ST-125 REASONING IBPS PO MAINS 2015

Q.1-5. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Statement- Macroeconomic economic indication seem to be positive and these numbers have come
in the midst of a global slowdown –Finance Minister of India said

(A)India has potential to be the bright spot in the gloomy economic scenario.
(B)Fiscal deficit is coming down, Foreign exchange reserves are very hammer and inflation is very much
under control.
(C)India’s economic growth is expected to improve despite unfavourable global winds.
(D)The government is giving special focus on improving the ease of doing business in the country with
initiative like ‘make in India’ to boost the manufacturing sector.
(E)The global economy is trying to find a balance between slowdown in china and growth picking up
in U.S .
Q.1. Which amongst (A),(B),(C),(D)and (E) can be inference of the statement?
(1)A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

ANSWER: (3)

Q.2. Which amongst (A),(B),(C),(D)and (E) is the conclusion for the given statement?
(1)A (2)B (3)C (4)D (5)E

ANSWER: (1)

Q.3. Which amongst (A),(B),(C),(D)and (E) is “Assumption” for the given statement?
(1)A (2)B (3)C (4)D (5)E

ANSWER: (2)

Q.4. Which amongst (A),(B),(C),(D)and(E) is the course of action for the economic growth of India?
(1)A (2)B (3)C (4)D (5)E

ANSWER: (4)

Q.5. Which amongst (A),(B),(C),(D)and (E) shows the global action ?

(1)A (2)B (3)C (4)D (5)E

ANSWER: (5)

Q.6-10. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Statement: DNA evidence has increasingly been used in court to prove guilt and to exonerate the
innocent. Because so many convicted felons have been cleared by DNA evidence, all cases in which
someone was convicted largely on circumstantial evidence should be called into question and
reviewed.
Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen this argument?
(1) One in three convictions today rests largely on DNA evidence.
(2) DNA evidence is admissible even after the statute of limitations has expired.
(3) Of every ten cases in which DNA evidence becomes available post-conviction, five convictions are
overturned.
(4) DNA evidence is 99.8% accurate.
(5) DNA evidence is very difficult to falsify or tamper with.

ANSWER:
Q.6. (3). The fact that would most strengthen this argument is the percentage of cases in which DNA
evidence overturned prior convictions. If half of all cases resulted in erroneous convictions that were
later cleared by DNA evidence, then that should certainly draw other convictions into doubt. The
fact that one in three of today’s convictions rest on DNA evidence has no bearing on prior
convictions, so choice a is incorrect. Similarly, the admissibility of DNA evidence (choice 2) has no
bearing on the quality of prior convictions. That DNA evidence is accurate (choice 4) and difficult to
tamper with (choice 5) strengthens the argument for the use of DNA evidence in court, but it does
not directly strengthen the argument that prior convictions should be called into doubt.

Q.7. Statement: Morning Glory, the coffee shop on the corner, has lost nearly 50% of its business
because a national retail coffee chain opainted up a store down the street. Instead of closing up
shop, the owner of Morning Glory plans to draw in customers by offering coffee, tea, and pastries at
much lower prices than the national coffee chain.
The owner’s plan of action is based on all of the following assumptions EXCEPT
(1) some customers will choose the coffee shop that offers the lowest price.
(2) the quality of Morning Glory’s coffee is comparable to that of the national coffee chain.
(3) Morning Glory can afford to cut its profit margin in order to lower prices.
(4) Morning Glory’s customers are very loyal.
(5) the national coffee chain will not lower its prices in order to compete with Morning Glory.

ANSWER:
Q.7. (4). The owner’s plan—to lower prices to attract customers—assumes that some customers will
choose the lower price (choice 1), that the quality of Morning Glory’s products is comparable to its
competitor (choice 2), that Morning Glory can afford to offer lower prices (choice 3), and that its
competitor will also not lower its prices (choice 5). The plan does not rest on any assumptions about
the loyalty of Morning Glory customers (choice 4). Indeed, there is evidence that the customers are
not loyal, because Morning Glory has already lost 50% of its business.

Q.8. Statement: With more and more classes being offered online, more and more students will earn
their degrees in virtual universities. Students in California will graduate from schools in New York
without ever leaving their state. Because online courses offer flexibility without geographic
boundaries, virtual degrees will be in greater demand, and colleges and universities should invest
the bulk of their resources in developing online degree programs.
All of the following, if true, are valid objections to this argument EXCEPT
(1) online courses are more time consuming for faculty to develop than regular courses.
(2) many students need the ability to attend class outside of regular classroom hours.
(3) some students prefer the traditional classroom to the virtual classroom.
(4) not every course is suitable for an online environment.
(5) there is no way to ensure the authenticity of a student’s work in an online environment.

ANSWER:
Q.8. (2). All of the choices except 2 offer reasons why online degree programs are problematic,
suggesting that resources should not be focused on developing online degree programs. Choice 2
offers support for the argument by stating that the flexibility of online classes will attract students
who would not normally be able to attend regular classes.

Q.9. Statement: Property values in South Orange, New Jersey, have nearly doubled in the last six
years. South Orange is located in Essex County, 17 miles from New York City.
Which of the following, if true, best explains the results described in the statement?
(1) the proximity of South Orange to New York City
(2) the completion of a direct rail line to New York City
(3) the addition of 240 housing units in South Orange
(4) improved schools and a renovated downtown in South Orange
(5) the relocation of a major technical corporation to Union, New Jersey, two miles from South
Orange.

ANSWER:
Q.9.(2). The direct rail line is the most logical explanation for an increase in property values. The
proximity to New York City in itself (choice 1) would not necessarily increase property values, but the
addition of public transportation that provides direct access to the city would make the town a more
desirable place to live. When a place becomes more desirable, real-estate values increase. Choice 3,
the addition of housing units, is likely an effect of the direct rail line and an increase in the
desirability of the location. The improvement of the schools and the renovation of the downtown
(choice 4) may or may not be related to the increase in property values. It would be logical to
conclude that funds for improving the schools and downtown could be gleaned from additional
resources from increased property taxes, another effect of increased property values. The relocation
of a major corporation to a neighbouring town (choice 5) could account for the increased desirability
of property in South Orange, but the direct access to the city is a more compelling reason. Perhaps a
few hundred persons may work in the corporation, but many thousands are likely to want an easy
commute to the city.

Q.10. Statement: One out of four heart surgery patients at St.Vincent’s dies from complications
during surgery. Only one out of six heart surgery patients at St.Mary’s dies from complications
during surgery. If you need heart surgery, make sure you go to St.Mary’s, not St.Vincent’s.
Which of the following, if true, is the best reason to reject this argument?
(1) St.Vincent’s specializes in heart surgery for elderly and hammer-risk patients.
(2) St.Mary’s surgical equipment is more up to date than St.Vincent’s.
(3) St.Vincent’s has the most renowned heart surgeon in the country on its staff.
(4) St.Vincent’s offers flexible payment options for balances not covered by insurance.
(5) Two doctors who used to work at St.Mary’s now work at St.Vincent’s.

ANSWER:
Q.10. (1)

Q.11-15. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Six students must participate in a committee—either the dance committee or the parade
committee—to organize the homecoming weekend activities. Each of the six students—Q, R, S, T, V,
and X—will be on one of the committees. The participation of the students will be in accordance
with the following conditions:
(i) If Q is on the parade committee, T is on the dance committee.
(ii) V is on the parade committee if T is on the parade committee.
(iii) X and V are always on different committees.
(iv) S in on the dance committee if T is on the dance committee.
(v) At least two students must participate in each committee.

Q.11. Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate assignment of students to
committees?
(1) Dance: S, T, X Parade: Q, R, V
(2) Dance: R, T, X Parade: Q, S, V
(3) Dance: S, T, V, X Parade: Q, R
(4) Dance: R, S, X Parade: Q, T, V
(5) Dance: Q, V Parade: R, S, T, X

Q.12. Which one of the following cannot be a pair of students on the parade committee?
(1) Q and R
(2) Q and S
(3) T and R
(4) T and S
(5) R and X

Q.13. If there are exactly two students on the parade committee, then which one of the following
must be true?
(1) T is on the parade committee.
(2) S is on the dance committee.
(3) Q is on the parade committee.
(4) R and X are on the dance committee.
(5) T and S are on the dance committee.

Q.14. Each of the following could be a complete list of the students on the parade committee
EXCEPT:
(1) Q, R, V
(2) S, R, T, V
(3) Q, V
(4) T, V
(5) Q, S, V
Q.15. If X is on the parade committee, then which one of the following must be true?
(1) Q is on the parade committee.
(2) R is on the dance committee.
(3) T is on the dance committee.
(4) V is on the parade committee.
(5) S is on the parade committee.

ANSWER:
11. (1)

Using eliminating method to find out the answers-

(1) This is a possible order. None of the rules were violated.
(2)This violates Rule (iv), because T is on dance and S is on parade.
(3)This violates Rule (iii), because X and V are not split up.
(4)This violates Rule (i), because Q is on parade and T is on parade.
(5)This violates Rule (ii), because T is on parade and V is on dance.

12.(2)
Using eliminating method to find out the answers-
(1) It is possible to put Q and R together on parade. When Q is on parade, T (and S) must be on
dance. X and V must always be split between the two. R is the free agent. So it is QRV (or QRX) on
parade and STX (or STV) on dance.
(2) It is not possible to put Q and S on the parade committee. When Q is on parade, T is on dance.
When T is on dance, S is supposed to be on dance as well.
(3) It is possible to put T and R on parade. With T on parade, so must V. The other three could be on
dance.
(4) With T (and S) on parade, so must V be on parade. The others can be on dance.
(5) R is a free agent, so it is unlikely R would run into any problems. When X is on parade, V must be
on dance. Since V is on dance, T cannot be on parade, and so must be on dance. With T on dance, so
must S. VTS is on dance. RXQ can be on parade.

13.(2)
Using eliminating method to find out the answers-
(1) T may or may not be on parade.
(2) Yes, S must be on dance, because of the effect of Rule (iv).
(3) Q may or may not be on parade.
(4) R and X may or may not be on dance.
(5) Although S must be on dance, it is not necessary for T to also be on dance.

14. (5)

Using eliminating method to find out the answers-

(1) If QRV is on parade, then TSX are on dance and no rules are violated.
(2) If SRTV is on parade, then QX are on dance and no rules are violated.
(3) If QV is on parade, SRTX are on dance and no rules are violated.
(4) If TV is on parade, QRSX are on dance and no rules are violated.
(5) If QSV is on parade, RTX is on dance. This is invalid because when T is on dance, S is supposed to
be on dance as well. So, this choice violates

15.(3)

Using eliminating method to find out the answers-

(1) Q may or may not be on parade.
(2) R may or may not be on dance.
(3) Correct. Because X is on parade, V must be on dance. Because V is on dance, T cannot be on
parade, and so T must be on dance.
(4) V must be on dance, so this is 100% false.
(5) S can never be on parade, because T must be on dance.

Q.16-20. Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to
answer the question. Read all the statements and Give answer-
(1) If statement I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient.
(2) If statement II alone is sufficient but statement I alone is not sufficient.
(3) If each statement alone (either I or II) is sufficient.
(4) If statement I and II together are not sufficient.
(5) If both statement together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
Q.16. Among six people Kiran, Jack, Iram, Heena, Geeta and Eemu each lives on a different floor of a
six storey building having six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor
above it, number 2 and so on and the topmost floor is numbered 6). Who lives on the topmost floor?

I. There is only one floor between the floors on which Iram and Jack live. Kiran lives on an even
numbered floor.
II. Geeta does not live on an even numbered floor. Jack lives on an even numbered floor. Jack does
not live on the topmost floor.

ANSWER: (5)
I. Kiran-2, 4, 6 and
Iram/Jack
------
Jack/Iram
II. Geeta- 1, 3, 5
Jack- 2, 4
So, from I and II, we can find out that Kiran lives on the topmost floor.

Q.17. There are six letters W, A, R, S, N and E. Which meaningful word is formed after using these six
letters only ?
I. E is placed fourth to the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to either A or E.
II. Both N and W are placed immediately next to S. The word does not begin with R. A is not placed
immediately next to W.

ANSWER: (5)
After combining both statements, we get the meaningful word----- ANSWER.

Q.18. Point D is in which direction with respect to Point B?

I. Point A is to the west of Point B. Point C is to the north of Point B. Point D is to the south of Point
C.
II. Point G is to the south of Point D. Point G is 4m from Point B. Point D is 9m from Point B.
ANSWER: (2)
I.

II.

Q.19. How is ‘its' coded in the code language?

I. one of its kind' is coded as ‘zo pi ko fe' and 'in kind and cash' is coded as ‘ga to ru ko’.
II. ‘make money and cash’ is coded as ‘to mi ru hy’ and ‘money of various kind’ is coded as ‘qu ko zo
hy’.

ANSWER: (4)
Q.20. Are all the four friends viz. Z, Y, X and W who are sitting around a circular table, facing the
centre?
I. Y sits second to right of W. W faces the centre. X sits to immediate right of both Y and W.
II. Z sits to immediate left of Y. X is not an immediate neighbour of Z. X sits to immediate right of W.
ANSWER: (4)

Q.21-27. A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and
rearrangement.
Input: calculation 23 54 hammer 68 lamp 47 wallet
Step I: 23 calculation 54 hammer 68 lamp 47 wallet
Step II: 23 wallet calculation 54 hammer 68 lamp 47
Step III: 23 wallet 47 calculation 54 hammer 68 lamp
Step IV: 23 wallet 47 lamp calculation 54 hammer 68
Step V: 23 wallet 47 lamp 54 calculation hammer 68
Step VI: 23 wallet 47 lamp 54 hammer calculation 68
Step VII: 23 wallet 47 lamp 54 hammer 68 calculation
and Step VII is the last step of the above input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the
appropriate step for the given input.

Q.21. Step II of an input is: 20 vessel 41 factor 54 gallon 67 salt

Which of the following is definitely the input?
(1) 41 factor vessel 20 gallon 54 salt 67
(2) salt 67 vessel factor 20 54 gallon 41
(3) factor salt 54 20 vessel 41 gallon 67
(4) vessel 41 gallon 67 factor salt 54 20
(5) Cannot be determined

ANSWER: (5)

Q.22. Input: paint 40 jewel date 14 18 key 16

Which of the following will be step V of the above input?
(1) 14 paint 16 key 40 jewel date 18
(2) 14 paint 16 key 40 jewel 18 date
(3) 14 paint 40 jewel date 16 key 18
(4) There will be no such step
(5) 14 paint 16 key 18 jewel 40 date

ANSWER: (5)
Input: paint 40 jewel date 14 18 key 16
Step I: 14 paint 40 jewel date 18 key 16
Step II: 14 paint 16 40 jewel date 18 key
Step III: 14 paint 16 key 40 jewel date 18
Step IV: 14 paint 16 key 18 40 jewel date
Step V: 14 paint 16 key 18 jewel 40 date

Q.23. If step II of an input is '33 zeal boom 88 rain 55 48 field', then which of the following steps will
be the second last?
(1) VI
(2) V
(3) IV
(4) VII
(5) None of these

ANSWER: (1)
Step II: 33 zeal boom 88 rain 55 48 field
Step III: 33 zeal 48 boom 88 rain 55 field
Step IV: 33 zeal 48 rain boom 88 55 field
Step V: 33 zeal 48 rain 55 boom 88 field
Step VI: 33 zeal 48 rain 55 field boom 88
Step VII: 33 zeal 48 rain 55 field 88 boom

Q.24. Input: 94 fact 15 cloud 78 fall 52 nature.

How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven
(5) Eight

ANSWER: (3)
Input: 94 fact 15 cloud 78 fall 52 nature
Step I: 15 94 fact cloud 78 fall 52 nature
Step II: 15 nature 94 fact cloud 78 fall 52
Step III: 15 nature 52 94 fact cloud 78 fall
Step IV: 15 nature 52 fall 94 fact cloud 78
Step V: 15 nature 52 fall 78 94 fact cloud
Step VI: 15 nature 52 fall 78 fact 94 cloud

Q.25. If step III of an input is '25 year 39 fame 45 rose 79 great', then how many more steps are
required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Two
(2) Five
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) Six

ANSWER: (4)
Step III: 25 year 39 fame 45 rose 79 great
Step IV: 25 year 39 rose fame 45 79 great
Step V: 25 year 39 rose 45 fame 79 great
Step VI: 25 year 39 rose 45 great fame 79
Step VII: 25 year 39 rose 45 great 79 fame

Q.26. If step II of an input is '25 year fame 45 rose 39 79 great ', then which of the following is fifth
word/number from the left side of step V?
(1) 45
(2) year
(3) fame
(4) 39
(5) rose

ANSWER: (3)
Step II: 25 year fame 45 rose 39 79 great
Step IV: 25 year 39 fame 45 rose 79 great
Step V: 25 year 39 rose fame 45 79 great

Q.27. If step II of an input is '20 vessel 41 factor 54 gallon 67 salt', then which of the following is the
last step of the arrangement?
(1) 20 vessel 41 salt 54 gallon 67 factor
(2) 20 vessel 41 salt 54 67 gallon factor
(3) 20 vessel 41 salt 54 gallon factor 67
(4) 20 vessel 41 gallon 67 salt 54 factor
(5) 20 vessel 67 factor 41 salt 54 gallon

ANSWER: (1)
Step II: 20 vessel 41 factor 54 gallon 67 salt
Step III: 20 vessel 41 salt factor 54 gallon 67
Step IV: 20 vessel 41 salt 54 factor gallon 67
Step V: 20 vessel 41 salt 54 gallon factor 67
Step VI: 20 vessel 41 salt 54 gallon 67 factor

Q.28-32. Study each statement carefully and answer the following questions:

Q.28. Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression I > L = Z ≥ H ≤ G as definitely
true?
(1) L > G
(2) H ≤ I
(3) G ≥ Z
(4) H = I
(5) I > Z

ANSWER: (5)

Q.29. Which of the following symbols should replace the questions mark (?) in the given expression
in order to make the expression ‘K ≥ Z’ as well as ‘G ≤ O’ definitely true?
K ≥ O (?) Z = M = G
(1) =
(2) >
(3) <
(4) ≥
(5) ≤

ANSWER: (4) K ≥ O (?) Z = M = G

K≥ O≥Z=M=G

Q.30. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same
order from left to right) in order to complete the given such a manner that makes the expression ‘Y >
M’ as well as ‘W < O’ DEFINITELY FALSE?
Y ____ O___ K ____ M ____ W
(1) = , =, ≥, ≥
(2) >, ≥, =, >
(3) >, < =, ≤
(4) >, = , = ≥
(5) <, =, =, <

ANSWER: (5)
(1) Y = O = K ≥ M ≥ W……….. Y > M (Probably Tue)……..W < O (Probably True)
(2) Y > O ≥ K = M > W……….. Y > M (Definitely True)……..W < O (Definitely True)
(3) Y > O < K = M ≤ W……….. Y > M (Cannot defined)……..W < O (Definitely False)
(4) Y > O = K = M ≥ W……….. Y > M (Definitely True)……..W < O (Probably True)
(5) Y < O = K = M < W……….. Y > M (Definitely False)……..W < O (Definitely False)

Q.31. Which of the following should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order
from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the
expression ‘Ziya < Piya’ definitely false?
_______ < _______< _______> ______
(1) Meena, Noor, Piya, Ziya
(2) Meena, Ziya, Piya, Noor
(3) Ziya, Meena, Piya, Noor
(4) Noor, Ziya, Piya, Meena
(5) Piya, Noor, Ziya, Meena

ANSWER: (5) Piya < Noor < Ziya >Meena

So, Ziya > Piya which indicate the given expression Ziya < Piya definitely false.
Q.32. Which of the following should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order
from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the
expression ‘U > M’ and ‘F > D’ definitely false?
U ____ L _____ F _____ M_____ D
(1) <, <, >, =
(2) <, =, =, >
(3) <, =, =, <
(4) ≥, =, =, ≥
(5) >, >, =, <

ANSWER: (3)
(1) U < L < F > M = D……….U > M (Cannot defined)…….F > D (Definitely True)
(2) U < L = F = M > D ……….U > M (Definitely False)…….F > D (Definitely True)
(3) U < L = F = M < D……….U > M (Definitely False)…….F > D (Definitely False)
(4) U ≥ L = F = M ≥ D……….U > M (Probably True)…….F > D (Probably True)
(5) U > L > F = M < D……….U > M (Definitely True)…….F > D (Definitely False)

Q.33-37. These question are based on the following information.

Eight members, whose names are Z, Y, X, W, T, N, M, K. Following information is about their sitting
arrangement around a circular table. In a group only three persons are facing towards the centre.

W and K are not the neighbour of Z.

N sits second to the left of W who faces towards the centre.
T is in front of N.
There is only one person between T and X.
Y is neighbour of X and in front of M who does not face outside the centre.
Z is third to the left of T and faces towards the centre.

Q.33. Who is in front of K?

(1) Z
(2) N
(3) M
(4) T
(5) W

ANSWER: (1)

Q.34. Who is the second to the right of Y?

(1) N
(2) W
(3) K
(4) Z
(5) M

ANSWER: (3)
Q.35. Who is in front of each-other?
(1) K and X
(2) Y and T
(3) M and X
(4) X and W
(5) Can’t be determined

ANSWER: (4)

Q.36. Who is between W and T?

(1) K (2) M (3) N (4) Z (5) X

ANSWER: (1)

Q.37. What is the sitting position of K?

(1) Second to the left of N
(2) Third to the right of N
(3) In front of T
(4) Second to the right of W
(5) Third to the right of X

ANSWER: (5)
Q.38-42. Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Z % Y means Z is husband of Y
Z $ Y means Z is sister of Y
Z @ Y means Z is father of Y
Z # Y means Z is brother of Y
Z * Y means Z is mother of Y

Q.38. If expression E @ V @ N % R *T is definitely true then how is V related to T?

(1) Grandfather
(2) Grandson
(3) Father
(4) Nephew
(5) Brother

ANSWER: (1)

Q.39. Which of the following statements is true if the given expression is definitely true?
Zain % Leela $ Kiran *Bob # Chetan

(1) Kiran is sister-in-law of Zain

(2) Chetan is daughter of Kiran
(3) Zain is father of Bob
(4) Chetan is son of Leela
(5) Leela is sister of Bob.

ANSWER: (1)

Q.40. Which of the following expressions shows that "M is sister of I”?
(1) U *F @ I $ P # M
(2) M $ U *P # I $ F
(3) I $ F # P $ M * H
(4) M * U $ P # I $ F
(5) U *F @ M $ P # I

ANSWER: (5)

Q.41. Which of the following statements is false if the given expression is true?

J *P *O @ M # N
(1) N is daughter of O
(2) J is grandmother of O
(3) M is grandson of P
(4) N is sister of M
(5) M is son of J.

ANSWER: (5)

Q.42. What is the relation of "X" with "Z" in the expression Z%Y*X%W*V?
(1) Father
(2) Nephew
(3) Cousin
(4) Son
(5) Grandson

ANSWER: (4)

Q.43-50. Some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to consider the
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to
decide which of the following conclusions logically follows from the given statements:

Q.43. Statements:

All game are fun.

Some fun are not men.
Some men are children.
No men is a game.

Conclusions :
(i) Some children not being fun is a possibility.
(ii) Some children being game is a possibility.
(iii) Some children are definitely not game.

1) Only (i) follow

2) Only (ii) and (iii) follow
3) Only (i) or (ii) follows
4) All follow
5) Only (ii) or (iii) follows

ANSWER: (4)

Q.44. Statements:
Some king are queen.
No queen is a intelligent.
Some intelligent are not king.
Some great are intelligent.
Conclusions:
(i) Some intelligent are definitely not great.
(ii) Some intelligent being great is a possibility.
(iii) Some great being queen is a possibility.

1) Only (i) follows

2) Only (ii) and (iii) follow
3) Only (i) and (ii) follow
4) All follow
5) Only (iii) follows
ANSWER: (5)
Q.45. Statements:
All lamp are light.
All light are new.
No lamp is a common.
Some light are not common

Conclusions :
(i) Some light being common is a possibility
(ii) All common being new is a possibility
(iii) Some common is definitely not new.

1) Only (i) follows

2) Only (ii) follows
3) Only (i) and (ii) follow
4) All follow
5) Only (ii) and (iii) follow

ANSWER: (2)

Q.46. Statements:

All game are fun.

Some fun are not men .
Some men are children.
No men is a game.

Conclusions :
(i) Some fun are definitely not men.
(ii) Some men being fun is a possibility.
(iii) Some children being game is a possibility.

1) Only (i) follows

2) Only (ii) or (iii) follows
3) Only (i) or (ii) follows
4) All follow
5) Only (iii) follows

ANSWER: (4)
Q.47. Statements:

All lamp are light.

All light are new.
No lamp is a common.
Some light are not common
Conclusions :
(i) Some common are definitely new.
(ii) Some common not being new is a possibility.
(iii) All lamp being common is a possibility.

1) Only (ii) follows

2) Only (ii) or (iii) follows
3) Only (i) or (ii) follows
4) All follow
5) None follows

ANSWER: (1)

Q.48. Statements:

Some lamp are light.

Some light are new.
All lamp are common.
All new are not common

Conclusions:
(i) All light being common is a possibility.
(ii) All new not being lamp is a possibility.
(iii) Some light not being lamp is a possibility.

(1) Only (ii) follows

(2) Only (iii) follows
(3) Only (i) and (iii) follow.
(4) Only (i) and (ii) follow.
(5) Only (i) follows.

ANSWER: (3)
Q.49. Statements:

All king are queen.

Some queen are intelligent.
All intelligent are not king.
Some great are king.

Conclusions:
(i) Some queen are not intelligent.
(ii) Some great are not intelligent.
(iii) All great are intelligent.

(1) Only (i) and (ii) follow.

(2) Only (i) and either (ii) or (iii) follow.
(3) Only (iii) follows.
(4) Only (ii) follows.
(5) None follows.

ANSWER: (2)

Q.50. Statements:

All desk are board.

No board is a pen.
Some pen are eraser.
All eraser are cell.

Conclusions:
(i) Some desk are not eraser.
(ii) Some eraser are not desk.
(iii) Some cell are not board.

(1) All follow.

(2) Only (ii) follows.
(3) Only (iii) follows.
(4) Only (ii) and (iii) follow.
(5) None follow.

ANSWER: (4)
 ST- 125 ENGLISH IBPS PO MAINS 2015

Q.1-10. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some questions.

Japanese firms have achieved the highest levels of manufacturing efficiency in the world automobile
industry. Some observers of Japan have assumed that Japanese firms use the same manufacturing
equipment and techniques as United States firms but have benefited from the unique characteristics
of Japanese employees and the Japanese culture. However, if this were true, then one would expect
Japanese auto plants in the United States to perform no better than factories run by United States
companies. This is not the case, Japanese-run automobile plants located in the United States and
staffed by local workers have demonstrated higher levels of productivity when compared with
factories owned by United States companies.
Other observers link high Japanese productivity to higher levels of capital investment per worker.
But a historical perspective leads to a different conclusion. When the two top Japanese automobile
makers matched and then doubled United States productivity levels in the mid-sixties, capital
investment per employee was comparable to that of United States firms. Furthermore, by the late
seventies, the amount of fixed assets required to produce one vehicle was roughly equivalent in
Japan and in the United States. Since capital investment was not higher in Japan, it had to be other
factors that led to higher productivity.

A more fruitful explanation may lie with Japanese production techniques. Japanese automobile
producers did not simply implement conventional processes more effectively: they made critical
changes in United States procedures. For instance, the mass-production philosophy of United States
automakers encouraged the production of huge lots of cars in order to utilize fully expensive,
component-specific equipment and to occupy fully workers who have been trained to execute one
operation efficiently. Japanese automakers chose to make small-lot production feasible by
introducing several departures from United States practices, including the use of flexible equipment
that could be altered easily to do several different production tasks and the training of workers in
multiple jobs. Automakers could schedule the production of different components or models on
single machines, thereby eliminating the need to store the buffer stocks of extra components that
result when specialized equipment and workers are kept constantly active.

Q. 1. Which of the following statements concerning the productivity levels of automakers can be
inferred from the passage?

(1) Prior to the 1960’s, the productivity levels of the top Japanese automakers were exceeded by
those of United States automakers.

(2) The culture of a country has a large effect on the productivity levels of its automakers.

(3) During the late 1970’s and early 1980’s, productivity levels were comparable in Japan and the
United States.

(4) The greater the number of cars that are produced in a single lot, the higher a plant’s
productivity level.
 (5) The amount of capital investment made by automobile manufacturers in their factories
determines the level of productivity.

Q.2. According to the passage, which of the following statements is/are true in context to the
Japanese automobile workers?

(1) Their productivity levels did not equal those of United States automobile workers until the late
seventies.

(2) Their high efficiency levels are a direct result of cultural influences.

(3) They operate component-specific machinery.

(4) They are trained to do more than one job.

(5) They produce larger lots of cars than do workers in United States factories.

Q.3. Which of the following is one of the main problems associated with the production of huge lots
of cars in context to the passage?

(1) The need to manufacture flexible machinery and equipment

(2) The need to store extra components not required for immediate use

(3) The need for expensive training programs for workers, which emphasize the development of
facility in several production jobs.

(4) The need to alter conventional mass-production processes

(5) The need to increase the investment per vehicle in order to achieve high productivity levels

Q. 4. According to the author, if the observers of Japan were correct, then which of the following
would be the case?

(1) The equipment used in Japanese automobile plants would be different from the equipment
used in United States plants.

(2) Japanese workers would be trained to do several different production jobs.

(3) Culture would not have an influence on the productivity levels of workers.

(4) The workers in Japanese-run plants would have higher productivity levels regardless of where
they were located.

(5) The production levels of Japanese-run plants located in the United States would be equal to
those of plants run by United States companies.

Q.5. According to the passage which of the following best describes as the main purpose of the
passage?

(1) present the major steps of a process

(2) clarify an ambiguity

(3) chronicle a dispute

 (4) correct misconceptions

(5) defend an accepted approach

Q.6. Which of the following statements is supported by information stated in the passage?

(1) Japanese and United States automakers differ in their approach to production processes.

(2) Japanese automakers have perfected the use of single-function equipment.

(3) Japanese automakers invest more capital per employee than do United States automakers.

(4) United States-owned factories abroad have higher production levels than do Japanese owned
plants in the United States.

(5) Japanese automakers have benefited from the cultural heritage of their workers.

Q.7-8. Choose the word which is most nearly the SIMILAR in meaning as the word printed in bold as
used in the passage.

Q.7. perspective

(1) reason (2) show (3) climax (4) criticism (5) aspect

Q.8. buffer

(1) damaged (2) cushion (3) old (4) complementary (5) fresh

Q.9-10. Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in bold
as used in the passage.

Q.9. demonstrated

(1) distorted (2) manifested (3) alarmed (4) proofed (5) unexpected

Q.10. feasible

(1) difficult (2) arduous (3) simple (4) implausible (5) transparent

Q.11-15. Rearrange the following sentences (A),(B),(C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a
meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.

A. The other: the unpublished variety, those who have accumulated dozens of

B. whose faces are more recognizable than the covers of their books, who are
pampered by their publishers,

C. people who routinely get published and yet never achieve celebrity, at the most a
small set of dedicated readers

D. we-are-sorry and better-luck-elsewhere notes over the years but still haven’t given
up.

E. There is another variety, though: writers to whom both struggle as well as success
comes in small measures —

F. There are writers and there are writers. One: the celebrity variety,
G. who earn invitations to all the respectable lit fests across the country.

Q.11.Which of the following would be the LAST statement after rearrangement?

1. C 2. D 3. G 4. F 5. A
Q.12.Which of the following would be the THIRD statement after rearrangement?
1. B 2. E 3. C 4. A 5. G
Q.13.Which of the following would be the SIXTH statement after rearrangement?
1. G 2. F 3. E 4. B 5. C
Q.14.Which of the following would be the FIRST statement after rearrangement?
1. A 2. D 3. B 4. F 5. G
Q.15.Which of the following would be the FOURTH statement after rearrangement?
1. D 2. A 3. E 4. B 5. F

Q.16-20. Read each part of the sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be
in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark your
answer as (5).

Q.16. The zoo inmates are being given fibrous diet (1)/ like cucumber to keep them
cool (2)/ and this also helps them(3)/ on regulating body temperature (4)/ No error (5)
Q.17. Health is a priority (1)/ and understanding the ailment (2)/ is the first step (3)/
towards cure(4)/ No error (5)
Q.18. In maximum number of chain-snatching incidents, (1)/ the bike-borne robbers
worked in pairs mostly with their faces covered (2)/ either with helmets or covering
the face with handkerchiefs (3)/ and approach the victim at a steady pace (4)/ No
error (5)
Q.19. Whatever children are taught (1)/ should not only be (2)/ for its individual
development, (3)/ but also for the future of the planet (4)/ No error (5)
Q.20. But elephants are aggressive animals,(1)/ officers using darts need to be
highly skilful (2)/ so that we can bring the elephant(3)/ under control with fewer darts
(4)/ No error (5)
Q.21-30. In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words have been suggested, one of
which fits the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

As it weighs the (21) of the Aadhaar project, the Supreme Court now (22) the lack of a clearly
defined right to privacy. How can a unique biometric ID be held to violate a right that is imprecise in
the first place? Speaking for the Centre, Attorney-General Mukul Rohatgi made the claim that
privacy was not a fundamental right in India. He went on to (23) that a larger constitutional bench be
set up to examine how to treat privacy, and questioned the validity of interim judgments by smaller
benches.
Rohatgi is right on the law — there is no blanket right to privacy in India. The courts have outlined a
(24) of privacy in a series of cases related to state surveillance and personal autonomy, and
connected it with the right to liberty. But even then, compelling state interest has been held to (25)
individual privacy. There are no overarching legal curbs on the collection or use of personal data.

But the Centre is entirely wrong to assume this legal fuzziness entitles Aadhaar to carry on without
accompanying privacy protections or even statutory backing. In fact, it (26) the government to
urgently enact a law governing the use of biometric data, at the very least. The state has routinely
collected personal information, including fingerprints, from citizens, with no formal accountability.
Whatever its manifest welfare benefits, Aadhaar must not become a tool of control for the state,
which it inevitably is, unless the limits are clearly spelt out.

Right from the days when it was conceived, there have been concerns about the awesome power of
the programme, the way it could be (27) for government surveillance or usurped by commercial
interests — given that private players are actively involved in the data collection. Aadhaar’s scale
and precision only makes it absolutely (28) that individuals need to be given control of how their
personal information is used. This is not only (29) to Aadhaar’s applications, it extends into all
aspects of government data. While rules govern individual arenas like financial information, property
trespass, phone records and so on, there is no comprehensive law safeguarding an individual’s
privacy. Instead of (30) in the Supreme Court, the Centre should take the initiative to urgently create
and pass privacy legislation in Parliament.

Q.21. (1) focusses (2) transparent (3) subject (4) validity (5) suspension

Q.22. (1) adheres (2) confronts (3) insist (4) argue (5) leverage

Q.23. (1) call (2) emphasized (3) rule (4) enquire (5) insist

Q.24. (1) suspension (2) conception (3) concrete (4) idea (5) dissipation

Q.25. (1) override (2) ratify (3) transfer (4) defame (5) accept

Q.26. (1) rules (2) enforces (3) compels (4) prevents (5) reconnoitre

Q.27. (1) shown (2) misused (3) fruitful (4) deceived (5) formulated

Q.28. (1) clear (2) legal (3) clogged (4) facile (5) interesting

Q.29. (1) obvious (2) concerned (3) abstained (4) confined (5) specifies

Q.30. (1) giving (2) expediting (3) promoting (4) relying (5) stalling

Q.31-40. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some questions.

Woodrow Wilson was referring to the liberal idea of the economic market when he said that the
free enterprise system is the most efficient economic system. Maximum freedom means maximum
productiveness; our “openness” is to be the measure of our stability. Fascination with this ideal has
made Americans defy the “Old World” categories of settled possessiveness versus unsettling
deprivation, the cupidity of retention versus the cupidity of seizure, a “status quo”defended or
attacked. The United States, it was believed, had no status quo ante. Our only “station” was the
turning of a stationary wheel, spinning faster and faster. We did not base our system on property
but opportunity---which meant we based it not on stability but on mobility. The more things
changed, that is, the more rapidly the wheel turned, the steadier we would be. The conventional
picture of class politics is composed of the Haves, who want a stability to keep what they have, and
the Have-Nots, who want a touch of instability and change in which to scramble for the things they
have not. But Americans imagined a condition in which speculators, self-makers, runners are always
using the new opportunities given by our land. These economic leaders (front-runners) would thus
mainly agents of change. The nonstarters were considered the ones who wanted stability, a strong
referee to give them some position in the race, a regulative hand to calm manic speculation; an
authority that can call things to a halt, begin things again from compensatory staggered “starting
lines.”

“Reform” in America has been sterile because it can imagine no change except through the
extension of this metaphor of a race, wider inclusion of competitors, “a piece of the action,” as it
were, for the disenfranchised. There is no attempt to call off the race. Since our only stability is
change, America seems not to honour the quiet work that achieves social interdependence and
stability. There is, in our legends, no hero-ism of the office clerk, no stable industrial work force of
the people who actually make the system work. There is no pride in being an employee (Wilson
asked for a return to the time when everyone was an employer). There has been no boasting about
our social workers---they are merely signs of the system’s failure, of opportunity denied or not
taken, of things to be eliminated. We have no pride in our growing interdependence, in the fact that
our system can serve others, that we are able to help those in need; empty boasts from the past
make us ashamed of our present achievements, make us try to forget or deny them, move away
from them. There is no honour but in the Wonderland race we must all run, all trying to win, none
winning in the end (for there is no end).

Q.31. Which of the following is the primary purpose of the passage?

(1) to criticize the inflexibility of American economic mythology

(2) to contrast “Old World” and “New World” economic ideologies

(3) to challenge the integrity of traditional political leaders

(4) to champion those Americans whom the author deems to be neglected

(5) to suggest a substitute for the traditional metaphor of a race

Q.32. According to the passage, “Old World” values were based on

(1) ability

(2) property

(3) family connections

(4) guild hierarchies

(5) education
Q.33. In the context of the author’s discussion of regulating change, which of the following could be
most probably regarded as a “strong referee” in the United States?

(1) A school principal

(2) A political theorist

(3) A federal court judge

(4) A social worker

(5) A government inspector

Q.34. The author sets off the word “Reform” with quotation marks in order to

(1) emphasize its departure from the concept of settled possessiveness

(2) show his support for a systematic program of change

(3) underscore the flexibility and even amorphousness of United States society.

(4) indicate that the term was one of Wilson’s favourites

(5) assert that reform in the United States has not been fundamental

Q.35. It can be inferred from the passage that Woodrow Wilson’s ideas about the economic market

(1) encouraged those who “make the system work”

(2) perpetuated traditional legends about America

(3) revealed the prejudices of a man born wealthy

(4) foreshadowed the stock market crash of 1929

(5) began a tradition of presidential proclamations on

Q.36. Which of the following best expresses the author’s main point?

(1) Americans’ pride in their jobs continues to give them stamina today.
(2) The absence of a status quo ante has undermined United States economic structure.

(3) The free enterprise system has been only a useless concept in the United States

(4) The myth of the American free enterprise system is seriously flawed.

(5) Fascination with the ideal of “openness” has made Americans a progressive people.

Q.37-38. Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in
bold as used in the passage.
Q.37. cupidity

(1) greed (2) eagerness (3) dislike (4) insanity (5) norms

Q.38. sterile

(1) productive (2) bleak (3) futile (4) watchful (5) affluent
Q.39-40. Choose the word which is most nearly the SIMILAR in meaning as the word printed in bold
as used in the passage.

Q.39. liberal

(1) layman (2) progressive (3) different (4) modest (5) economic

Q.40. scramble

(1) request (2) mix up (3) demand (4) grab (5) neglect

ANSWRE SHEET

Q.1. (3)

Q.2. (4)

Q.3. (2)

Q.4. (5)

Q.5. (4)

Q.6. (1)

Q.7. (5) aspect

Q.8. (2) cushion

Q.9. (1) distorted

Q.10. (4) implausible

Q.11. (1)

Q.12. (5)

Q.13. (3)

Q.14. (4)

Q.15. (2) The arrangement would be FBGADEC. The paragraph describes different kind of writers and
how successful they get in their respective lives.

Q.16. (4) ‘In’ should replace ‘on’- ‘helps’ takes the preposition ‘in’
Q.17. (5)

Q.18. (2) ‘Work’ should replace ‘worked’- verb is to be used in the present form.

Q.19. (3) ‘Their’ should replace ‘its’- as possessive pronoun.

Q.20. (1) ‘As’ should replace ‘but’- to cite the reason for the action taken.

Q.21. (4)

Q.22. (2)

Q.23.(5)

Q.24.(2) conception

For other options:

Concrete (adj) - actual, factual

Dissipation (n) - amusement, entertainment, occasionally to excess

Q.25. (1) override

For other options:

Ratify (v) - affirm, authorize

Defame (v) - inflict libel or slander

Q.26. (3) compels

For other option:

Reconnoitre (V) - inspect

Q.27. (2)

Q.28. (1) clear

For other option:

Clogged (V) - block, hinder

Q.29. (4)

Q.30. (5)

Q.31. (1)

Q.32. (2)

Q.33.(3)

Q.34.(5)

Q.35. (2)

Q.36. (4)

Q.37. (3) dislike

Q.38. (1) productive

For other options:

Bleak (adj) - barren

Futile (adj) - hopeless, pointless

Q.39. (2) progressive

Q.40. (2) mix up

 ST-125 MATHS IBPS PO MAINS 2015
Q.1-5. What value will come in the place of question mark (?) in the following
number series?

Q.1. 12 25 77 ? 1559 9359

1) 307
2) 299
3) 311
4) 321
5) 325

Solution-(3) 12×2+1 = 25
24×3+2 = 77
77×4+3 = 311
311×5+4 = 1559
1559×6+5 = 9359

Q.2. 11 20 ? 309 1380 7125

1) 62
2) 45
3) 64
4) 76
5) 82
Solution-(4) 11×1+(3)2 = 20
20×2+(6)2 =76
76×3+(9)2 = 309
309×4+(12)2 = 1380
1380×5+(15)2 = 7125
(46)2 = 2116

Q.3. 19 10667 ? 23962 23337

1) 11645
2) 10138
3) 11161
4) 10545
5) 10629
Solution-(2) 19 + 10648 = 10667
10667 – 529 = 10138
 10138 + 13824 = 23962
23962 – 625 = 23337

Q.4. 156 92 101 93 ? 94

1) 90
2) 110
3) 112
4) 116
5) 120
Solution- (3) 156 – (4)3 = 92
92 + (3)2 = 101
101 – (2)3 = 93
93 + (1)2 = 94
94 – (0)3 = 94

Q.5. 68921 1764 79507 1936 91125 ?

1) 2116
2) 8225
3) 6335
4) 9231
5) 9500
3
Solution- (1) (41) = 68921
2
(42) = 1764
3
(43) = 79507
2
(44) = 1936
3
(45) = 91125

Q-6-10. The question given below contains two statements giving certain data.
You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for
answering the question? Mark answer-

(1) If statement I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient.

(2) If statement II alone is sufficient but statement I alone is not sufficient.

(3) If each statement alone (either I or II) is sufficient.

(4) If statement I and II together are not sufficient.

(5) If both statement together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is
sufficient.

Q-6. Is the number of kilograms in one litre of a solution more than the
number of litres in one kilogram of the same solution?
I. The solution when burnt produces 328.3 calories of heat.
II. Seven beakers, each of mass 250 gm, are required to hold one
litre of the solution.
Solution-(4)

Q-7. What percentage of the population of a village comprises of married

males?
I. 4/7 of the population comprises females.
II. There are 300 unmarried males.
Solution-(4)

Q-8. Is the average cost of 60 items greater than Rs. 25?

I. Two-fifth of them cost Rs. 30 each.
II. One-third of them cost Rs. 40 each.
Solution-(5)
Q-9. Average sales of BATA shoes for the month of January, March and April
were 152000. What were the sales in February?
I. Average of sales of January, February, March and April was
141000.
II. Sales of January 53000.
Solution-(1)

Q-10. What is the profit percentage on the sale of a toy?

 I. The marked price is 20% higher than the cost price and a discount
of 10% is offered thereon.
II. The selling price is Rs. 1050

Solution-(5)

Q.11- 15 In the following questions two equations I and II are given. You have
to solve both the equations and give answer.
1) If x > y
2) If x > y
3) If x < y
4) If x < y
5) If x = y or the relationship cannot be determined.

Q.11. x2 – 3.3x – 2.6 = 0 y2 + 3y + 2 = 0

Solution-(5) x = – 2, 1.3 ; y = – 1, – 2

Q.12. x2 – 8.7x + 18.5 = 0 y2 – 9 = 0

Solution-(1) x = 3.7, 5 ; y = – 3, 3

Q.13. x2 – 6x + 9 = 4 y2 – 10y – 50 = 6y – 110

Solution-(3) x = 1, 5 ; y = 6, 10

Q.14. 100x2 – 80x + 12 =0 100y2 – 130y + 42 =0

Solution-(4) x = 0.2, 0.6 ; y = 0.6, 0.7

Q.15. x2 – 8x +15 = 0 y2 – 4.2y + 3.6 = 0

Solution-(2) x = 3, 5 ; y = 1.2, 3

Q.16-20 - Study the following information carefully and answer the question
based on it-
In a sale at Hotel Ashiyana, Gaurav bought a clothing item while some others
bought old dresses and all were happy to have saved some money. The
following information is available:
1. A bicycle was bought at a discount of 50% by a person whose name
starts with H.
 2. Chandra bought the item having cost of Rs. 1500 and get discount of
20%.
3. The tires were sold at Rs.100 less than their original price.
4. A Clothing item was sold for Rs. 50.
5. Pradeep spent Rs. 400 less than Chandra.
6. Harish paid for his dress with a 1000 Rupee note and received Rs. 925 in
change
7. Gaurav spent less for his item than Sanjay, who spent less than Pradeep.
8. The highest priced item did not sell at the highest price, nor did the
lowest price item sell at the lowest price.
9. A dress, a sweater, dresser, a mobile phone, tires, and a bicycle were
sold not necessarily respectively to Gaurav, Pradeep, Sanjay, Chandra,
Harish, an Harendra. The prices paid for the six items were Rs. 800, 600,
1200, 1000, 75, and 50 and their Original prices were Rs. 200, 1500, 300,
2000, 900, and 1200 (again no necessarily respectively).

Q.16. What was the original price of sweater?

1) 150
2) 200
3) 250
4) 300
5) 400
Solution-(4)
Name Item Original price Price paid
Gaurav Sweater 300 50
Pradeep Tires 900 800
Sanjay 1200 600
Chandra 1500 1200
Harish Dress 200 75
Harendra Bicycle 2000 1000

Q.17. The discount received by Pradeep amounted to-

1) Rs. 100
2) Rs. 200
3) Rs. 320
4) Rs. 380
5) Rs. 430
Solution-(1)
Name Item Original price Price paid
Gaurav Sweater 300 50
Pradeep Tires 900 800
Sanjay 1200 600
Chandra 1500 1200
Harish Dress 200 75
Harendra Bicycle 2000 1000

Q.18 What item did Harendra buy?

1) Sweater
2) Bicycle
3) Tires
4) Dress
5) Mobile phones
Solution-(2)

Name Item Original price Price paid

Gaurav Sweater 300 50
Pradeep Tires 900 800
Sanjay 1200 600
Chandra 1500 1200
Harish Dress 200 75
Harendra Bicycle 2000 1000

Q.19. How much did Chandra spend?

1) 800
2) 1000
3) 1200
4) 1350
5) 1400
Solution-(3)
Name Item Original price Price paid
Gaurav Sweater 300 50
Pradeep Tires 900 800
Sanjay 1200 600
Chandra 1500 1200
Harish Dress 200 75
Harendra Bicycle 2000 1000
Q.20. Which of the following discount was not got by any of the six?
1) 175
2) 200
3) 400
4) 500
5) 700
Solution-(4)

Name Item Original price Price paid

Gaurav Sweater 300 50
Pradeep Tires 900 800
Sanjay 1200 600
Chandra 1500 1200
Harish Dress 200 75
Harendra Bicycle 2000 1000

Q.21-25. Study the following graph carefully and answer the following
question –

Percentage of population covered by schools and colleges underdeveloped

countries-

Q. 21- The countries on the development Frontier are-

1) India and Sri Lanka
2) India and Indonesia
 3) Pakistan and Sri Lanka
4) Pakistan and Nigeria
5) Cannot be determine
Solution-(1)

Q. 22- Which of these countries are on the Development Frontier Urban?

1) India and Sri Lanka
2) India and Pakistan
3) India. Pakistan and Sri Lanka
4) Pakistan and Sri Lanka
5) Cannot be determine
Solution-(3)

Q. 23- Using the above data, and looking at only the college columns it can be
concluded that the urban population in Ghana as a percentage of its total
population is-
1) 26.15%
2) 27.55%
3) 28.56%
4) 31.22%
5) Cannot be determined
Solution-(3)

Q. 24- Which of these represents the correct sequence of ascending order of

rural population as % of urban population-
1) Indonesia and Nigeria
2) India, Nigeria and Ghana
3) India, Indonesia, and Nigeria
4) Indonesia, Ghana and Nigeria
5) Cannot be determined
Solution-(5)

Q. 25- Which of these countries are not on the Development Frontier Rural?
1) Nigeria, India and Nepal
2) Nigeria, Pakistan, Ghana, India and Nepal
3) Nigeria, Pakistan, Ghana, Indonesia and Nepal
4) Nigeria, Pakistan, Ghana and Nepal
 5) Pakistan, Ghana Indonesia and Nepal
Solution-(3)

Q.25-30- Study the following graph carefully and answer the following
question-

Profit percent of two companies in different years.

Company X Company Y

70
60
50
Profit %

40
30
20
10
0
2006-07 2007-08 2008-09 2009-10 2010-11 2011-12
Years

Income  Expenditure
 100
% Profit = Expenditure

Q.26. In year 2011-12 the income of company Y was Rs. 128 crore. What was
the expenditure in the same year?
1) Rs. 76.8 crore
2) Rs. 64 crore
3) Rs. 48 crore
4) Rs. 80 crore
5) Rs. 86 crore
Solution-(4)

Q.27. What is the difference between the expenditure of both companies in

2008-2009?
1) Rs. 10
2) Rs. 100
3) Rs. 1000
4) Rs. 824
5) Cannot be determined
Solution-(5) The income and expenditure of both companies are not given.
Q.28. In 2006-07 the expenditure of company X was Rs. 40 crore. What was
the income in the same year?
1) Rs. 50 crore
2) Rs. 48 crore
3) Rs. 46 crore
4) Rs. 54 crore
5) Rs. 59 crore
Solution-(2)

Q.29. If the income of company X in year 2010-2011 is same as the

expenditure in year 2011-12. What is the respective ratio of income in these
years of that company?
1) 4 : 5
2) 3 : 4
3) 2 : 3
4) 5 : 4
5) 5 : 2
Solution-()
Q.30. For company Y in which year increase in profit percent is maximum as
compared to previous year?
1) 2011-12
2) 2008-09
3) 2010-11
4) 2006-07
5) 2007-08

Solution-()

Q.31-35- Study the following pie-chart and answer the question based on it-
Q.31. What is the ratio of the difference in the number of warheads possessed
by Russia and USA and the difference in the number of warheads
possessed by India and Israel?
1) 1:1
2) 3:2
3) 5:2
4) 2:1
5) 1:2
Solution-(4) Difference in the number of warheads possessed by Russia and
USA is = 900 – 720 - 180
Difference in the number of warheads possessed by India and Israel 180 — 90 =
90
Required ratio = 18 : 9 = 2 : 1
Q.32. What is the average cost of building and maintaining one nuclear
warhead by China in 2002?
1) 437.50
2) 43750
3) 4375
4) 43.750
5) 4.3570
Solution-(2)
Number of nuclear warheads possessed by China 80 000 x 36 / 360 = 0 8000.
360
Cost incurred by China in building and maintaining these warheads —
2500 x 14
100 = Rs. 350 million.
. Average cost = 350 /8000 mm. = 0.43750 x 1000000 = Rs. 43750

Q.33. What is the difference in the average expenditure incurred in building

and maintaining one warhead by Russia and that of USA?
1) 1500
2) 1562.50
3) 1671.40
4) 1723.78
5) 1899.98
Solution-(2)
Q.34. If each warhead of the countries from the category 'others' weights 1000
kg, which is half that the weight of the other countries given in the
graph, then what is the weight of all the nuclear warheads of all
countries put together?
1) 300000 tonnes
2) 45000 tonnes
3) 140000 tonnes
4) 150000 tonnes
5) 155500 tonnes

Solution-(4)- Warheads of others 1000 kg.

Warheads of Other countries = 2000 kg.
Number of warheads of others = 80000 x 45 / 360 = 10000
Total weight 10000 x 1000 = 10000 tonnes.
Number of warheads possessed by other countries = 70000.
Total weight 70000 x 2000 tonnes = 140000
Weight of all warheads put together = 150000 tonnes

Q.35. If after signing the Nuclear Non-proliferation. Treaty (NPT), Russia

reduces the number of nuclear warheads with it by 40%, USA by 30%,
UK and China by 20% each and all other countries by 10%, then what will
 be the total number of nuclear warheads in the world after this
reduction?
1) 61200
2) 64000
3) 72800
4) 84300
5) 88900
Solution-(1)

Q.36-40 Read carefully following table answer given question according to it-

Production of fabrics in different states (In tonnes) in 2014

Silk Cotton Chiffon Crepe Georgette
Punjab 450 1030 160 270 290
U.P. 480 860 730 190 140
Bihar 590 320 670 140 310
M.P. 410 370 590 210 150
Tamil Nadu 370 220 410 130 110
Gujrat 680 150 120 220 180
Maharashtra 570 80 70 120 100
Others 380 280 310 220 450

Q.36. Which state rank 1st in total production of fabric in 2014?

1) Punjab
2) U.P.
3) Tamil Nadu
4) Bihar
5) None of these
Solution (2) U.P.= 2400 tonnes
Q.37. What is the ratio of total production of cotton to the total production of
Crepe in 2014?
1) 131:128
2) 331:128
 3) 290:128
4) 131:173
5) 331:173
Solution-(2)-331:128
Q.38. Cotton was the most imp fabric in which states?
1) Punjab
2) U.P.
3) M.P.
4) Gujrat
5) None of these
Solution-(1) In Punjab cotton was most imp fabric
Q.39. Production of Chiffon in U.P. is approximately what % of total production
of Chiffon in all states?
1) 19%
2) 21%
3) 25%
4) 29%
5) 31%
730
Solution-(3) Required % =  100 =25.172 ≈ 25%
2900

Q.40. What is total production of Georgette in all the states together?

1) 2730
2) 2500
3) 2220
4) 1980
5) 1730
Solution-(5)
Q.41. A train travels 8 km in the first quarter of an hour, 6 km in the second
quarter and 40 km in the third quarter and 40 km in the third quarter. Find the
average speed of the train per hour over the entire journey?
1) 60 km/h
2) 72 km/h
 3) 75 km/h
4) 77 km/h
5) 79 km/h
Solution-(2) 72 km/h

Q.42. Two solutions of 90% and 97% purity are mixed resulting in 21 liters of
mixture of 94% purity. How much is the quantity of the first solution in the
resulting mixture?
1) 5 liters
2) 7 liters
3) 8 liters
4) 9 liters
5) 12 liters
Solution-(4) 9 liters
Q. 43. In election, the candidate who got 56% of the votes cast won by 144
votes. Find the total number of voters on the voting list if 80% people cast their
vote and there were no invalid votes.
1) 1100
2) 1300
3) 1500
4) 1700
5) 2000
Solution-(3)1500
Q.44. A merchant makes a profit of 20% by selling an article. What would be
the percentage change in the profit percent had he paid 10% less for it and the
customer paid 10% more for it?
1) 120%
2) 125%
3) 127.75%
4) 130%
5) 133.33%
Solution-(5)133.33%

Q.45. Mohit borrows a certain sum of money from the PQR bank at 10 % per
annum at annum at compound interest. The entire debt is discharged in full by
Mohit on payment of two equal amounts of Rs. 1000 each, one at the end of
the first year and the other at the end of the second year. What is the
approximate value of the amount borrowed by him?
1) 1700
2) 1736
3) 1754
4) 1767
5) 1780
Solution-(2)1736

Q.46. 10 students can do a job in 8 days, but on the starting day, two of them
informed that they are not coming. By what fraction will the number of days
required for doing the whole work get increased?
1) 1/4
2) 1/3
3) 1/2
4) 1/5
5) 1/8
Solution-(1) 1/4

Q.47. The dam has four inlets. Through the first three inlets, the dam can be
filled in 12 minutes, through the second, the third and the fourth inlet it can be
filled in 15 minutes and through the first and fourth inlet in 20 minutes. How
much time will it take all the four inlets to fill up the dam?
1) 19 min.
2) 17 min.
3) 15 min.
4) 12 min.
5) 10 min.
Solution-(5) 10 min.
Q.48. If Arun had walked 1km./h faster, he would have taken 10 minutes less
to walk 2 km. What is Arun’s speed of walking?
1) 2.5 kmph
2) 3 kmph
3) 3.2 kmph
4) 4 kmph
5) 4.5 kmph
Solution-(2)3 kmph
Q.49. A and B started a business by investing money in ratio of 5:6. C joined
them after few months by sharing an amount equal to B's share. At the end of
year 20% profit was earned which was equal to Rs 98,000. How much money
was invested by C?
1) 213000
2) 212000
3) 210000
4) 209000
5) 205000

Solution-(3) First of all we will calculate the weighted ratios

⇒ A = 5 × 12 = 60
⇒ B = 6 × 12 = 72
⇒ C = 6 × 6 = 36

Total investment at the end of year = 98000 × 100/20 = Rs 490000

⇒ Investment by C = 490000 × 36 / 168 × 2 = Rs 210000

⇒ A = 5 × 12 = 60
⇒ B = 6 × 12 = 72
⇒ C = 6 × 6 = 36

Q.50. Ratio between the age of Kavita, Poornima and Sheetal is 6 : 8 : 7. After 2
years ratio of their age becomes 13 : 17 : 20 . If before 2 years sum of their
ages is 88 years then what is the difference between oldest and youngest?
1) 24 years
2) 20 years
3) 16 years
4) 14 years
5) 11 years
Solution-(4)
 ST -125 (GA) IBPS PO MAINS 2015

Q.1. Who has taken over as the Chairman of the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)?

(1) Raghav Chandra (2) Vijay Chhibber

(3) R.P. Singh (4) N.P. Sisodia

(5) Kumar Gaurav Ans: (1) Raghav Chandra

Q.2. Who has been awarded "Pride of India" award in New York?

(1) Gurbhajan Singh (2) Srinath Rangaswamy

(3) James Rodger (4) Mohd. Rahil Naqvi

(5) Frank Islam

Ans: (5) Frank Islam has been awarded "Pride of India" award in New York.

Q.3. Which country topped the medals tally at the 15th World Athletics Championships that
concluded at Beijing?

(1) USA (2) Jamaica (3) Kenya (4) China (5) India

Ans: (3) Kenya

Q.4. Who has been appointed Chairman and Managing Director of India Trade Promotion
Organisation (ITPO)?

(1) Vipul Sharma (2) Hasmukh Adhia (3) Shaktikanta Das

(4) L.C. Goyal (5) Rizwan Khan

Ans: (4) L.C. Goyal

Q.5. Name the Indian- American who won 2015 Stockholm Junior Water Prize?

(1) Harry Flower (2) Perry Alagappan (3) Swaraj Subramaniam

(4) Gran Raj (5) Sudarshan Singh

Ans: (2) Perry Alagappan won 2015 Stockholm Junior Water Prize

Q.6. Recently ___________ Research Centre Imarat (RCI) received the PSU summit award 2015.

(1) ISRO's (2) Government of India's (3) DRDO's

(4) CSIR's (5) NSA's

Ans: (3) Recently DRDO’s Research Centre Imarat (RCI) received the PSU summit award 2015.

Q.7. Which country will host the Commonwealth Youth, Junior and Senior Weightlifting
Championship 2015?
(1) USA (2) China (3) Japan (4) India (5) Germany

Ans: (4) India will host the Commonwealth Youth, Junior and Senior Weightlifting Championship
2015.

Q.8. According to the World Bank report which country accounted for the largest number of poor
people in any country in 2012?

(1) India (2) Pakistan (3) Afghanistan (4) South Sudan (5) Nepal

Ans: (1) India

Q.9. What is the rank of India on the Global Competitiveness Index 2015?

(1) 15th (2) 25th (3) 55th (4) 67th (5) 70th

Ans: (3) 55th

Q.10. Who won the Best CEO award in Public Sector category in the Forbes India Leadership Awards
2015?

(1) Ankit Bhati (2) Bhavish Aggarwal (3) Arundhati Bhattacharya

(4) R.C. Bhargava (5) C.P. Gurnani

Ans: (3) Arundhati Bhattacharya won the Best CEO award in Public Sector category in the Forbes
India Leadership Awards 2015.

Q.11. Which of the following ministries launched Intensive Participatory Planning Exercise II (IPPE-II)
scheme?

(1) Urban Development Ministry (2) Finance Ministry

(3) Health and Family Welfare Ministry (4) Women and Child Ministry

(5) Rural Development Ministry

Ans: (4) Rural Development Ministry

Q.12. Recently HSBC announced retirement of ________ as HSBC India chairman on 31 December
2015.

(1) Arundhati Bhattacharya (2) Chanda Kochhar

(3) Naina Lal Kidwai (4) Usha Ananth Subramaniam

(5) Sunita Rai

Ans: (3) Recently HSBC announced retirement of Naina Lal Kidwai as HSBC India chairman on 31
December 2015.

Q.13. Which country will host G20 Summit in 2018?

(1) India (2) China (3) Turkey (4) Germany (5) Japan

Ans: (1) India will host G20 Summit in 2018.

Q.14. With how many branches IDFC Bank started its banking operations?

(1) 115 (2) 222 (3) 50 (4) 73 (5) 23

Ans: (5) 23

Q.15. Recently India signed an agreement with Nepal to lay an oil pipeline from Raxaul in
_________________to Amlekhgunj in Nepal.

(1) Bihar (2) Madhya Pradesh (3) Maharashtra (4) Sikkim (5) Gujarat

Ans: (1) Recently India signed an agreement with Nepal to lay an oil pipeline from Raxaul in Bihar to
Amlekhgunj in Nepal.

Q.16. With which country India recently signed a MoU on cooperation in the fields of education,
training and research?

(1) South Africa (2) America (3) Russia

(4) Australia (5) Germany

Ans: (4) Australia

Q.17. Recently Indian government signed a deal, worth _______, with Pipistrel, a Slovenian firm, for
194 micro-light aircraft named 'Virus SW 80/100'.

(1) 98.7 crore rupees (2) 200 crore rupees (3) 208.9 crore rupees

(4) 105.5 crore rupees (5) 253.9 crore rupees

Ans: (4) Recently Indian government signed a deal, worth 105.5 crore rupees, with Pipistrel, a
Slovenian firm, for 194 micro-light aircraft named 'Virus SW 80/100'.

Q.18. In which BRICS nation the first BRICS Ministerial meeting on Migration was held?

(1) Brazil (2) Russia (3) India

(4) China (5) South Africa Ans: (2) Russia

Q.19. Who won Nobel Prize in Literature for 2015?

(1) Svetlana Alexievich (2) Danius Colman (3) Alice Munro

(4) Bjorn Wiman (5) Haruki Murakami

Ans: (1) Svetlana Alexievich

Q.20. Recently ________________ has tied up with Baba Ramdev for manufacturing and marketing
some of the herbal supplements and food products developed by it.
(1) ISRO (2) DRDO (3) Ministry of AYUSH, GoI

(4) CSIR (5) Indian Army

Ans: (2) Recently DRDO has tied up with Baba Ramdev for manufacturing and marketing some of the
herbal supplements and food products developed by it.

Q.21. What stands for ECS?

(1) Electronic Clearing System (2) Electronic Clearing System

(3) Electronic Clearing System (4) Electronic Clearing System

(5) Electronic Clearing System

Ans: (5) ECS stands for Electronic Clearing System.

Q.22. Which day is celebrated as United Nations Day?

(1) 10 October (2) 15 October (3) 17 October

(4) 24 October (5) 29 October Ans: (4) 24 October

Q.23. Who is the author of the book 'Two Years Eight Months and Twenty Eight Nights'?

(1) Aravind Adiga (2) Salman Rushdie (3) Chetan Bhagat

(4) Janam Mukherjee (5) Arundhati Roy

Ans: (2) Salman Rushdie

Q.24. Who is the Minister of Communications and Information Technology?

(1) Ananth Kumar (2) Jagat Prakash Nadda

(3) Ravi Shankar Prasad (4) Radha Mohan Singh

(5) Bandaru Dattatreya

Q.24. (3) Ravi Shankar Prasad is the Minister of Communications and Information Technology.

Q.25. At present what is the FDI in insurance sector?

(1) 26% (2) 49% (3) 51% (4) 44% (5) 79%

Ans: (2) At present the FDI in insurance sector is 49%.

Q.26. Where is International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is headquartered?

(1) Vienna, Austria (2) Switzerland, England

(3) Dubai, United Arab Emirates (4) Rome, Italy

(5) London, United Kingdom

Ans: (1) International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is headquartered in Vienna, Austria.

Q.27. Presently, in NEFT there are twelve settlements from _____________ on week days (Monday
through Friday) and six settlements from 8 am to 1 pm on Saturdays.

(1) 8 am to 4:30 pm (2) 8 am to 8 pm

(3) 8 am to 7 pm (4) 8 am to 5 pm

(5) 8 am to 6:30 pm

Ans: (3) Presently, in NEFT there are twelve settlements from 8 am to 7 pm on week days (Monday
through Friday) and six settlements from 8 am to 1 pm on Saturdays.

Q.28. What is the essential information that the remitting customer would have to furnish to a bank
for the remittance to be effected?

(A) Remitting customer’s account number which is to be debited

(B) Name of the beneficiary bank and branch

(C) The IFSC number of the receiving branch

(D) Account number of the beneficiary customer

(1) Only D (2) A, B and D (3) B, C and D

(4) A, C and D (5) All A, B, C and D

Ans: (5) The remitting customer has to furnish the following information to a bank for initiating a
RTGS remittance:

 Amount to be remitted
 Remitting customer’s account number which is to be debited
 Name of the beneficiary bank and branch
 The IFSC number of the receiving branch
 Name of the beneficiary customer
 Account number of the beneficiary customer
 Sender to receiver information, if any

Q.29. In Economics, purchasing power parity (PPP) is a component of some economic

theories and is a technique used to determine______.

(1) the relative value of different currencies

(2) the purchasing power of a unit

(3) the value of agricultural goods

(4) the national income

(5) the purchasing power of rupee in relation to dollar

Q.29. (1) In Economics, purchasing power parity (PPP) is a component of some economic
theories and is a technique used to determine the relative value of different currencies

Q.30. What is the Repo Rate at present according to the recently released RBI's Fourth Bi-monthly
Monetary Policy Statement, 2015?

(1) 6.75% (2) 7.75% (3) 6.50% (4) 8.25% (5) 8.0%

Ans: (1) At present the Bank rate is 6.75%.

Q.31. SEBI has listed certain categories of grievances for which investors can file complaints with it.

These include__________.

(A) Non-receipt of refund order or allotment advice in case of investment in IPO's, FPO's and
rights Issues.

(B) Non-receipt of dividend from listed companies.

(C) Non-receipt of share certificates after transfer from listed companies.

(1) Only B (2) B and C (3) All A, B and C (4) Only C (5) A and B

Q.31. (4) SEBI has listed certain categories of grievances for which investors can file complaints with
it. These include non-receipt of refund order or allotment advice in case of investment in IPO's,
FPO's and rights Issues, non-receipt of dividend from listed companies and non-receipt of share
certificates after transfer from listed companies.

Q.32. Which of the following is not a part of the Capital Market in India?

(1) Infrastructure Securities Market

(2) Guild Edged Market

(3) Development Financial Institutions

(4) Industrial Securities Market

(5) Financial Intermediaries

Q.32. (1) Capital Market comprises of-

 Gild – Edged Market

 Industrial Securities Market
 Development Financial Institutions
 Financial Intermediaries

Q.33. Sensex is based on shares traded on the______________.

(1) NIFTY (2) BSE (3) NSE (4) MCX (5) BCX

Q.33. (2) Sensex is based on shares traded on the BSE.

Q.34. ______________ gives an accurate measurement of economic development through Five Year
Plans.

(1) Development of education and health services

(2) Development of railways and roadways

(3) Rise in national income and per capita income

(4) Development of industrial towns and industrial estates

(5) Growth in country's GDP in a year

Q.34. (3) Rise in national income and per capita income gives an accurate measurement of economic
development through Five Year Plans.

Q.35. Nabcons is a subsidiary of _______________.

(1) RBI (2) SEBI (3) IRDA (4) NABARD (5) PFRDA

Q.35. (4) Nabcons is a subsidiary of NABARD.

Q.36. A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the

_______________.

(1) Companies Act, 1956 (2) Companies Act, 1949

(3) Companies Act, 1950 (4) Companies Act, 1958

(5) Companies Act, 1960

Q.36. (1) Companies Act, 1956

Q.37. During Inflation which of the following groups is most benefited?

(1) Government pensioners (2) Creditors

(3) Saving account holders (4) Debtors

(5) Commercial Banks

Ans: (4) During Inflation debtors are most benefited.

Q.38. Under PMJDY accounts that are properly operated for _________will be allowed and overdraft
facility of Rs. 5000.

(1) 3 months (2) 10 months (3) 6 months

(4) 12 months (5) 8 months

Q.38. (3) Under PMJDY accounts that are properly operated for 6 months will be allowed and
overdraft facility of Rs. 5000.

Q.39. Which of the following ministries launched the NOC Online Application Portal and Processing
System (NOAPS)?

(1) Ministry of Urban Development

(2) Ministry of Rural Development

(3) Ministry of Culture

(4) Ministry of Information Technology

(5) Ministry of Finance

Ans: (3) Ministry of Culture launched the NOC Online Application Portal and Processing System
(NOAPS).

Q.40. Government has set an ambitious literacy target to achieve 100% literacy in villages adopted
under the Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) by ___________.

(1) April 2016 (2) October 2016 (3) March 2016

(4) March 2018 (5) October 2018

Ans: (3) Government has set an ambitious literacy target to achieve 100% literacy in villages adopted
under the Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) by March 2016.
 ST-125 COMPUTER IBPS PO MAINS 2015

1. Holding the mouse button down while moving an object or text is known as …………

(1) moving

(2) dragging

(3) dropping

(4) highlighting

(5) Selecting

A. (2) Holding the mouse button down while moving an object or text is known as dragging.

2. What is the intersection of a column and a row on a worksheet called?

(1) Column

(2) Value

(3) Address

(4) Cell

(5) Grid

A. (4) The intersection of a column and a row on a worksheet is called Cell.

3. ____ type of software is designed for users who want to customize the programs they use.

(1) freeware

(2) open-source software

(3) shareware

(4) firmware

(5) public ware

A. (2) Open Source type of software is designed for users who want to customize the programs they use.

4. Which device allows your computer to talk to other computers over a telephone line as well as access
the internet?

(1) RAM

(2) Hard Drive

(3) Modem

(4) CD-ROM drive

(5) Network card

A. (3) Modem allows your computer to talk to other computers over a telephone line as well as access
the internet.

5. What does PNG stand for?

(1) Portable Network Graphics

(2) Printed Network Graphics

(3) Pointed Network Graphics

(4) Permanent Network Graphics

(5) Portable Network Graphics

A. (5) Portable Network Graphics

6. In word processing, an efficient way to move the 3rd paragraph to place it after the 5th paragraph is
……………

(1) copy and paste

(2) copy, cut and paste

(3) cut, copy and paste

(4) cut and paste

(5) Select and paste

A. (4) In word processing, an efficient way to move the 3rd paragraph to place it after the 5th paragraph
is cut and paste.

7. Which of the following is an operating system you would be using on the computer?

(1) Microsoft Word

(2) Netscape

(3) Internet Explorer

(4) Microsoft Windows

(5) Microsoft Outlook

A. (4) Microsoft Window is an operating system you would be using on the computer.

8. The capacity of your hard drive is measured in ________.

(1) 52X

(2) MHz
(3) Mbps

(4) Gigabytes

(5) Megapixel

A. (4) The capacity of your hard drive is measured in gigabyte.

9. Which of the following will you require to hear music on your computer?

(1) Sound Card

(2) Mouse

(3) Video Card

(4) Joy Stick

(5) Printer

A. (1) You will require Sound card to hear music on your computer.

10. Which of the following is not an input device?

(1) Speaker

(2) Track Ball

(3) Microphone

(4) Joystick

(5) Light pen

A. (1) Speaker is not an input device.

11. Which of the following is not an output device?

(1) Microphone

(2) Monitor

(3) Printer

(4) Speakers

(5) Plotter

A. (1) Microphone is an input device.

12. The new technology named 'LED' is abbreviation of _______.

(1) Light-Emitting Diodes

(2) Liquid Emitting Displays

(3) Less Emitting Diodes

(4) Low Emission Displays

(5) Lamp-Emitting Diodes

A. (1) 'LED' is abbreviation of Light-Emitting Diodes.

13. '.MOV' extension refers to ________.

(1) Word file

(2) Text file

(3) Image file

(4) Movie file

(5) Presentation File

A. (4) The .mov file format is often used to save movie files and video clips to a user's hard drive or other
media device.

14. Which supercomputer is developed by the Indian Scientists?

(1) IBM Sequoia

(2) PARAM

(3) Mira

(4) Cray Jaguar

(5) Cray Titan

A. (2) PARAM is developed by the Indian Scientists.

15. IC chips used in computers are made of ______.

(1) Silicon

(2) Chromium

(3) Lead

(4) Silver

(5) Zinc

A. (1) IC chips used in computers are made up of silicon.

16. Blue tooth technology allows _______.

(1) Landline phone to mobile phone communication

(2) Wireless communication between equipment

(3) Signal transmission on mobile phones only

(4) Satellite television communication

(5) Signal transmission to TV to mobile phone

A. (2) Blue tooth technology allows wireless communication between equipment.

17. A parallel port is most often used by ______.

(1) Mouse

(2) Monitor

(3) Printer

(4) Keyboard

(5) Modem

A. (3) Printer is the most common use for the parallel port.

18. Which of the following is an example of storage devices?

(1) Tapes

(2) DVDs

(3) Magnetic disks

(4) Pen drive

(5) All of these

A. (5) All are example of storage device.

19. '.INI' extension refers to ________.

(1) Image file

(2) System file

(3) Movie file

(4) Word file

(5) Hypertext related file

A. (2) The INI file type is primarily associated with 'Initialization/Configuration File'.

20. Select the odd term out?

(1) Windows 8.1

(2) Linux Mint

(3) Macintosh OSX

(4) Internet

(5) Ubuntu

A. (4) Internet is not an operating system.