.
c. The STATIC INVERTER would power both HOT BATT busses, ESS DC and ESS AC through
the ESS AC SHED busses.
d. ESS DC, ESS DC SHED, ESS AC and ESS AC SHED.
329. A battery fault light will illuminate when:
a. Battery charging current increases at an abnormal rate.
b. Battery voltage drops below a predetermined level.
c. The batteries have auto disconnected due to low voltage.
330. What is the priority of electrical sources?
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a. External power, Gen #1 and #2, APU.

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b. APU, External power (if selected), Gen #1 and #2.

c. APU, Gen #2 or #1, External power (if selected).
d. Gen #1 or #2, External power (if selected), APU.
331. Which flight control computer will be inoperative with gear extension while in the
Emergency Electrical Configuration?
a. SEC 1
b. FAC 1
c. ELAC 1
d. FAC 1 and ELAC 1.
332. If batteries are the only source of power in flight, how long will battery power be available?
a. Between 22 and 30 minutes depending on equipment in use.
b. Until the APU is started.
c. Two hours and 30 minutes dependent on equipment in use.
d. 45 minutes dependent on equipment in use.
333. Which condition will automatically illuminate the escape lights?
a. DC ESS SHED bus not powered.
b. AC ESS SHED bus not powered.
c. Loss of power to the AC bus 1.
d. DC ESS BUS not powered.
334. During a routine flight, which of the following would result after the loss of Gen #2 and the
subsequent start of the APU?
a. All systems return to normal and the RAT must be restored.
b. The APU would now power both sides of the electrical system.
c. Eng gen #1 continues to power AC bus #1 and downstream systems. The APU powers AC
bus
#2 and downstream systems.
335. How many fire extinguishing bottles are available for fighting an APU fire?
a. One.
b. Two.
c. One cylinder shared with the aft cargo compartment.
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d. Two cylinders shared with the aft cargo compartment.

336. What is indicated by a missing red APU thermal plug during an exterior preflight?
a. This is normal indication, the red APU thermal plug only appears if the APU halon
cylinder is low.
b. An APU fire agent thermal discharge has occurred.
c. An external fire discharge has been activated.
d. An engine fire agent thermal discharge has occurred.
337. Which of the following are monitored for protection against fire or smoke?
a. Engines, APU, aft cargo, lavatories and avionics bay.
b. Engines, APU, aft cargo, forward cargo, lavatories and avionics bay.
c. Engines, APU, aft cargo, wheel wells, forward cargo, lavatories and avionics bay.
d. Engines, APU, aft cargo, forward cargo, and avionics bay.
338. APU fire detection is accomplished by:
a. A two channel SDCU located in the APU compartment.
b. Two parallel fire detection loops.
c. One fire detection loop.
d. A three channel SDCU located in the APU compartment.
339. In the event an aft cargo compartment smoke detector detects smoke:
a. Only an ECAM message will be generated.
b. Only a MASTER WARN and a CRC will be generated.
c. A MASTER WARN, CRC and an ECAM message will be generated.
d. A CRC and an ECAM message will be generated.
340. Each engine nacelle and pylon area is equipped with:
a. Two fire detection loops.
b. Two smoke detectors and two fire detection loops.
c. A single fire detection loop.
d. A single fire detection loop and a single smoke detector.
341. The avionics smoke detection system consists of the following:
a. A smoke detector, smoke detection control unit and one halon cylinder.
b. A smoke detector and smoke detection control unit.
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c. A smoke detector, heat detector, smoke detection control unit and one halon cylinder.
d. A smoke detector, smoke detection control unit and two halon cylinders.
342. The aft cargo compartment smoke detection system consists of:
a. A dual loop smoke detector.
b. Four smoke detectors and a two channel smoke detection control unit.
c. One smoke detector, one smoke detection control unit and two automatically discharging fire
extinguishers.
343. How does the APU fire test on battery power differ from the APU fire test with all busses
powered?
a. There is no difference.
b. While on battery power, only the red APU FIRE and AGENT/DISC push button will
illuminate.
c. It is not possible to test the APU fire protection while on battery power.
344. If an engine fire is detected, when will the pedestal mounted red FIRE annunciator light
extinguish?
a. When the crew pushes the red MASTER WARN push button.
b. Only after the fire warning no longer exists.
c. Only after the crew selects the adjacent ENG MASTER switch to off.
345. Are there any warnings to alert ground personnel when there is a fire in the APU
compartment?
a. Yes, but only if previously selected to automatic by the ground personnel.
b. No, APU fire indications are only present in the cockpit.
c. Yes, the flames.
d. Yes, the external fire warning horn will sound and the APU red fire light will illuminate.
346. The APU provides for automatic fire extinguishing:
a. On the ground and in flight.
b. On the ground.
c. Only when selected to automatic by ground personnel.
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347. You have detected avionics smoke. You have selected the GEN 1 LINE push button off and
the RAT has been deployed. Generator 2 has been removed from the system. Which of the
following is TRUE?
a. The avionics fire bottle automatically discharges.
b. The cargo fire bottle automatically fires.
c. The aircraft will be in the Emergency Electrical Configuration.
348. In addition to the CRC and red MASTER WARN light, a good engine fire test display which
of the following (AC power available)?
a. E/WD red 1 (2) ENG FIRE warning, lower ECAM engine page, red FIRE annunciator,
red ENG FIRE push button, and AGENT SQUIB/DISC.
b. Lower ECAM engine page, pedestal mounted red FIRE annunciator, red ENG FIRE push button
and the AGENT SQUIB/DISC lights illuminate.
c. The CRC and red MASTER WARN light indicate a good engine fire test.
349. In conjunction with illumination of the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light and MASTER CAUT
light:
a. The BLOWER and EXTRACT push button FAULT lights will be illuminated.
b. Only the BLOWER FAULT light will be illuminated.
c. Only the EXTRACT FAULT light will be illuminated.
350. In the event an aft cargo compartment smoke detector detects smoke:
a. Extinguishing is automatic.
b. Extinguishing is automatic only while on the ground.
c. The crew must depress the appropriate DISCH switch.
351. After an APU fire has been detected how long will the chime continue to sound?
a. Until the crew pushes the red MASTER WARN push button.
b. Until the crew pushes and releases the guarded red APU PIRE push button.
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352. If an engine fire is detected, when will the guarded red ENG PIRE push button light
extinguish?
a. Only after the fire warning no longer exists.
b. When the crew pushes and releases the guarded red ENGINE FIRE push button.
c. When the crew pushes the red MASTER WARN push button.
353. Which of the following have automatic fire extinguishing systems?
a. APU and lavatory waste bins.
b. APU, lavatory waste bins and avionics bay.
c. APU, aft cargo, forward cargo, lavatory waste bins and avionics bay.
d. Lavatory waste bins.
354. Illumination of the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light indicates:
a. A satisfactory test of the avionics compartment smoke detection control unit.
b. Smoke has been detected in the avionics compartment ventilation duct.
c. A fire has been detected in the avionics compartment.
d. A fire has been detected in the electronics compartment.
355. What systems are affected when the guarded red ENGINE PIRE push button is pushed and
released?
a. The master warning and the chime will be cancelled and the AGENT pb's will be armed.
b. All fluids, pneumatics and electrics relating to that engine are shut off.
356. In normal law, the low speed limits are depicted on each PFD as:
a. Alpha prot and alpha max.
b. Green x's.
c. Green ='s.
d. White dots.
357. Selection of flaps 1 in flight will select which of the following configurations?
a. Slats 1 and flaps 1 (1+F).
b. Slats 0 and flaps 1 (O+F).
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c. Slats 1 and flaps 0 (1).

d. Slats 1 and flaps 5 (1+F).
358. Aileron droop may best be confirmed by checking which of the following?
a. The position of the ailerons on the exterior preflight inspection.
b. The lower ECAM FLT/CTL page.
c. The position of the flap handle.
359. In normal law, MMO and VMO limits are depicted on each PFD as:
a. Green ='s
b. Green x's.
c. White dots.
360. The wing tip brakes, once activated:
a. Can only be reset on the ground by ground personnel.
b. May be reset in flight.
c. Lock the flap selector handle in its current position.
361. The wing tip brakes activate:
a. For slat and or flap overspeed, asymmetry, or symmetrical runaway.
b. For asymmetry, or symmetrical runaway.
c. For high altitude protection.
d. For low altitude protection.
362. Failure to retract the flaps after takeoff will:
a. Activate the wing tip brakes.
b. Result in automatic flap and slat retraction at 210 kts.
c. Result in automatic flap and slat retraction at 220 kts.
d. Result in automatic flap retraction at 210 kts.
363. Which of the following will automatically reset after landing?
a. Rudder trim.
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b. THS.
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364. Which of the following control surfaces can be mechanically controlled?
a. Speed brakes and flaps.
b. THS and flaps.
c. THS and rudder.
d. Rudder and flaps.
365. The FAC's primarily control which control surface?
a. Elevator.
b. Rudder.
c. Aileron.
d. Elevator and aileron.
366. The alpha speed lock function:
a. Will inhibit flap retraction during an inadvertent movement of the flap selector at high AOA or
low speeds.
b. Will inhibit slat retraction during an inadvertent movement of the flap selector at high
AOA or low speeds.
c. Automatically raises the flaps if retraction has not been accomplished by 210kts.
367. When ground spoilers deploy automatically:
a. All ten spoiler panels fully deploy.
b. Four spoiler panels on each wing deploy.
c. All ten spoiler panels deploy half way.
d. Six spoiler panels on each wing deploy.
368. What happens in the event of an single ELAC failure?
a. ELAC functions are transferred the SECs.
b. ELAC functions are transferred to FACs.
c. SEC functions are transferred the ELACs.
d. The functions of the failed ELAC will be assumed by the remaining ELAC.
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369. The wing tip brakes, once activated:

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a. Lock only the flaps in their current position.

b. Lock both the slats and flaps in their current position.
c. Lock only the slats in their current position.
d. Lock only the affected high lift system surfaces in their current position.
370. Mechanically backed-up control surfaces:
a. Are mechanically connected to the cockpit controls (controls & surface move identically).
b. Require hydraulic power for actuation.
371. The aircraft rudder can be manually trimmed with the autopilot engaged.
a. True.
b. False.
372. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the elevator aileron computers
(ELACs)?
a. Three computers which achieve normal elevator, stabilizer, and aileron control.
b. Two computers which achieve normal and standby control of the elevators, ailerons, and
trimmable horizontal stabilizer.
c. Three computers which achieve normal and standby control of the elevators, ailerons, and THS.
d. Two computers which achieve normal elevator, stabilizer, and aileron control.
373. Which of the following controls and monitors flaps and slats?
a. Two ELACs.
b. Wing tip brakes.
c. One slat flap control computer (SFCC).
d. Two slat flap control computers (SFCCs).
374. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the spoiler elevator computers
(SECs)?
a. Two computers which achieve spoiler control and standby elevator and THS control.
b. Three computers which achieve spoiler control and normal elevator and THS control.
c. Three computers which achieve spoiler control and standby elevator and THS control.
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375. If both FACs fail, what happens to the rudder limiter?
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a. It immediately assumes the low speed position.

b. It freezes at its present position and assumes the low speed position when flaps 1 are
selected.
c. Maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after slats extended.
d. Maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after flaps extended.
376. FAC generated slat and flap extension, retraction, and limiting speeds are visually displayed
on which of the following?
a. The MCDU perf page.
b. The lower ECAM F/CTL page.
c. Both pilot's PFD airspeed displays.
d. All of the above is correct.
377. The wing fuel transfer valves are:
a. Manually controlled and open when the MODE SEL push button is selected to MAN.
b. Are electrically held closed.
c. Open automatically at the start of refueling,
d. Automatically close if a low level is sensed in either main wing tank, they automatically close at
the next fueling.
378. The APU fuel system:
a. Obtains fuel from either center tank pump.
b. Uses its own dedicated DC powered fuel pump.
c. Obtains fuel from the left fuel manifold via the left side fuel pumps or if needed, the APU
fuel pump.
d. Obtains fuel from the left fuel manifold via the right side fuel pumps.
379. Fuel can be transferred from tank to tank:
a. Only on the ground.
b. In flight if the fuel X FEED push button is selected OPEN.
c. In flight if the fuel X FEED push button is selected OPEN and center tank MODE SEL push
button is selected to MAN.
d. Fuel can never be transferred.
380. What is the total fuel capacity of the A321?
a. 18,605 kgs.
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b. All are correct.

c. 20,953 kgs with 1 ACT.
d. 23,302 kgs with 2 ACTs.
381. What is the minimum fuel quantity for takeoff?
a. 1,320 kgs.
b. 1,500 kgs.
c. 2,350 kgs.
382. With fuel in the center tank the CTR TK MODE SEL push button selected to AUTO and
CTR TK PUMP push buttons ON (lights out), which of the following conditions causes the center
tank fuel pumps to stop?
a. Extension of the slats (after completion of the short test cycle).
b. Anytime the slats are extended or an overfill condition is detected in either wing inner cell.
c. For a short test period after the first Engine Master Switch is selected ON, when the slats are
extended.
383. Which of the following would cause the fault light to illuminate on the MODE SEL push
button?
a. Fuel is being burned out of sequence.
b. Crossfeed push button is ON.
c. Center tank pumps do not stop after slat extension.
d. Center tank pumps do not stop 5 min after center tank low level reached.
384. For hydraulic system malfunctions, when will the RAT deploy?
a. Automatically with the failure of both the green and blue hydraulic systems.
b. Automatically with the failure of both the green and yellow hydraulic systems.
c. Only when the guarded RAT MAN ON push button is selected by the crew.
d. When airspeed drops below 100 knots with the gear up.
385. Describe the PTU status with a green system reservoir overheat, low pressure or low fluid
level.
a. The PTU will be inhibited
b. The crew must select the PTU ON.
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c. The PTU fault light will remain illuminated as long as the problem exists. The PTU
should be
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selected OFF.
386. What are the major equipment losses with loss of Green system?
a. Speed Brakes.
b. Autobrakes.
c. Alternate Brakes.
d. The upper and lower rudders.
387. When will normal operation of the BLUE system hydraulic pump begin?
a. During the first engine start.
b. When the first engine MASTER switch is moved to the ON position.
c. Only when the RAT is deployed.
d. After both engines are started.
388. What does a HYD PUMP FAULT light indicate? 1. Reservoir low level 2. Reservoir overheat
3. Reservoir low air pressure 4. Pump low pressure 5. PTU is operating. The combination
regrouping all the correct answers is:
a. 1,3,5
b. 5 only
c. 1,3,4
d. 1,2,3,4
389. The A321's three hydraulic systems are normally pressurized by:
a. Two engine driven pumps and one electric pump.
b. Two electric pumps and one PTU.
c. Two electric pumps and one engine driven pump.
d. Two electric pumps and two engine driven pumps.
390. How is the yellow hydraulic system pressurized?
a. An engine driven pump, an electric pump, the PTU using the green system and, for the
cargo doors only, a hand pump.
b. An engine driven pump, electric pump, the PTU using the blue system and, for the cargo doors
only, a hand pump.
c. An engine driven pump, an electric pump, and the PTU using the green system.
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391. After extending the RAT, is it possible to check its position and status?
a. Check to see if the blue system ELEC PUMP FAULT light is not illuminated.
b. Yes, select the ECAM ELEC page.
c. No.
d. Yes, select the ECAM HYD page.
392. The RAT is capable of powering a pump which will pressurize:
a. Only the blue system.
b. The blue and green system.
c. The blue and yellow system.
d. All systems.
393. The hydraulic PTU will activate if:
a. A significant pressure loss occurs in any of the three hydraulic systems.
b. A significant pressure loss occurs in the green or yellow hydraulic system.
394. Can the wing anti-ice be tested on the ground?
a. No.
b. Yes, valves only open for 30 seconds.
c. Yes, valves stay open till selected off.
395. What is the difference between the engine and wing anti-ice fault lights?
a. Both indicate valve in transit, or valve position disagrees with selected position. Wing
light also could indicate low pressure.
b. Both indicate low pressure, or valve position disagrees with selected position. Wing light might
indicate valve in transit.
c. Both indicate valve in transit, or low pressure. Wing light also could indicate valve position
disagrees with selected position.
396. With the loss of electrical power, the engine anti-ice valves:
a. Fail in their current position.
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b. Fail to the open position.

c. Fail to the closed position.
d. Fail to the mid position
397. Window heat operates at what power level while airborne?
a. Low power above 18,000 ft.
b. Normal power while airborne.
c. Shifts from low to high as window temperature requires.
d. Low power above 25,000 ft.
398. With the loss of electrical power, the wing anti-ice valves:
a. Fail in their current position.
b. Fail to the open position.
c. Fail to the closed position.
d. Fail to the mid position.
399. What happens when either engine anti-ice is open?
a. Minimum N1 is limited, continuous ignition is provided, minimum idle RPM is increased.
b. Maximum N1 is limited, continuous ignition is provided, maximum idle RPM is increased.
c. Maximum N1 is limited, continuous ignition is provided, minimum RPM is increased.
d. Pneumatics blowing across all flight deck windows.
400. Rain protection is provided by:
a. Warm bleed air blowing across the windshield.
b. Rain repellent and windshield wipers.
401. Anti-ice and de-icing protection is provided for:
a. The engine nacelles and three outboard wing slats.
b. The engine nacelles, three outboard wing slats, and the horizontal stabilizer.
c. The engine nacelles, three outboard slats, horizontal stabilizer, and the vertical stabilizer.
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402. VOR, ILS, and NDB raw data information is displayed on the ND in which of the following
modes?
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a. VOR, RMI and NDB information may be displayed in the ARC or ROSE NAV modes.
b. VOR and ILS information can be displayed in the ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS modes
respectively
403. Weather radar can be displayed in what modes on the ND?
a. ARC and ROSE NAV modes only.
b. All modes except plan.
c. ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS modes.
d. ROSE NAV mode only.
404. If the lower ECAM DU fails, is there a way to retrieve that information?
a. By pressing and holding the related systems page push button on the ECAM control panel, the
page will be displayed on the UPPER ECAM.
b. By rotating the ECAM/ND XFR switch on the switching panel, the lower ECAM page will be
transferred to either the Captain or FO's ND.
c. Both a and b are wrong.
405. What causes a display unit (DU) to go blank?
a. Display unit internal failure.
b. No power.
d. The circuit breaker-has popped.
406. What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?
a. DMC failure.
b. No power.
d. The circuit breaker for that particular DU has popped.
407. Once the crewmember has completed viewing a specific system, what is the correct
procedure for clearing the screen and returning it to a normal presentation?
a. Press the respective system push button again.
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b. It goes away by itself.

c. Press CLR on the ECAM control panel.
408. How many DMCs are there?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
409. RNAV position information is displayed on the ND in which of the following modes?
a. ARC and ROSE NAV modes only.
b. ARC, ROSE and PLAN modes.
c. ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS modes.
d. ROSE VOR mode.
410. Where is the information displayed by DMC #1 and DMC#2?
a. DMC#1 supplies data to PFD#1, ND#1, and lower ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data to PFD#2,
ND#2, and upper ECAM.
b. DMC#1 supplies data to PFD#1, PFD#2, and upper ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data to ND#1,
ND#2, and lower ECAM.
c. DMC#1 supplies data to PFD#1, ND#1, and upper ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data to
PFD#2, ND#2, and lower ECAM.
d. DMC#1 supplies data to PFD#1, ND#2, and lower ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data to PFD#2,
ND#1, and upper ECAM.
411. The presence of VOR1 in red on the ND indicates:
a. The VOR station currently tuned is out of range.
b. The VOR station currently tuned is out of service.
c. The #1 VOR receiver has failed its self-test.
d. The #1 VOR receiver is inoperative.
412. After a single DMC failure, how could a crew member recover the display units?
a. Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC
#3.
b. Once a DMC has failed, the information is unrecoverable.
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c. It is done automatically.
413. If the UPPER ECAM DU fails, what will be displayed on the lower unit?
a. System display page.
b. Engines and Warning page (E/WD)
c. Status page.
414. Which hydraulic system(s) supply pressure to the landing gear system?
a. Green
b. Blue
c. Yellow and blue
d. Green and blue
415. With the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch in the ON position, if the BSCU detects a brake
system malfunction and/or normal braking is not available:
a. Transition to the alternate brake system is automatic.
b. The crew will be notified with an ECAM message only if after touchdown the brake system
does actually malfunction.
c. The crew must select alternate brakes.
416. When the landing gear is gravity extended, will nose wheel steering be available?
a. No.
b. Only if the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is selected ON.
c. Limited nose wheel steering is available only through the captain's rudder pedals.
417. What is indicated by the autobrake DECEL lights?
a. Airplane deceleration is 25% of selected rate.
b. Airplane deceleration is 50% of selected rate.
c. Airplane deceleration is 100% of selected rate.
d. Airplane deceleration is 80% of selected rate.
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418. If the landing gear was gravity extended using the hand crank on the center pedestal, landing
gear position must be verified through the:
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a. Landing gear indications depicted on the ECAM and, if available, the center panel LDG
GEAR
indicator panel lights.
b. The landing gear viewers.
419. If the BSCU detects a brake system malfunction in flight with the A/SKID & N/W STRG
switch in the ON position:
a. The crew will be notified with an ECAM message.
b. The crew will be notified with an ECAM message after touchdown if the brake system does
malfunction.
c. The crew must manually select alternate brakes.
420. What does each turn of the gravity gear extension handle do?
a. Open gear doors, drop gear, shut doors.
b. Open gear doors, unlock gear, drop gear.
c. Shutoff hydraulic pressure, open doors, unlock gear.
d. Open gear doors, shutoffs hydraulics, unlock gear, drop gear.
421. Can normal landing gear operation be restored after a gravity extension if green hydraulic
pressure is available?
a. Restoration is always possible.
b. It may be possible if the gravity extension was not caused by a failure of the landing gear
mechanism.
c. No, only maintenance can restore normal operation.
422. If the accumulator on the alternate brake system is your only pressure source, which of the
following will be available?
a. Auto brakes and anti-skid.
b. Anti-skid.
c. Seven applications of the brake pedals.
d. 3 applications of the brake pedals.
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423. On the ECAM WHEEL page, which of the following will NOT be displayed?
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a. Brake system pressure.

b. Brake accumulator pressure.
c. None of the above is correct.
424. Auto brakes, if selected, will only be activated by:
a. The wheels spinning up.
b. The struts being compressed.
c. The brake pedals being depressed.
d. The ground spoiler extension command
425. The normal brake system uses .......... hydraulic pressure and the alternate brake system uses
............ hydraulic pressure backed up by the hydraulic brake accumulator.
a. Green, blue.
b. Yellow, blue.
c. Yellow, green.
d. Green, yellow.
426. If the brake system automatically transitions to alternate brakes with the A/SKID & N/W
STRG switch in the ON position, which of the following will be available?
a. Auto brakes and anti-skid.
b. Only auto brakes.
c. Anti-skid.
d. Brakes, auto brakes, anti-skid.
427. Landing gear operation is inhibited at speeds:
a. Below 100 knots.
b. Above 260 +/- 5 knots.
c. Below 100 knots and above 260 knots.
d. Above 300 knots.
428. How can the brake accumulator be re-pressurized?
a. With the yellow electric hydraulic pump.
b. With the blue electric hydraulic pump.
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429. If the Landing Gear is gravity extended using the hand crank on the center pedestal, what
other systems will be inoperative?
a. Nose wheel steering.
b. Anti-skid and auto braking.
c. Nose wheel steering and anti-skid.
d. Nose wheel steering and auto braking.
430. What is required to arm the auto brakes?
a. Green hydraulic pressure available, anti-skid, no failures in the braking system.
b. Landing gear lever selected down and selection of an autobraking rate.
c. Both a and b are required.
431. Which hydraulic system supplies pressure to the nose wheel steering on recent A321?
a. Yellow
b. Blue
c. Green
d. Green and yellow.
432. What system pressure does the ACCU PRESS and BRAKES pressure indicator indicate?
a. Brake accumulator and yellow brake system pressure to the left and right brakes
b. Brake accumulator and green brake system pressure to the left and right brakes
c. Brake accumulator and green or yellow brake system pressure to the left and right brakes.
d. Blue brake accumulator and green brake system pressure to the left and right brakes.
433. SRS will command:
a. V2 + 10 with both engines operating.
b. V2 or current aircraft speed (whichever is higher) in the case of an engine failure.
d. Best rate of climb speed.
434. When is the SRS active?
a. At T/O, when TOGA or FLX power is set, SRS is displayed on the FMA and provides guidance
up to the acceleration altitude.
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b. During a Go Around (after the thrust levers are placed in the TOGA position) up to the
acceleration altitude.
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435. Will the aircraft capture and navigate via the ILS signals if the ILS push button on the FCU
is not pushed?
a. Yes.
b. No.
436. What does pushing the APPR push button do?
a. Arms the Flight Guidance system to capture a localizer and glide slope.
b. Arms managed navigation.
c. Allows the aircraft to slow to green dot speed.
d. Arms managed vertical navigation.
437. You have been cleared for an ILS approach. Would you depress …:
a. LOC push button, because the FMGC will now capture and navigate via the localizer and glide
slope signal.
b. APPR push button, because the FMGC will now capture and navigate via the localizer and
glide slope signal.
c. Both LOC and APPR push buttons, because both are needed for the aircraft to capture the
localizer and glide slope.
d. ILS push button, because the FMGC will now capture and navigate via the localizer and glide
slope signal.
438. The selected database date has expired. When must the active data base be changed?
a. Prior to entering the preflight data.
b. Any time prior to takeoff.
c. The following calendar day.
d. At 0900Z on the effective date, but not in flight.
439. An amber boxed line on the MCDU screen indicates:
a. An optional data entry.
b. A mandatory data entry.
c. A compulsory reporting point.
d. The waypoint indicated will be overflown.
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440. V1 speed is:

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a. Entered by the pilot.

b. Calculated by the FMGC.
c. Calculated by the FAC
d. Calculated by the ELAC.
441. The FMGS database contains:
a. Navigation information, such as navaids, waypoints, airways, airports, runways, etc.
b. Performance information, such as engine fuel flow, engine thrust, green dot data (L/D data), etc.
442. How does the FMGC compute radio position?
a. IRS only.
b. IRS and VOR/DME.
c. IRS, DME/DME.
d. VOR/DME and DME/DME.
443. Which of the following navaids can be autotuned?
a. ILS.
b. VOR and DME.
444. What is the default managed climb speed below 10,000 feet?
a. 210 kt
b. Green dot.
c. Best rate of climb speed.
d. 250 knots
445. When flying at cruise altitude, the aircraft navigates using radio navaids only.
a. True.
b. False.
446. The weather radar image can be displayed on which modes of the ND?
a. All modes except Plan.
b. Rose VOR or Rose ILS.
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c. Rose NAV or ARC.

d. Rose NAV or VOR.
447. Can the crew depress the NAV pushbutton on the RMP and use the RMP for navigation
simultaneously with FMGC autotuning?
a. No, RMP backup tuning supersedes the autotuning function of both FMGC'S.
b. Yes, because the opposite FMGC will continue to autotune navaids.
c. No, the RMP autotunes only approach navaids.
448. The takeoff bias is:
a. Retained for the remainder of the flight.
b. Replaced when a bias is computed based on radio position.
c. Blended out over the next 30 minutes.
449. What is managed climb speed above 10,000 feet?
a. Green dot.
b. 250 knots.
c. 280 knots.
d. Econ climb speed.
450. When the aircraft is in the Managed Guidance mode, it is:
a. Guided by the pilot selecting the specific flight modes and parameter target values on the FCU.
b. Responding to pilot inputs of speed, altitude, and heading selected on the FCU.
c. Following lateral, vertical and speed profiles as determined by the IRS’s.
d. Following lateral, vertical and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS.
451. With the autopilot engaged, either sidestick can be moved freely.
a. True
b. False, moving either sidestick will cause the autopilot(s) to disengage.
c. False, only the nonflying pilot's sidestick will freely move.
452. What consider being best rate of climb speed?
a. 250 knots below 10,000 feet.
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b. ECON climb speed.

c. Turbulence speed.
d. Orange dot speed.
453. When can managed vertical navigation be engaged?
a. Only after managed lateral navigation has been engaged.
b. Only after managed lateral navigation and managed speed have been engaged.
c. At any time regardless of the engagement status of lateral navigation or speed.
d. Only after managed speed has been engaged.
454. What are the different types of flight guidance?
a. Slaved and managed.
b. Automatic and manual.
c. Managed and selected.
d. Managed and manual.
455. You have been cleared to intercept the localizer. You have pushed the LOC push button on
the FCU. If all necessary data has been entered in the MCDU, can you now engage both autopilots?
a. Yes.
b. No, the LOC must capture before both autopilots will engage.
c. No, the APPR pushbutton must be pushed.
456. While taxiing on the ground, the FMGS displays the position of the aircraft using:
a. IRS and DME/DME.
b. IRS only.
c. IRS and VOR/DME.
d. DME/DME and VOR/DME.
457. When the thrust levers are moved to the takeoff position, the FMGS updates its position at
takeoff using:
a. IRS/DME/DME positioning.
b. IRS/ILS/DME positioning.
c. The navigation database and the takeoff runway entered into the MCDU by the pilot.
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d. The VOR currently tuned.

458. On which ECAM page could the flight crew check the exact pressure of the crew oxygen
cylinder?
a. The PRESS page.
b. The DOORS page.
c. The COND page.
d. The STATUS page.
459. At approximately what cabin altitude should the passenger oxygen masks drop?
a. 12,500 feet.
b. 15,000 feet.
c. 10,000 feet.
d. 14,000 feet.
460. When does passenger oxygen flow start?
a. When the mask is pulled toward the seat.
b. When the oxygen doors open.
c. When cabin altitude exceeds 14,000.
d. When the oxygen button is pushed.
461. Illumination of the SYS ON light is an indication that:
a. All of the passenger masks have deployed.
b. The crew must depress the MASK MAN ON pb in order to deploy the masks.
c. Electrical power has been sent to deploy the masks, either manually or automatically.
d. The bottle is empty.
462. What is the purpose of the CREW SUPPLY push button?
a. When selected to ON, it supplies oxygen to the third and fourth occupants' mask in the cockpit.
b. When selected to ON, it allows the flow of low pressure oxygen to the crew's masks.
c. In case of low cylinder pressure it allows the crew to tap into the passenger oxygen system.
463. Approximately how long are the passenger oxygen generators able to produce oxygen?
a. 15 minutes.
b. 30 minutes.
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c. 20 minutes.
d. 25 minutes.
464. What will depressing the guarded MASK MAN ON pb accomplish?
a. A signal is sent to the chemical oxygen generators to start the flow of oxygen to the masks.
b. It manually sends a signal to open the oxygen mask doors.
465. What is indicated by a missing green thermal plug during an exterior preflight?
a. This is normal indication, the green thermal plug only appears if the oxygen cylinder is low.
b. An oxygen system overpressure or thermal discharge.
c. An external fire discharge has been activated.
d. The crew oxygen bottle is empty.
466. When engine and wing anti-ice are in use, and a BMC detects a bleed leak:
a. The wing anti-ice on the associated side will be lost, and the engine anti-ice on the
associated side will continue to function.
b. The wing and engine anti-ice on the associated side will be lost.
c. Only the engine anti-ice on the associated side will be lost.
467. APU bleed air, when selected
a. Has priority over engine bleed air.
b. Will supply bleed air only if the ENG BLEED pb's are selected OFF.
c. Will supply bleed air only if the X BLEED selector is selected OPEN.
d. Does not have priority over engine bleed air.
468. Bleed leak protection for the APU pneumatic duct is provided by:
a. Detection loops associated with BMC #1.
b. Detection loops associated with BMC #2.
c. The APU BMC.
469. If a BMC detects a bleed leak:
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a. All valves that could supply pneumatic air to the area of the bleed leak will automatically
close.
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b. The crew must isolate the affected leak.

c. All pneumatic valves close automatically.
470. With both engines operating, an ENG BLEED pb FAULT light will illuminate when:
a. The valve position differs from that of the push button.
b. The X BLEED selector is selected to SHUT.
c. The X BLEED selector is selected to OPEN.
471. The crew may directly control the following bleed valves:
a. Engine, engine high pressure, APU.
b. Engine, intermediate pressure, APU.
c. Crossbleed.
d. Engine, APU, crossbleed.
472. With the APU running, the APU BLEED push button selected ON and the X BLEED
selector to AUTO, the APU will:
a. Only supply bleed air to the left side.
b. Supply pneumatic air to both sides of the aircraft because the pneumatic crossbleed
valve automatically opens.
c. Will supply bleed air only to the left side unless the X BLEED selector is selected OPEN.
d. Only supply bleed air to the right side.
473. If a BMC fails:
a. The remaining BMC will automatically assume most of the failed BMC’s functions.
b. All systems associated with the failed BMC also fail.
c. The associated bleed valves close.
474. To start the APU the:
a. BAT 1 and 2 push buttons must be selected to ON.
b. BAT 1 and 2 push buttons do not need to be selected ON if external power is available.
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475. What is the function of the APU GEN push button located on the overhead electrical panel?
a. When selected OFF, the APU generator is de-energized.
b. It is normally left in the lights out position.
476. When the APU MASTER SW is selected ON:
a. The APU computer automatically starts the APU.
b. The APU computer automatically completes a self-test, opens the air intake flap and
supplies fuel pressure.
c. Connects the APU generator to the aircraft electrical system.
d. The APU door opens.
477. The APU may be started up to what altitude?
a. The APU can be started at any altitude provided normal aircraft electrical power is
available.
b. The APU can be started up to 35,000 feet using only the aircraft batteries.
c. The APU can be started up to 30,000 feet using only the aircraft batteries.
478. With the engines off, if the AVAIL light is illuminated on both the APU START push button
and the EXT PWR push button, what is the source of electrical power for the aircraft busses?
a. External power.
b. The APU.
c. It is not possible to determine without checking the ECAM.
d. The aircraft battery.
479. The APU START push button, when selected ON, will:
a. Connect the APU generator to the aircraft electrical system.
b. Open the air intake flap and supply fuel pressure.
c. Start the APU if the APU MASTER SW was previously selected ON.
480. The APU system page will appear on the ECAM:
a. Automatically whenever the APU is started and AC power is available.
b. When selected by the crew.
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481. What happens to the cockpit door with electrical power failure?
a. It operates normally on HOT BAT bus.
b. It automatically locks.
c. It automatically unlocks.
482. Can the flight compartment sliding windows be used as emergency exits?
a. No, they are not approved emergency exits.
b. No, they are too small.
c. Yes, in the cockpit coat closet is a rope ladder that can be used in such an event.
d. Yes, there are escape ropes mounted above each window behind an access panel.
483. What does illumination of the red cabin pressure light represent on the main cabin door?
a. This indicates that the aircraft cabin is still pressurized and the cabin door should not be
opened.
b. This indicates that the evacuation slide is armed.
484. How is it determined that the cockpit sliding window is closed and locked?
a. The red ring below the release button should not be in view.
b. The red ring below the release button should be in view.
c. The locking pin was placed in the forward position when the window was closed.
d. The pin is engaged.
485. How many cabin entrance, overwing emergency exits and cargo doors are on the A321?
a. Four cabin, two overwing, and two cargo.
b. Four cabin, four overwing, and three cargo.
c. Two cabin, four overwing, and three cargo.
d. Four cabin, two overwing, and two cargo.
486. Where is the emergency axe located?
a. In a first class special overhead bin, aircraft right.
b. In the cockpit.
c. In the forward galley coat closet, aircraft left.
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d. Partition storage, door 1L.

487. How many portable fire extinguishers are in the cockpit?
a. One CO2 in the cockpit.
b. One Halon in the cockpit and one Water.
c. One Halon in the cockpit.
d. One CO2 and one Halon.
488. Once activated, how can you cancel the EVAC alert from the cockpit?
a. HORN SHUT OFF.
b. COMMAND switch.
c. Only able to deactivate from cabin.
d. OFF switch.
489. On the cockpit overhead panel there is a three position EMERGENCY EXIT LT switch.
What lights are associated with this switch?
a. Exit signs, emergency lights, and floor path lights if installed.
b. Exit signs, emergency lights, main panel flood lights, and floor path lights if installed.
c. Exit signs, emergency lights, dome lights, main panel flood lights, and the standby compass
light.
d. Exit signs, and the standby compass light.
490. When the door arming lever is in the ARMED position, opening the door from the outside
will:
a. The power assist will rapidly open the door.
b. Automatically deploy and inflate the evacuation slide.
c. Only arm the slide.
d. Disarm the door.
491. How many survival kits are there on board the aircraft, and where are they located?
a. Four; one is installed within each slide raft.
b. Four; two in an overhead bin in first class and two in an overhead bin in the aft part of
coach.
c. Two; one in a first class overhead bin and one in an aft coach overhead bin.
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492. The PBE provides a breathable atmosphere for approximately ...........minutes.

a. 12
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b. 15
c. 17
d. 20
493. The HALON fire extinguisher should be used on what type fires?
a. Electrical and flammable liquid fires.
b. Electrical and ordinary combustibles.
c. Electrical and burning metals.
d. Electrical fires.
494. What are the indications that the PBE oxygen supply has depleted?
a. The hood collapses to the point that it touches your face or by a flashing red light in
addition to the flashing green light.
b. The sound of the oxygen flow stops and flashing red and green lights appear.
c. No 02 supply indications & lights only indicate time.
495. Can ALL the evacuation slides be used as life rafts?
a. Yes.
b. Yes, the double-lane overwing evacuation slides are designed as life rafts.
c. No, only the main cabin door evacuation slides can be used as life rafts.
496. How is crew oxygen provided?
a. Single bottle.
b. One bottle per crew member.
c. Oxygen generator.
d. One oxygen bottle with an oxygen generator.
497. How many persons can a standby life-raft carry?
a. 40.
b. 30.
c. 35.
d. 25.
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498. What is Crew Oxygen minimum pressure, where can it be read?

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a. 1300 PSI, ECAM DOOR/OXY page.

b. 950 PSI, gauge on the bottle.
c. 850 PSI, gauge on the bottle.
d. 850 PSI, ECAM DOOR/OXY page.
499. What does HORN SHUTOFF on the EVAC panel do?
a. Silences EVAC signals throughout the cabin and cockpit.
b. Cancels the EVAC alert
c. Silences EVAC signal in cockpit.
500. How many first aid kits are available?
a. 2.
b. 1.
c. 3.
d. 4.
501. With the EMER EXIT LT selector in the ARM position, if DC shed essential bus is
unpowered:
a. The emergency lights and exit signs will illuminate automatically
b. The escape path markings, if installed, will automatically illuminate.
502. What abnormals would cause the FADEC to automatically abort a start?
a. A hot start, an overtemp, a stalled start or no lightup.
b. A hot start, a stalled start, an overtemp or APU underspeed.
c. A hot start, an overtemp or an engine overspeed.
d. An engine overspeed.
503. What is considered to be the active range of the A/THR system?
a. During single engine operations from just above the IDLE stop to the FLX/MCT detent.
b. During two engine operations from just above the IDLE stop to the CL detent.
c. Both a and b above.
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504. During an in-flight start or a manual start, will the FADEC auto abort for an abnormal?
a. Yes and no; it will for an in-flight start but not for a manual start.
b. No
c. Yes
505. What does the FLEX represent in the FLX/MCT detent?
a. This is a reduced thrust setting used for takeoff.
b. This is the maximum continuous thrust setting for single-engine operations.
c. This is the thrust setting that should be chosen in the case of a single-engine go-around.
506. The left column, first line of the FMA is used to indicate:
a. If A/THR is off, armed, or active.
b. The mode of the A/THR in use when A/THR is armed or active.
c. Amber caution messages.
d. The thrust indication.
507. If the thrust levers are set in the idle detent, is Alpha floor protection still available?
a. No, because the IDLE detent is out of the A/THR active range.
b. Yes, thrust lever position is disregarded.
c. Yes, as long as "A/THR" appears in Column five.
508. When Alpha floor is activated, what power setting is automatically commanded and what
FMA annunciation would appear in Column one?
a. TOGA; A. FLOOR.
b. CLB; CLB.
c. MCT; THR LK.
d. THR LK.
509. Is it possible to cancel Alpha floor?
a. No, Alpha floor protection is always available.
b. Yes, by placing the thrust levers to IDLE.
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c. Yes, by depressing the ATHR push button on the FCU or by use of the instinctive
disconnect buttons.
510. What is the difference between variable thrust and the speed mode?
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a. In the variable thrust mode, thrust is fixed and speed is controlled by the elevator.
b. In the fixed thrust mode, thrust is variable and speed is controlled by the elevator.
c. In the fixed thrust mode, thrust is fixed and the elevator controls the speed.
511. Where is the thrust reduction altitude found and is the number always the same?
a. Column four, row three of the FMA; it will always be 1500 ft. AGL.
b. TAKE OFF PERF page of the MCDU; it can be modified.
c. PROG page of the MCDU; it can be modified in order to meet constraints.
d. TAKE OFF PERF page of the MCDU; it cannot be modified.
512. Is any thrust lever action required if an engine failed at rotation while using FLEX takeoff
power?
a. Yes.
b. No.
513. When is T.O. INHIBIT and LDG INHIBIT active?
a. TO 1500 feet AGL, LND below 750 feet AGL.
b. TO 1000 feet AGL, LN-D below 1000 feet AGL.
c. TO 750 feet AGL, LND below 1500 feet AGL.
d. TO 1500 feet AGL, LND below 1000 feet AGL.
514. What is required for the FADEC to compute a reduced thrust setting?
a. A FLEX temperature must be entered on the INIT page of the MCDU.
b. Nothing, it is an automatic function of the FADEC.
c. A FLEX temperature must be entered on the TAKE OFF PERF page of the MCDU.
515. Alpha floor protection is available:
a. From lift off and down to 100 feet radio altitude in the landing configuration.
b. From lift off and down to 50 feet radio altitude in the landing configuration.
c. From lift off and down to 500 feet radio altitude in the landing configuration.
d. From lift off and down to 750 feet radio altitude in the landing configuration.
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516. While flying the airplane with A/THR active, the speed knob is pulled and turned to a
selected speed that happens to be slower than Alpha prot. What speed will the A/C slow to?
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a. Green dot.
b. V1.
c. Vso
d. Vls.
517. When does oil quantity indication begin to pulse?
a. Decreasing below 5 qts.
b. During engine start.
c. Oil quantity detector fault.
d. During idle thrust.
518. Does the FADEC provide EGT limit protection constantly?
a. Yes, in all phases-of flight.
b. No, EGT limit protection is only available during ground auto starts.
c. No, EGT limit protection is only available during ground auto starts and single-engine
operations.
519. The idle setting on the aircraft is capable of modulating due to certain conditions. During
descent, what might cause the IDLE N1 setting to increase?
a. The slats are extended.
b. For a higher than normal bleed air demand or warmer than normal engine oil temp in flight.
520. What conditions automatically activate continuous ignition?
a. Engine flameout, engine anti-ice selected OFF and EIU failure.
b. Engine flameout, TO/GA selected in fight, engine anti-ice selected ON and flaps lever 0.
c. Engine flameout, ignition delay, engine anti-ice selected OFF and HMU failure.
521. How can A/THR be ARMED automatically?
a. Whenever a takeoff or go-around is initiated.
b. When alpha floor protection is activated.
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522. Can the engines be overboosted in the TOGA position?

a. No, because the EIU is responsible for monitoring N1 and N2.
b. Yes, if the autothrust function is not active.
c. No, because the ECU provides engine protection limit by monitoring N1, N2, and HMU
fuel flow adjustments.
523. During an automatic start, the FADEC controls:
a. The start valves, igniters and fuel flow.
b. The start valves, igniters, HP and LP fuel valves.
c. The start valves, igniters, HP and LP fuel valves, and fuel flow.
d. The igniters and fuel flow.
524. How many FADEC's are installed in the aircraft?
a. Two, one per engine.
b. One, with two engine control units (ECU).
c. Two, one is the active FADEC and the other is a standby.
d. Two per engine.
525. How many thrust lever positions are there, and how are they labeled?
a. Six; TO/GA, MCT, FLEX, CL, IDLE and REV IDLE.
b. Six; TO/GA, FLX/MCT, CL, IDLE, REV IDLE and MREV.
c. Four; TO/GA, FLX/MCT, CL, IDLE.
d. Five; TO/GA, FLX/MCT, CL, IDLE and REV IDLE.
526. What are the two basic modes of the A/THR system?
a. Thrust and Mach.
b. Variable thrust and fixed speed.
c. Mach and speed.
d. Thrust and speed.
527. What would happen during the takeoff roll if the thrust levers were set to the FLX/MCT
detent without FLEX temperature being entered?
a. Nothing, the thrust setting would be at flex since FADEC automatically calculates a reduced
thrust setting.
b. A level two warning would sound along with the appearance of an ECAM message.
c. The thrust setting would be MCT and there would be no corresponding warnings.
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528. How is manual arming of the A/THR system accomplished?

a. Advance at least one thrust lever to the TOGA or FLX/MCT detent with at least one Flight
Director (FD) on.
b. By placing the thrust levers into the active range.
c. By pressing the A/THR pb on the FCU confirm the pb illuminates green or confirm an
A/THR annunciation is displayed in column 5 of the FMA.
529. Holding the instinctive disconnect push button for more than fifteen seconds will:
a. Disengage the A/THR (including A.floor) for the remainder of the flight.
b. Disengage the A/THR (excluding A.floor) for the remainder of the flight.
c. Disengage the A/THR (including A.floor) until below 500 feet AGL for the remainder of the
flight.
d. Disengage the A/THR (including A.floor) until below 1,000 feet AGL for the remainder of the
flight.
530. What would happen in flight if the FADEC's alternator failed?
a. Automatic control of the engine would be lost.
b. The standby channel of the ECU would take over.
c. The FADEC would now be powered using ship's power.
d. The FADEC would now be powered using ship's battery power.
531. Is there any mechanical linkage between the thrust levers and the engines?
a. There is a mechanical linkage in case the ECU fails.
b. No, it is totally electrical.
c. No, it is electrically powered and hydraulically actuated.
d. There is a fiber optic backup.
532. Verification that Autothrust (A/THR) is active can be made by:
a. Watching the automatic movement of the thrust levers.
b. Only when the thrust levers are set at TOGA.
c. Only by looking at column five of the FMA.
533. As far as FMA annunciations are concerned, what would indicate that the A/THR system is
active?
a. “A/THR” changes from blue to white as shown in column five, line three.
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b. “SPEED” appears in green in column one, line one.

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c. “A/THR” changes from white to blue in column five, line one.

d. “SPEED” appears in amber in column one, line one.
534. During normal operation, in what detent are the thrust levers positioned once the thrust
reduction altitude has been reached?
a. MCT
b. FLX
c. CR
d. CLB
535. The FADEC will automatically abort an abnormal start thereby providing engine limit
protection, but will the FADEC also automatically dry crank the engine?
a. No, that is why there is a CRANK selection on the ENG MODE selector.
b. Yes, even if the crew interrupts the start by placing the ENG MASTER switch to OFF.
c. Yes, as long as the ENG MASTER switch remains in the ON position.
536. During a manual start, how is the start valve opened?
a. It is automatic once the ENG MASTER is placed to the ON position.
b. By depressing the ENG MAN START pb's on the overhead panel.
c. By depressing the ENG MAN START pb's on the overhead panel while the ENG MODE
selector is out of the NORM position.

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A320/A321 Issue : 00 7-2016

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