Republic of the Philippines

SMD Foundation Inc.

Marawi City
NSG 100: Anatomy & Physiology
2nd Major Exam

Name: ______________________________ Date: _________________

Instructor: ___________________________ Total Score: ____________

General Instructions:
 NO ERASURES ALLOWED EXCEPT in Enumeration!: Mag-isip muna ng mabuti bago isulat ang sagot. Hindi lahat
ng pagkakamali pwede pang itama, yung iba you just have to let it go and learn from it.
 WRONG SPELLING, WRONG!: Dapat alam mo ang letra ng mga isasagot mo para sa huli hindi mo pagsisisihan.
 NO CHEATING!: Huwag tumulad sa kaibigan mong inagaw sayo ang lahat pati crush mo.
 FINISH THE EXAM in 1 hour & 30 minutes: Alam mo dapat kung hangang kalian ka lang dapat lumaban at sumuko.
Pagsinabing tapos, tapos na kasi hindi sa lahat ng pagkakataon pwede kang humiling ng subrang oras na di mo
naman kayang ibigay sa iba!

Test I: MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the letter of the correct answer and write it on the space provided before each number.

_______1. A burn is an injury to a tissue caused by: D. cuticle.

A. exposure to excess heat E. hair bulb.
B. exposure to excess cold
C. friction _______8. Hair color
D. exposure to chemicals A. is determined by the varying amounts and types
E. all of these of melanin.
B. can fade with age.
_______2. The hypodermis C. is produced by the melanocytes in the hair bulb.
A. is also called subcutaneous tissue. D. all of the above.
B. is loose connective tissue that attaches the skin E. None of these is correct.
to underlying bone and muscle.
C. is important for padding and insulation. _______9. Which of the following statements about glands of
D. contains about half of the body's stored fat. the skin is true?
E. has all of these characteristics. A. Sebaceous glands produce an oily white
substance rich in lipids.
_______3. Fingerprints and footprints are produced by dermal B. Sebum is important in cooling the body.
projections into the epidermis called C. Eccrine sweat glands become active at puberty
A. striae. because of the influence of sex hormones.
B. cleavage lines. D. Eccrine sweat glands produce a thick secretion
C. papillae. rich in organic substances.
D. reticular lines. E. All of these are true.
E. subcutaneous tissue.
_______10. The nail grows from the
_______4. The stratum corneum of the epidermis A. nail body.
A. consists of continuously dividing cells. B. nail matrix.
B. can become thickened and form a structure C. eponychium.
called a callus or corn. D. lunula.
C. has cells that are continuously moving toward E. stratum corneum.
the stratum basale.
D. has cells that synthesize melanin. _______11. The lunula is part of the
E. has all of these characteristics. A. nail body.
B. eponychium.
_______5. Melanin C. nail matrix.
A. is a pigment produced by cells in the stratum D. stratum corneum.
corneum. E. nail root.
B. is produced by melanocytes.
C. is responsible for cyanosis. _______12. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
D. is responsible for birthmarks. A. Nails grow continually and do not have a
E. is all of these. resting stage.
B. The nail consists of layers of living cells from
_______6. Redness of the skin can result from all of the the stratum corneum.
following except: C. The cells of a nail are filled with a special hard
A. the inflammatory response type of keratin.
B. anger or blushing D. The nail matrix and nail bed have a stratum
C. exposure to heat basale.
D. exposure to cold E. The production of cells within the nail matrix
E. all of the circumstances listed are correct results in the growth of the nail.
answers.

_______7. A hair is formed or made by cells within the

A. hair shaft.
B. hair root.
C. arrector pili.
 _______21. The ___________ is the layer of the skin made of
_______13. Which of the following functions of the epithelial tissue and the __________ is composed
integumentary system is NOT correctly matched of dense connective tissue.
with an example? A. epidermis; dermis
A. sensation — pain, heat, cold, and pressure B. epidermis; subcutaneous tissue
receptors in the skin C. dermis; epidermis
B. temperature regulation — radiation and D. dermis; subcutaneous tissue
convection of heat from blood flowing in the E. subcutaneous tissue; dermis
dermis
C. excretion — hydrogen ions are moved from the _______22. Bone growth:
skin into the urine A. occurs through the deposition of new bone
D. vitamin D production — active vitamin D is lamellae onto existing bone or other connective
produced from a precursor molecule tissue.
E. All of these are correctly matched. B. at the epiphyseal plates causes increase in bone
diameter.
_______14. Third-degree burns C. causing an increase in the length of the bone is
A. are also called partial thickness burns. called appositional growth.
B. cause immediate pain. D. is accomplished by the osteoclasts.
C. involve only the epidermis. E. all of these are true of bone growth.
D. result in excessive fluid loss.
E. have all of these characteristics. _______23. What are the most effective preventative measures
against the effects of aging on the skeletal
_______15. Chef Buoy Yardee is burned on the arm when a system?
kettle of spaghetti sauce explodes. The doctor, A. decreasing physical activity and the amount of
using a forceps, pulls on a hair within the area that stress on the bones
is burned. The hair easily pulls out. What degree B. increasing physical activity
of burn did the patient have? C. ingesting dietary calcium with a vitamin D
A. first degree burn supplement.
B. second degree burn D. the combination of increasing physical activity
C. third degree burn and taking dietary calcium with vitamin D
supplements.
_______16. The shaft is a structural component found E. decreasing your dietary intake of calcium and
associated with vitamin D.
A. hair (or hair follicle).
B. nails (or nail bed). _______24. The functions of the skeletal system include all of
C. glands. the following EXCEPT:
D. sensory receptors. A. support and protection
B. movement and leverage
_______17. The type of glands that open on surface of skin C. transport of materials via its fluid matrix
and have a watery secretion are D. blood cell production
A. eccrine sweat glands. E. storage of minerals
B. apocrine sweat glands.
C. sebaceous glands. _______25. The skeletal system helps maintain homeostasis
D. both eccrine and apocrine sweat glands. by
E. All glands of the skin have this property. A. acting as a calcium buffer and storage site.
B. acting as a phosphate buffer and storage site.
_______18. The type of glands that open into a hair follicle C. acting as an energy buffer and storage site.
and have a thick organic secretion are D. acting as a blood cell production site.
A. eccrine sweat glands. E. All of these aid in maintaining homeostasis.
B. apocrine sweat glands.
C. sebaceous glands. _______26. Bones are a type of
D. both eccrine and apocrine sweat glands. A. cartilage.
E. All glands of the skin have this property. B. epithelial tissue.
C. muscle tissue.
_______19. Cyanosis is caused by D. connective tissue.
A. altered blood flow to the skin (overall or in E. multi-cellular membrane.
small areas).
B. increased number of active melanocytes. _______27. During growth of a long bone, the site of growth in
C. collection of abnormal pigment (not melanin) in length is the
the skin. A. medullary cavity.
D. decreased oxygen content of blood. B. marrow.
E. increased production of melanin by normal C. epiphyseal plate.
number of melanocytes. D. endosteum.
E. periosteum.
_______20. Jaundice is caused by
A. altered blood flow to the skin (overall or in _______28. The outer surface of bone is covered by a
small areas). connective tissue layer called the
B. increased number of active melanocytes. A. lamellae.
C. collection of abnormal bile pigment in the skin. B. periosteum.
D. decreased oxygen content of blood. C. endosteum.
E. increased production of melanin by normal D. epiphysis.
number of melanocytes. E. diaphysis.

_______29. A long bone

A. has a medullary cavity in the diaphysis.
B. has red marrow and yellow marrow in its
cavities.
C. has endosteum lining the medullary cavity.
D. has an epiphysis at each end.
E. has all of these properties.
_______30. After _____ (bone forming cells) become
completely surrounded by bone matrix, they are _______38. Vertebrae are best classified as
called _____ (mature bone cells). A. long bones.
A. osteocytes, osteoblasts B. short bones.
B. osteoblasts, osteoclasts C. flat bones.
C. osteoclasts, osteoblasts D. irregular bones.
D. osteoblasts, osteocytes
E. osteocytes, osteoclasts _______39. Metacarpals and phalanges are best classified as
A. long bones.
_______31. Which of these bones is a part of the appendicular B. short bones.
skeleton? C. flat bones.
A. skull D. irregular bones.
B. ribs
C. sternum _______40. The ribs and sternum are best classified as
D. clavicle A. long bones.
E. hyoid B. short bones.
C. flat bones.
_______32. The joint uniting the parietal and temporal bones is D. irregular bones.
the
A. lambdoid suture. _______41. The ulna and radius are best classified as
B. coronal suture. A. long bones.
C. temporomandibular joint. B. short bones.
D. mastoid suture. C. flat bones.
E. squamous suture. D. irregular bones.

_______33. The two bones of the skull in which teeth are _______42. ____________ are intercellular chemical signals,
located are the secreted by nerve cells and are important in
A. maxilla and mandible. functions of the nervous system.
B. zygomatic and mandible. A. Pheromones
C. maxilla and zygomatic. B. Hormones
D. maxilla and frontal. C. Neurotransmitters
E. frontal and mandible. D. Autocrine agents
E. Paracrine agents
_______34. Which of these statements about the skull is true?
A. The external acoustic meatus is a canal in the _______43. Hormones alter cellular properties and functions
temporal bone. by
B. The zygomatic arch consists of joined processes A. changing the quantities of enzymes present.
between the frontal and zygomatic bones. B. opening or closing ion channels.
C. The nasal conchae are bones that form the nasal C. changing the rate of enzyme breakdown.
septum. D. changing the rates of transcription or translation
D. The mastoid process is a prominent lump just in a cell.
anterior to the ear. E. All of these are true.
E. The bridge of the nose is formed by the frontal
bone. _______44. The structure that makes releasing and inhibiting
hormones which control anterior pituitary
_______35. Which of these sections of the vertebral column is hormone secretion is the:
matched with its correct number of vertebrae? A. anterior pituitary
A. thoracic — 7 vertebrae B. posterior pituitary
B. cervical — 12 vertebrae C. hypothalamus
C. sacral — 5 vertebrae fused into one sacrum D. adrenal gland
D. lumbar — 8 vertebrae E. pineal gland
E. coccygeal — 2 vertebrae fused into one coccyx
_______45. The hypothalamus controls the activity of the
_______36. The first seven pairs of ribs that attach directly to pituitary gland by
the sternum are called A. secreting neurohormones.
A. true ribs. B. secreting releasing hormones.
B. false ribs. C. secreting inhibiting hormones.
C. floating ribs. D. stimulation of nerve cells within the
D. sternal ribs. hypothalamus which extend into the posterior
E. Both true ribs and sternal ribs are correct pituitary gland.
names. E. All of these are true.

_______37. After suffering multiple cervical fractures, Myron
Coolheart, IRS agent, was given a choice of which
vertebrae to fuse together i.e., he could leave only
one articulation unfused. He decided to choose the
fusion that would still allow him to shake his head
"no". His choice was to leave the ___________
unfused.
A. atlas to axis joint
B. atlas to occipital condyles articulation
C. articulation between C2 and C3
D. articulation between C6 and C7
_______46. Growth hormone?
A. stimulates fat synthesis.
B. favors protein breakdown.
C. deficiency in an adult can produce pituitary
dwarfism.
D. excess after growth is complete produces
acromegaly.
E. deficiency in an adult can produce pituitary
dwarfism and excess after growth is complete
produces acromegaly are correct.
 _______56. 31. Target cells in the thyroid gland respond to
A. LH.
_______47. ACTH stimulates the B. prolactin.
A. thyroid gland. C. ACTH.
B. ovaries and testes. D. ADH.
C. hypothalamus. E. TSH.
D. adrenal cortex.
_______57. Type I diabetes mellitus
E. posterior pituitary.
A. is caused by the secretion of too little insulin
_______48. ADH from the pancreas.
A. is sometimes called oxytocin. B. is caused by the insufficient numbers of insulin
B. can cause blood vessels to constrict when receptors on target cells.
present in the blood in large amounts. C. is caused by defective receptors that do not
C. causes "milk letdown" from the breasts of respond to insulin.
lactating women. D. can be regulated by diet alone.
D. stimulates melanocytes and causes them to E. is caused by the insufficient numbers of insulin
synthesize melanin. receptors on target cells and is caused by defective
E. is sometimes called oxytocin and can cause receptors that do not respond to insulin are correct.
blood vessels to constrict when present in the
_______58. A man with an abnormally high level of
blood in large amounts as properties.
melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH), would
_______49. Calcitonin exhibit which of the following symptoms?
A. is secreted by the parathyroid glands. A. hyperglycemia
B. increases the amount of calcium absorbed by B. reduced sperm production
the intestine. C. increased frequency of urination
C. is synthesized by C cells of the thyroid gland. D. darkening of the skin
D. increases the rate of calcium release from E. constant thirst
bone.
_______59. T3 (triiododthyronine)
E. is secreted when blood calcium levels drop too
A. synthesis requires calcium.
low.
B. binding to target tissues causes increases in
_______50. Symptoms of diabetes mellitus include metabolism, body temperature, and normal
A. increased appetite. growth.
B. lack of thirst. C. contains four iodine molecules.
C. high energy level. D. is released from the thymus gland.
D. limited urine output. E. is released in response to T4 secretion.
E. All of these are true.
_______60. Prolactin
_______51. 24. Secretion of which of these hormones would A. helps development of, and production of milk
increase shortly after a meal? in the breast.
A. glucagon B. causes "milk letdown" from the breasts of
B. growth hormone lactating women.
C. epinephrine C. causes contraction of the muscle of the uterus.
D. glucocorticoids D. stimulates development of sperm cells in
E. insulin males.
E. causes "milk letdown" from the breasts of
lactating women and causes contraction of the
_______52. Insulin is secreted by the muscle of the uterus.
A. anterior pituitary gland.
B. posterior pituitary gland. _______61. The adrenal medulla?
C. adrenal cortex. A. is stimulated by the sympathetic nervous
D. adrenal medulla. system.
E. beta cells of the pancreatic islets. B. produces epinephrine and norepinephrine.
C. is stimulated when a person is physically
_______53. Oxytocin is secreted by the excited.
A. anterior pituitary gland. D. produces the "fight-or-flight" response.
B. posterior pituitary gland. E. has all of these properties.
C. adrenal cortex.
D. adrenal medulla. _______62. Cortisol
E. beta cells of the pancreatic islets. A. is classified as a glucocorticoid.
B. initiates the breakdown of protein and fat.
_______54. Follicle stimulating hormone is secreted by the C. reduces the inflammatory effect (when in
A. anterior pituitary gland. pharmacological doses).
B. posterior pituitary gland. D. secretion is stimulated by ACTH.
C. adrenal cortex. E. has all of these properties.
D. adrenal medulla.
E. beta cells of the pancreatic islets. _______63. The thymus gland
A. becomes smaller with increasing age.
_______55. Growth hormone is secreted by the B. is important in the function of the immune
A. anterior pituitary gland. system.
B. posterior pituitary gland. C. secretes thymosin.
C. adrenal cortex. D. is found in the upper part of the thoracic cavity
D. adrenal medulla. above the heart.
E. beta cells of the pancreatic islets. E. has all of these characteristics.
_______64. Insulin is secreted in response to
A. increased blood glucose levels.
B. decreased parasympathetic stimulation.
C. decreased blood levels of amino acids.
D. All of these stimulate insulin secretion.
_______65. Aldosterone
A. causes potassium ions to be retained in the
body.
B. secretion is stimulated primarily by ACTH.
C. secretion increases when blood potassium
levels increase.
D. causes increased retention of sodium ions and
water by the body.
E. both increases secretion when blood potassium
levels increase and causes increased retention of
sodium ions and water by the body.
_______66. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
A. increases calcium level in the blood.
B. inhibits the formation of active vitamin D in the
kidneys.
C. decreases the rate of bone breakdown.
D. has an effect similar to that of calcitonin.
E. has all of these characteristics.
_______67. Hyperparathyroidism
A. is an abnormally low production or secretion
of parathyroid hormone (PTH).
B. results in an increase in blood cell production.
C. results in an increase in calcium levels in the
blood.
D. is an abnormally high production of calcitonin.
E. is caused by an increase in the absorption of
potassium from the small intestine.
_______68. Which of the following is NOT a regulatory
function of the endocrine system?
A. Regulates water balance by controlling the
solute concentration of the blood.
B. Regulates skeletal muscle contraction strength.
C. Regulates satiation and the breakdown of food
into individual nutrients.
D. Regulates the rate of metabolism.
E. Regulates the levels of nutrients such as
glucose in the blood.
_______69. Secretion of hormones is controlled by
A. the concentration of mineral ions in the blood.
B. neural input.
C. tropic hormones.
D. the concentration of mineral ions in the blood
and tropic hormones.
E. all of these things.
_______70. Removal of the anterior pituitary would affect the
functioning of the
A. thyroid gland.
B. pancreas isles of Langerhans in the pancreas.
C. parathyroid gland.
D. adrenal medulla.
E. kidney.
_______71. In response to high blood glucose, the pancreas
releases insulin to enable glucose to enter body
cells. When the blood glucose level returns to
normal, insulin release stops. This is an example
of regulation by:
A. endocrine dysplasia.
B. negative feedback.
C. positive feedback.
D. neural regulation.
E. somatic regulation
_______72. Antigens
A. have molecular weights of around 1000.
B. have one antigenic determinant (epitope).
C. are considered normal by the immune system.
D. can contain many different antigenic
determinants (epitopes).
E. are usually made of lipids.
_______73. The lymphatic system plays a role in maintaining
fluid balance within the body by
A. adding lymph to GI tract secretions.
B. returning interstitial fluid to the plasma.
C. transporting lymph from tissues to the liver.
D. carrying excess fluid to the kidneys to be
excreted.
E. actively absorbing fluid from the blood.
_______74. Which of the following are functions of the
lymphatic system?
1. Defense 2. Fluid equilibrium 3. Fat
absorption
A. 1
B. 1,2
C. 1,3
D. 2,3
E. 1,2,3
_______75. Lymph
A. Is found only when there is a pathological
condition that allows it to leak from capillaries
B. Is excess interstitial fluid
C. Is filtered by the spleen
D. Is synthesized by the lymphoid organs
E. All choices are correct
_______76. What structural feature of lymphatic vessels is
responsible to forward movement of lymph?
A. over-lapping endothelial cells
B. valves
C. no basement membrane
D. thin walls
_______77. What is the nonspecific lymphocyte that kills
tumor cells and virus infected cells?
A. Macrophages
B. Natural killer cells
C. Eosinophils
D. Basophils
_______78. Tonsils?
A. increase in size in adults.
B. are located in both the oral and abdominal
cavities.
C. provide protection against bacteria entering the
oral and nasal cavities.
D. contain red pulp and white pulp.
E. are not functional in children.
_______79. Positive selection of lymphocytes refers to the
A. processing of an antigen by a macrophage.
B. proliferation of natural killer cells.
C. production of antigen-specific antibodies.
D. survival of pre-B and pre-T cells that are
capable of an immune response.
E. replication of memory cells.
_______80. Which is the proper order of events in cell-
mediated immunity?
(1) cloning of cytotoxic T cells and memory T
cells
(2) antigen presented to T lymphocyte
(3) activation of T lymphocytes
(4) cytotoxic T cells attack target cells
A. 2, 3, 4, 1
B. 1, 4, 2, 3
C. 2, 3, 1, 4
D. 3, 2, 4, 1
E. 1, 2, 3, 4,
_______81. Which of the following is correctly matched? _______91. Immune complexes consist of
A. IgA - found in saliva and tears A. antibody plus complement
B. IgD - can cross the placenta B. basophil plus complement
C. IgG - first to challenge the antigen C. antigen plus antibody
D. IgM - antigen-binding receptor on B cells D. antigen plus complement
E. IgE - transfusion reactions
_______92. Which of the following are needed for antibody
_______82. What is the cell that is responsible for a secondary production to occur with T cell dependent
antibody response to an antigen? antigens?
A. Memory B cell A. antigen presenting cell
B. Plasma cell B. T helper cell
C. Cytotoxic T cell C. B cell
D. All of the above are responsible D. b and c
E. a, b, and c
_______83. T cells are divided into two primary groups,
effector and regulatory. Which of the following _______93. A T helper cell becomes activated by a
are regulatory T cells? A. plasma cell
A. helper T cells B. antigen presenting cell
B. cytotoxic T cells C. B cell
C. chemotaxic T cells D. memory cell
D. delayed hypersensitivity T cells
E. assistant T cells _______94. Foreign substances that elicit an immune response
are termed
_______84. Helper T cells interact with target cells by A. aliens.
recognizing B. antigens.
A. antigens only. C. antibodies.
B. MHC proteins only. D. viruses.
C. antigen-MHC protein complexes. E. bacteria.
D. either antigens or MHC proteins.
E. neither antigens nor MHC proteins. _______95. The human body makes
A. only one type of cytotoxic T cell.
_______85. Active natural immunity occurs when B. tens of different types of cytotoxic T cells.
A. antibodies pass from a pregnant mother to her C. hundreds of different types of cytotoxic T cells.
fetus. D. thousands of different types of cytotoxic T
B. antibodies are injected into a host. cells.
C. an individual develops a disease. E. millions of different types of cytotoxic T cells.
D. a person is vaccinated.
E. antibodies are passed in breast milk.

_______86. All of the following processes can be activated by

complement except
A. inflammation
B. antibody production
C. cytolysis
D. opsonization
E. none of these

_______87. Cytotoxic T-cells attack

A. viruses.
B. bacteria.
C. cells that display foreign proteins on their
surface.
D. cells that display normal proteins on their
surface.
E. viruses and bacteria.

_______88. On first exposure to antigen, T helper cells

A. become activated and increase in number
B. cause inflammation
C. cause skin lesions
D. attract more macrophages

_______89. In IgE mediated hypersensitivity, all of the

following are needed except
A. antigen presenting cell
B. B cell
C. IgE antibody
D. mast cell
E. neutrophil

_______90. Histamine released by mast cells leads to all of the

following symptoms except
A. capillary dilation
B. airway constriction
C. high fever
D. mucus secretion
E. itching