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Kayod Marino: General Education Set G

232-295 minutes

1. These are living things that use sunlight, chlorophyll, water and carbon dioxide to produce
food.

a. Autotrophs c. Heterotrophs
b. Consumers d. Food chain

2. It is describe as the lifeline of the body. IT is the body’s “pickup” and delivery system.”
a. Blood c. circulatory system
b. nervous system d. heart
3. It carries the oxygen-rich blood to the head, arms, and chest and down to the waist and the
legs.
a. heart c. aorta
b. ventricles d. arteries
4. They are the transmitters of message from the different parts of the body to the brain and vice
versa.
a. spinal cord c. brain
b. neurons or nerve cells d. arteries
5. Which part of the brain controls the following activities: breathing, blood pressure, heart rate,
alertness?
a. brainstem c. cerebrum
b. hypothalamus d. spinal cord
6. Refers to a sequence of organism in a community that constitutes a feeding chain.
a. photosynthesis c. consumers
b. ecosystem d. food chain
7. Is a group of interacting plants, animals and human in a particular area?
a. ecological community c. living organism
b. environment d. food chain
8. Excessive presence of carbon dioxide in the air, trapping heat near the earth’s surface causing
a rise in temperature in the environment.
a. El Nino c. Deforestation
b. “Greenhouse Effect” d. Weather disturbance
9. The Earth’s shield against sun’s harmful radiation.
a. Atmosphere c. Ozone layer
b. Air d. Forest
10. The use of product containing ______ is discouraged because they contribute to the depletion
of_____.
a. Chlorofluorocarbon-solar radiation
b. Gas-ozone layer
c. Ozone layer air
d. Chlorofluorocarbon-ozone layer
11. What causes high and low tides?
a. Earth’s rotation on its axis
b. Moon’s gravitational pull
c. Sun’s solar energy
d. Earth’s gravitational pull
12. How is coral a tool formed?
a. Volcanic eruption
b. Corals growing around a volcanic island
c. Underwater bedrock formations
d. Earthquake
13. What is a long shore drift?
a. Movement of sand and shingles along the coast
b. Sand bars
c. Accumulation of sad at the river mouth
d. Island formed by volcanic eruptions
14. How does an occlusion form?
a. Cold air moving up from the ground
b. Cold front pushing warm air up of the ground
c. Unbalance electrical reaction in the air
d. Cold and warm air mixing in the atmosphere
15. What is a eat haze?
a. A reflection caused by pollutants in the air
b. A distorted image resulting from the bending o sun’s light rays by changes in air temperature
c. A movement o warm air over a vast expanse of land
d. Caused by extremely high temperature common in dessert areas
16. What sort of rock formation do the world’s greatest mountain ranges consist of?
a. Magma c. Fold eruptions
b. Chalk deposit d. Slip formation
17. What is the fore that wears down mountains?
a. Earthquake c. Volcanic eruptions
b. Erosion d. Deforestation
18. How are volcanic island formed?
a. Collision of two oceanic plates
b. Cooling of lava by seawater
c. Volcanic eruptions
d. Accumulation of corals
19. When the Theory of plate Tectonics was generally accepted?
a. 1900’s c. 1950’s
b. 1930’s d. 1980’s
20. The weathering away of rocks by water, wind and ice.
a. Denudation c. Volcanic rock
b. Erosion d. Metamorphic rock
21. How do hormones work?
a. By releasing adrenaline
b. By controlling cell chemistry
c. By regulating water loss
d. By controlling blood pressure

22. Name the male and female sex hormones

a. Sperm cell & Ovum c. Chromosomes
b. Testosterone d. Red & white blood cells

23. The unit of measurement of energy in a given an mount of food

a. Pound c. Olfactory system
b. Kilo d. calorie
24. Nitrogen compounds known as the building blocks of proteins
25. The growth of roots towards water is an example of?
a. Chemotropism c. Hydrotropism
b. Geotropism d. Phototropism
26. DNA means
a. Data nurturing analysis c. Deoxyribonucleic acid
b. Deoxytribonucleic acid d. Deotrixyl nucleic acid
27. What are the three products of oxygen when it has been burned?
a. Water, carbon dioxide and air
b. Energy, water and carbon dioxide
c. Energy, carbon and oxide
d. Energy, air and water
28. In flowering plants, fertilization happens in the?
a. Pollen tube c. Ovules
b. Stamen d. Pollen grain
29. The development of egg without fertilization
a. Mitosis c. Spermatogenesis
b. Parthenogenesis d. Mitochondria
30. Which of the following is a source of energy needed for photosynthesis?
a. Water c. Light
b. Soil d. Fertilizer
31. Chemistry is primarily concerned with the composition and changes of?
a. Nature c. Man
b. Matter d. Earth
32. A scientific theory is
a. A hypothesis not yet subjected to experimental test
b. An idea that correctly predict the result
c. An imagination
d. A guess
33. Which of the following units of measure is equivalent to cubic centimeter?
a. Milligram c. Millimeter
b. Milliliter d. Centiliter
34. Which of the following is NOT a compound?
a. acetic acid c. magnesium
b. alcohol d. Zinc Oxide
35. The easier the atom to receive electrons is measured by its?
a. Elecrtonegativity c. Number of shells
b. Atomic radius d. Valence electrons
36. The willingness o an atom to receive electron is measured by its?
a. Electronegativity c. Atomic size
b. Ionization potential d. Electron affinity
37. A molecule is said to be polar or dipole if?
a. Its positive and negative charges are at different places
b. It possesses polar bonds
c. Its’ polar bond have unsymmetrical charge distribution
d. All of the above
38. Which of the following is NOT a physical property of water?
a. freezing point at 0 degree C
b. boiling point at 100 degrees C
c. its’ heat of fusion at 80 cal/g.
d. its’ density at 4 degrees at 1 lb/cu. Ft
39. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Molecular weight does not influence boiling and melting point of a substance
b. Boiling and melting point tend to increase with molecular weight
c. Boiling and melting point tend to decrease with molecular weight
d. None o the above
40. A Mole is the amount of substance or a mass of a substance that contains?
a. 6.02 x 1023 particles c. 6.02 x 1023 particles
b. 60.2 x 1023 particles d. 60.2x 1023 particles
41. It is the measure of the amount of matter in an object
a. Weight c. Volume
b. Mass d. Quantity
42. It is the distance traveled by the body per unit time and tell how fast or slow the body moves
a. Velocity c. Acceleration
b. Speed d. None of the above
43. The rate of change of the distance traveled per unit time in a stated direction
a. Velocity c. Acceleration
b. Speed d. None of the above
44. This law states that the force acting upon an object is equal to the product o the mass and
acceleration of the object
a. Newton’s 2nd law of motion
b. Newton’s 3rd law of motion
c. Newton’s 1st law of motion
d. None of the amount
45. When a force is applied to a body, several effects are possible. Which one of the following
effect CAN”T occur?
a. the body rotates
b. the body changes direction
c. the body increase its mass
d. the body changes shape
46. It is the reluctance of the object to change either its’ state of rest or uniform motion in a
straight line
a. Force c. Inertia
b. Friction d. Motion
47. This law states that energy cannot be created nor destroyed but only changes from one form
to another
a. Energy law
b. Kinetic Theory of Matter
c. Law of Conservation Energy
d. None of the above
48. This law states that matter is made up of a large number of molecules which are in
continuous motion
a. Boyles’s Law c. Law of Conservation Energy
b. Kinetic Theory d. None of the above
49. The lowest possible temperature that a substance can reach
a. Freezing point c. Steam point
b. Absolute Zero d. Threshold
50. It is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of kg. of a substance by degree C
a. Calorie c. Specific heat capacity
b. Watt d. Joule
51. The relationship of give-and-take of living organism in the biosphere is a balance of nature
called________.
a. universal relationship
b. symbiotic relationship
c. spontaneous relationship
d. abiogenetic relationship
52. Process of removing excess odor in water.
a. sedimentation c. distillation
b. chlorination d. aeration
53. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
a. As altitude increases, atmospheric pressures corresponding
b. Throughout the available space, gas tends to contract
c. Equal chances are always given to all in life
d. Shadow is formed when a colored object is projected against the wall
54. The earth rotates on its axis from west to east. This causes the sun to _______?
a. appear with a fiery orange color
b. cause the appearance of solar eclipse
c. rise room the east and sets in the west
d. emit solar radiation
55. One of these planets has the greatest gravitational pull. Which one is it?
a. Mars b. Earth c. Mercury d. Jupiter
56. It is the law which explains why one can pull a piece without topping a glass in a quick
motion.
a. energy in motion c. law of inertia
b. gravity d. force
57. Which of the following is NOT a source of energy?
a. water c. geothermal heat
b. nuclear d. inertia at rest
58. Which instrument will one use to convert mechanical energy to electrical energy?
a. rotor b. generator c. motor d. circuit
59. Sun’s energy is generated by?
a. nuclear fission
b. sun enacting with gravity
c. nuclear fusion reaction
d. reaction with magnetic field
60. Application of energy is called _______?
a. work c. kinetics
b. inertia d. simulation
61. The falling of any form of water from the air to the earth’s surface
a. Condensation c. Water vapor
b. Precipitation d. Rainwater
62. The part of the atmosphere that filters the ultraviolet rays of the sun
a. stratosphere c. Ozone layer
b. Troposphere d. Ionosphere
63. The point in the earth’s orbit nearest to the sun
a. Solstice c. Aphelion
b. Eclipse d. Perihelion
64. A property of minerals which gives off rays of light when exposed to ultraviolet light.
a. Luminescence c. Radiation
b. Phosphorescence d. Fluorescence
65. Which process involves chemical weathering?
a. Carbonation c. Hydration
b. Oxidation d. All of the above
66. How long does it take for the earth to complete one rotation
a. 365 days c. 24 hours
b. 30 days d. 12 hours
67. What is the principal function of gravity in the universe?
a. Provision for energy
b. Keeps the stars and other heavenly bodies in orbit
c. Causes movement in space
d. Part of universal design
68. What does the word “monsoon” mean?
a. Moon will soon come c. Seasons
b. Rains d. Wet weather
69. Its’ discovery enable geologist to date rocks accurately
a. layering c. Radioactivity
b. Evolutionary staging d. Carbon-dating
70. It occurs when the earth is between the sun and the moon, with the earth’s shadow cast over
the moon.
a. Total eclipse c. Eclipse
b. Lunar eclipse d. Partial Eclipse
71. Male and female reproductive part of a flower
a. Pollen grains and ovules c. Pollen grains and pistil
b. Stamen and pistil d. Stamen and ovules
72. In the human body, the cell that most nearly resembles a one-celled animals
a. Red Blood cell c. Nerve cell
b. White Blood cell d. Antibodies
73. The main energy source of a plant-eating animals
a. Glucose b. Starch c. Cellulose d. Glycogen
74. These are cellular secretions which help regulate the breakdown and buildup of various
substance in the body
a. Enzymes c. Plasma
b. Amino Acids d. Hormones
75. It is the energy source of the cell which it uses for growing, reproducing and other activities
a. Adenosine Triphosphate c. Chloroplast
b. Amino Acids d. Sunlight
76. It is a segment of DNA molecule which controls the appearance of a given trait
a. Chromosomes c. Gametes
b. Genes d. Zygotes
77. Group of similar cells performing similar functions together
a. Organs b. System c. Nucleus d. Tissue
78. The diffusion of water through a semi permeable membrane
a. osmosis c. Transfusion
b. permeability d. Capillary
79. It shows the complex food relationship of organism in a given area and the cyclic flow of
food through organisms
a. Food chain c. Food pyramid
b. Food web d. Biological cycle
80. Which of the following does NOT occur to both respiration and fermentation?
a. energy is released
b. sugar is broken down
c. carbon dioxide is produced
d. alcohol is formed
81. Energy removal is best illustrated in
a. boiling of liquid substances
b. changing water to ice
c. changing water to stem
d. none of the above
82. Refers to the maximum amount of solute expressed in grams that can be dissolved in 100
grams of water at a specific temperature
a. Solubility c. Molarity
b. Stability d. Molality
83. Compounds with the same molecular formula but with different structural formulas
a. Cellulose c. Polymers
b. Isomers d. Monomers
84. The most penetrating type of radiation given of by radioactive elements
a. Alpha particle c. Gamma particle
b. Beta particle d. None of the above
85. The basic unit for expressing the masses o individual atoms
a. Atomic number c. Nucleus
b. Atomic mass unit d. Atomic weight
86. A substance that speeds up a chemical reaction without itself undergoing a chemical change
a. catalyst c. Electrolytes
b. Enhancer d. Ionizer
87. The temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the pressure of the
surroundings atmosphere
a. Melting point c. Boiling Point
b. Critical point d. None of the above
88. the warming of the earth’s surface due to an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide
a. “Greenhouse effect” c. Atmospheric pressure
b. Ozone d. El Nino phenomena
89. Describe the force of gravity on an object
a. mass c. capacity
b. weight d. pressure
90. When gaseous molecules are compressed, they tend to?
a. increase in volume c. repel each other
b. decrease in volume d.attract and liquefy
91. It is the union of two light nucleus to form a heavier nucleus, resulting in a mass defect and
release of energy
a. Radiation c. Nuclear Fusion
b. Nuclear Fission d. Radioactivity
92. Which of the following statements is a characteristic of an electronic spectrum?
a. They all travel at the same speed in fire space
b. The exhibit diffraction and interference phenomena
c. They follow the laws of refraction and reflection
d. All of the above
93. The term “RADAR” is derived from the phrase?
a. “Radiation Detection and Ranging “
b. “Radiation Diffusion and Ranging”
c. “Radio Diffraction and Resolution”
d. “Radiation Diffraction and Resolution”
94. A material whose ability to conduct electricity lies between those of conductors and
insulators
a. Integrated Circuits c. Semiconductors
b. Silicon Chips d. Insulators
95. “LASER” is derived from the phrase?
a. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
b. Light Application by Simulated Emission of Radiation
c. Light Amplification by Simulated Ejection of Radiation
d. None of the above
96. What is the color of a transparent substance?
a. The color of the light it absorbs
b. The color of light it reflects
c. The color of light it transmit
d. The color of light it refracts
97. What is a rotating electromagnetic called?
a. Motor b. Rotor c. Phasor d. Sensor
98. What happens with the centripetal force when sped is doubled?
a. remains the same c. triples
b. force is increase 4x d. force is doubled
99. What is an electrochemical cell in which the reacting materials can be renewed by the use o
reverse current
a. Storage cell c. Fuel cell
b. Primary cells d. Chemical cell

100. What will make an object move in a circular path?

a. Central force c. Frictional force
b. Gravitational d. Electromagnetic force
***** THE END *****

1a 51 b
2c 52 d
3d 53 a
4b 54 c
5a 55 d
6d 56 c
7a 57 d
8b 58 b
9c 59 c
10 d 60 a
11 b 61 b
12 b 62 c
13 a 63 d
14 b 64 b
15 b 65 d
16 c 66 c
17 b 67 b
18 a 68 c
19 c 69 c
20 b 70 b
21 b 71 b
22 b 72 b
23 d 73 c
24 d 74 d
25 c 75 a
26 c 76 b
27 b 77 d
28 c 78 a
29 b 79 b
30 c 80 d
31 b 81 b
32 a 82 a
33 b 83 b
34 c 84 c
35 d 85 b
36 d 86 a
37 b 87 c
38 b 88 a
39 b 89 b
40 c 90 a
41 b 91 c
42 b 92 d
43 c 93 a
44 a 94 c
45 c 95 a
46 d 96 c
47 b 97 b
48 b 98 d
49 b 99 a
50 c 100 a

1. Which Republic Act provides government assistance to students and teachers in private
education?
a. RA 7836 c. RA 6728
b. RA 7784 d. RA 6675

2. In the preamble of the CODE of ethics for Professional Teachers, which of the following
teacher descriptions is included in the Code of Ethics for Professional Teachers?
a. A. With satisfactory teaching performance
b. Passed the licensure exams for teachers
c. Duly licensed professional
d. Persons of dignity and reputation

3. Which stage according to Erickson is the stage of trust and mistrust?

a. Young adulthood c. Adolescence
b. Early childhood d. Infancy

4. In the history of education system, including that of the Philippines, which system was first
and last remained a partner of other systems of education?
a. Formal b. Non-formal c. Informal d. Pre-school

5. Who among the following subscribe to the theory that the good, the true and the beautiful are
universally valid in all places at all times?
a. Realists and idealists
b. Realist and existentialists
c. Pragmatists and idealists
d. Pragmatists and realists

6. The 1987 Constitution mandates the state to encourage among others self-learning,
independent and out-of-school study programs particularly those that respond to community
needs. Which is an off shoot of this mandate?
a. Institutionalization of early childhood care and development
b. Principal empowerment program
c. Multi-grade teaching
d. Practices of community-based learning
7. Authors claim that education is given greater in the 1987 Philippine Constitution than in the
past Constitution. Which article provision on education is found only in the 1987 Constitution?
a. Support to teacher education
b. Provision on assigning the highest budget priority to education
c. The establishment of the integrated system of education
d. The creation of CHED
8. According to Hurlock, studies of children’s play revealed that toy play reaches its peak during
the
a. Middle childhood years
b. Early childhood years
c. Babyhood
d. Late childhood
9. In a DECS memorandum issued last 1998, the new name for multi-grade class is:
a. A.Friendly school c. Paaralan ng bahay
b. School-of-the-future d. Escuela nueva
10. The student-centered curriculum belongs to which group of educators?
a. Reconstructionist-Essentialist
b. Progressivist, Perennialist
c. Perennialist, Essentialist
d. Progressivist, Reconstructionist
11. Daniel Goleman talks about emotional intelligence. Which of the following characterize a
student with a high degree of emotional intelligence?
a. Sensitive to points of view and feeling of others
b. Prodded by others
c. Obsessed with achieving at any cost
d. Unable to delay gratification
12. The history of curriculum development includes the hidden curriculum approach. Which is
the content emphasis of the hidden curriculum?
a. Students experiences and activities
b. Implicit processes and social norms
c. Student needs and interest
d. Introspection and choice
13. Teacher T is concerned with conceptual matters since reality is mental teacher T’s thinking is
quite-
a. Realistic c. Existential
b. Pragmatic d. Idealistic
14. The authoritarian setting in the Filipino home is reinforced by a classroom teacher who-
a. Asks open –ended questions
b. Encourages pupils to ask questions
c. Prescribes what pupils should do
d. Is open to suggestions
15. A number of researches found that the effects of maternal employment on children’s
achievement are-
a. Hardly established
b. Positive and negative
c. Fully established
d. Negative
16. Which one correctly describes the phenomenon of latchkey children?
a. They turn to empty homes after school either to sit by the television or to roam the streets
b. They are truant school children
c. They are engaged in child labor
d. They are engaged in child labor
17. Teacher Q regards the student as a spiritual entity and as part of the larger spiritual universe.
To what philosophy does teacher Q subscribe?
a. Idealism c. Realism
b. Existentialism d. Pragmatism
18. The 1987 Constitution mandates the state to assign the highest budgetary priority to-
a. Health c. Social work
b. Education d. Defense
19. Moral development in early childhood is characterized by-
a. Questioning rules
b. Willful disobedience of rules
c. Acting out of conviction
d. Acting without knowing why they do so
20. According to Piaget, by adolescence boys and girls must have reached what stage?
a. Concrete operations stage
b. Sensorimotor stage
c. Formal operations stage
d. Pre-operational stage
21. Ruth dances well. She can figure out how something works or how to fix something that is
broken, without asking for help. Based on Garden’s theory of multiple intelligence under what
intelligence is she strong?
a. Musical
b. Logical-mathematical
c. Spatial intelligence
d. Kinesthetic intelligence
22. Who among the following believes that learning requires disciplined attention regular
homework, and respect for legitimate authority?
a. Reconstructionist c. Essetialist
b. Perennialist d. Progressivist
23. Which developmental task is expected of the adolescent according to havughurst?
a. Achieving new and more mature relations with age-mates of both sexes
b. Skilled games
c. Getting started in an occupation
d. Learning to get along with age-mates
24. Mr. Roy wants his pupils to be creative. Which of the following will he REFRAIN from
doing?
a. Heighten the student’s sense of unusual
b. Develops students’ ability to recognize and analyze problems and relationships
c. Encourage sustained attention in an area of interest
d. Develop solely skill mastery
25. The creation of Student’s Loan Fund to give equal opportunity to all persons who desire to
pursue higher education is the essence of:
a. RA 6014 c. RA 6655
b. RA 7836 d. RA 7784
26. In his/her teaching, Teacher D moves from particular instances to tentative generalizations
that are Subjected to further verification . Teacher D engages himself/herself in:
a. Intuition
b. Inductive logic
c. Deductive logic
d. Philosophical analysis
27. Which of the correct statement of emotional intelligence is based on Daniel Goleman’s
theory?
a. Emotional intelligence is feeling approximately and effectively
b. Emotional intelligence id being nice to people
c. Emotional intelligence is giving free rein to feeling
d. Emotional intelligence changes less considerably than IQ through life.
28. Which of the following is not a subject-centered curriculum?
a. Perennialist c. Values-centered
b. Back-to-basics d. Subject area
29. Which program is assisted financially by the World Bank and OECF and is meant for the
improvement of elementary education in the SRA provinces?
a. Program for Decentralized Education
b. First Elementary Education Project
c. Kinesthetic intelligence
d. Second Elementary Education Project
30. Mr. Z, A fifty-five year old American citizen, even though very educationally qualified to be
president an educational institution in third country cannot be appointed as President because:
He_____
a. Does not belong to a religious group
b. Is nearing retirement
c. Is not Filipino Citizen
d. Is not an official of a corporation
31. Which of the following is not a hazard to the mastery of developmental tasks?
a. Unfavorable social judgment
b. Bypassing of stage of development as a result of failure to master the tasks for that stage of
development
c. Crisis when individuals pass from on stage to another
d. Inappropriate or impossible expectations
32. Teacher U emphasizes to her students the importance of deep personal reflection on one’s
commitments and choices. Teacher U subscribes to which Philosophy?
a. Realism c. Existentialism
b. Idealism d. Pragmatism
33. The constitutional provision on language has the following aims, Except:
a. To make Filipino the national language and medium of instruction and official communication
b. To make the regional dialect as auxiliary media of instructions in regional schools
c. To make Filipino the sole medium of instruction
d. To maintain English as a second language
34. Which periods in the life span of an individual are characterized by growth spurt?
a. Early childhood and adolescence
b. Prenatal period and early childhood
c. Early childhood
d. Pre-natal and puberty
35. The introduction of non-formal education in line with the Constitutional Provision on:
a. Protection of teachers
b. Promoting the rights of all citizens to make quality education accessible to all
c. Optional religious instructions
d. Promoting the rights of all citizens to quality education at all levels
36. Teacher X is often times frustrated. The students in her class hardly volunteer to recite and to
do other learning-related task. This is a proof of the Filipino’s:
a. Sense of humor
b. Lack of resourcefulness
c. Lack of reflection
d. Passivity and lack of initiative
37. The tendency to emphasize so much on school beautification to the detriment of pupil’s
performance illustrated the:
a. Filipino’s sense of humor
b. Filipino’s lack of reflection
c. Filipino’s love for “ Porma” at the expense of substance
d. Filipino’s lack of seriousness
38. A president body to study Philippines education created by virtue of Executive Order No. 46
during the incumbency of DECS secretary Andrew Gonzales with an aim to study Philippine
Education is the:
a. Presidential Commission on Educational Reform
b. Philippine Commission to Survey Philippine Education
c. Survey to outcomes of elementary Education
d. Commission on Philippine Education
39. Which is a danger signal of adolescent mal-adjustment?
a. Inappropriate body-build
b. Irresponsibility as shown in neglect of studies in favor of having a good time
c. Attraction to the opposite sex
d. Prolonged treatment as children
40. To democratize access to secondary education, public secondary education was made free. In
whose presidency was this implemented?
a. Ferdinand Marcos c. Corazon Aquino
b. Joseph Estrada d. Fidel Ramos
41. Which is not a characteristic of democratic discipline?
a. Child obeys blindly
b. Child understands the meaning of rules
c. Child is given punishment us related to the misdeed
d. Child has opportunity to express his/her opinion
42. The three A’s of happiness according to Hurlock are:
a. Adjustments, affection, altruism
b. Attitude, ability, adjustment
c. Acceptance, affection, and achievement
d. Affection, ability, attitude
43. Babyhood is often referred to as a “ Critical period” in the development of personality
because:
a. At this time the foundations are laid upon which the adult personality structure will be built
b. Changes in the personality pattern take place
c. The brain grows and develops at such an accelerated rate during babyhood
d. At this time the baby is exposed to many hazards both physical and psychological
44. Who among the following stressed the processes of experiences and problem solving?
a. Plato c. Dewey
b. Hegel d. Aristotle
45. Teacher L believes that creation of knowledge in by way of the learners’ interaction with
their environment. Teacher L is more of:
a. An idealist c. An existentialis
b. A pragmatist d. A realist
46. To reach out clientele who cannot be in the classroom for one reason or another, which of the
following was established
a. Non-formal education
b. Informal education
c. Pre-school education
d. formal education
47. The encouragement of self-learning, independent, and out-of-school study programs as stated
in the 1987 constitution has given rise to:
a. The implementation of open universities and distance learning programs
b. Institutionalization of early childhood care and development
c. The conduct of NEAT and NSAT
d. The clamor for a Grade VII
48. Which of the following statement on developmental tasks is wrong?
a. Failure to master developmental tasks at a certain developmental stage has far reaching
consequences in a person’s development
b. The mastery of development tasks is a result of physical maturation, societal pressure and
individual’s aspiration
c. There are essential skills expected to be acquired and mastered in each developmental stage
d. Retirees are not expected to work on mastering certain develop mental tasks
49. The 1987 Philippines Constitution states the following, Except:
a. The official languages of the Philippines are Filipino and English
b. The national language of the Philippines is Filipino
c. Filipino is the Tagalog of the Tagalog –speaking provinces
d. The government shall initiate and sustain the use of Filipino as a medium of official
communication and as a language of instruction in the education system
50. Which among the following has been said to play an irreplaceable role in the education of the
young?
a. Community c. Church
b. School d. Home
51. For the drill method to be effective there should be:
a. Much practice on a few skills
b. Little practices on few skills
c. Much practice on many skills
d. Little practice on many skills
52. Which of the following classroom management practices runs counter to the reality therapy
approach of William Glasser?
a. The teacher asks a misbehaving student what he or she is doing
b. Teacher requires the students to prepare a plan in writing and sign it as means of increasing
personal motivation to maintain and fulfill the plan
c. The teacher evaluates pupil’s behavior as good or bad
d. Teacher assists the students in making realistic plans to change behavior
53. Which of the following does not apply to mastery learning?
a. It makes use of varied instructional time for different groups of students
b. It makes use of norm-reference tests
c. It is effective in teaching basic skills
d. It requires the use of carefully crafted instructional objective
54. The teacher’s role in problem solving methods is:
a. To test the conclusions
b. To set up the problem
c. To propose ways of obtaining the needed data
d. To help the learners what is it that is being solved
55. To nurture creativity in student, teacher should:
a. Vary the length and difficulty of question
b. Allow for one-minute wait-time
c. Ask convergent questions
d. Emphasize the necessity of giving right answers
56. The content of a good lesson plan is self-sufficient. This means that:
a. The content should match with student’s aptitude
b. The content should help students learn how to learn
c. The content should be broad and treated thoroughly
d. The content should be verifiable
57. Which one can NOT help individuals reduce their own fears about change?
a. Reflect on the extent of change in one’s life so far and how it has coped with
b. Identify shortfalls in skills or knowledge and take action to remedy them
c. Identify skills which will be useful in a new situation
d. Keep feeling of anxiety to themselves
58. The following are generating thinking skills, Except:
a. Connecting new ideas c. Classifying
b. Predicting d. Inferring
59. Mrs. Valdez wants to generates as many ideas as she can as the class is about to embark on a
community outreach program. Which of the following will she employ?
a. role playing c. brainwashing
b. brainstorming d. simulation
60. Which teaching practice will most likely decrease learner’s attention?
a. Questioning
b. Assessing learning as an integral part of instruction
c. Assessing learning as an integral part of instruction
d. Teaching by telling
61. For efficiency, if in the process of teaching a teacher realizes that too little has been planned,
which of the following may she NOT do?
a. Discuss possible problems of the new assignment.
b. Pose additional questions to explore various facets of the content
c. Drill the students on the major points of the lesson.
d. Give a quiz
62. Correct practice makes perfect. This maxim is based on Thorndike’s law of exercise and the
finding that reinforcement of a response increases the likelihood its occurrence. Whose research
finding is the underlined statement?
a. Skinner c. Palo
b. Bruner d. Lewin
63. Here is a lesson objective: Given a microscope and a slide, the students must be able to focus
the prepared slide. Applying Robert F. Mager’s principle, which does this lesson objective lack?
a. Criterion measure c. Performance
b. Condition d. time element
64. Which is a focusing thinking skill?
a. Identifying key concepts
b. Summarizing
c. Obtaining information
d. Clarifying through inquiry
65. In the use of television in the classroom, which of the following should be avoided?
a. The TV program lasts the whole class period.
b. There is a pre-viewing orientation
c. Select programs that match the learners’ level of interest and maturity
d. Life should be left on if students are to take notes
66. Based on Victor Lowenfield’s classification, which sequence in the developmental stages of
children in art is followed?
a. Scribbling stage, pre-schematic stage, schematic stage, dawning realism stage, pseudo-realistic
stage
b. Scribbling stage, pre-schematic stage, schematic stage, pseudorealistic stage, dawning realism
stage
c. Pre-schematic stage, schematic stage, scribbling stage, pseudorealistic stage, dawning realism
stage
d. Pre-schematic, schematic stage, scribbling dawning realism stage, pseudo-realistic stage
67. In relation to teacher’s ratings research suggests the following, Except one:
a. Teachers favor self-evaluation over all other forms of evaluation
b. Peer and supervisory evaluation are not reliable
c. Student raters of teachers are more reliable and valid than other raters
d. Student work and test outcomes are supplementary sources for evaluating teachers
68. Suppose defined 3 levels of computer-assisted instruction: dialogue, tutoring, practice-drill.
Which ones are two higher levels in the correct order?
a. Tutoring and dialogue
b. Practices-drill and tutoring
c. Dialogue and tutoring
d. Practice-drill and dialogue
69. In what condition is the use of the lecture method appropriate?
a. Higher cognitive learning is sought
b. The information is not available
c. The subject matter is quite easy
d. Long term learning is desired
70. Which refers to the time when students learn at a maximum level?
a. Wait time c. Allocated time
b. Engaged time d. Academic learning time
71. What is a sign of the underachiever in the classroom?
a. Resist authority and carry on a power struggle with a teacher.
b. Holds back from class participant unless sure of self
c. Frustrated about quality of work
d. Minimum work output.
72. If after calling on a number of students, a teacher is unable to obtain the desired response,
what should teacher do
a. Ask leading questions
b. Re-teach parts of the lesson that need re-teaching
c. Probe student’s answers.
d. Rephrase the questions
73. For global competitiveness, a school must embark on a proactive change. Which one is a
characteristic of proactive change?
a. radical and inventive c. late in the game
b. imitative of others d. problem-driven
74. Which guideline on the use of the chalkboard should a teacher AVOID?
a. Establish routine uses for the chalkboard
b. While writing, proceed from right to left
c. Don’t talk to the chalkboard while writing on it
d. Limit your board writing to major ideas
75. To teach the democratic process to the pupils, Mabuhay Elementary School decided that the
election of class and school officers shall be patterned after local election of the class and school
officers shall be patterned after local election process. There are qualifications set for candidates,
limited period for campaign and rules for postingcampaign materials, etc. Which of the
following did the school use?
a. Simulation c. Role playing
b. Philips 66 d. Symposium
76. Which is NOT a characteristic of preventive discipline.
a. Proactive c. Inventive
b. Anticipatory d. Reactive.
77. One criterion that has been proposed in the selection and organization of content in the
development section of a lesson plan is balance. When does lesson content possess balance.
a. The content should have practical application for the learners
b. The content is not cluttered by masses of more trivial content
c. The content should enable the learners to experience the broad sweep of content and give them
the opportunity to go deeper
d. The content should help student learns how to learn
78. The burnout malady gets worse if a teacher doesn’t intervene to change whatever areas he or
she can control. Which one can renew a teachers enthusiasm.
a. Engage in self-pity
b. Stick to the job
c. Judge someone else as wrong
d. Initiate changes in job.
79. Although learning can take place anywhere and anytime, the more systematic the teacher, the
greater the probability for success. This points out the need for teachers to:
a. Specify their objectives
b. Plan their lessons
c. Set their teaching priorities
d. Select their instructional materials
80. Below are teachers effective classroom management practices, Except One.
a. Teachers make sure students understand and follow rules and procedures
b. Disruptive behavior is handled every weekend
c. Teachers clearly establish consequences for not following rules
d. Teachers spend more time in the beginning of the year explaining and reminding students of
rules.
81. A teacher’s summary of a lesson serves the following functions except;
a. It links the parts of the less
b. It makes provisions for full participation of the students
c. It clinches the basic ideas or concepts of the lesson
d. It brings together the information that has been discussed
82. Which ones are projected visuals?
a. Graphs on a book c. Realias
b. Models d. Slides
83. The lesson is on the pros and cons of capital punishment. Mr. Milan wants to do high level
thinking and to develop a view of capital punishment from a different perspective. Which
technique will be most appropriate?
a. Lecture c. Role playing
b. Simulation d. Panel discussion
84. Which is used to emphasize individualized instruction?
a. Tutorial group c. Inquiry group
b. Philips 66 d. Task group
85. Here a question: FROM THE DATA PRESENTED FORM GENERALIZATIONS THAT
ARE SUPPORTED BY THE DATA. Under what type of question does this test item fall?
a. Evaluate c. Divergent
b. Convergent d. Application
86. Ms. Estira cannot bring her pupils to the sea for a lesson on marine community. Which of the
following will be closest to an actual experience of marine community?
a. Motion picture on marine community
b. Description of marine community
c. Pictures of marine community
d. Taped lesson of marine community
87. Which can NoT help organizations reduces fears about change?
a. By training people in new skills
b. By keeping people informed about plans
c. By cladestine moves
d. By consultation
88. After a lesson in air pollution, teacher C gives each pupil mimeographed sheets, which
contain statements to which each is expected to react. Examples of these statements are. Do you
in any way contribute to air pollution? What solutions do you propose to minimize, if not
eliminate, air pollution. Then the students are grouped for sharing.
In this case what does the teacher make use of
a. Value sheet c. Rank ordering
b. Conflict story d. Contrived incident
89. Which orders consist of the goal-oriented instructional model?
a. Pre-assessment, specification of objectives, pre-assessment, instruction, evaluation
b. Specification of objectives, pre-assessment, instruction evaluation
c. Pre-assessment, specification of objectives, instruction, evaluation
d. Specification of objectives, evaluation, pre-assessment, instruction
90. Teacher B’s lesson was on abortion. She wanted to get her student’s maximum participation
and reaction. She showed slides on abortion accompanied by an audiotape that presented the
reasons for and against abortion. Teacher took a stand in favor of abortion and came up with all
her justifications. At the end, however, she made clear her stand on abortion. Which did the
teacher use?
a. She made use of value clarifying discussion
b. She made use of contrived incident
c. She made use of simulation
d. She played the role of the devil’s advocate
91. In on of the pages of her reference material, Ms. Estrada finds the life cycle of a frog.
Assuming that the following are available to her, the quickest way to effectively present the life
cycle of a frog to the class is by way of
a. An overhead projector
b. An opaque projector
c. Describing the life cycle
d. A drawing on the chalkboard
92. Below are questions that must be considered in developing appropriate learning activities/
experience, Except one
a. Do the experiences encourage pupils to inquire further?
b. Do the experiences save the pupils from learning difficulties?
c. Can be experiences profit the pupils?
d. Are the experiences in accordance with an increasing amount of learning?
93. Which order of the senses goes with an increasing amount of learning?
a. Sight, hearing, touch, taste and smell
b. Taste and smell, sight , touch, hearing
c. Taste and smell, touch, sight, hearing
d. Taste and smell, touch, hearing, sight
94. Which of the following statements on peer tutoring is true?
a. Teacher has time with more severe learning problems
b. The atmosphere is threatening
c. The social skills of pear tutors are not enhanced
d. the peer tutor’s achievement goes down
95. A lesson in Philippines history was presented by Mrs. Palaroan by making her class view a
videotape on EDSA revolution. The videotape which Mrs. Palaroan used in class points to what
property of instructional media?
a. Manipulative c. Fixative
b. Multi-sensory d. Distributive
96. Read the following teacher-student- situation. Teacher: Why is the process called
photosynthesis? Student: I don’t know. Which questioning technique should the teacher use?
a. Concept c. Clarification
b. Prompting d. Multiple response
97. Miss Lee’s objective is to focus student’s attention on and quickly create interest in a
problem or concept. She makes use of:
a. Task group c. Tutorial group
b. Panel discussion d. Philips 66
98. The content of the lesson must be feasible. This means that:
a. The lesson should be interesting to the student
b. The lesson must be within the capacity of the students
c. The teacher must considered the time needed and resources available
d. The lesson must be useful
99. Which questioning behavior is appropriate:
a. Not allowing a student to complete a long response
b. Repeating all student’s response
c. Allowing choral responses
d. Asking varied questions
100. Research on teacher effective practices has shown the following except:
a. Planning has title impact on student learning
b. Questioning strategies are ineffective monitoring technique
c. Teaching procedures on classroom routines early in the school year are essential
d. Directives should be few and best delivered in a casual manner
101. Teacher Y wants to measure student’s ability to organize thoughts and ideas. Which type of
test is most appropriate?
a. Objectives test
b. Limited response essay
c. Extended response essay
d. Short answer type of test
102. Which of the following refers to organized services specially designed to improve the
adjustment of students?
a. Group growth sessions c. Cumulative records
b. Test profiles d. Guidance program
103. Which tests survey existing problems of academic progress?
a. Achievement tests c. Problem checklist
b. Interest inventories d. Aptitude tests
104. Which of the following statements about guidance is NOT true?
a. Guidance is a continuous process
b. Guidance is concerned with “ Whole” student, not only with his or her intellectual and
academic aspect
c. Guidance is telling a student what is best for him, and advising him about what he should do
d. Guidance is primary concerned with prevention rather than cure
105. Which of the following is NOT a guidance service?
a. Psychological testing
b. Counseling
c. Observation
d. Education placement
106. Which of the following tests is given at the end of instruction?
a. Summative c. formative test
b. Placement test d. diagnostic test
107. Special or exceptional students are such in certain aspects, Except for one:
a. Sensory abilities
b. Gender orientation
c. Mental characteristics
d. Communication abilities
108. Information from achievement tests can be used in the following, Except in:
a. Grading a student
b. Labeling pupils
c. Establishing proficiency
d. Giving feedback regarding effectiveness of learning
109. Which of the following occurs when the teachers have a general tendency to rate all
individuals’ performance at
approximately the same position on the rating scale?
a. Personal bias error c. Logical error
b. Halo effect d. Severity error
110. The environment must be interactive to facilitate learning, which of the following situations
is an example of this?
a. The class copies a list of facts concerning the habitat of insects
b. The teacher lectures on the habitat of insects
c. The class goes out and discovers the habitat of insects
d. The teacher shows posters of the habitat of insects
111. When teachers, administrators and counselors come together to synthesize or coordinate in
interpreting data about a student for the purpose of a more intensive study, this is called
a. Longitudinal study c. Case conference
b. Case study d. Case analysis
112. Which type of test can help teachers predict the probability of success of students in certain
areas or endeavors?
a. Achievement c. Aptitude
b. Intelligence d. Personality
113. Which of the following correctly describes dyslexia?
a. A. It is a developmental expressive writing disorder
b. It is a developmental arithmetic disorder
c. It is a developmental reading disorder
d. It is a developmental articulation disorder
114. Free and compulsory education as mandated in the 1987 constitution holds true
for_____________
a. Elementary and secondary education
b. Education in the primary grades
c. All children of school age
d. Grade VI pupils
115. Readiness pretests is give at the beginning of an instructional unit is a:
a. Summative tests c. Placement test
b. Formative test d. Diagnostic test
116. The distribution of the scores is negatively skewed. This means that:
a. Most of the score are low
b. Most of the scores are high
c. The score are concentrated on the left of the distribution curve and most of the score are low
d. The scores are concentrated on the left of the distribution curve
117. Aside from professional competence, what other important qualification must a teacher
have for guidance work?
a. Similar cultural background with the students
b. Personal qualities, such as warmth, open-mindedness, interest in people
c. Affiliation with a professional group
d. Several year of experience as teacher
118. Which of the following is meant to determine student performance at the beginning of
instruction?
a. Diagnostic assessment
b. Placement assessment
c. Summative assessment
d. Summative assessment
119. Mean is to central tendency as standard deviation is to:
a. Discrimination c. Correlation
b. Level of difficulty d. Variability
120. The following characterize school guidance programs, Except one:
a. A part of every school activity
b. Separate from the general life of the school
c. A function sheared by all
d. Located in every part of the school
121. Which factor is most likely to make a school’s guidance program succeed?
a. Administrative support
b. The availability of the specialist
c. The favorable attitude of teachers toward guidance
d. Located in every part of the school
122. The results if this type of test serve as basis for remedial instruction. What is the type of test
referred to?
a. Prognotic test c. Diagnostic test
b. Speed test d. Achievement test
123. The difficulty index of a test item is 1. This implies that:
a. The test item must be moderate in difficulty because 50% got the item correctly and 50% got it
wrongly
b. The test item must be very difficult because nobody got the item correctly
c. The test item must be neither difficult because nor easy because this depends on the ability of
the students
d. The test item must be very easy because everybody got the item correctly
124. In his conduct of item analysis Mr. Milanes discovered that a significant greater number
from the lower group of the class that from the upper group got item number 10 correctly. This
implies that:
a. The test item is reliable
b. The test item has a negative discriminating power
c. The item has a positive discrimination power
d. The tests item is valid
125. Guidance is concerned with
a. All students, even if some seem not to have problems
b. Students who manifests undesirable behavior only
c. Underachieving students only
d. Students with emotional problems only
126. Which statement explains the primary focus of the non-directive approach in counseling?
a. It focuses in the person’s responsibility and capacity to discover more appropriate behavior
b. It places confidence in a person’s ability to deal with his or her needs through a realistic
process
c. it helps confidence to develop a more rational to deal with his or her needs through a realistic
process
d. it modifies behavior by providing appropriate learning conditions and experiences
127. An algebra test was designed to measure what the students learned at the end of the course.
It was also to predict success in future mathematics subjects. This algebra test functioned as-
a. Diagnostic and placement test
b. An aptitude test
c. An achievement test
d. An aptitude and an achievement test
128. Giftedness is a form of exceptionality. Students who fall under this category demonstrate
high performance in special areas, such as those below-
a. Athletic prowess c. General intellectual ability
b. Creative thinking d. Visual and performing arts
129. Which of the following is the least stable measure of central tendency?
a. Median and mode c. Median
b. Mode d. Mean
130. Which assessment is concerned with identifying learning difficulties during instruction
a. Summative assessment
b. Placement assessment
c. Formative assessment
d. Visual and performing arts
131. These are significant information about a student, gathered through the use of various
techniques, assembled, summarized and organized in such a way that they may be used
effectively:
a. Cumulative records
b. Test profile
c. Personal inventories
d. Case studies
132. Research findings show that autism is
a. Either more prevalent among girls or among boys depending on their nationality
b. Equally prevalent among boys and girls
c. More prevalent among boys than among girls
d. More prevalent among girls than among boys
133. In interpreting test results which statements are true?
I. A raw score itself is meaningless but becomes meaningful once it is interpreted
II. An analysis of test results is useless without interpretation
III. Test result interpretation is possible without analysis
IV. The use of statistical techniques gives meaning to student’s scores
a. I, II, IV c. I, III, IV
b. I, II, III d. II, III, IV
134. This guidance service to help students carry out their plans and act on their choices so that
they become adjusted to their chosen field or career is called:
a. Counseling c. placement
b. information d. follow-up
135. The tendency for the rather to use only the lower end of rating scale in rating performance is
referred to as
a. Personal bias error c. Generosity error
b. Severity error d. logical error
136. What must be employed to continuously strengthen a school guidance program
a. Assignment of responsibilities
b. research
c. Evaluation
d. Program Planning
137. Which tests are given before instruction?
a. Placement c. Summative
b. Formative d. Achievement
138. The operation “Return to the basics” saw its embodiment in the _________
a. National Elementary Achievement Test
b. New Secondary Education Curriculum
c. National Secondary Achievement Test
d. New Elementary School Curriculum
139. The following are computed difficulty indices: 1, . 80, .50, .30 which one indicates the most
difficulty item?
a. 30 b. 50 c. 1 d. 80
140. Which of the following explains why the plateau phenomenon of ten found in human being
does NOT exist in animal learning experiments?
a. Animals are unable to profit from errors
b. The incentive in animal learning is constant
c. Animals have weak incentive in learning
d. Animals are unable to spurt in learning
141. All are components of remedial guidance in the classroom, Except:
a. Dealing with discipline problems
b. Dealing with poor study habits and skills
c. Dealing with underachievement
d. Dealing with career choices or vocational plans
142. Which method provides a more or less objective assessment of different aspects of an
individual?
a. Home visits
b. Counseling interview
c. Observations
d. Standardized testing
143. Which of the following behavior indicates that a child has developed conventional
maturity? The behavior is based on _________
a. The desire to avoid severe physical punishment by a superior authority
b. Personal decisions based on his satisfaction
c. The expectations of the group or society in general to gain approval
d. Internalized ideals to avoid self condemnation rather than social censure
144. A school guidance program should arise mainly out of:
a. The curriculum and other programs of the school
b. The school administrator’s directives from his/her perceptions
c. The students’ needs and the problems
d. The availability of guidance resources in the schools
145. A test in which the options are dependent upon a foundation of some sort such as graphical
representation, paragraph, and pictures is:
a. Contained-options test
b. Setting-and-options test
c. Structured-response
d. Stem-and-options test
146. In the scoring of essay tests, experts advise teachers to score all answer to an easy question
before going to the next question for which reason?
a. It reduce the chances that ratings will be influenced by a halo effect
b. It is more convenient
c. It is easier to apply the criteria more uniformly when considering only a single task at a time
when going from task to task for each student
d. Checking is faster this way
147. Whose performance does stanine of 5 represent?
a. Performance of the upper 40%
b. Performance of the upper 20%
c. Performance of the lower 20%
d. Performance of the middle 20%
148. In making and reporting observations of students’ behavior, which ones should be avoided?
a. Descriptions of student’s gestures and expressions
b. The names of other students with whom the one being observed interact
c. Opinions and judgment about students
d. Direct quotations of student’s statements
149. This is the stage when the learner become confused and starts to experience identity crisis.
This is the ____________
a. Late childhood stage
b. Early childhood stage
c. Early adulthood stage
d. Adolescent stage
150. All are basic functions of psychological tests EXCEPT ONE.
a. For selection or admission
b. Identification of students who need special attention
c. For promotion or acceleration
d. Integration of life experiences and future directions of students
151. Upon what shall a teacher base the evaluation of the learner’s scholarship
a. Merit, learner’s scholarship
b. Merit, quality of performance
c. Merit, attendance
d. Quality of performance, learner’s scholarship
152. The following are some of what a professional teachers may NOT do EXCEPT:
a. Accept remuneration from tutorials other than what is authorized for such service
b. Make deductions from student’s scholastic ratings as a punishment
c. Base the evaluation of the learner’s work on merit and quality of academic performance
d. Inflict corporal punishment an offending learners
153. The value of education, deference to authority, and filial piety in the Philippines in an
influenced of
a. Taoist tradition c. Buddhist tradition
b. Confucianist tradition d. Hindu tradition
154. Which statement regarding teacher’s ethical behavior is wrong?
a. A teacher may not fall in love with his/her students
b. Teachers shall support one another at all times when the best interest of the learners, the
school, or the profession at stake
c. A teachers may submit to the proper authorities any justifiable criticisms against an associate
d. It is every teacher’s responsibility to seek correctives for any unprofessional and unethical
conduct of any associate
155. Which is the first and foremost concern of a teacher? The interest and welfare of:
a. Learners
b. Colleagues
c. Parents
d. The teaching profession
156. The ideal society in the context of Plato is one where:
a. There is hope c. Justice reigns
b. Love prevails d. Faith matters
157. The survivors of a shipwreck are now packed in a lifeboat which may capsize unless partly
deloaded. Which of the following acts will be morally justifiable?
a. Pushing the young and old ones and leaving them behind to drown
b. Trying to save everyone as much as possible
c. Shooting some passengers and leaving them behind
d. Doing nothing and waiting for the boat to capsize
158. For the advocates of value clarification, values are
a. Universal c. Objective
b. Personal d. Unchanging
159. With regard to business, which does the Code of Ethics NOT say about teachers?
a. A teacher shall maintain a good reputation with respect to debts loans and other financial
matters
b. No teachers shall be financially interested in any commercial venture involving textbooks and
other school commodities where he/she can exercise official influence
c. no teacher shall act as agent of textbooks and other school commodities where he/she can
exercise official influence
d. a teacher may not engage in any kind of business
160. The more consumeristics a person is, the more he/she gets attached to this material world,
the farther he is from the universal self, the more miserable he/she becomes. This is a teaching
a. Confucianism c. Hinduism
b. Taoism d. Buddhism
161. Who believed that there should be less reliance on the school, and the world of work?
a. Paolo Freire c. Paul Goodman
b. Ivan Illich d. Jean Paul Sartre
162. Human dignity is inherent in every person. This means that
a. The inner worth of a person depends on what he has
b. The inner worth of a person depends on how he/she looks
c. The inner worth of a person depends on what he can do
d. The inner worth of a person is in him/her she looks
163. Which of the following runs counter to the development of honesty and accountability?
a. Being vigilant about weights and measures used in the markets
b. Equal payment of government employee’s productivity pay
c. Payment of just wages to workers and employees
d. Transparent in operations of the barangay and

other organizations through public reporting

164. Which are said to be our wellspring of excellence?
a. Third largest English-speaking nation, tiger economy, inventor of people’s power revolution
b. Tiger economy, superior human resources
c. Tiger largest English-speaking nation, superior human resources, inventor of people’s power
revolution
d. Tiger economy, the inventor of people’s power revolution, superior, human resources
165. Which among these goals for change was proposed by the moral Recovery Program?
a. A sense of justice and outrage over its violation, a sense of national pride, a sense of
seriousness
b. A sense of national guide, a sense of seriousness, sense of common good
c. A sense of national guide, a sense of seriousness, sense of national justice and outrage over its
violation
d. A sense of national guide, a sense of the common good, a sense of justice and outrage over its
violation
166. The code of ethics for teachers states that school officials shall encourage and attend to the
professional growth of all teachers. According to the Code school officials can do this by:
a. Giving them due recognition for meritorious performance by allowing them to participate in
conferences and training programs ecommending teachers for promotion
b. Recommending teachers for promotion, organizing teachers in a professional organization
c. Allowing them to participate in conferences and training programs
d. Organizing teachers into a professional organization, giving them due recognition for
meritorious performance and recommending teachers for promotion
167. Which thrust on value formation is intended to help the students identify and be aware of
their values?
a. Analysis c. Value inculcation
b. Value clarification d. Moral development
168. The idea that there should be less reliance on the school and greater use of education
potential of the community and the world of work is the essence of:
a. Community-based education
b. Formal education
c. Multi-grade teaching
d. Mobile teaching
169. It is said that the big drama development is played out in small scenes. Which one does not
serve as a further explanation of this statement?
a. Ordinary things done by ordinary people are the solid building blocks on which a nation
develops
b. Details can make a significant difference
c. Much of our personal development and progress of the nation depends on how extraordinary
well we do the ordinary things
d. Let us give attention to major things because they are the ones that matter
170. Which of the following characteristics does not apply to Plato’s just society?
a. The artists are creative
b. The leaders are wise
c. The soldiers are courageous
d. The working class are temperant
171. Martin Buber’s “ dialogic principle” requires as restructuring of society which can be
achieved by:
a. Communism which cannot tolerate multiplicity and freedom
b. Fascism which cannot allow dialogue
c. Democracy which requires centralistic political set up
d. Democratic socialism which advocates a genuine dialogue life
172. Which of the following statements about society is TRUE?
a. Revolution produce the opposite of their goals
b. Ethnic cleansing leads to social unanimity
c. “ Social education “ leads to a mature society
d. Cooperative education is a means to Social education?
173. Which of the following statements defines ethics?
a. The science of correct thinking
b. The study of being a general
c. The study of the nature of human knowledge
d. The study of rightness or wrongness of human knowledge
174. Which of the following dose not characterize fascism?
a. A government of laws and not of men
b. Rigid hierarchy and authority of single leader
c. Militarist, nationalist and dictatorial regime
d. It justifies any of its means by its end

175. Which of the following is not Anarchism?

a. Freedom and responsibility
b. Social organization without hierarchy
c. Extreme view of individual freedom
d. Destruction of the state and its supporting

176. In which of the following acts would you attribute responsibility?

a. A barkeeper sells liquor to a minor not knowing he is an adult
b. A barkeeper sells liquor to a minor not knowing it is illegal to do so
c. A barkeeper sells liquor to a client not knowing it is contaminated with poison
d. A barkeeper sells liquor not knowing it would cause the death of a diabetic person
177. The values of the people are revealed in the following approaches, Except One
a. When they are asked to choose freely among alternative
b. When they act out what they choose but for a short while and not repeatedly
c. When they act out what they choose
d. When they are asked to choose among alternatives
178. To attain harmony in society people must rule their subjects with benevolence . whose
teaching was this?
a. Mohammad c. Buddha
b. Kung-fu-zu d. Lao Tzu
179. The concept that school failed to encourage positive learning and were opposed to the
production of independently-minded adults was popularized by:
a. Paolo Freire c. Paul Goodman
b. John Dewey d. Ivan Illich
180. Which type of conscience is possessed by one who is extremely rigorous and is constantly
afraid of committing evil?
a. Scrupulous c. Certain conscience
b. Lax conscience d. Certain conscience
181. The following EXCEPT ONE are the strength of Filipino character
a. Pakikipagkapwa-tao c. Frankness
b. Family orientation d. Joy of humor
182. Which of the following is the Aristotlelian definition of happiness?
a. One’s ultimate achievements in life
b. A state made perfectly the aggregation of good things
c. The satisfaction of all desires and the absence of pain
d. The experience of the fulfillment of possibilities
183. One of the following statements about passion is NOT TRUE?
a. Passion does not affect voluntariness
b. Passion may completely destroy freedom
c. passion tends to blind the judgment of the intellect
d. passion cannot affect freedom

184. Which does not characterize a non-violent society?

a. Solves problems in non-adversarial way
b. Prefers indigenous ways of solving problems
c. A passive society
d. Solves problems in a non-confrontational way

185. Which statement holds true of values clarification?

a. Values are objective; no person has the right set of values to pass on to others
b. It is meant to help students get at their own feelings, ideas, and belief’s; no person has the
right set of values to pass on to others
c. No person has the right set of values to pass on to others; values are independent of time
d. Values are independent of time, place, and persons; meant to help students get at their own
feelings and ideas

186. Based on the Code of Ethics for teachers, which of the following may teachers Not do?
a. Welcomes the opportunity to lead in barangay
b. Studies and understands local customs and traditions
c. Deducts points from students scholastic ratings as a form of punishment
d. Attends church and worship of his choice joy and humor
187. Which type of justice implies the duty of one individual to give another what he is due?
a. International justice
b. Distributive justice
c. Social justice
d. Commutative justice

188. It is said that our level of achievement is always lower than our level of aspiration. This
suggests that:
a. We should aim high
b. We should not be over ambitious
c. We should think and act local
d. We should

1. In one of his poems, the Filipino author Zulueta da Costa said that the Filipinos are like the
Molave. What figure of speech was used?
a. simile b. personification c. metaphor d. hyperbole

2. Helen of Troy is the face who launched a thousand ships .What figure of speech is used in the
given sentence?
a. ellipsis b. synecdoche c. alliteration d. irony

3. Si Ana at Ariadne ay masisipag na mag-aaral. Ano ang mali sa pangungusap?

a. Si b. at c. masisipag d. mag-aaral e. Walang mali

4. ________ mo ng mga damit ang iyong kapatid sa dormitory.

a. Dalhin b. Dalahin c. Dalhan d. Dadalahin

5. ________ sa batas, hindi maaaring isakdal ng dalawang beses ang isang akusado para sa
iisang pagkakasala.
a. Maliban b. Ayon * c. Ayon kay d. Marahil

6. nawalang-malay : hinimatay : : naghihingalo : ______

a. nasa bingit ng kamatayan* b. namatay c. napagod d. nahihilo
7. Isahan : gaano : : _______
a.maramihan : gaa-gaano b.maramihan : gaanu-ano
c.maramihan : gaga-gaano d.maramihan : ganu-ano

8. Masalimuot ang buhay ng taong kapit sa patalim.

a. malungkot b. masaya c. magulo d. mapayapa

9. Naglipana sa lansangan ang masamang-loob lalo na kung gabi.

a. namasyal b. nagkalat c. nagtatago d. nagmuni-muni

10. Siya ang “Ama ng Zarsuelang Tagalog”?

a. Aurelio Tolentino b. N.V.M Gonzalez c. Alejandro Abadilla d. Severino Reyes

11. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang HINDI epiko ng Mindanao?

a. Indarapatra at Sulayman b. Alim c. Bidasari d. Bantugan

12. Ang titik “ng” sa Alpabetong Filipino ay nagmula sa alpabetong _____.

a. Ingles b. Abecedario c. Romano d. Abakada

13. Ilang titik ang hiniram ng Alpabetong Filipino mula sa Alpabetong Ingles?

a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9

14. Aling salita ang klaster?

a. palma b. basta c. pluma d. basket

15. ”Ang aking pag-ibig ay tanging sa iyo lamang .” Ibigay ang ayos ng pangungusap na ito.

a. payak b. tambalan c. karaniwan d. di-karaniwan

16. Aling Salita ang may diptonggo?

a. buwis b. bayan c. buhay d. iwas

17. Ang epiko tungkol sa kasaysayan ng pag-iibigan ng mga bathala na nagmula sa Iloilo ay ang
______ .

a. Hinilawod b. Biag-ni- Lam-ang c. Bidasari d. Maragtas

18. Anong teorya ng wika ang nagsasabing ang wika ay nailikha bunga ng masidhing damdamin
ng tao?
a. Bow-wow b. Pooh-pooh c. Ding-dong d. Yoheho

19. ”Natutulog ba ang Diyos?” Ang pahayag sa itaas ay halimbawa ng anong uri ng tayutay?

a. Pagdaramdam b. Tanong Retorikal c. Pagtanggi d. Pagsalungat

20. Ano ang nagging pangalan ng wikang pambansa noong 1959?

a. Pilipino b. Filipino c. Tagalog d. Wikang Pambansa

21. The captain of the pep squad are working feverishly to boost the team`s morale. No error.

a. pep-squad b .are c. to boost d. team`s morale . e. No error

22. The teachers as well as the guidance counselor is accompanying the students on a field trip.
No error.

a. teachers b. guidance counselor c. is accompanying d. on a field trip e. No error

23. Simba and Nala is my favorite characters in The Lion King. No error.

a. and b. is c. The Lion King d. No error

24. Tne committee are meeting on Friday to discuss the details of the charaity ball. No error.

a. are meeting b. on Friday c. to discuss d. charity ball e. No error

25. Mumps, which are a dangerous disease, can be prevented through vaccination . No error.

a. Mumps b. are c. disease d. vaccination e. No error

26. The student leaders ______ surveys to determine the students` need since last week.

a. has conducted b. have conducted c. has conducting d. have been conducting

27. The President _______ the bill on Children`s Right last Monday.

a. vetoes b. vetos c. vetoed d. vetoid

28. The Committee on Ethics ____ every Friday.

a. meets b. meet c. has met d. have met

29. It is estimated that in the present century, there ______ about 954 million illiterate adults.

a. is b. are c. was d. were

30. In 1960, 58% of illiterates ______ women; the corresponding figure today is more than 60%.

a. is b. are c. was d. were

31. The warm humid air irritated he.

a. irritated he. b. irritated him. c .irritation him. d. irritating him.

32. Keep on reading and you will learn more.

a. Keep on reading b. Keep to read c. Keep on read d. Keeping on reading

33. Even though Mariel studied hard, she got the highest mark.

a. Even though Mariel studied hard b. But Mariel hard

c. Because Mariel studied hard d. While Mariel studied hard

34. The Carlos Palanca Memorial Award for Literature were given to different literary pieces
that excel in their respective genres.

a. were given to different literary pieces b. is given by different literary pieces

c. are given at different literary pieces d. is given to different literary pieces

35. We hike Mt.Apo half an hour.

a. half an hour. b. for half an hour. c. at half an hour. d. by half an hour.

36. Kmono: ______ :: kilt : Scandinavian

a. Indian b. Indonesian c. Chinese d. Japanese

37. king of beats : lion :: king of birds : _______

a. robin b. sparrow c. eagle d. falcon

38. Jewish : kosher : : halal

a. Muslim b. Buddhist c. Christian d. Pagans

39. Catholic : priest : : Buddhist : ______

a. Imam b. rabbi c. lama d. pope

40. laity : lay people : : clergy : ______

a. clergymen b. clerics c. clergy d. clerks

41. Ano ang tamang ispeling ng salitang barbershop sa Filipino?

a. barbersyap b. barbershop c.barbershap d. barbersiyap

42. ” Ikaw ang aking mahal.” Ibigay ang ayos ng pangungusap na ito .

a. payak b. tambalan c. karaniwan d. di-karaniwan

43. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang HINDI tulang pasalaysay?

a. Moro-moro b. Epiko c. Awit d. korido

44. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang HINDI epiko ng Bisaya?

a. Lagda b. Maragtas c. Bidasari d. Hinilawod

45. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang isang epiko ng mga Ifugao?

a. Ibalon at Aslon b.Hudhod c. Biag ni Lam-ang d. Haraya

46. ”Nagtaksil si Adrian.” Ibigay ang ayos ng pangungusap na ito.

a. payak b. tambalan c. karaniwan d. di-karaniwan

47. Ito ay ang pag-aaral ng makabuluhang tunog ng isang wika.

a. Ponolohiya * b. Morpolohiya c. Sintaks d. Palabuuan

48. Siya ang may-akda ng nobelang “Banaag at Sikat”?

a. Jose dela Cruz b. Lope K. Santos c. Jose Corazon de Jesus d. Emilio Jacinto

49. Isang awiting bayan na tungkol sa pakikipagkaibigan ang _____ .

a. sambotani b. salagintok c. daeleng d. oyayi

50. Siya ay si “Dolores Manapat”.

a. Graciano Lopez Jaena b. N.V.M. Gonzalez c. Andres Bonifacio d. Marcelo H. del Pilar

51. The process of comparing one quantity with corresponding standard is called ______ .

a. Measurement b. Formulation c. Interpolation d. Extrapolation

52. Matter is anything that has ______.

a. Weight and volume b. Mass and volume c. Weight and mass d. Mass and shape

53. A student walks from home to school 3 blocks away and then returns home for lunch. After
lunch, he goes back to school. His total displacement is _______ .

a. 0 block b. 3 block c. 6 blocks d. 9 blocks

54. What property of matter is involved in the sign, “Fasten Your Seat Belt”?

a. Impenetrability b. Inertia c. Acceleration d. Interaction

55. Which of the following situations is true as a boat moves from salty sea to fresh water river?

a. It sinks deeper. b. It floats higher. c. It stays at the same level. d. It moves faster.

56. Which of the following is conserved when a pendulum is swinging?

a. Mass b. Momentum c. Energy d. Weight

57. Which statement best explains why ice is a good refrigerant ?

a. It cools by evaporation. b.It absorbs heat while melting.

c.It conducts heat quickly. d.It does not melt inside the refrigerator.

58. An object becomes positively charge if it _________ .

a. gains protons b. gains electron c. loses protons d. loses electrons

59. The force that holds the atoms and molecules together to form larger bodies is known as

a. Gravitational force b. Electromagnetic force

c. Weak nuclear force d. Strong nuclear force

60. What is the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in n=4?

61. It is characterized by shared experiences and mutual responsibilities.

a. Gesellschaft b. Gemeinchaft c. Enculturation d. Acculturation

62. It features the exchange of goods, money and services .

a. Gesellschaft b. Gemeinchaft c. Enculturation d. Acculturation

63. The longest revolt in the Philippine History is called the ______ .

a. Dagohoy revolt b .Diego Silang revolt c. Gabriela Silang revolt d. Palaris revolt
64. Violation of human rights is a violation of the _____ of persons.

a. dignity b. intelligence c. emotions d. freedom

65. What is the foundation of genuine peace and reconciliation?

a.Joy b.Confrontation
c.happinness
d.Social justice

66. What was our government under the 1935 constitution ?

a. Revolutionary b. Monarchy c. Commonwealth d. Military

67. What values are being promoted by the Philippine Government when it launched the “Juan
Time” project in 2011 ?

a. Punctuality b. Austerity c. Palabra de Honor d. Close family ties

68. If you seeing your ways of doing things as the right way and everybody else`s as the wrong
way, you tend to have the the attitude called

a. Cultural relativism b. Ethical relativism c. Ethnocentrism d. Xenophobia

69. It refers to any liability to pay money arising out of a contract , express or implied .

a. Poll tax b. Tax c. Debt d.Debtors

70. He coined the term “survival of the fittest.”

a. August Comte b .Karl Marx c. Herbert Spencer d. Arnold Toynbee

71. The biologist who probably first used the term “cell” was ______.

a. Hooke b. Browne c. Leeuwenhoek d. Schleiden

72. The following means help in controlling floods , except

a. Reforestation b. Deforestation c. Crop rotation d. Construction of flood ways

73. Farmers add commercial fertilizers to the soil to ______ .

a. Speed up the decay of bacteria b. Add mineral content

c. Activate the growth of earthworms d. Enhance the growth of the roots

74. What phylum classification is the transmitter of dengue?

a. Arthropoda b. Hemichordate c. Echinodermata d. Annelida

75. A col-blooded animals is one that _______ .

a. lacks red corpuscles b. lacks white corpuscles

c. has a variable body temperature d. has fixed body temperature

76. Which of the following organisms is included in the kingdom Plantae ?

a.Magnolidae b. Fungi c. Protozoa d. Prokaryotes

77. The molecule that allows plants to capture energy from the sun is the ______ .

a. ATP b. carbon dioxide c. chlorophyll d.sugar

78. What do you call the natural environment where a certain organism lives and thrives ?

a. Community b. Habitat c. Country d. Ecosystem

79. Ang gintong panahon ng Panitikan ng Pilipinas ay ang panahon ng _______ .

a. Amerikano b. Hapones c. Kastila d. Kontemporaryo

80. Ang may-akda ng tulang “Ako Ang Daigdig”.

a. Alejandro Abadilla b. Jose Corazon de Jesus c. Aurelio Tolentino d. Amado Hernandez

81. The local basketball players were supported by Fil-American imports . this group _____
efforts.

a. Complicated the team b. Complimented the team

c. Complemented the team d. completed the team

82. Did you understand her response to the judges? Here`s the answer.

a. Not very b. Not really c. Certainly d. On the other hand

83. I have but one life to give and I am willing to give it to my country ,not everyone is given
this chance. Justice Abad Santos answered the Japanese soldiers. This finds an equivalent in
valor of :

a. Jose Rizal b. Marcelo del Pilar c. Pre.Aquino d. Governor Aguinaldo

84. The human Body temperature is

a. 37 F b. 98.4 F c. 104 F d. 445 F

85. The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangular park is 3 : 2. If a man cycling
along the boundary of the park at the speed of 12 km/hr completes one round in 8 minutes, then
the area of the park (in sq. m) is:

a. 15360 b. 153600 c. 30720 d. 307200

86. Your father isn’t working anymore, __________?

a. is he b. isn’t he c. has he d. hasn’t he

87. Which among the sound below is a voiceless sound?

a. /dz/ b ./g/ c. /z/ d. /sh/

88. All of the following are examples of input devices EXCEPT

a. scanner b. mouse c. printer d. keyboard

89. _______ is data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful way .

a. A process b. Information c. Software d. Storage

90. _______ is the heart of the computer and this is

where all the computing is done .

a. Keyboard b. Monitor c. CPU d. printer

91. Which element in the periodic table has the symbol Ca ?

a. Cadmium b.Calcium c. Carbon d. Californium

92. Ions are formed by _______ .

a. gaining or losing electrons b. gaining or losing protons

b. c.sharing protons d. sharing electrons

93. All of the following are characteristics of metals, except _______ .

a. good conductor b. brittleness * c. malleability d. ductility

94. In flame test, what is the color of the flame if there is a presence of boron in a solution ?

a. Brick red b. Yellow gold c. Royal blue d. Bright green

95. The chemical reaction that releases heat energy during the process is called _______ .
a. Endothermic reaction b. Exothermic reaction c. Synthesis reaction d. Decomposition

96. Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?

a. Melting of candle b. Rusting of iron c. Dissolving sugar d. Boiling of water

97. A change in state from solid to gas without passing the liquid state is called _____ .

a. Solidification b. Evaporation c. condensation d. sublimation

98. Which warning label indicates a chemical property of the material being labeled?

a. Fragile b. Handle with care c.Shake well d. Flammable

99. Which scientist paved the way for modern exploration by advancing the theory that planets
revolve around the sun ?

a. Ptolemy b. Aristotle c. Copernicus d. Harvey

100. The Philippines lies in the region where many volcanoes are active. This region is known as
_____.

a. Wheel of Fire b. Ring of fire c. Volcanic Rim d. Archipelagic Fault Line

101. If the probability that it will rain today is 5/8, what is the probability that it will not?

a. 1/8 b. 3/8 c. 1/4 d. 100%

102. The degree of the term -4x^2 y, is _____.

a. 4th b. 1st c. 2nd d. 3rd

103. If x is an odd integer and y is an even integer ,

which of the following is an even integer?

a. 2x-y-1 b.x^2+y c. x^2+3y+1 d. 4x-1

104. The difference between gross profit and cost of goods sold is known as ______ .

a. markdown b. discount c. net profit d. invoice price

105. The greatest common divisor (GCD) of 91,39 and 78 is ______ .

106. The property of real numbers which describes (5+6)-3 = -3 + (5+6) is _______.
a. Commulative b. Associative c. Distributive

d. Reflexive

107. Which is a proportion ?

a. 5:4 = 15 : 12 b. 8:3 = 16 : 9 c. 4: 5 = 12 : 10

d. 1/2 : 7 = 5: 2

108. 1/8 in percent is ______ .

a. 10.5 % b. 12.5 % c. 14.5 % d. 16.5 %

109. Simplify this equation ( 8/9 – 1/3) / (3/4-1/6 )

a. 21/20 b. 20/21 c. 19/20 d. 20/19

110. The least common multiple (LCM ) of 18 and 24 is ______ .

a. 6 b.24 c. 36 d.72

111. Solve for the value of x to make the proportion x : 8 = 16 true.

112. What do you call a triangle with equal sides ?

a.scalene b.equilateral c.isoceles d.right

113. Which of the following numbers is prime?

a. 91 b. 121 c. 101 d. 119

114. In how many ways can a photographer arrange 6 people in a row to pose for a photograph?

a. 30 b. 600 c.120 d. 720

115. If April 18, 2014 fell on Friday, in which day will April 18, 2016 fall ?

a. Monday b. Tuesday c. Thursday d. Sunday

116. Martial law remained in force until 1981 under Proclamation # ______ .

a. 1081 b. 1425 c. 9994 d. 7610

117. The process by which a person learns the requirements of the culture by which he or she is
surrounded, and acquires values and behaviors that are appropriate or necessary in that culture is
called ______ .

a. assimilation b. enculturation c. cultural relativism d. acculturation

118. The exchange of cultural features that results when groups of individuals from different
cultures come into continuous first-hand contact. The original cultural patterns of either or both
groups may be altered, but the groups remain distinct.

a. assimilation b. enculturation c. cultural relativism d. acculturation

119. The commander of the American and Filipino forces in Bataan was ______ .

a. Gen. Arthur MacArthur b. Gen. Douglas MacArthur

c. Gen.Jonathan Wainright d. Gen. Edward P. King

120. The first American Civil Governor was ______ .

William Howard Taft b. Wesley Merritt c.Arthur MacArthur d. Murray

121. To move forward through the tabs

a. CTRL+TAB b. CTRL+SHIFT+TAB c.SHIFT+TAB d.Noneofthe

122. William Shakespeare showed composure in front of his critics amidst countless derision .
The underlined word means :

a. agitation b. fear c. aplomb d. nervousness

123. Unti-unti niyang natalos ang kahalagahan ng pag-aaral nang Makita niyang walang hanap-
buhay ang walang pinag-aralan .

a. nabatid b.nawala c.naitago d.nahiram

124. What is the units digits of the product of the 1 000 smallest prime numbers?

125. Find the largest prime divisor of (2^16-1).

a. 13 b. 17 c. 257 d. 65 535

126. An atom that does not react with another atom

a. is inert b. is an ion c. is an isotope d. forms a polar bond with water

127. Down syndrome is a classic example of

a. deletion b. nondisjunction c.XXY Syndrome d. mosaic chromosomes

128. How many significant figures are there in 120.400 ?

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

129. This was a prize winning-poem of Rizal when he was a student in UST. This poem proved
that an Indio was not only equal but also more superior than the Spaniards in poetry writing.

a. To the Filipino Youth b. They ask Me For Verses

c. Hymn to Talisay d. Kundiman

130. In this poem,Rizal noted the role of religion in attaining good education.

a.Remembrance to my Hometown b.Our Mother Tongue

c.To Education d.Intimate alliance between religion and good education

131. Fossils are mostly to be found in _______ .

a. Sedimentary rocks b. Igneous rocks c. Metamorphic rocks d. Plutonic rocks

132. The segmented worm that can be used to facilitate anticoagulation is the _____ .

a. Earthworm b. Leech* c. Flatworm d. Remora

133. Ang may-akda ng “Kahapon ,Ngayon at Bukas” ay si ________.

a. Aurelio Tolentino b. Juan Abad c. Alejandro Abadilla d. Severino Reyes

134. Isang awiting bayan na tungkol sa paglilibing ang _______.

a. umbay b. kundiman c. sambotani d.s oliranin

135. The highest mountain in the continent of Africa is ______ .

a. Mt.Everest b. Mt.Kilimanjaro c. Mt. Fuji d. Mt. Apo

136. The “yellow race “ is also known as :

a. Caucasians b. Mongoloids c.Negroids d.Malays

137. The function by which schools help children to participate effectively in larger society is
called :
a. Socialization b. Education c. Enculturation d. Acculturation

138. What phase of the Moon is observed when it cannot be seen at all because it passes directly
between the earth and the Sun ?

a. New Moon b. First quarter c. Full Moon d. Last quarter

139. May sagisag panulat na Paralitiko at ang tinaguriang “Utak ng Himagsikan” , ay si

_______.

a. Emilio Jacinto b. Antonio Luna c. Jose Corazon de Jesus d. Apolinario Mabini

140. Catalysts accomplish their work by reducing a reaction`s

a. kinetic energy b. chemical energy c. potential energy d. activation energy

141. Newton's first law of motion states that __________.

a. when a force acts on an object, its acceleration is in the same direction as the force
b.when a force is applied on an object, there is an equal force applied by the object in the
opposite direction.
c.an object will remain at rest or keep moving unless a force acts on it .
d.acceleration is calculated by dividing the force exerted on an object by the mass of the object

142. In whose presidency was the famous MIRACLE RICE produced?

a. Ferdinand Marcos…… b.Fidel Ramos c.Joseph Estrada d.Sergio Osmena

143. In Economics, __________ is the rise in the general level of prices of goods and services in
an economy a period of time.

a. Inflation ……. b. mercantilism c. depression d. free trade

144. Ito ay ang pahapyaw na pagbasa.

a. Sintaks b. Skimming ….. c. Sesura d. Sukat

145. Which among the words below has the /sh/ sound?

a. sober b. leisure ….. c. shallow d.salient

146. This pertains to the pauses or rests in speech.

a. Pitch b. Juncture…. c. Stress d. Intonation

147. What is the smallest positive number that is a multiple of both 15 and 18?
a. 90 …… b. 180 c. 75 d.72

148. Simplify this (2^-1)(2^2)(2^0).

a. 1 b. 2 …. c. 4 d. 0

149. This court shall have jurisdiction over civil and criminal case involving graft and corrupt
practices and such offenses committed by public officers and employees in relation to their
offices as may be determined by law.

a. Court of Appeals b. Regional Trial Courts c. Sandiganbayan …. d. Supreme Court

150. Which of the following best describes the science of Ecology?

a. Living things b. Rocks c. Life and environment …..

d. Weather and climate

-End of General Education-

-GOODLUCK!-

1.A 31.B 61.B 91.B 121.A

2.B 32.A 62.A 92.B 122.C
3.A 33.C 63.A 93.C 123.A
4.C 34.D 64.A 94.D 124.A
5.A 35.B 65.D 95.B 125.C
6.D 36.D 66.C 96.B 126.A
7.A 37.C 67.A 97.D 127.B
8.C 38.A 68.C 98.D 128.D
9.B 39.C 69.C 99.C 129.A
10.D 40.A 70.C 100.B 130.D
11.B 41.B 71.A 101.B 131.A
12.D 42.D 72.B 102.D 132.B
13.B 43.A 73.B 103.C 133.A
14.C 44.C 74.A 104.C 134.A
15.D 45.B 75.C 105.B 135.B
16.C 46.C 76.A 106.A 136.B
17.A 47.B 77.C 107.A 137.A
18.B 48.B 78.B 108.B 138.A
19.B 49.B 79.B 109.B 139.D
20.A 50.D 80.A 110.D 140.D
21.B 51.A 81.C 111.B 141.C
22.C 52.B 82.C 112.B 142.A
23.B 53.B 83.A 113.C 143.A
24.A 54.B 84.A 114.D 144.B
25.B 55.A 85.B 115.A 145.B
26.D 56.C 86.A 116.A 146.B
27.C 57.B 87.D 117.B 147.A
28.A 58.D 88.C 118.D 148.B
29.B 59.D 89.B 119.D 149.C
30.D 60.D 90.C 120.A 150.C
March 2017 Let Exam Items

This might help you. Kindly find reliable sources to understand them better.

Black sheep

☑ Idiom

Love sonnets
☑ Ophelia Dimalanta

Tatlong tuldok na sunod sunod

☑ Ellipses

Phantom of Delight
☑ Metaphor

Tinkle, tinkle, tinke

☑ Onomatopoeia

Naghihiwalay sa mga salita

☑ Kuwit

Pangatnig na nagbubukod
☑ Pamukod

Largest desert
☑ Sahara
First religious missionary in the Philippines
☑ Augustinians

Founder of La Solidaridad/Greatest Orator

☑ Graciano Lopez-Jaena

Ang paksa ay ibinibigay bago magsimula ang talumpati

☑ Impromptu

Term of Marcelo H. del Pilar to friars

☑ Frailocracia

Arena theater proponent

☑ Severino Montano

Released by plants at night

☑ Carbon dioxide

Sala theater proponent

☑ Naty Crame Rogers

Shape of a brick
☑ Rectangle

Protein shell of a virus

☑ Capsid

Hair-like structure
☑ Cilia
Author of Annabel Lee
☑ Edgar Allan Poe

Novels in letters
☑ Epistolary

Birthplace of Rizal
☑ Calamba, Laguna

Real name of Mark Twain

☑ Samuel (Langhorne) Clemens

Writ of Amparo
☑ Right to life, liberty, and security

Writ of Habeas Corpus

☑ Demand presence of the accused

Penicillin discoverer
☑ Alexander Fleming

Author of Doctrina Christiana

☑ Fray Juan de Plasencia

Light travels fastest

☑ Air

Protons of Silicon
☑ 14
Fungi
☑ Yeast

Law of Bicameralism
☑ Jones Law

Pagbabagong anyo ng bayan

☑ Reduccion

Permutation 9P9
☑ 362,880

Absolute mean
☑ 14.35/14.5

Agreement between Legazpi and Datu Sikatuna

☑ Blood Compact (Sandugo)

Hierarchy of Needs proponent

☑ Maslow

Oldest religion in Asia

☑ Hinduism

1. The Spaniards established a centralized government in the Philippines. The head of the
government was called :

A. Encomendero C. Gobernadorcillo

B. Alcalde Mayor D. Governor-General✔

2. When Rizal returned to the Philippines after his second travel abroad, he decided to organize a
socio-civic organization. This was the:

A. Propaganda Movement C. Katipunan

B. La Liga Filipina✔D. Assosacion Hispano-Filipino

3. The event that implicated the 3 priest Burgos, Gomez, and Zamora which resulted to their
execution was the :

A. Cavite of Mutiny✔C. Ilocos Rebellion

B. Cry of Pugadlawin D. Bacoor Massacre

4. The incident that led to the outbreak of the Filipino-American war was ;

A. Pres.McKinley's proclamation of the "Benevolent Assimilation" policy

B. The San Juan Bridge incident where a Filipino soldier was shot by an American sentry✔

C. The Battle of Day

D. Aguinaldo's declaration of Independence

5. Which of the following were the famous triumvirate of the Propaganda Movement?

A. Jose Rizal, Juan Luna, Marcelo Del Pilar

B. Jose Rizal, Graciano Lopez Jaena, Gregorio Del Pilar

C. Jose Rizal, Marcelo Del Pilar, Graciano Lopez Jaena✔

D. Jose Rizal, Juan Luna, Graciano Lopez Jaena

6. As per agreement in the Pact of Biac-na-Bato. Emilio Aguinaldo was to go exile in ;

A. Guam C. Singapore

B. Hongkong✔D. Dapitan

7. The Thomasites who taught in schools in the early part of American colonization were:

A. Trained American Soldiers✔

B. American soldiers

C. American Protestant Ministers

D. American officials

8. When the Japanese came Manila was declared an "Open City" by McArhur. Open City means
:

A. Manila was open for trade

B. Manila was open for negotiation

C. Manila was open for Japanese occupation✔

D. Manila was open for both Japanese and American to stay

9. The combined Filipino and American forces during the Japanese invasion was :

A. Hukbalahap movement C. USAFFE✔

B. Allied Powers D. Philipinne Constabulary

10. The first Filipino appointed by the Americans as Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

A. Jose Abad Santos C. Gregorio Araneta

B. Cayetano Arellano✔D. Sergio Osmena

11. The Japanese Military Police was called

A. Kalibapi C. Imperial Diet

B. Hukbalahap D. Kempetai✔

12. The agrarian reform program instituted by President Diosdado Macapagal which intended to
give land to the landless tenants was:

A. Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Program

B. Agricultural Land Reform Code (ALRC)✔

C. Philippine Tenancy Act

D. Presidential Decree 81

13. The greatest contribution of the Americans to the Philippines was:

A. Freedom of worship C. Scientific Health Programs

B. The public school system✔D. Parity Rights

14. Which of the following best described the Katipunan?

A. It was a movement which aimed for the Philippines' separation from Spain through force✔

B. It was a movement that wanted reforms from Spain

C. It was working to make the Philippines a province of Spain

D. It was a movement meant to strengthen the colonial government

15. The Americans came to the Philippines in 1989 in order to ?

A. Liberate the Filipinos from the Spaniards

B. Fight the Spaniards because of the outbreak of the Spanish American War✔

C. Invade the Philippines and colonized it

D. Establish trade relations

16. The greatest contribution of Spain to Filipino

culture was?

A. Education

B. Development of Traded

C. Construction of roads and other infrastuctures

D. Christianization of the Filipinos✔

17. Ferdinand Magellan was killed by Lapu-Lapu in the?

A. Battle of Manila Bay C. Battle of Cebu

B. Battle of Mactan✔D. Battle of Limasawa

18. World War II in the Philippines ended when the Japanese surrender after the bombing of?

A. Bataan and Corregidor C. Tokyo and Kyoto

B. Hiroshima and Nagasaki✔D. Pearl Harbor

19. Jose Rizal was considered the National Hero because of his efforts to bring about reforms in
the lives of Filipinos through his works in the?

A. Katipunan C. La Liga Filipina

B. Propaganda Movement✔D. 1896 Revolution

20. The early Filipino were revolts were considered failure. Which among the following is
considered the most important explanation for such failure?

A. The Spaniards had the support of the clergy to whom Filipinos obeyed because of fear

B. The Spaniards had superior weapon and a well-trained military

C. The revolts was limited in scope

D. The lack of unity and leadership which failed to sensitize the people to a common identity and
purpose✔

21. Which statement does not characterize American Policy towards the Philippines?

A. It emphasized more secular rather than spiritual matters

B. American immediately impressed upon Filipinos regard for individual rights✔

C. There was more flexibility as a result of changing times and conditions

D. American rule had not challenged Filipino Nationalism

22. The transfer of troops from Bataan to Capas, Tarlac is called "Death March". Which among
the following phrases best describe such event?

A. The prisoners were treated like animals

B, The prisoners marched to their death

C. The march was so inhuman resulting to many death✔

D. Prisoners were like living dead

23. What title was given to the head of the centralized government established by the Spaniards
in the Philippines?

A. Corregidor C. Gobernadorcillo

B. Encomiendo D. Governor General✔

24. Colonization of the Philippines by Spain is best described as done through:

A. The "cross" because of the conversion by the clergy of pagan Filipinos to Christianity

B. The "cross" because Magellan planted the first cross on Philippine soil

C. The "sword" because the soldiers forcibly made Filipinos accept the Spanish rule

D. The "sword and cross" because they had to make sure that colonization was accomplished✔

25.The Katipunan was the movement founded by Bonifacio. It's major objective was:

A. Seeks reform from Spain

B. Demand for equal rights and privileges for Filipinos

C. Separation of Philippines from Spain✔

D. Assimilation of Philippines by Spain

26. The Americans acquired the Philippines as their colony because

A. They invaded the Philippines

B. They helped Filipinos fight the Spaniards

C. Span cede the Philippines by virtue of the treaty of Paris of 1898✔

D. They defeated the Spaniards

27. During World War II, the Filipino-American forces last defense against the Japanese took
place in:
A. Bataan C. Manila

B. Corregidor✔D. Tarlac

28. The American promised to train Filipinos for self-government. This was realized with the
establishment of this government where all the officials both elected and appointed were
Filipinos and they were supervised for a ten-year period by an American High Commissioner.

A. Republican Government

B. Commonwealth Government✔

C. Civil Government

D. Federal Government

29. When the combined Filipino - American forces were defeated by the Japanese, the Filipinos
formed a guerilla movement called HUKBALAHAP. Which of the following was the main
objective such movement?

A. To successfully defeat the Japanese✔

B. To harass the Japanese

C. To prove that Filipinos can fight without American support

D. To train a military force to strengthen Filipinos defenses

30. The one who colonized the Philippines for the Spaniards was?

A. Columbus C. Legazpi✔

B. Magellan D. Pigafette

BONUS QUESTIONS

#Review: (Last #March2017)

1. Let us campaign for the total ban ____________ of harmful insecticides.

A. With the use

B. On using
C. on the use

D. with using

2. “Your statements are IMPERTINENT to the case.” The capitalized word means
______________.

A. Important

B. Irrelevant

C. Violent

D. malicious

3. Imprisoned for 27 years, Nelson Mandela realized his dream of a free and non-racial South
Africa by forgiving his oppressors and negotiating in good faith for the peaceful transition to
democracy. Nelson Mandela demonstrated his trait of ________________.

A. Friendliness

B. Determination

C. forgiving

D. loyalty

4. In William Shakespeare’s “Merchant of Venice,” Portia, the judge said: “The quality of mercy
is not strained; it droppeth as the gentle rain from heaven upon the place beneath... It is twice
blest; it blesseth him that gives and him that takes. ‘Tis mightier than the mightiest... and one is
likened to God when mercy seasons justice.” The main thought of the excerpt it that
___________________

A. Mercy is only for deserving

B. Mercy is limited in extent

C. Mercy is spontaneous and freely given.

5. Who was the first editor of La Solidaridad ? :)

A. Juan Luna

B. Graciano Lopez Jaena

C. Jose Rizal
D. Marcelo H. Del Pilar

6. A hypothetical ecosystem contains lettuce (the producer), a caterpillar (the primary consumer),
a small passerine bird (the secondary consumer) and a lion (the tertiary consumer). A gardener
arrives and sprays pesticide, killing all the caterpillars. What can happen to the ecosystem?

A. The passerine birds will thrive.

B. The lions will eventually die.

C. the passerine birds will convert to herbivores.

D. the lettuce will wilt and die.

7. Among models of reading strategies, what did student Jk adopt when she reads back and forth,
attending to both what is in her mind and what’s on the page?

A. Bottoms-up

B. Interactive

C. Down-top

D. Top-down

8. If threat of punishment is necessary on erring students, how should this best be done?

A.Make the threat and reinforce with warning

B.Make the threat with immediate punishment

C. Warn and threat at the same time

D. First a warning before the threat

9. When USA decided to drop the atomic bomb to Nagasaki in order to stop the land invasion of
Japan, what degree of moral certitude can describe this decision of USA?

a. Doubtful

b. Perflexed

c. Certain

d. Callous
10. Isang dulog pampatikan na kung saan ang pagpapakahulugan sa isang tekstong binasa ay
nakapokus sa sariling panlasa ng mambabasa at kilala rin sa katawagan na reader-response
theory. a. Impresyonista

b. Patalambuhay

c. antropolohiya

d. pansikolohiya

11. I can’t find ________ calculator; may I use _________, Prince?

A. My, yours

B. His, yours

C. My, his

D. Yours, mine

12. Neither the teacher nor the students ________________ present in the affairs.

A. Am

B. Was

C. Is

D. Were

13. We admire ___________ when Cynthia speaks English fluently with _______________.

A. Him, them

B. Her, us

C. Him, we

D. Him, me

14. “The figures must be TRANSMUTED in order to understand the grade.” The capitalized
word means:

A. Estimated

B. Surpassed
C. Changed

D. Summed

15. Some preachers suggest the _____________ that the end of the world is near.

A. Proposal

B. Prophecy

C. Prophetic

D. Prophet

16. Filipino writer whose stories and poems depict Filipino-Spanish cultural beliefs and
traditions.

A. Edilberto Tiempo

B. N.V.M. Gonzales

C. Bienvenido Santos

D. Nick Joaquin

17. Tax imposed on all employed and practicing professionals

A. Income tax

B. Community tax

C. Real estate tax

D. Inheritance tax

18. Who is known as the “Father of the Local Government Code”?

A. Joey Lina

B. Jovito Salonga

C. Joseph Estrada

D. Aquilino Pimentel
19. An ant colony stores food in the summer defends itself by stinging enemies and invades a
competing ant colony and steals larvae and uses them as new workers. What is the term to best
describe how this species copes with everyday life?

A. Ecological defeat

B. Ecological success

C. Environmental habitation

D. Ecological niche

20. If a die is rolled, what is the probability of getting a number divisible by 2?

A. ½

B. 1/3

C. ¼

D. 1/6

21. How long will it take A and B together, to finish a job which can be done by A alone in 6
days and B alone in 3 days?

A. 2 1/2 days

B. 3 days

C. 2 days

D. 3 ½ days

22. Maternity leaves are extended to women. What legal provision extends this?

A. Article XIV Education

B. Article XIII Sec 14 women

C. Article XIII Role and Rights of People's Organization

D. Article XII Bill of Rights

23. Which is the largest country in Asia?

A. China
B. Japan

C. Philippines

D. Thailand

24. What is one of the man-made wonders of the Philippines?

A. Rice terraces

B. Mount Makiling

C. Manila Bay

D. Taal Volcano

25. Who was the Spanish mestizo priest who first led the native secular clergy in the
Secularization Movement in 1861?

A. Father Jacinto Zamora

B. Father Pedro Pelaez

C. Father Gregorio Aglipay

D. Father Jose Burgos

26. Analects which are short and witty sayings that treat of moral values and good human
relation, are attributed to:

A. Mao Tze Tung

B. Mencius

C. Confucius

D. Lao-Tzu

27. Which of the following was the first to happen?

A. Aguinaldo declared Philippine Independence.

B. Guerilla warfare against the US was initiated.

C. The Philippines was ceded to the US by the Treaty of Paris.

D. Aguinaldo was captured.

28. The acronym HTML means Hyper Text Mark-up _____________.

A. Line

B. Language

C. Letter

D. Label

29. The fraction halfway between 3/7 and 4/7 is ________________.

A. 1/2

B. 1/3

C. ¼

D. 1/8

30. Simplify (3x – 9) / (x2 – 9)

A. 3 / (x – 3)

B. 3 / (x + 1)

C. 3 / (x + 3)

D. 3 / (x – 1)

31. With the Batasang Pambansa performing legislative and executive powers in the Marcos
regime, which form of government was implemented?

A. Monarchial

B. Presidential

C. Parliamentary

D. Dictatorial

32. The “Rubaiyat” a loosely joined series of 280 stanzas, has this general theme. Which one?

A. Always look forward to a new day.

B. Grasp pleasure while you can.

C. Never give in to death easily.

D. Create your own world and beautify it.

33. This demonstrated the feeding connections between all life forms.

A. Nutrition cycles

B. Fossil cycle

C. Biochemical pathways

D. Food web

34. A toothpick can sit on the surface of water due to _________________.

A. Surface tension

B. Atmospheric pressure

C. Buoyancy

D. Viscosity

35. In a flame test, the presence of boron in a solution is evident by what color of flame?

A. Bright green

B. Brick red

C. Gold

D. Lilac

36. Who was the last Spanish Governor-General of the Philippines?

A. Ramon Blanco

B. Basilio Agustin

C. Diego de los Rios

D. Fermin Jaudenes
37. of the pledges of the President of the Philippines is to defend its:

A. Constitution

B. Citizens

C. Land

D. Islands

38. The least common Multiple (LCM) of 2, 3 and 4 is ______.

A. 13

B. 24

C. 14

D. 12

39. Which of the following has the smallest mass when measured in an equal arm balance?

A. ½ sheet of pad paper

B. ¼ sheet of pad paper

C. 1/8 sheet of pad paper

D. 1/3 sheet of pad paper

40. How many glasses of Cola each to be filled with 150 cu cm of the liquid can be made from 5
family size bottles of cola each containing 1.5 liters?

A. 60

B. 40

C. 45

D. 50

41. If the average or arithmetic mean of x and -5 is 10, then what must be the value of x?

A. 25

B. 15
C. 30

D. 20

42. In an English test, eight students obtained the following scores: 10, 15, 12, 18, 16, 24, 12,
and 14. What is the median score?

A. 14

B. 15. 5

C. 14. 5

D. 15

CBACBCBDCAADBCDDADDACBAABDABAADCAADCABAD
AD

1. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang aral na ibinigay ng ANG ALAMAT NI MARIANG MAKILING
na ikinuwento ni Jose Rizal

A. Pag-ibig ang makapagbabago sa mundong ito.

B. Kabanalan ang magpatawad at tulungan ang isang nagkasala.
C. Pagyamanin at pangalagaan ang ating bayan at lahi pagkat hiyas at yaman natin ito.
D. Ang hangarin ng taoy walang hanggan. Dahil sa pagmamalabis at pagsasamantala, maraming
biyaya ang sa kanyay nawawala.

2. Alin uri ng parirala ang may salungguhit sa pangungusap?

Utang sa kanyang sipag at sikap sa paggawa ang kanilang maalwang pamumuhay.

A. Pawatas C. Pangngalan
B. Pang-ukol D. Pangngalang-diwa

3. Alin antas ng tono ng lumilitaw sa bahaging may salungguhit ng pangungusap na nagdududa?

Nagpuputol ng puno ang lalaki.

A. 4 C.3
B. 1 D.2

4. What is suggested in this opening line?

June 13, 1986-they came from all over America-200,000 heroes strong, with their families

A. The writer is opposed to the Vietnam War.

B. The writer is a flag-waving patriot.
C. The writer was a veteran of the war.
D. The writer holds great admiration for the veterans.

5. Si Mariano Ponce ay propagandistang may sagisag sa panulat na ________.

A. Tamaraw C. Tikbalang
B. Kalapate D. Kapre

6. Alin ang di karaniwang anyo ng pandiwang WINIKAKO?

A. Ikako C. Kako
B. Wikako D. Wika ko

7. Ano ang ipinahihiwatig ng salitang may salungguhit?

Matayog ang lipad ni Pepe kaya’t bata pa siya’y nagsisikap na siya.

A. May kayabangan si Pepe. C. Marunong si Pepe.

B. Ibig ni Pepeng maabot ang langit. D. Mataas ang pangarap ni Pepe.

8. Kilalanin ang uri ng pariralang may salungguhit.

Ang pangangalaga sa mga likas na yaman ay tungkulin nating lahat.

A. Pang-ukol C. Pangngalang-diwa
B. Pawatas D. Pangngalan

9. Sabihin ang aspekto ng pandiwa sa pangungusap na ito.

”Mag-aral sa bahay ng mga araling ukol sa halaman.”

A. Imperpektibo C. Kontemplatibo
B. Perpektibo D. Pawatas

10. Anong aral ang ibinibigay ng sumususnod na salawikain?

“Ang taong napapailalim ay naipapaibabaw rin.”

A. Kung ano ang ibig natin ay mangyayari

B. Tiyak ang pag-unlad kapag nauna ang hirap
C. Maaring ngayon ay hirap pagdating ng bukas ay may ginhawa rin
D. Magtiis kung dumarating ang hirap.

11. Alin ang di karaniwang anyo ng pandiwang HINTAY KA?

A. Tayka C.Intay
B. Tay D.Teka

12. Ano ang pinakaangkop na kahulugan nito?

“Nagsasaya tayo ngayon sapagkat ang inyong namatay na kapatid ay muling nabuhay; ang
nawawala ay muling nakita.”

A. Ang pagbabalik ay dapat ipaghanda nang malaki.

B. Dapat silang magsaya sa muli nilang pagsasama-sama
C. Ang pagbabago ng kapatid ay dapat pahalagahan.
D. Ang pagsasama nila ay dahil sa muling pagbabalik ng kapatid.

13. Si Dr. Jose Rizal ay sumulat ng aklat ng itinampok sa ibat ibang bansa.

Ang pangungusap ay nagagamit bilang _______________.

A. tuwirang layon C. panuring

B. paksa D. pamuno

14. Alin ang naayong pamagat sa tanagang sinulat ni Jose Villa Panganiban?

Ano man sa daigdig,

Maaring magamit,
Ano mang masaisip;
Di sukat maiipit.

A. Pag-asa C. Pagbibigay
B. Pagkainip D. Paraya

15. Anong uri ng panghalip ang salitang may salungguhit sa pangungusap?

May padalang tulong ang pamahalaan para sa kanila.

A. Palagyo C. Paari
B. Pambalana D. Palayon

16. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang aral na ibinibigay ng epikong Muslim na INDARAPATRA AT
SULAYMAN?

A. Pagmamahal C. Katapatan
B. pagtanaw ng utang-na-loob D. Katapangan

17. Sa “Espiritu ni Bathala ang nangangalaga ng kanilang kalusugan” ang ipinahihiwatig na

katangian ay _______.
A. malinis C. mabisa
B. makapangyarihan D. maliksi

18. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang mensahe ng epiko ng Ilokano na BIAG NI LAM-ANG?

A. Dito nagpapatunay na walang kamatayan.

B. Masasalat ang mga katutubong ugali at mga tradisyong dapat pagyamanin at panatilihin upang
pakinabangan ng kabataan.
C. Pinatutunayan ng epiko ang yaman ng Ilokano sa lahat ng bagay.
D. Kailangan paniniwalaan ang ukol sa bisa ng mga anting-anting dahil sa mga pangyayaring
nagpapatunay dito.

19. Dadalaw sa mga paaralan si Dr. Filemon S. Salas, ang tagapamanihala ng mga paaralang
lungsod, sa lungsod ng Pasay.

Ang pangungusap ay nagagamit bilang _____________.

A. tuwirang layon C. panuring

B. paksa D. pamuno

20. Ano ang kahulugan ng taludtod na ito?

“Ang anak mo ay alagaan sa marubdob na pagsuyo sikapin mo sa sarili’y huwag siyang maging
luko talipandas sa paglaki na sa sama marahuyo sa lahi mo’t sa Bayan moy isang tinik sa
balaho.”

A. Paligayahin ang tahanan.

B. Tamang pagpapalaki sa anak ang dapat.
C. Suyuin ang anak at ibigay lahat ng hilig.
D. Mahalin ang anak ng walang hangganan.

21. Nasa anong kaganapan ng pandiwa ang pangungusap?

Naglaro ng basketball sa Rizal Stadium ang koponan ng aming pamantasan.

A. Tagaganap C. Sanhi
B. Kagamitan D. Ganapan

22. Alin ang kahulugan ng KAHIRAMANG SUKLAY?

A. Kalahi C. Kakilala
B. Kaibigan D. Karibal

23. Sa aling salita magkakaroon ng saglit na paghinto kung pinapilitang si Rose ang nakabasag
ng pinggan?

Hindi si Rose ang nakabasag ng pinggan.

A. Rose C. Pinggan
B. Nakabasag D. Hindi

24. Kaninong tula hango ang sumusunod?

“Ang hindi magmahal sa sariling wika mahigit sa hayop at malansang isda”

A. Graciano Lopez Jaena C. Jose Rizal

B. Emilio Jacinto D. Apolinario Mabini

25. Alin sa mga salita ang kasingkahulugan ng salitang may salungguhit?

Ang ama ni Anita ay kilalang bulanggugo sa kanilang lalawigan

A. Laging handang makipag-away C. Laging handang gumasta

B. Laging ibinubulong D. Laging handang makipagtalo

26. Alin ang kahulungan ng AGAW-BUHAY?

A. Masiglang-masigla C. Pagpapatuloy ng buhay

B. Malapit ng mamatay D. Mahirap na buhay

27. Alin antas ng tono ang lumitaw sa bahaging may salungguhit ng pangungusap na
nagsasalaysay? Magbabasa ng mga gawain ang guro.

A. 3 C. 2
B. 4 D. 1

28. Anong tayutay ang tinutukoy nito?

Durog ang katawang bumagsak sa semento si Miguel

A. Pagwawangis C. Pagbibigay katauhan

B. Pagtutulad D. Pagmamalabis

29. Which is the BEST way to write the underlined portion of this sentence?

Researchers also speculate that some teachers might have given boys more computer time
because parents and teachers expected boys to need computers for future careers.

A. Will expect C. Expecting

B. Expected D. Will have expected

30. Which of the following lines is a simile?

A. “Holding wonder like a cup” C. “Eyes that love you, arms that hold”
B. “Life has loneliness to sell” D. “Buy it ang never count the cost”

31. Which is the BEST way to write the underlined portion of the sentence?

The studies revealing that, for various reasons, girls spent less time working with computers than
boys.

A. Revealing studies C. Studies revealed

B. Studies will reveal D. Studies’ revelations

32. To gain the attention of the audience, the trick is __________.

A. start high, speak loudly C. start low, speak hurriedly

B. start high, speak rapidly D. start low, speak slowly

33. What is meant by SOFT OPINION in this sentence?

Rebecca realized that if she stayed in her present job it would mean competing with an envious
rival. Leaving the company would probably be a soft option.

A. An action that is not agreeable

B. An action that is easier
C. An action that is difficult to take
D. An action that is weakly funded

34. What correction should be made to this sentence?

First born often pattern their behavior after they’re parents and other adults.

A. No correction is necessary C. Change pattern to patterned

B. Replace they’re to their D. Replace their to they’re

35. Carl Sundburg wrote “Jazz Fantasia” which has for its first stanza:

Drum on your dreams, better on your bajos, sob

On the long cool winding saxophones.
Go to it, O jazzmen.
Which words illustrate alliteration

A. Batter and banjos C. Sob and winding

B. Long and cool D. to and it

36. What correction should made to the sentence?

Buying fire extinguisher knowing how to use it, and placing it in a location familiar to all family
members can help protect families against fire.

A. Insert a comma after help

B. Change placing to place
C. Change the spelling of families to familys
D. Insert a comma after extinguisher

37. Which is BEST WAY to write the underlined portion of this sentence?

There is smoke detectors in many homes to warm residents of a fire, but fire extinguishers can
actually help people fight fires.

A. They’re is C. There are

B. Their is D. Their are

38. Which word in the passage does NOT require a change in pitch to show confidence

“I am the master of my fate, I am the captain of my soul.”

A. Captain C. Fate
B. Am D. Master

39. Robert Frost wrote the poem “Acquainted with the Night” from which the stanza is taken:

I have been one acquainted with the night.

I have walked out in rain-back in rain.
I have outwalked the farthest city light.

The poet in the stanza talks of

A. youthful delight playing in the rain.

B. isolation and loneliness.
C. happiness in having been acquainted with the night.
D. joy getting out of the house.

40. Which word contains the voiced Th?

A. Thank C. Think
B. These D. Thing

41. What correction should be made to this sentence?

Most State tourism departments and some travel agencies have bed and breakfast listings.

A. Change have to has C. Change State to state

B. Change tourism to Tourism D. Insert a comma after agencies
42. What do the following lines convey?

Midnight, not a sound from the pavement.

Has the moon lost her memory?
She is smiling alone.
In the lamp light the withered leaves
Collect at my feet
And the wind begins to moan.

A. Optimism C. Eagerness
B. Loneliness D. Confusion

43. What is meant by AT SIX AND SEVENS in this sentence?

We moved into the house last week, but I’m afraid everything is still at six and sevens.

A. The boxes are still intact C. In a state of confusion

B. In an orderly manner D. The things have not been shipped

44. Which of the following organisms transmit the malarial parasite?

A. Ants C. Culex mosquito

B. Flies D. Anopheles mosquito

45. Which of the following facts support the big bang theory’s explanation of the creation of the
universe?

A. The universe has no beginning nor end.

B. The universe seldoms expand.
C. The universe will have background radiation.
D. The universe does not expand nor contract.

46. What does a tightly coiled spring demonstrate?

A. Steam energy C. Kinetic energy

B. Chemical energy D. Potential energy

47. Which of the following will occur if a cold bottle of soda is left open on a kitchen counter?

A. The pressure that the soda exerts on the bottle will increase.
B. The amount of dissolved carbon dioxide gas will decrease
C. The temperature of the soda will decrease.
D. The amount of dissolved carbon dioxide gas will remain the same.
48. Which of the following procedures used by a farmer is NOT related directly to preventing
erosion?

A. Planting crops in alternate rows (Strip farming)

B. Planting more seeds than are necessary to yield a bountiful crop.
C. Contour plowing around a hill
D. Planting grass in gullies to act as a filter

49. What is MOST likely reason for a dessert plant to have a few or no leaves?

A. To increase transpiration C. To decrease transpiration

B. To decrease photosynthesis D. To increase photosynthesis

50. Which of the following internal forces interrupt the external forces erosion?

I. Forces that cause volcanoes

II. Forces that cause ocean trenchers
III. Forces that cause create mountains

A. I, II and III C. II and III

B. I and II D. I and III

51. Which of the following should you expect to be true about the rate of cellular respiration for
a group of students who are the same age, height, and weight?

A. Boys would have a higher rates of cellular respiration than girls.

B. Athletes would tend to have higher rates of cellular respiration than nonathletes.
C. Africans would have higher rates of cellular respiration than Asians.
D. Nonathletes would have higher rates of cellular respiration than Athletes.

52. The stanza below is taken from “Barter” by Sara Teasdale

Life has loneliness to sell,

Music like a curve of gold,
Scent of pine trees in the rain,
Eyes that love you, arms that hold,
And for your spirit’s still delight,
Holy thoughts that star the night.

To what does Teasdale compare music?

A. Eyes that love C. A curve of gold

B. The rain D. The scent of pine trees
53. Which verb in the sentence is pronounced with the ending as [d]?
They laughed and joked as they walked and played.

A. Laughed C. Joked
B. Walked D. Played

54. Which pitch is used for the word STRANGE in this sentence?

What a strange story!

A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

55. Which is the BEST way to write the underlined portion of this sentence?

However, their VCR kept them from missing their favorite prime time shows.

A. Keeped C. Keepes
B. Keeps D. Had kept

56. Lines 11 and 12 are taken from the poem

“maggie and milly and molly and may.”

For whatever lose (like a you or a me)

It’s always ourselves we find in the sea

Which of the following ideas is the author expressing?

A. The sea represents all of our moods.

B. The sea is a source of life and death.
C. The sea and its surroundings can give people a fresh view on life.
D. The sea is the best place for a person to reflect about life.

57. What correction should be made to this sentence?

One of their theories is that the first child receives more of the parents’ attention than other
children so first-born tend to be more intellectual.

A. Change parents’ to parent’s C. Insert a comma after children

B. Change theories to theory’s D. Change is to are

58. What correction should be made to this sentence?

Most fire-related death’s result from households fries, yet many people do not have fire
extinguishers in their homes
A. Change have to has C. Replace death’s with deaths
B. Change result to results D. Remove the comma after fires

59. Which word is read on a high note to describe the kind of day?

This is a cold day.

A. Day C. Cold
B. Is D. This

60. Which is the BEST way to write the underline portion of this sentence?

The hosts also benefits from running such a business because they can stay at home make
money, and meeting a variety of people.

A. To meet C. And meet

B. Get to meet D. And be meeting

61. Which is the BEST way to write the underlined portion of this sentence?

Recently psychologists have been researching birth order, their research suggests that personality
and intelligence are based partly on where a child ranks in the family.

A. Order, or their C. Order, Their

B. Order, their D. Order and their

62. What is the mood of these lines?

Daylight, I must wait for the sunrise

I must think of a new life
And I mustn’t give in.
When the dawn comes
Tonight will be a memory, too
And a new day will begin.

A. Depressed C. Afraid
B. Sarcastic D. Hopeful

63. Which of the following words DOES NOT contains the [voiceless th]?

A. Teeth C. Mouth
B. Health D. Breath

64. Which word ends with [S] pronounced [Z]?

A. Laughs C. Jokes
B. Maps D. Buys

65. Which is the BEST way to write the underlined portion of this sentence?

However, if a fire extinguisher is handy, a quick-thinking person often can use them to put out
small fire.

A. They C. It
B. Them D. Him

66. Which word contain the [ae] sound?

A. Can C. Cabin
B. Castle D. Carriage

67. What is meant by the expression TO GET BLOOD OUT OF A STONE in this sentence?

Geraldo has owned me fifty thousand pesos for over a year now.
I‘ve asked him for it on several occasions, but it’s like trying to get blood out of a stone.

A. Someone wants revenge.

B. Something is impossible.
C. Someone is willing to give what is asked.
D. Someone refuses to cooperative.

68. Which is the BEST WAY to write the underlined portion of this sentence?

A person should keep in mind some basic safety rules when you are deciding whether or not to
use a fire extinguisher.

A. Rules when you decided C. Rules you decide

B. Rules you are deciding D. Rules when deciding

69. What is meant by TWO PINS in this sentence?

For two pins I could have hit him on the nose.

A. Have a second alternative choice C. A second course of action

B. Without much persuading D. The second chance

70. What correction should be made to this sentence?

Recently, educators exammined the effectiveness of computer instruction in schools.

A. Replace computer with computer’s
B. Change the spelling of exammined to examined
C. Change schools to Schools
D. Replace educators with educator’s

71. What is meant by LAST DITCH in this sentence?

The aged bishop prepared to fight to the last ditch to defend his good name.

A. One’s last courage C. One’s last strategy

B. One’s last hope D. One’s last defense

72. Which one should be TRUE if Earth’s rotation axis did not tilt?

I. Days and night would be the same length everywhere on Earth

II. There would be no hours of darkness on points along the equator
III. Earth would have no seasons
IV. Each part of the Earth would have the same daily temperature pattern

A. II and IV C. III and IV

B. IV and I D. I AND III

73. Which is the sum of infinite progression 3/2, 1, 2/3, 4,/9…..?

A. 7 ½ C. 6 ½
B. 5 ½ D. 4 ½
E. None of these

74. Tides, caused by the moon’s gravity, create a frictional force that is gradually slowing down
Earth’s rotation speed. One million years from now, scientist may discover that compared to
today, Earth’s

A. year is shorter C. day is shorter

B. year is longer D. day is longer

75. Which of the following is the BEST example of self-preservation?

A. A salmon swims back to the place of its birth to lay eggs.

B. A young man decides to quit smoking
C. A mouse runs when it sees a cat
D. A dog barks when it sees its owner.

76. At which time during the year does the ozone level present a particular health threat in urban
areas for people with respiratory problems?
A. Fall C. Spring
B. Summer D. Winter

77. Which is the length of the hypotenuse of a right triangle with legs 5 inches and 12 inches?

A.11 in. C. 17 in.

B.13 in. D. 20 in.

78. Which location will have most nearly twelve hours of daylight and twelve hours of darkness
during December? A town that is located

A. close to the North Pole

B. close to the South Pole
C. halfway between the equator and South Pole
D. close to equator

79. How much larger is the supplement of a 57 degree angle than the complement of a 75 degree
angle?

A. none of these D. 108 degrees

B. 18 degrees E. 105 degrees
C. 123 degrees

80. What are the next four numbers in this sequence 8,5,4,9,17_____,_____,____

A. 5,4,3,2 D. none of these

B. 6,3,2,0 E. 4,3,2,1
C. 3,2,1,0

81. Which is the equivalent common fraction of the repeating decimal 3.242424…?

A. 109/33 C. 110/33
B. 108/33 D. 107/33
E. none of these

82. How many ways can a committee of 4 people be selected from a group of 7 people?

A. 140 C. 35
B. 70 D. none of these
E. 210

83. In the progression 18, -12,8……which term is 512/729?

A. The 6th C. The 9th

B. The 7th D. The 8th
E. none of these
84. During a recent shopping spree, Tomas and Nena bought some new accessories for their
apartment. Nena choose a crocheted throw pillow at P24.95, and Tomas purchased a rural
landscape painting for P135.00. How much did they actually spend if they paid 7% sales tax on
their purchases?

A. P 139.25 D. none of these

B. P 148.75 E. P 159.95
C. P 171.15

85. To pass the English Test, Lucille must get 75% of the items correct. Out of 80 questions, how
many must she correctly answer?

A. 55 D. none of these
B. 60 E. 65
C. 70

86. What is the difference between the largest 4-digit number and the smallest 4-digit number?

A. none of these C. 9998

B. 8888 D. 8000
E. 8999

87. In how many ways can you arrange three mathematics books (Algebra, Geometry,
Trigonometry) in order on shell?

A. none of these D. 8
B. 6 E. 12
C. 24

88. If a baseball player hits 10 home runs in the first 45 games, at the same rate how many home
runs can he expect to hit during 162-games season?

A. 40 C. 42
B. 38 D. 36
E. none of these

89. Which are the next three terms in the progression 1/125,-1/25, 1/5…7 terms?

A. –4,8,-28 C. –2,6,-26
B. –1,5,-25 D. –3,7,-27
E. none of these

90. Find m in the proportion m/12=30/24.

A. 20 C. 15
B. 25 D. 30
E. none of these

91. Mr. Garcia owns a 10½ hectares tract of land. He plans to subdivide this tract into ¼ hectare
lots. He must first set aside 1/6 of the total land for roads. How many lots will this tract yield?

A. 45 C. 30
B. 42 D. 35
E. none of these

92. What is the sum of all the two digit numbers which are divisible by 5?

A. 1050 D. 950
B. none of these E. 960
C. 945

93. Which are the next three terms in the progression 1,4,16…8 terms?

A. 67,259,1027 C. 65,257,1025
B. 66,258,1026 D. 64,256,1024
E. none of these

94. You buy a new refrigerator for P12,800.00 and make a down payment of P2,500.00. If you
finance the remainder of 8% annually for three years. How much will you actually pay for the
refrigerator?

A. P 12,772.00 D. P12,190.00
B. P 15,272.00 E. P10,300.00
C. none of these

95. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 25 feet. If one leg is 24 feet, what is the length of the
other leg?

A. none of these D. 6 ft.

B. 20 ft. E. 5 ft.
C. 7 ft.

896. What day follows the day before yesterday if 2 days from now will be Sunday?

A. Saturday D. Tuesday
B. none of these E. Thursday
C. Wednesday
97. A car dealer is offering a rebate of P7,500.00 on any new-car purchase. If the purchase price
of a car is P200,000.00 more than it was last year. What is the rate of the discount offered by the
rebate?

A. 7.5% C. 13.3%
B. 10% D. not enough information is given
E. 14.2%

98. One package is 100 pounds, and the other is 150 pounds. The weight of the second package
is how many times that of the first?

A. 20 pounds heavier D. 10 pounds heavier

B. ½ as heavy E. 1 ½ times heavier
C. none of these

99. Employees at Shaira’s Musicmart get a 20% discount on all purchases. If Theresa buys three
tapes at P7.49 each, how much will she have to pay after her employee discount?

A. P16.98 D. P18.98
B. P17.98 E. P19.98
C. none of these

100. How many gallons of water will fill a fish tank that is 18 inches by 12 inches by 48 inches?
(There are 231 cubic inches pr gallon). Round your answer to the nearest gallon.

A. 38 gallons D. 47 gallons
B. 45 gallons E. 40 gallons
C. none of these

101. How many whole numbers can divide 30 exactly?

A. Four D. Six
B. Eight E. Five
C. none of these

102. How much topsoil is needed to cover a garden 25 feet by 40 feet to a depth of 6 inches?

A. 440 cuft D. none of these

B. 460 cuft E. 480 cuft
C. 500 cuft

103. The Miranda Family purchased a 250-pound side of beef and had it packaged. They paid
P365.00 for the side beef. During the packaging, 75 lb of beef were discarded as waste. What
was the cost per pound for packaged beef?
A. P 2.50 per lb D. P 2.30 per lb
B. P 2.06 per lb E. none of these
C. P 2.08 per lb

104. The following are defects present at the time of marriage which is voidable and annullable
EXCEPT

A. fraud C. threat
B. impotence D. deceit

105. The Jones family has four children, all girls. The fifth child born is a boy. This change is the
result of

A. conception classes takes by the parents

B. the “law of averages” finally catching up.
C. the timing of fertility cycles.
D. the father’s contribution of a “Y” chromosomes.

106. Spouses Jose S. Luz and Celerina Luz filed a petition to adopt Gregorio Luz Ona, their
nephew. The spouses are childless and they reared from his birth 1971 until 1975 and they
continue to support him. Gregorio had to be left in the Philippines when the spouse went to the
United States where Jose is employed. The MSSD recommended the adoption to the court on the
premise that petitioners are in a better position to provide for the minor child than the natural
parents who are impoverished.

What could be the possible decision of the court on he petition?

A. The court denied the petition on the premise that the trial custody required by PD 603 cannot
be effected for spouses are non-residents.
B. The petition for adoption was denied because the spouses are non-residents of the Philippines.
C. The petition for adoption was granted because the court finds that it is to the best interest of
the child.
D. The court denied the petition because the spouses are already aliens.

107. Which method of reproduction provides for the most variety of offspring?

A. Cloning C. Cellular reproduction

B. Asexual reproduction D. Sexual reproduction

108. Which one is the right to human dignity?

A. Political independence
B. Honor and reputation
C. Form association
D. Social and economic reforms
109. Which of the following ethnocentric behavior?

A. A Hispanic community group demands that public aid forms be published in English and
Spanish
B. A peace Corps volunteer who helps dig wells in Central Africa
C. A student who tutors an immigrant in English
D. A tourist who lectures his foreign hosts on the “uncivilized” nature of their marriage customs

110. Mary Rose, an 18 year old was sexually abuse by 3 teenagers from well-to-do families from
Makati. Despite pressures, she came out into the open to get justice. Which need did Mary Rose
satisfy?

A. Need for civic responsibility C. Need for universal solidarity

B. Need for personal integrity D. Need for family unity

111. What do you predict will happen when you bring two bar of magnets closer together?

A. Nothing will happen.

B. They will attract each other.
C. They will repel each other.

D. They will create an alternating current.

112. Without the process of meiosis, we can infer that offspring from sexual reproduction would

A. be identical
B. have twice assigned number of chromosomes
C. have a high degree of genetic variety
D. have a number of mutations.

113. Which is the BEST evidence that helium gas is lighter than air?

A. Helium has the lowest boiling point of all elements.

B. Helium-filled balloons rise in air.
C. By volume, helium makes up only 0.0005% of air.
D. Helium atoms do not combine with other air atoms.

114. It was also discovered that the chemical 3m butylphthalide can lower the blood pressure of
rats. This statement is classified as ________.

A. prediction C. finding
B. experiment D. nonessential fact

115. Which antidote would have a similar effect if vinegar or citrus juice were not available?
A. Water C. Raw egg white
B. Vegetable oil D. Milk

116. Which one explains why oxygen, a gas is the largest component of the Earth’s crust?

A. Oxygen gives Earth’s crust its lightness

B. Oxygen is needed to sustain all life on Earth
C. Oxygen is the most abundant element in the world
D. Oxygen is capable of combining with most of the elements in the Earth’s crust

117. Why does a pendulum in a grandfather clock once set in motion continue to swing, thereby
regulating the clock movement? This is due to Law of _____

A. Universal Gravitation C. Applied Force

B. Inertia D. Action and reaction

118. The principle under which a thermostat operates is the same under which

A. a gas expands to fill the container in which it is held.

B. a pendulum swings when it is set into motion.
C. the level of mercury rises or falls in a glass tube.
D. a chemical reaction occurs when two substances combine.

119. Scientist also find that other stalky vegetables such as carrots also help lower pressure. This
statement is classified as BEST

A. experiment C. nonessential fact

B. finding D. prediction

120. Each of the following objects is designed to employ the buoyancy principle EXCEPT a

A. Canoe C. Kite
B. Submarine D. life preserver

121. Which area of the brain controls feelings on the side of a person’s face?

A. The left occipital lobe C. The right parietal lobe

B. The right occipital lobe D. The left parietal lobe

122. What is the function of DIFFUSION in the human body?

A. Plays an insignificant role in the body’s functioning

B. Allows an even distribution of substances throughout all cells of the body
C. Regulates blood flow
D. Comes into play in times of extreme illness
123. What indoor relative humidity range would probably be comfortable to preventing
temperature and humidity levels are extremely low?

A. 90% to 100 % C. 60% to 70 %

B. 30% to 40 % D. 20% to 30 %

124. Which is NOT among the hazardous effects of water pollution to health?

A. The epidemic threat of hepatitis and dysentery

B. The dumping of mercury in the sea causing blindness, brain damage or death
C. The increase incidence of liver cancer
D. The presence of certain bacteria in the digestive tract causing methemoglobinemia

125. Which kingdom should STREPTOCOCCUS be classified?

A. Plantae C. Protista
B. Monera D. Fungi

126. An elderly woman suffered a stroke-a restriction of blood flow to the brain. if the stroke
caused to the right side of her body to become temporarily paralyzed, she most likely
experienced a decreased blood flow to

A. the front of her brain C. the left side of her body

B. the left side of her brain D. the right side of her brain

127. A nation in which loess would likely be found today is

A. Iceland C. United States

B. Japan D. Ecuador

128. Why does a bullet when discharged into the air eventually fall to the ground? This is due to
the Law of _________.

A. Action and Reaction C. Applied Force

B. Inertia D. Universal Gravitation

129. In which kingdom should MOLD it be classified?

A. Plantae C. Protista
B. Fungi D. Animalia

130. A carpenter wanted three piece of wood each 1 5/8 feet long. If he planned to cut them from
a 6-foot piece of wood, how much of the piece would be left?
A. 4 7/8 ft C. 4 3/8 ft
B. 3 ft D. 1 1/8 ft
E. none of these

131. Four mangoes cost P29.00 at that price what will 2½ dozen mangoes cost?

A. P870.00 C. P217.50
B. none of these D. P188.50
E. P348.50

132. A Politician wants to get his message to 2/3 of the population of 48,000 in Bulacan.
However advertising campaign reaches only 3/ 4 of the number he intended. How many people
does he actually reach?

A. 36,000 C. 16,000
B. 24,000 D. 10,000
E. none of these

133. The carat is a unit of measure used to weight precious stones. It equals 3.086 grains. How
many grains does 2.8 carat diamond weigh?

A. 864.08 C. 8640.8
B. 86.408 D. 8.6408
E. none of these

134. A meter was cut at the 35-cm mark. What is the ratio of the smaller piece to the larger
piece?

A. none of these C. 65:35

B. 7:13 D. 35:100
E. 65:100

135. 10- 3 2/7 or 10-3 2/17= __________

A. 7 2/17 C. 6 15/17
B. 6 2/17 D. 6 1/17
E. none of these

136. If P75,000 is shared among three children in the ratio of 3:7;15, the size of the smaller share
is?

A. P15 C. none of these

B. P9 D. P35
E. P25
137. 4 1/5 or 4 1/5 + 3 2/7 = __________.
+ 3 2/7________

A. 7 3/35 C. 7 3/12
B. 7 17/35 D. 7 1/35
E. none of these

138. Which one is the right to human dignity?

A. Share is scientific and technological advances of the world

B. Right to information
C. Choose the goals and means of development
D. Sovereignty over our natural resources

139. Which will solve poverty caused by capitalism?

A. Fascism C. Empiricism
B. Communism D. Socialism

140. Which explains the reason why there are continuos and increasing human rights violation?

A. The United Nations uses a single solution on all forms of human rights violations.
B. The United Nation’s General Assembly approved only resolutions on human rights and basic
freedoms which are not binding.
C. The United Nations as an international body is rather slow in the exercise of its powers.
D. The solutions used are effective.

141. Which part of the Allied action has been detailed in this passage?

After Saddam Hussein violated international arguments by sending Iraq troops to Kuwait and
missiles into neighboring countries, the Allies responded with military action.

A. The movement of Allied Troops with Iraq

B. The Allied bases in Saudi Arabia
C. The air campaign in the Baghdad area
D. The ground was in the desert

142. Which family obligation is especially valued?

A. Supplying groceries to relatives in remote barrios

B. Keeping immediate family members out of trouble
C. Providing health assistance to relatives living in the same locale
D. Sending to college relatives in remote barrios

143. The Soviet Union’s attempt to establish a missile base in Cuba is interpreted as a direct
violation of
A. the Declaration of Independence
B. the Truman Doctrine
C. the Monroe Doctrine
D. the Strategic Arms Limitation Talks (SALT)

144. Thousands of street children in large Brazilian cities were murdered by paramilitary death
squads which included police officers. What could be the reason why these operations were not
suppressed the government?

A. To how they treat their people was nobody else’s business.

B. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was only lip service.
C. The business people even funded these operations to clean up their streets and neighborhoods.
D. Totalitarian governments do not give protection to their people.

145. Which one is the human right to life?

A. Live in national and international order C. Own property

B. Fair trial D. Peace

146. Carter’s part in relinquishing U.S. control of the Central Zone to Panama is declared victory
for __________.

A. conservatism C. isolationism
B. anti-imperialism D. imperialism

147. Of the following changes in the socio-economic, political cultural and physical that have
occurred in the Filipino family, which one remains to be
TRUE?

A. The continued parental influence over children’s language dress and other behavior
B. The unity of the family despite competing demands
C. The continued support for parents and siblings
D. The loss of the traditional evening prayer and the ritual of blessing (mano)

148. Which of the following foreign policy action today is a direct result of early American
imperialist policy?

A. America’s patrolling of waters off the Libyan coast

B. Stationing of American troops in West Germany
C. America’s military support of Israel in the Middle East
D. America’s establishment of military bases in the Philippines

149. Which one BEST defines personal integrity?

A. The unity between ignorance and reality

B. The relationship between virtue and conduct
C. The unity of man’s deeds, words, thoughts and realities
D. The unity of mans social, political and physical aspects

150. The undeclared war in Korea most closely resembled the situation of

A. Vietnam War C. The Spanish-American War

B. World War I D. World War II

151. Which one is NOT personal integrity?

A. Place C. Time
B. Harmony D. Order

152. Julieta Villaruel was a landowner from Cabiao, Nueva Ecija, Under the CARL, she was
claiming 8 hectares, 5 hectares of which represented the retention limit and 3 hectares for her
only child. Why was her child denied the 3 hectares?

A. Her son was 17 years old who was managing the farm
B. Her son was 19 years old who was actually tiling or managing the farm
C. Her son was 15 years old who was actually tiling the farm
D. Her son was 13 years old who has been helping till the farm

153. Which is the MOST important perceived need and problem of the Filipino family?

A. Double standard on the roles of male and female

B. Proveness to vices
C. Protectiveness of children
D. Unemployment or financial problem

154. The following are legitimate children, EXCEPT

A. those legitimated.
B. those born out a valid marriage of the parents.
C. those born during a valid marriage of the parents.
D. those born by artificial insemination.

155. Two days after Japan attacked Pearl Harbor, Roosevelt made the following statements:

“ In the past few years and most violently in the past few days, we learned a terrible lesson. We
must begin the great task that is before us by abandoning once and for all the illusion that we can
ever again isolate ourselves from the rest of the humanity.”

In the statement, Roosevelt is expressing the ideas of ________.

A. an isolationist C. anti-imperialist
B. an imperialist D. internationalist
156. The San Pascual Credit Cooperative of Quezon City wishes to apply for a loan of five
million pesos from one of the financial institution, EXCEPT

A. Philippine National Bank C. Central Bank of the Philippines

B. Land Bank of the Philippines D. Development Bank of the Philippines

157. Carolina Diaz filed a petition for habeas corpus against Mr. and Mrs. Ramon Alde to
recover custody of Lina Diaz Tan alias "Gracia Alde,” the natural daughter of Carolina Diaz,
who was a hostess.

What could be the possible action of the court on the petition filed by Carolina Diaz?

A. Her petition would be denied because she was a former hostess.

B. Her petition would be denied because when Gracia was given to the Aldes it was tantamount
to abandonment of the child, resulting to termination of parental authority.
C. Her petition would be granted because she is the natural mother.
D. Her petition would be granted because she now works as a clerk in a prestigious office.

158. Why did the register of deeds charge Lucio Cruz registration fee the instrument relative to
his loan?

A. His loan was P40,000.00 C. His loan was P50,000.00

B. His loan was P30,000.00 D. His loan was P60,000.00

159. Of the following, which is imposed a final tax of ten percent(10%)?

A. Currently bank deposit

B. PCSO and lotto winnings
C. Books, literary works and musical compositions
D. Royalties

160. Where would you commit a drug dependent for him to achieve a natural, tensionless, and
anxiety-free state?

A. DARN C. DARE
B. NFPI D. Bukang Liwayway Center

161. Mang Tacio has been unemployed for quite sometimes due to his negative attitude towards
work. Which program of the Department of Social Welfare and Services will help him?

A. Social Insurance Program C. HRD Program

B. Anti-Medicancy Program D. Income in Kind Program

162. The main message of the Moral Recovery Program launched by Letecia Ramos Shahani
starts with the _____________.
A. World C. nation
B. self D. family

163. One of the most outstanding accomplishments of the cooperative movement is the
encouragement of thrift. Which maxim of God puts this into practice?

A. “Happy are those who are merciful to others; God will be merciful to them!”
B. “God helps those who help themselves.”
C. “He is near to those who call to Him, who call to Him with sincerity.”
D. “Look at the birds: they do not plant seeds, gather a harvest and put it in barns; yet your father
in heaven takes care of them!”

164. Which refers to the FUNNEL EFFECT?

A. The belief that every criminal gets caught and is pushed

B. The idea that only a very few suspects arrested for committing a crime are actually punished.
C. The idea that all crimes are put into the same criminal justice system
D. The belief that crimes is under control in the United States.

165. Why was San Andres Cooperative Association of Paco, Manila not exempted
from taxation?

A. It accumulated reserves and undivided net savings P9,000,000.00

B. It accumulated reserves and undivided net savings P11,000.00
C. It accumulated reserves and undivided net savings P10,000.00
D. It accumulated reserves and undivided net savings P8,000,000.00

166. Which is the main goal of drug abuse education?

A. Arrest C. Rehabilitation
B. Control D. Prevention

167. Which are limited only to the safe of real property and stock transaction?

A. Business income C. Employment income

B. Capital gains D. Passive income

168. Which theory was asserted by the Pan-German belief in the superiority of the Aryan race
and that the strength of the German culture came from a strong, healthy and rustic lineage.

A. Dependency Theory
B. Social Darwinist Theory
C. Culture Poverty Theory
D. Theory of Capitalism
169. Which has become a prototype of other schemes that defeated the real and true purpose of
the CARL?

A. The conversion of farmlands to industrial complexes

B. The stocks option scheme of Hacienda Luisita
C. The conversion from agriculture to subdivision
D. The voluntary offer to sell

170. Lucy’s husband has been a drug dependent. She wanted him rehabilitated to be
economically productive. Where will she commit her husband?

A. DARE C. Bukang Liwayway Center

B. NFPI D. DARN

171. Which Law of force and motion explains this occurrence, when a rocket is propelled
upward by the powerful downward discharged of exhaust gases?

A. Inertia C. Applied Force

B. Universal Gravitation D. Action and Reaction

172. Which of the following BEST demonstrate the greenhouse principle?

A. A heated aquarium C. A microwave oven

B. A car with rolled-up windows D. A solar battery-powered calculator

173. New ponies, perennial plants that produce showy flowers can be propagated from the parent
plant by dividing corns that grow underground. This reproductive form resembles a ________.

A. bud C. bulb
B. runner D. seed

174. What does a stick of unlit dynamite demonstrate?

A. Chemical energy C. Kinetic energy

B. Nuclear energy D. Potential energy

175. In an experiment, a drop of blue ink is placed on the surface of a glass of water. In a few
minutes, the drop of ink is dispersed throughout the water, turning it light blue. The result of the
experiment proves that

A. heat causes the ink to disperse

B. ink molecules have less density than water molecules
C. molecules of ink and molecules of water are in constant motion
D. a new compound is formed by the combination of ink and water
176. In an experiment, a vacuum is created when air is removed from a tube. A coin and bits of
confetti are released in the vacuum at the same time. They fall at the same rate and reach the
bottom at the same time. The experiment proves that

I. In a vacuum, the rate of accelerator is the same for all objects regardless of weight.
II. Outside a vacuum air resistance is what makes different objects fall at different rates.
III. Gravity has no effect at all on objects that fall in a vacuum.

A. I and III C. II and III

B. I,II and III D. I and II

177. As a representative of the Urban Poor Commission of the Association of Religious

Superiors (ARS), which action will you most likely take to resolve the long-term roots of
structural inequalities-proliferation of child labor and child prostitution?

A. Conduct skills training.

B. Raise questions over government’s commitment to rebuild human rights.
C. Raise views of human rights abuse.
D. Organize regular programs for information and discussion of human rights.

178. If a farmer would want assistance like pricing, guarantee for all agricultural produce or
cooperative management training, where would he go?

A. Special Agrarian Court under the Regional Trial Court

B. Land Bank
C. Support services of the Department of Agrarian Reform
D. DAR adjudication board

Situation 1 – Below is the poem written by Edgar Lee Masters in 1915:

At first I suspected something __________

She acted so calm and absent-minded.
And one day I heard the back door shut,
As I entered the front, and I saw him slink
Back of the smokehouse into the lot,
And across the filed.
And I meant to kill him on sight.
But that day, walking near Fourth Bridge,
All of a sudden I saw him standing,
Scared to death, holding his rabbits,
And all I could say was, “Don’t, Don’t Don’t,”
As he aimed and fired at my heart/

179. The way in which the poet present these words in line 12 implies that Tom
A. tried to annoy the other man.
B. did not want to hurt the other man.
C. begged the man to stop seeing his wife.
D. was shot before he finished the statement

180. The poet introduces the poem with lines 1-3 to show us that Tom Merritt

A. was sure that his wife still loved him

B. was a very suspicious person
C. was sure that his wife was ill
D. had suspected that his wife was seeing another man

181. Which of the following techniques is used in the poem?

A. Rhyme C. Free verse

B. Verse D. Personification

182. Who is the speaker of this poem?

A. The sheriff C. God

B. Tom Merritt D. Merritt’s wife

Situation 2 – below is an excerpt from John F. Kennedy’s “Inaugural Address.” Read the excerpt
and answer the questions that follows

In your hands, my fellow citizens, more than mine, will rest the final success or failure of our
course. Since this country as founded, each generation of Americas has been summoned to give
testimony to its national loyalty. The graves of young Americans into answered the call to
service surround the globe.

Now the trumpet summons us again-not as a call to bear arms, though arms we need, not as a call
to battle, though embattled we are; but a call to bear the burden of a long twilight struggle, year
in and year out, “rejoicing in hope, patient in tribulation,” a struggle against the common
enemies of many tyranny, poverty, disease, and war itself.

Can we forge against these enemies a grand and global alliance, North and South, East and West,
that can assure a more fruitful life for all mankind? Will you join me in this historic effort?

In the long history of the world, only a few generations have been granted the role of defending
freedoms in its hour of maximum danger. I do not shrink responsibility; I welcome it. I do not
believe that any of us would exchange places with any other people with any other people or any
other generation. The energy, the faith, the devotions which we bring to this endeavor will light
our country and all who serve it, and the glow from that fire can truly light the world.

And so, my fellow Americans, ask not what your country can do for you; ask what you can do
for your country.
My Fellow citizens of the world, ask not what America will do for you, but what together we can
do for the freedom of man.

183. The speech is characterized by all of the following stylistic devices EXCEPT

A. the repetition of key words

B. the use of the personal pronouns we and us to build rapport with listeners
C. a standard, predictable rhythm and the use of rhyme
D. catchy turns of phase in which subjects and objects are inverted

184. In the speech, Kennedy paints a picture of the United States as a nation that is

A. on the brink of world war C. the leading defender of freedom

B. longing to return to the past D. struggling to survive

185. The tone of the speech can BEST be

characterized as

A. sad C. light-hearted
B. sarcastic D. uplifting

186. One of the purposes of the speech is to motivate listeners to

A. enlist the armed forces C. preserve the right to bear arms

B. prepare themselves for battle D. serve their country

Situation 3 – Below is a Boigraphical sketch of an American movie writer:

How did Elvis Presley Achieve Recognition

Success often comes to those with humble beginnings. Elvis Aaron Presley was born on January
8, 1935 in Tupelo, Mississippi. He first sang in a church and taught himself to play the guitar, but
he never learned to read music. By 1953, he had moved to Memphis, Tennessee, graduated from
high school. And enrolled in night school to become an electrician. That year, at Sun Records,
Presley recorded a personal record for his mother, a song that was heard by the company’s
president. As a result of the president’s recognition Presley’s first record “That’s All Right
Mama,” was out in 1954.

He toured the South, and in 1955 five of his record were released simultaneously. His first
national television appearance was that year of Jackie Gleason’s “The Stage Show.” But Presley
became known for his appearance on “The Ed Sullivan Show,” where young singer gyrated as he
sang “rock n’ roll” music. During the live television performance, Presley wad photographed
only from the waist up because his motions were considered obscene.
“Elvis the Pelvis” began his film career in 1956 with LOVE ME TENDER and signed a long-
term film contract. The movie critics were not always kind, but teenagers flocked to Presley’s
films. Within a few short years, Presley had established a career that would span twenty-five
years of ups and down and make him one of the most popular entertainers in history. Long after
his untimely death at age 42, Presley would be remembered as “The King of Rock n Roll.”

187. The main idea of the sketch is that

A. there has always been obscenity on television

B. singers are more successful if they appear in films
C. celebrities are usually more famous after their death
D. opportunity and luck are often as important as hard work

188. The statement that ”success often comes to those with humble beginnings” would apply
best to which of the following figures?

A. Corazon C. Aquino C. Ramon Magsaysay

B. Joseph Estrada D. Gloria M. Arroyo

189. The last sentence reveals that the author’s attitude toward Presley
is one of

A. disbelief C. disgust
B. admiration D. indifference

190. The author uses the phrase ups and downs to refer to Presley’s

A. gyrations as performed
B. use of drugs, ”uppers and downers”
C. successes and disappointments in his career
D. increasing and decreasing finances

Situation 4- The poem below is entitled “Suburban Prophecy” which is

written by Howard Nemerov

On Saturday, the power-mowers’ whine

Begins the morning. Over this neighborhood
Rises the keening, petulant voice, begin
Green oily teeth to chatter and munch the cud.

Monster, crawling the carpets of the world,

Still send from underground against your blades
The roots of things battalions greens and curled
And tender, that will match your blades with blades
Till the revolted throats shall strangle on
The tickle of their dead, till straws shall break
Crankshafts like camels, and the sun go down
On dinosaurs in swamps. And night attack
Follows and by the time the Sabbath dawns
All armored beasts are eaten by their lawns.

191. To what does the phrase “your blades” in line 8 refer?

A. Monster C. Carpets
B. Lawmowers D. Roots

192. The poet’s use of words such as whine, voice, teeth, chatter and munch is to suggest that the
power-mowers are

A. very powerful C. green

B. alive D. like cows

193. The imagery in the first stanza appeals to the reader’s sense of

A. touch C. hearing
B. sight D. smell

194. How long does the action of poet take place?

A. A morning C. A week
B. An Afternoon D. Twenty-four hours

Situation 5 – Ang sumusunod ay isang talumpati na may pamagat na SA KABATAAN

na isinulat ni Onofre Pagsanghan

Isa sa mga salitang napag-aralan natin sa wikang Pilipino ay salitang NABANSOT. Kapag ang
isang bagay daw ay dapat pang lumaki ngunit ito’y tumigil na sa paglaki, ang bagay na ito raw
ay NABANSOT. Marami raw uri ngpagkabansot ngunit ang pinakamalungkot na uri raw ay ang
ng isipan, ng puso at ng diwa.

Ang panahon ng kabataan ay panahon ng pagklaki, ngunit ang ating paglaki ay kailangang
paglaki at pag-unlad ng ating buong katauhan. Hindi lamang ng atinmg sukat at timbang. Kung
ga-poste man ang ating at ga-pison man angating bigat ngunit kung ang pag-iisip namat nati’y
ga-kulisap lamang kay pangit na kabansutan. Kung tumangkad man tayong tangkad-kawayan at
bumilog man tayong bilog-tapayan, ngunit kung tayo nama’y tulad ni “bondying” ay di
pagkatiwalaan anong laking kakulangan. Kung magkakatawan tayong katawang “Tarza” at
mapatalas ang ating isipang sintalas ng kay Rizal, ngunit kung ang ating kalooban nama’y itim
na duwende ng kasamaan anong kapinsalaan para sa kinabukasan.

Kinabukasan, kabataan, tayo raw ang pag-asa ng inang Bayan. Tayo raw ang maghahatid sa
kanya sa lagnit ng kaganaan at karangalan o hihila sa kanya sa putik ng kahirapan at kahihiyan.
Ang panahon ng pagkilos ay ngayon, hindi bukas, hindi sa isang taon. Araw-araw ay tumatawid
tayong palangit o bumabaluktod tayong paputik. Tamang-tama ang sabi ng ating mga ninunong
kung ano raw ang kinamihasnan ay siyang pagkakatandaan. Huwag nating akalaing
makapagpapabaya tayo ng ating pag-aaral ngayon at sa araw ng bukas ay bigla tayong maging
mga dalubhasang magpapaunlad sa bayan. Huwag nating akalaing makapaglulublob tayo ngayon
sa kalaswaan at kahalayan at sa mahiwagang araw ng bukas bigla tayong magiging ulirang mga
magulang.

Kabataan, tunay na pag-ibig sa bayan, ang tunay na nasyonalismo, ay wala sa tamis ng pagnarap
wala rin sa pagpag ng dila. Ang tunay na pag-ibig ay nasa pawis ng gawa.

195. Alin salita ang paulit-ulit na binabangit ni Onofre Pagsanghan?

A. Bayan C. Kabataan
B. Kung D. Nabansot

196. Sa alin makikita ang tunay na NASYONALISMO?

A. Diwa C. Sulat
B. Salita D. Gawa

197. Bakit di dapat tumangkad tulad ni “bondying”?

A. Magulo kasi ito

B. Di ito mapagkakatiwalaan
C. May kakulangan ito
D. Di totoo ito

198. Alin sa mga sumususnod ang mensahe ng taluimpati?

A. Ang mataas na paniniwala at taimtim na pananalig ay

kailangang taglayin upang ang hangarin sa buhay ay ating kamtin.
B. Ang panahon ng kabataan ay panahon ng paglaki at
pagbabagong makabuluhan.
C. Ang gawa ang siyang sukat ng kadakilaan.
D. Ang kabataan ay siyang pag-asa ng bayan.

199. Which one should be TRUE if Earth’s rotation axis did not tilt?

I. Days and nights would be the same length everywhere on Earth

II. There would be no hours of darkness on points on points along the equator
III. Earth would have no seasons
IV. Each part of the Earth would have the same daily temperature pattern
A. II and IV C. III and IV
B. IV and I D. I and III

200. What values are being given priority by juries in criminal cases?

A. The rights of the criminal over the strict interpretation of the law
B. The safety of the community over sympathy for the criminal
C. The punishment of the criminal over the safety of the community
D. The needs of the criminals over the advice

ANSWER KEY
GENERAL EDUCATION (Elementary)

1. D 51. B 101. E 151. B

2. C 52. C 102. C 152. A

3. A 53. D 103. C 153. D
4. D 54. C 104. C 154. D
5. C 55. B 105. D 155. C
6. B 56. D 106. C 156. A
7. D 57. C 107. B 157. C
8. D 58. C 108. B 158. No answer
9. B 59. C 109. D 159. D
10. C 60. C 110. B 160. C
11. A 61. C 111. B 161. A
12. B 62. D 112. B 162. B
13. A 63. D 113. B 163. B
14. A 64. D 114. C 164. C
15. C 65. C 115. D 165. C
16. D 66. B 116. D 166. D
17. A 67. B 117. B 167. B
18. B 68 D 118. D 168. B
19. B 69. B 119. B 169. C
20. B 70. B 120. C 170. A
21. D 71. B 121. C 171. C
22. B 72. D 122. B 172. A
23. D 73. E 123. B 173. C
24. C 74. D 124. B 174. No answer
25. C 75. B 125. B 175. C
26. B 76. B 126. B 176. A
27. A 77. B 127. No answer 177. D
28. D 78. A 128. D 178. C
29. D 79. B 129. B 179. D
30. A 80. D 130. D 180. D
31. B 81. D 131. A 181. C
32. A 82. C 132. B 182. B
33. B 83. C 133. C 183. C
34. B 84. C 134. B 184. C
35. C 85. B 135. C 185. D
36. D 86. E 136. B 186. C
37. C 87. B 137. C 187. D
38. C 88. D 138. A 188. C
39. B 89. E 139. B 189. B
40. B 90. C 140. B 190. C
41. C 91. D 141. A 191. No answer
42. B 92. C 142. D 192. No answer
43. C 93. D 143. D 193. No answer
44. D 94. B 144. D 194. No answer
45. A 95. C 145. A 195. C
46. C 96. C 146. D 196. D
47. B 97. E 147. B 197. B
48. C 98. E 148. D 198. C
49. C 99. B 149. B 199. D
50. D 100. B 150. A 200. A

MGA TEORYA NG PINAGMULAN NG WIKA

Filipino

TEORYANG BOW -WOW Ginagaya nila ang tunog na nililikha ng mga hayop gaya ng tahol
ng aso, tilaok ng manok at huni ng ibon. Ginagaya naman daw ng tao ang tunog ng kalikasan at
paligid gaya ng ihip ng hangin, patak ng ulan at langitngit ng kawayan.

TEORYANG DING DONG Lahat ng bagay may sariling tunog na siyang kumakatawan sa
bawat isa at ang tunog niyon ang siyang ginagad ng mga sinaunang tao na kalauna’y
nagpabago-bago at nilapatan ng iba’t ibang kahulugan.

TEORYANG DING DONG May sariling tunog na kumakatawan sa lahat ng bagay sa

kapaligiran. Halimbawa: tsug- tsugTinawag din ito ni Max Muller na simbolismo ng tunog. 
ng tren, tik- tak ng orasan.

TEORYANG POOH -POOH Nakalilikha ng tunog sanhi ng bugso ng damdamin. Gamit ang
bibig, napabubulalas ang mga tunog ng pagdaing na dala ng takot, lungkot, galit, saya at
paglalaan ng lakas.

TEORYANG TA-RA-RA- BOOM DE AY- Ang wika ng tao ay nag –ugat sa mga tunog na
kanilang nilikha sa mga ritwal na kalauna’y nagpapabagu-bago at nilapatan ng iba’t ibang
kahulugan. Halimbawa: pagsayaw, pagsigaw at incantation o mga bulong na ginagawa tuwing
makikidigma, pagtatanim at iba pa.
TEORYANG SING-SONG Iminungkahi ng linggwistang si Jesperson na ang wika ay nagmula
sa- paglalaro, pagtawa, pagbulong sa sarili, panliligaw at iba pang mga bulalas- emosyunal.
Iminungkahi pa niya na taliwas sa iba pang teorya, ang mga unang salita ay sadyang mahahaba
at musikal, at hindi maiikling bulalas na pinaniniwalaan ng marami.

TORE NG BABEL Teoryang nahalaw mula sa Banal na Kasulatan. Nagkaroon ng panahon

kungsaan ang wika ay iisa lamang. Napag-isipang magtayo ng isang tore upang hindi na
magkawatak-watak at nang mahigitan ang Panginoon. Nang malaman ito ng Panginoon,
bumababa Siya at sinira ng tore. Nang nawasak na ang tore, nagkawatak-watak na ang tao dahil
iba-iba na ang wikang kanilang binibigkas kaya nagkanya-kanya na sila at kumalat sa mundo.

TEORYANG YOO HE YO- Pinaniniwalaan ng linggwistang si A.S Diamond (2003) na ang

tao ay natutong magsalita bunga diumano ng kanyang puwersang pisikal.

TEORYANG TA -TA Ayon sa teoryang ito, ang kumpas o galaw ng kamay ng tao na
kanyang ginagawa sa bawat partikular na okasyon ay ginaya ng dila at naging sanhi ng
pagkatuto ng taong lumikha ng tunog at kalauna’y nagsalita. Tinatawag itong ta-tana sa wikang
Pranses ay nangangahulugang paalam o goodbye sapagkat kapag ang isang tao nga namang
nagpapaalam ay kumakampay ang kamay nang pababa at pataas katulad ng pagbaba at pagtaas
na galaw ng dila kapag binibigkas ang salitang ta-ta.

Teoryang Mama - Nagmula ang wika sa mga pinakamadadaling pantig ng pinakamahahalagang

Pansinin nga naman ang mga bata. Sa una’ y hindi niya masasabi angbagay. salitang mother
ngunit dahil ang unang pantig ng nasabing salita ang pinakamahalaga diumano, una niyang
nasasabi ang mama bilang panumbas sa salitang mother.

Teoryang Hey you - Iminungkahi ng linggwistang si Revesz na bunga ng interpersonal na

kontak ng tao sa kanyang kapwa tao ang wika. Ayon kay Revesz, nagmula ang wika sa mga
tunog na nagbabadya ng pagkakakilanlan (Ako!) at pagkakabilang (Tayo!). Napapabulalas din
tayo bilang pagbabadya ng takot, galit o sakit (Saklolo!). Tinatawag din itong teoryang kontak.

Teoryang Coo Coo - Ang wika ay nagmula sa mga tunog na nalilikha ng mga sanggol. Ang mga
tunog daw na ito ang ginaya ng mga matatanda bilang pagpapangalan sa mga bagay- bagay sa
paligid, taliwas sa paniniwala ng marami na ang mga bata ang nanggagaya ng tunog ng mga
matatanda.

Teoryang Babble Lucky - Ang wika raw ay nagmula sa mga walang kahulugang bulalas ng tao.
Sa pagbubulalas ng tao, sinuwerte lamang daw siya nang ang mga hindi sinasadya at walang
kabuluhang tunog na kanyang nalikha ay naiugnay sa mga bagay-bagay sa paligid na kalaunan
ay naging pangalan ng mga iyon.

Teoryang Hocus Pocus - Ayon kay Boeree (2003), maaaring ang pinanggalingan ng wika ay
tulad ng pinanggalingan ng mga mahikal o relihiyosong Maaari raw kasing noo’y tinatawag
ngaspeto ng pamumuhay ng ating mga ninuno. mga unang tao ang mga hayop sa pamamagitan
ng mga mahikal na tunog na kalaunan ay naging pangalan ng bawat hayop.
Teoryang Eureka! Sadyang inimbento/nilikha ang wika ayon sa teoryang ito ayon kay Maaari
raw na ang ating mga ninuno ay may ideya ng pagtatakda(Boeree, 2003). Nang angng mga
arbitraryong tunog upang ipakahulugan sa mga tiyak na bagay. mga ideyang iyon ay nalikha,
mabilis na iyong kumalat sa iba pang tao at naging kalakaran sa pagpapangalan ng mga bagay-
bagay.

1. Which of the following is not a benefit of technology in education?

a. Improves critical-thinking abilities.

b. Unlimited access to games and other internet sites.

c. Allows cooperative learning.

d. Increases self-expression.

2. Which situation shows that technology can be used to motivate students to learn?

a. Teacher Eric employs educational games related to the lesson they are taking.

b. Miss Cleo designs lessons which use cooperative learning with technology integration.

c. Mr. Jimmy utilizes computer assisted instruction programs so that students will learn at their
own pace.

d. Teacher Sarah assigns projects to her class where self-expression and creativity is
acknowledged.

3. He is considered as the “Father of Modern Media in Education”.

a. Jean Piaget

b. Robert Gagne

c. B.F. Skinner

d. Edgar Dale

4. It is a term to denote a whole range of technologies associated with processing information

and with sending and receiving messages.

a. Educational Technology
b. Information and Communication Technology

c. Media Technology

d. Instructional Systems Design

5. A methodology widely used for developing new training programs.

a. Microsoft

b. World Wide Web

c. Instructional Systems Design

d. Computer Technology

6. This is considered to be the first manual data processing device developed in China in the 12th
century A.D.

a. Hieroglyphics

b. Papyrus

c. Printing Press

d. Abacus

7. He is considered to be the “Father of Computing” because of his contributions to the basic

design of computer.

a. John Napier

b. William Oughtred

c. Blaise Pascal

d. Charles Babbage

8. Which is the standard input device that accepts letters, numbers and commands from the user?

a. Trackpad

b. Lightpen

c. Mouse
d. Keyboard

9. Mr. Rico carefully studies the materials he acquired from the internet. He always examines if
the author is qualified to present the material. This practice is?

a. necessary to ensure that the materials are reliable.

b. unethical because he does not trust the author.

c. unnecessary because all resources from the internet are dependable.

d. just a waste of time.

10. When a teacher asks the consistency of a material taken from the internet with other available
materials, he/she is concerned with its?

a. relevance

b. accuracy

c. coverage

d. currency

Answers: 1B 2A 3D 4B 5C 6D 7D 8D 9A 10B

1. What factor was a major cause of both World War I and World War II?

a. The spread of Marxian ideas into Europe

b. The dropping of atomic bombs

c. Nationalism and national borders

d. The rise of totalitarian fascist states

2. In which organization is the Philippines a member to fight communist aggression?

a. APEC

b. ASA

c. UN

d. SEATO
3. The theory that population increases by geometrical ratio while the means of subsistence
increases by arithmetical ratio is attributed to?

a. Karl Marx

b. Robert Malthus

c. Emile Durkheim

d. Aristotle

4. In what instance is the Filipino double-standard morality shown?

a. A couple brings their sick child to the doctor then later to the espiritista

b. Young parents bring up their children in a manner different from how they were brought up

c. Illiterate parents are eager to send their children to school even if they themselves did not go to
school

d. A married man who flirts with someone else other than his wife seems acceptable but a
married woman who flirts with another man is condemned.

5. Which part of Asia does the Arabian peninsula occupy?

a. Northwest

b. Southeast

c. Southwest

d. Northeast

6. The important factors which have contributed to the weakness in the internalization of
desirable values is the?

a. Lack of models among the very people expected to exemplify these values

b. Use of approaches which are mainly cognitive rather than effective

c. Lack of follow up systems from one grade level to another

d. Minimum recognition and appreciation given to teachers

7. To govern is to rule and the government rules by laws. Whose main duty is the enforcement of
laws?
a. Police department

b. Judiciary department

c. Legislative department

d. Executive department

8. The term that refers to the class of Filipinos who were free and independent

a. Timawa

b. Maharlika

c. Aliping namamahay

d. Aliping saguiguilid

9. The Spanish expedition responsible for naming the archipelago Filipinas

a. Magellan’s expedition

b. Loarca expedition

c. Legaspi expedition

d. Villalobos expedition

10. The third and last military governor of the Philippines was

a. Gen. Wesley Merritt

b. Gen. Elwell Otis

c. Gen. Arthur MacArthur

d. Gen. Douglas MacArthur

11. Which Katipunan member commuted from Cavite to Manila to buy materials used to make
ammunitions?

a. Teresa Magbanua

b. Agueda Esteban

c. Teodora Alonso
d. Trinidad Tecson

12.Which economic system is based on free enterprise?

a. Globalism

b. Mixed economies

c. Capitalism

d. Communism

13. How is the so-called colonial mentality manifested?

a. Cultural relativism

b. Cultural diversity

c. Xenocentrism

d. Ethnocentrism

14. Which is a safeguard against unfair trade practices like short-weighing?

a. Total Quality Movement

b. Consumerism

c. Consumer vigilance

d. Substandardization

15. If the seven continents were arranged from largest to smallest, in which order does Australia
fall?

a. 4th

b. 5th

c. 6th

8. 7th

16. In which continent can we find stormy Cape Horn which is known as the graveyard of ships
and sailors?
a. Africa

b. Australia

c. South America

d. Asia

17. Which led to the creation of Pakistan as a nation in 1947? Religious differences between

a. Hindus and Christians

b. Christians and Muslims

c. Hindus and Buddhists

d. Hindus and Muslims

18. Which is common to Sun Yat Sen and Mahatma Gandhi?

a. Promoted a society ruled by religious leaders

b. Rejected violence as a way to political power

c. Led a successful nationalistic movement in their respective countries

d. Supported Marxist philosophy to change existing governments

19. Nebuchadnezzar was to the Babylonian Empire as Asoka was to the ______ Empire.

a. Roman

b. Gupta

c. Greek

d. Maurya

20. With the opposition of the parity rights in mind, who does NOT belong to the group?

a. Claro M. Recto

b. Jose Laurel

c. Manuel Roxas
d. Pedro Taruc

21. When the Filipino reformists asked for the assimilation of the Philippines by Spain, what did
they ask for? For the Philippines to ____

a. Become independent from Spain

b. Become a province of Spain

c. Be independent from Spain with certain conditions

d. Be represented in the Spanish Cortes

22. Who among the Presidents changed the date of our celebration of Independence day from
July 4 to June 12?

a. Ramon Magsaysay

b. Diosdado Macapagal

c. Carlos Garcia

d. Ferdinand Marcos

23. In which country did the Philippines participate in the world’s peacekeeping operations by
sending doctors, nurses, soldiers and police?

a. Israel

b. East Timor

c. Iraq

d. Iran

24. In which poem did Rizal write about offering one’s life for one’s country?

a. A La Juventud Filipina

b. Song of Maria Clara

c. Sa Aking mga Kabata

d. Mi Ultimo Adios
25. As an effect of our geography, in which of the following island/s do people travel mostly by
water?

a. Luzon

b. Mindanao

c. Visayas

d. Visayas and Mindanao

26. As an insular country, to which principle does the Philippines adhere when it comes to
territorial boundary?

a. Two hundred nautical miles of the country’s coast

b. Three hundred fifty nautical miles from shore

c. Three-mile territorial limit

d. Archipelagic doctrine

27. Which part/s of the Visayas has/have comparatively more excessively moist climate and
limited arable lands?

a. Western

b. Eastern

c. Eastern and Central

d. Central and Western

28. Which follows Pres. Garcia’s “Filipino First Policy”? Filipinos

a. Should buy and consume Filipino products only

b. Should not contribute to the brain drain problem

c. Should be selective in the entry in the entry of foreign professionals in the country

d. Were to be given first preference in all matters related to the economic development of the
country

29. Aside from the Philippines, which countries claim part of the Spratly islands in the South
China Sea?
a. China, Thailand, Brunei, Malaysia

b. China, Taiwan, Vietnam, Malaysia

c. Indonesia, China, Taiwan, Malaysia

d. China, Thailand, Brunei, Malaysia

30. The following are our constitutional rights EXCEPT to

a. Free access to legal assistance which shall not be denied due to poverty

b. Have access to all records of the government

c. Be presumed innocent until proven guilty

d. Form association and labor unions

Answers: 1D 2D 3B 4D 5C 6A 7D 8A 9D 10C 11B 12C 13C 14C 15D 16C 17D 18B 19D 20C
21B 22B 23C 24D 25C 26D 27B 28D 29B 30B

1. Which of the following statements best describes a hypothetical element with an electron
configuration of 1s22s22p63s23p5?

a. The hypothetical element has an atomic number of 11.

b. The hypothetical element is a member of Group V, otherwise called the Nitrogen Group.

c. The hypothetical element is in the fifth position in the p-block, along the third period of the
periodic table.

d. The hypothetical element is located at the third position of the p-block, along the fifth period
of the periodic table.

2. Despite the observed diversity among organisms, they are all made from the same set of
biomolecules composed of monomeric units except:

a. Proteins

b. Carbohydrates

c. Nucleic Acids
d. Lipids and Fats

3. What will be formed when radium isotope, with 88 protons and 138 neutrons undergoes alpha
decay?

a. Radon Atom (Rn222) with 86 Protons

b. Francium Atom (Fr222) with 87 Protons

c. Actinium Atom (Ac222) with 89 Protons

d. Thorium Atom (Th232) with 90 Protons

4. Which of the following examples best illustrates application of Boyle’s Law?

a. A tire becomes harder as more air is pumped into it.

b. A sealed aerosol can explodes when thrown into a fire.

c. A balloon expands and bursts when exposed to direct sunlight.

d. A scuba divers stops at certain depths as he ascends to the ocean’s surface.

5. Three liquids A, B, C were studied in a laboratory. Liquid A was found to float over B and C.
It was also found that liquid A flows fastest among the three. What can be said about liquid A?

a. Densest and most viscous

b. Densest and least viscous

c. Least dense and most viscous

d. Least dense and least viscous

6. Which of the following statements represents a physical change?

a. An antacid tablet forms bubbles when dissolved in water.

b. A flashlight beam slowly gets dimmer and finally dies out over time.

c. The lawn grows thicker every day because fertilizers were added into the soil.

d. Frozen mango juice melted when left standing at room temperature for 30 minutes.

7. Which of the following best explains why farmers burn rice straw and hull during seasons of
harvest?
a. Burning rice hulls and straws produce compounds that act as repellant for pests which may
damage plantation.

b. The smoke produced by burning rice hulls and straws stimulate growth and fruit bearing of
trees.

c. Rice hulls and straws are burned so that more spaces will be available for planting next set of
crops.

d. Ash from burnt rice hulls and straws are rich in compounds that could neutralize acidic soil so
that more crops will grow

8. Acid rain occurs when ____________.

8. Acid rain occurs when _________.

a. carbon dioxide combines with water in the atmosphere.

b. phosphorus-rich water in lakes evaporates to form phosphoric acid.

c. sulfur released in burning fossil fuels combines with water in the atmosphere.

d. excess hydrogen is released into the atmosphere to produce acids.

9. Why is it difficult to integrate nitrogen gas from the atmosphere into the nitrogen cycle of the
biosphere?

a. Nitrogen is very abundant in the atmosphere

b. Living organisms quickly absorb nitrogen gas

c. Oceans quickly absorb nitrogen gas

d. Few organisms can directly utilize atmospheric nitrogen

10. Which of the following sentences about greenhouse effect is INCORRECT?

a. Greenhouse gases trap heat in the atmosphere which are returned to the earth’s surface.

b. Greenhouse effect is important in maintaining the temperature of the earth.

c. Greenhouse effect is due to gases that absorb the green region of light from the sun.

d. Greenhouse effect increases the overall surface temperature of the earth.

11. When a gardener propagates a plant by taking cuttings, he plants his cutting in a well-watered
soil in a plant pot. What is the most likely reason why he may then cover the plant and pot with a
lightly perforated polythene bag?

a. To reduce the water demand of the cutting.

b. To decrease the rate of gaseous exchange by the plant.

c. To reduce the chance of attack by pests.

d. To protect the plant from cold weather.

12. It is a common observation that mushrooms thrive few days after lightning strikes. Which
among the following biogeochemical cycles is involved in this process?

a. Nitrogen cycle

b. Carbon-Oxygen cycle

c. Phosphorus cycle

d. Sulfur cycle

13. Which of the following factors contribute to an increase in human population?

I. Immigration II. Emigration

III. Natality IV. Mortality

a. III and IV

b. II and III

c. I only

d. I and III

14. Shown below is a simple food web in a grassy community. The arrow symbol means eaten
by. What would happen if all snakes are killed?

Grass>Grasshopper>Frog>Snake

Bird>Snake

a. Grass population would increase.

b. Grasshopper population would increase.

c. Bird and frog populations would increase.

d. Grasshopper and bird populations would increase.

15. Which of the following shows mechanical weathering of rocks?

a. formation of caverns

b. acids dissolves rocks

c. freezing water between rock particles

d. iron in rocks combine with oxygen

16. PAGASA announces the approach of the seasonal winds. The familiar names used are
Amihan and Habagat, internationally known as ________ and ________ respectively.

a. Northeast and southwest

b. Trade wind and easterlies

c. Southwest and northeast

d. Westerlies and easterlies

17. Fog is a cloud with its base at or very near the ground. The formation of fog generally occurs
after the ground has lost heat by:

a. Evaporation

b. Convection

c. Conduction

d. Radiation

18. Why do we see the sun rise in the east?

a. The earth revolves eastward.

b. The earth rotates from west to east.

c. We are located in the 20th meridian.

d. On the globe, we are located in the east.

19. If a voltage of 100 volts produces a current of 5 amperes in an electrical device, what is the
resistance?

a. 95 Ohms

b. 20 Ohms

c. 105 Ohms

d. 500 Ohms

20. Which of the following best differentiates an earthquake's intensity from its magnitude?

a. Intensity describes 'the depth from which the earthquake originated’ while magnitude refers to
‘the energy of the earthquake’.

b. Intensity cannot be measured while magnitude can be measured using a seismograph.

c. Intensity refers to the strength of the quake while magnitude refers to the degree of destruction
it caused at the epicenter.

d. Intensity is a measure of how much damage an earthquake cause at the surface while
magnitude is the strength of the quake.

21. Comparing the speed of sound in liquids, gases, and solids, the speed of sound is usually
lowest in ____ and highest in ____.

a. solids, gases

b. gases, liquids

c. liquids, solids

d. gases, solids

22. Which has a greater density, a lake full of water or a cupful of water?

a. The cup full of water

b. The lake full of water

c. Not enough information

d. They have the same density

23. A stainless steel spoon feels colder than a plastic spoon because stainless steel

a. absorbs less heat from the hand than plastic does

b. is really colder than plastic

c. has a lower temperature than plastic

d. conducts heat away from the hand faster than plastic does

24. Why is it NOT advisable to repeatedly open the door of a refrigerator?

a. It will loosen the hinges of the refrigerator's door

b. Leads to wastage in electrical energy.

c. Repeated opening introduces bacteria in to the refrigerator.

d. The warm air outside lowers the temperature inside thus making the refrigeration less-
efficient.

25. What kind of mirror is used in cars to give the driver a wider area and smaller image of the
traffic behind him/her?

a. Double concave

b. Convex

c. Plane

d. Concave

26. Why do we hear thunder some seconds after seeing lightning?

a. Light appears brighter in the sky.

b. Light travels faster than sound.

c. Sound travels 1.331 m/s

d. Sound is released later actually

27. Water has a higher specific heat than iron. What does this mean?

a. Water is hotter than iron

b. Water heats more rapidly than iron

c. Water is more dense than iron

d. Water heats more slowly than iron

28. If a colorblind man marries a woman who has normal vision and no history of the disease, it
is most probable that all of their :

a. daughters will be carriers

b. daughters will be colorblind

c. sons will be carriers

d. sons will be colorblind

29. Albino corn seedlings may grow several inches tall. However, they will eventually die,
primarily because

a. direct sunlight will destroy their cells

b. they lack adequate root system

c. they cannot produce their own food

d. they cannot obtain carbon dioxide

30. Mimosa pudica, locally known as Makahiya is called as such because its leaflets tend to close
when touched. This organismal response to a given stimuli is called:

a. Hydrotropism

b.Thigmotropism

c. Geotropism

d. Phototropism

Answers: 1C 2D 3A 4D 5D 6D 7D 8C 9D 10C 11A 12A 13D 14C 15C 16A 17D 18B 19B 20D
21D 22D 23D 24B 25B 26B 27D 28A 29C 30B
1. Two buses leave the same station at 8:00 pm. One bus travels north at the rate of 30 kph and
the other travels east at 40 kph. How many kilometers apart are the buses at 10 pm?

a. 140 km

b. 100 km

c. 70 km

d. 50 km

2. Calculate the mean absolute deviation of the following numbers: 60, 80, 100, 75 and 95

a. 12.4

b. 14.2

c. 16.1

d. 18.9

3. Which of the following is the factorization of the binomial x2 - 42?

a. (x + 4)(x + 2)

b. (x – 4)2

c. x(x + 2x + 2)

d. (x – 4)(x + 4)

4. What value of x will satisfy the equation: 0.4(5x - 1470) = x?

a. 490

b. 2,130

c. 1470

5. Which of the following has the greatest value:

a. 3 + 32 + (3 + 3)2

b. 33

c. [(3 + 3)2]2
d. (3 + 3 + 3)2

6. The average of 5 different counting numbers is 20. What is the highest possible value that one
of the numbers can have?

a. 20

b. 40

c. 30

d. 90

7. Three brothers inherited a cash amount of P62,000 and they divided it among themselves in
the ratio of 5:4:1. How much more is the largest share than the smallest share?

a. P75,000

b. P30,000

c. P24,800

8. What is the missing terms in the series 5, 20, 80, ___,1280, ___, 20, 480?

a. 50;210

b. 40;160

c. 35;135

d. 320;5120

9. At what rate per annum should P2400 be invested so that it will earn an interest of P800 in 8
years?

a. 6 ½ %

b. 5 ½ %

c. 4.17 %

d. 6 %

10. The area of a rectangle is (x2 + 2x - 8). If its length is x + 4, what is its width?

a. x + 2
b. x - 2

c. x + 1

d. x + 6

11. What is the value of 12⅙ - 3 ⅜ - 5 ⅔ + 20 ¾?

a. 21 1/8

b. 22

c. 23 7/8

d. 21

12. The vertex angle of an isosceles triangle is 20°. What is the measure of one of the base
angles?

a. 150°

b. 60°

c. 75°

d. 80°

13. Ana and Beth do a job together in three hours. Working alone, Ana does the job in 5 hours.
How long will it take Beth to do the job alone?

a. 3 and 1/3 hours

b. 2 and 1/3 hours

c. 3 hours

d. 7 and 1/2 hours

14. How much greater is the sum of the first 50 counting numbers greater than the sum of the
first 100 counting numbers?

a. 110

b. 3,775

c. 3,155
d. 1200

15. Which of the following has the largest value?

a. 85

b. 39

c. 65

d. 94

16. A water tank contains 18 liters when it is 20% full. How many liters does it contain when
50% full?

a. 60

b. 30

c. 58

d. 45

17. The edges of a rectangular solid have these measures: 1.5 feet by 1½ feet by 3 inches. What
is its volume in cubic inches?

a. 324

b. 225

c. 972

d. 27

18. In a certain school, the ratio of boys to girls is 5 is to 7. If there are 180 boys and girls in the
school, how many boys are there?

a. 105

b. 90

c. 45

d. 75
19. Ruben’s grades in 6 subjects are 88, 90, 97, 90, 91 and 86? What is the least grade that he
should aim for in the 7th subject if he has to have an average of 88?

a. 92

b. 74

c. 88

d. 85

20. On a certain day, three computer technicians took turns in manning a 24-hour internet shop.
The number of hours Cesar, Bert, and Danny were on duty was in the ratio 3:4:5, respectively.
The shop owner pays them P50 per hour. How much would Danny receive for that day?

a. P 230

b. P500

c. P160

d. P480

21. A retailer buys candies for P90.25. The pack has 35 pieces of candies. If she sells each candy
for P2.25, how much profit does she make?

a. P11.50

b. P56.25

c. P37.50

d. P18.75

22. An online shop sells a certain calculator for P950 and charges P150 for shipping within
Manila, regardless of the number of calculators ordered. Which of the following equations shows
the total cost (y) of an order as a function of the number of calculators ordered (x)?

a. y = (950 + 150)x

b. y = 150x +950

c. x = 950y + 150

d. y = 950x + 150
23. One side of a 45° - 45° - 90° triangle measures x cm. What is the length of its hypotenuse?

a. X √3 cm

b. X cm

c. (X √3)/2 cm

d. X √2 cm

24. The legs of one right triangle are 9 and 12, while those of another right triangle are 12 and
16. How much longer is the perimeter of the larger triangle than the perimeter of the smaller
triangle?

a. 84

b. 7

c. 12

d. 14

25. Determine the midpoint of the line segment joining the points (7, -3) and (-1, 6).

a. (2, 3/2)

b. (2, -3/2)

c. (3, 3/2)

d. (1, 5/2)

26. Which of these has the longest perimeter?

a. A square 21 cm on a side

b. A rectangle 19 cm long and 24 cm wide

c. An equilateral triangle whose side is 28 cm

d. A right triangle whose two legs are 24 and 32 cm

27. How many square inches are in 2 square yard?

a. 900
b. 144

c. 1296

d. 2,592

28. In a playground for Kindergarten kids, 18 children are riding tricycles or bicycles. If there are
43 wheels in all, how many tricycles are there?

a. 8

b. 9

c. 7

d. 11

29. Nelia takes ¾ hour to dress and get ready for school. It takes 4/5 hour to reach the school. If
her class starts promptly at 8:00 am; what is the latest time she can jump out of bed in order not
to be late for school?

a. 6:42 am

b. 6:27 am

c. 6:57 am

d. 7:02 am

30. Which common fraction is equivalent to 0.215?

a. 43/200

b. 27/125

c. 21/50

d. 108/375

Answers: 1B 2A 3D 4D 5C 6D 7C 8D 9C 10B 11C 12D 13D 14 15A 16D 17C 18D 19B 20B 21
22D 23D 24C 25C 26D 27D 28C 29B 30A

1. 120 is 4/5 of what number?

A. 150
B. 96

C. 30

D. 24

2. 45 is 60% of what number?

A. 75

B. 27

C. 15

D. 18

3. What is the ratio of 1/5 to 5/15

A. 3:5

B. 1:5

C. 5:15

D. 15:75

4. What is the value of y is 2x + 2xy + 3y = 25, and x = 2?

A. 3

B. 25

C. 2

D. 12

5. Ten nurses earn a total average monthly salary of P120, 000. The total average income of 6 of
them amounts to P80, 000. What is the average total income of each of the remaining workers?

A. P10, 000

B. P40, 000

C. P400

D. P1, 000
6. 2 tablespoons is equivalent to 1 liquid ounce while 10 tablespoons is equivalent to ½ cup. How
many liquid ounces are there in two cups?

A. 20 ounces

B. 10 ounces

C. 16 ounces

D. 8 ounces

7. A taxi charges P50 for the first kilometer and charges P3 for each additional mile. How far
could P200 go?

A. 50 kilometers

B. 51 kilometers

C. 66. 67 kilometers

D. 4 kilometers

8. 20, 10, 40, 10, 60, 20, 80, 60, 100, 240, 120, ____, ____

A. 1200, 140

B. 480, 140

C. 140, 480

D. 1200, 240

9. What is the value of n in the statement 2mn = 50, if m = 1?

A. 25

B. 2

C. 50

D. 1

10. One store sold twice more apples in the afternoon that in the morning. The store sold 450
pieces of apples. How many apples are sold in the morning?

A. 150
B. 300

C. 200

D. 350

11. Joey gathered twice more marbles than Vic and Tito gathered 2 more marbles than Vic. They
gathered 26 marbles. How many marbles did Vic gather?

A. 6

B. 12

C. 8

D. 14

12. A child has read 2/3 of a book. The read part of the book has 100 pages more than the
unread. How many pages is the book?

A. 300

B. 200

C. 500

D. 150

13. A number is divided by 5. The result was subtracted by 154 and the difference is 6. What is
the number?

A. 800

B. 160

C. 200

D. 400

14. A container contains 23bottles and each bottle contains 20 marbles. How many marbles are
there in 10 bottles?

A. 460

B. 400
C. 100

D. 200

15. It takes John 25 minutes to walk to the car park and 45 to drive to work. At what time should
he get out of the house in order to get to work at 9:00 a.m.?

A. 7:50 am

B. 8:00 am

C. 8:10 am

D. 8:20 am

16. Kim can walk 4 kilometers in one hour. How long does it take Kim to walk 18 kilometers?

A. 4 ½ hours

B. 4 hours

C. 5 hours

D. 8 hours

17. A factory produced 2300 TV sets in its first year of production. 4500 sets were produced in
its second year and 500 more sets were produced in its third year than in its second year. How
many TV sets were produced in three years?

A. 11,800

B. 12, 800

C. 10, 800

D. 13, 800

18. Tom and Bob have a total of 49 toys. If Bob has 5 more toys than Tom, how many toys does
Tom has?

A. 22

B. 27

C. 23
D. 26

19. John can eat a quarter of a pizza in one minute. How long does it take John to eat one pizza
and a half?

A. 6 minutes

B. 12 minutes

C. 9 minutes

D. 3 minutes

20. What is 150% of 298?

A. 447

B. 44.7

C. 4.47

D. 4470

Answers: 1A 2A 3A 4A 5A 6A 7B 8A 9A 10A 11A 12A 13A 14D 15A 16A 17A 18A 19A 20A

1. Sinabi ni Carlos P. Romulo sa isa niyang akda, “Ang Pilipino ay may dugong maharlika.” Ano
ang kahulugan nito?

a. Ang Pilipino ay nanggaling sa malayang lahi

b. Ang Pilipino ay sadyang mabuti ang budhi.

c. Ang Pilipino ay galing sa mayamang lahi

d. Ang Pilipino ay madaling maipagbili

2. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang pinakatamang pangungusap?

a. Ang mga kabataan sa lansangan ay naglalaro at nagtatakbuhan sa lansangan.

b. Ang kabataan ay naglalaro kung maliwanag ang buwan at nagtatakbuhan sa lansangan.

c. Ang mga kabataan ay naglalaro at nagtatakbuhan sa lansangan kung maliwanag ang gabi.
d. Ang mga kabataan kung maliwanag ang buwan ay nagtatakbuhan sa lansangan at naglalaro.

3. Piliin ang gawi ng pagsasalita: Kasiyahan ko nang makitang kayo’y nagmamahalan.

a. Pangarap

b. Pagkontrol ng kilos

c. Pagkuha ng impormasyon

d. Pagbabahagi ng damdamin

4. Ang kaugnayan ng pagkakapatay kina Burgos, Gomez at Zamora sa panitikang Pilipino ay

a. Nanatiling masigla ang diwang Pilipino

b. Nakagising sa damdaming makabayan ng mga Pilipino

c. Natutong lumabag sa batas at lumaban sa may kapangyarihan ang mga Pilipino

d. Naimpluwensyahan ang diwang alipin ng mga Pilipino

5. Laging UMUUKILKIL sa isipan ng ama ang nasirang pangako ng anak.

a. Sumasagi

b. Gumugulo

c. Bumubuhay

d. Sumasapi

6. Ang Kagawaran ng Ugnayang Panlabas ng Pilipinas ay gulong-gulo kapag may giyera sa

ibang bansa. Ano ang unang ginagampanan ng ambassador ng bansa?

a. Bilangin ang mga nasugatan at nasawi

b. Alamin ang mga tirahan ng mga Pilipino sa bayang iyon.

c. Ipunin ang mga maykaya at ipalipad pauwi.

d. Bayaang magsipag-uwian sa sariling sikap ang bawat isa

7. Ano ang pokus ng pandiwa sa pahayag na “Bumili ng bagong sasakyan si Angelo”?

a. Pokus sa direksyon
b. Pokus sa kagamitan

c. Pokus sa sanhi

d. Pokus sa aktor

8. Kabaliwan at paglulustay ang inyong ginagawa taon-taon. Higit na marami ang maralitang
nangangailangan ng salapi at dunong. Ang nagsasalita ay

a. Kuripot

b. Matipid

c. Maramot

d. Praktikal

9. Nasa anong kaganapan ng pandiwa ang pangungusap?

Naglaro ng basketball sa Rizal Stadium ang koponan ng aming pamantasan.

a. Sanhi

b. Tagaganap

c. Kagamitan

d. Ganapan

10, Sa aling salita magkakaroon ng saglit na paghinto kung pinagpipilitang si Rose ang
nakabasag ng pinggan?

Hindi si Rose ang nakabasag ng pinggan.

a. Rose

b. Hindi

c. Nakabasag

d. Pinggan

11. Anong tayutay ang tinutukoy sa pahayag.

Durog ang katawang bumagsak sa semento si Miguel.

a. Pagtutulad

b. Pagbibigay katauhan

c. Pagmamalabis

d. Pagwawangis

12. Sino ang pinagkalooban ng karangalan bilang “Unang Tunay na Makata” noong 1708?

a. Jose dela Cruz

b. Felipe de Jesus

c. Francisco Balagtas

d. Jose Corazon de Jesus

13. “Magtatrabaho ako at ikaw ay mag-aaral upang makatapos ka ng pag-aaral.” Anong uri ng
pangungusap ito?

a. Payak

b. Tambalan

c. Hugnayan

d. Langkapan

14. Mag-aalas-singko na _____ umaga _____ magising siya.

a. ng – ng

b. nang – nang

c. ng – nang

d. nang – kapag

15. Ang butong tinangay ng aso, walang pagsalang nalawayan ito. Ang kaisipang ito ay
tumutukoy sa katotohanan ng ______.

a. Pagnanakaw

b. Pagtatanan
c. Pagpapakasal

d. Pakikipagkaibigan

16. Anong uri ng pagbigkas ang salitang “dambuhala”?

a. Malumi

b. Mabilis

c. Maragsa

d. Malumay

17. Ang katawagan sa pangngalan, pang-abay, pang-uri at pandiwa ay?

a. Palabuuan

b. Pangkayarian

c. Pangnilalaman

d. Palaugnayan

18. Ang panukalang inihain niya ay lubhang malalim at mahirap arukin.

a. Abutin

b. Unawain

c. Sukatin

d. Tanggalin

19. Ang wikang Filipino ay hawig sa mga wika sa Asya. Alin dito ang pinagmulan ng wikang
Filipino?

a. Bahasa

c. Nihonggo

d. Mandarin

d. Malayo-Polinesyo

20. Ano ang katumbas ng “Dekalogo” ni Apolinario Mabini na nagsasaad ng aral sa Filipino?
a. Mosaic Law

d. Code of Ethics ni Kalantiaw

c. New Society ni Pres. Marcos

d. Code of Citizenship ni Pres. Quezon

21. Siya ay hinirang na taga-sensus ng bahay-bahay. Ano ang kanyang nalikom?

a. Ang bilang ng tao sa bahay

b. Ang kayamanan ng may-bahay

c. Ang datos tungkol sa mga bata sa bawat bahay

d. Ang datos tungkol sa mga naninirahan sa bawat bahay

22. Kami ang kabataang siyang magiging pag-asa ng bayan. Paano ginamit ang salitang may
salungguhit?

a. Pagtukoy

b. Pagpuri

c. Panghalip

d. Pagmamalaki

23. Walang tubig kahapon. Ito ay pangungusap na:

a. May paksa

b. Walang pandiwa

c. May panaguri

d. Walang paksa

24. Ipinagmamalaki mo siya, BAHAG naman pala ang kanyang BUNTOT. Ang ibig sabihin ng
salitang may malaking titik ay:

a. Kuripot

b. Traydor
c. Duwag

d. Mahiyain

25. Sabihin ang gawi ng pananalitang ito: “Bawal tumawid, may namatay na dito!”

a. Pananakot

b. Pagtukoy

c. Babala

d. Paalala

26. Pinakamahalagang nobelang Pilipino sa maraming taon na nalimbag noong 1906 at

tumalakay nang masinsinan sa paksang puhunan laban paggawa at sa sosyalismo ang _____.

a. Luha ng Buwaya

b. Banaag at Sikat

c. Ibong Mandaragit

d. Pangginggera

27. Ayon kay Balagtas, “ang laki sa layaw, karaniwa’y hubad” kaya ang mga bata ay

a. jeproks

b. nag-aartista

c. nakapagtatapos sa pag-aaral

d. hindi sumusunod sa magulang

28. Noong taong 1962, ano ang pagbabago sa paglimbag ng diploma at sertipiko ng pagtatapos?

a. Pinahihintutan ang pribadong paaralan na maglimbag sa wikang Ingles

b. Nilimbag sa Tagalog ang diploma sa di-Tagalog na bayan

c. Nilimbag sa Filipino ang diploma ngunit may Ingles

d. Nalimbag sa Filipino ang diploma

29. Ang gintong panahon ng mga manunulat noong panahon ng Amerikano ay batid sa uring
a. Sanaysay

b. Nobela

c. Panulaan

d. Maikling kwento

30. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang may wastong gamit ng tinig ng pandiwa?

a. Ang hinog na papaya na kinuha sa puno ni Marie.

b. Kinuha ni Marie ang hinog na papaya sa puno.

c. Kinuha sa puno ang hinog na papaya ni Marie.

d. Papayang hinog ang kinuha sa puno ni Marie.

Answers: 1A 2C 3D 4B 5B 6B 7D 8D 9D 10B 11C 12B 13D 14C 15B 16A 17C 18B 19D 20A
21D 22A 23D 24C 25C 26B 27D 28D 29D 30B

1. Hindi totoo ang katapangan na ipinapakita ni Vincent sa harap ni Lalie sapagkat BAHAG
ANG BUNTOT niya sa harap ng paghihirap.

A. Matapang

B. Matiyaga

C. Duwag

D. Malakas ang loob

2. NAG-ALSA BALUTAN si Claudia dahil sa malimit umanong pananakit ni Reymar.

A. Lumayas

B. Nagtampo

C. Nagtago

D. Nagmaktol

3. Ang ________________ ng mga Nars ay dininig ng komite kahapon.

A. Pakiusapan
B. Pakikipag-usap

C. Ipakiusap

D. Pakiusap

4. Lumapit si Prink kay Eadji at sinabing, “ __________ mo si Landon ng pagkain sa kusina.”

A. Utusan

B. Kunin

C. Kunan

D. Hanapan

5. Nakatulog si Jana sa kanilang opisina dahil sa HIMINGTING ng kapaligiran. Ano ang

kahulugan ng salita na nasa malalaking letra?

A. Kaingayan

B. Kapayapaan

C. Lakas ng hangin

D. Katahimikan

6. Ang sentro ng pagdiriwang ng SENTENARYO ay sa Kawit, Cavite. Ang kasing-kahulugan ng

salitang nasa malalaking letra ay:

A. Ika-50 taon

B. Panghabang panahon

C. Ikasandaang taon

D. Ika- 25 taon

7. “Ang sinuman ay makabubuo ng matibay na lubid kung pagsasama-samahin ang sinulid.” Ang
ibig sabihin nito ay?

A. Ang lakas ng tao ay nasa pagkakaisa nila.

B. Kailangan magkaisa tayong lahat.

C. Magkakaiba ang mga tao kaya hirap magkaisa.

D. Nagkakaisa ang mga tao.

8. MALIIT ANG SISIDLAN ni Dian kaya iniiwasan siyang tuksuhin ng mga kasama. Ano ang
ibig sabihin nito?

A. Walang pasensya

B. Walang pagtitimpi

C. Walang galang

D. Walang lakas ng loob

9. Siya’y isang bulag ngunit kaya niyang gumuhit ng larawan. Siya’y isang
___________________

A. Imbentor

B. Manunulat

C. Dalubhasa

D. Pintor

10. Anong hukuman ang siyang _____________ ng mga kaso ng korupsyon.

A. Court of Appeals-manglilitis

B. Sandigan Bayan-naglilitis

C. Korte Suprema-maglilitis

D. Ombudsman-tagapaglitis

11. _________________ mo naman sa kanila na magdala ng mapagsasaluhan.

A. Usap-usapan

B. Usapin

C. Ipakiusap

D. Pakiusap

12. “Gamitin ninyo sa pakikipagkaibigan ang kayamanan ng sanlibutang ito. Maubos man ito ay
may tatanggap naman sa inyo sa tahanang walang hanggan.” (Luk 16:9)
Ano ang kahulugan ng sanlibutan?

A. Mga israelita lamang

B. Apostoles

C. Dukha

D. Katauhan

13. Ano ang pangungusap na dapat mauna?

I. Ngunit ang pagtatalo ay hindi dapat nauuwi sa pagkakagalit.

II. Natural lamang ang pagkakaroon ng magkakaibang pala-palagay ang mga tao.

III. Sa mga mag-asawa man ay hindi maiiwasan ang pagkakaiba ng opinyon.

IV. Kahit sa magkakapatid, karaniwan na ang hindi pagkakasundo.

V. Upang maiwasan ito, nararapat lamang na maging bukas ang ating isipan sa paniniwala ng
iba.

A. I.

B. II

C. III

D. IV

14. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang hindi nabibilang na kasingkahulugan ng salitang pala-palagay?

A. Opinyon.

B. Kuru-kuro

C. Paniniwala

D. Akala

15. May pera sa basura. Huwag mong pagtakhan iyan. Isa-isahin mo ang laman ng iyong
basurahan. Tiyak na may papel na walang sulat sa likod at maaari mo pa itong sulatan. Kung
minsan, may mga papel at notebook na may sulat pero pwede mo namang ipagbili. May mga
bukas na lata na maaari mo rin namang tamnan o kaya’y pwedeng balutin ng wrapping paper
upang paglagyan ng lapis, bolpen, krayola, aspile o kaya’y pako. Ang pinagbalatan ng sibuyas,
patatas at saging, sanga ng kangkong, tira-tirang pagkain ay maaaring maging pagkain ng baboy
at maaari rin itong maging pataba sa lupa. Tunay na may pera sa basura kung magtitiyaga
lamang at magiging malikhan upang ang patapong mga bagay ay maging kapaki-pakinabang.
Anong uri ng texto ang seleksyong binasa?

A. Informativ

B. Argumentativ

C. Prosijural

D. Narativ

16. ____________ magtrabaho sina Fred at Jose.

A. Magkasinbilis

B. Magkasingbilis

C. Napabilis

D. Magkasimbilis

17. Samahan mo si Lola sa palengke _____ hindi maligaw.

A. kung saan

B. noong

C. ng

D. nang

18. Upang lalong maging ______________ ang patakaran ng Pangulo na mabago ang
pamamalakad sa bansa, ipinasya niyang magkaroon ng pagbabagong tatag sa lahat ng sangay ng
pamahalaan.

A. marangal

B. mabisa

C. tanyag

D. malinaw
19. Nakalulungkot isipin na ang karamihan sa mga kabataan ngayon ay ______________ sa
masamang bisyo.

A. nababalisa

B. nalalayo

C. nabubuyo

D. nababalot

20. ________ ng mga pulis ang kadena sa kanyang mga kamay.

A. Nalagyan

B. Nilagyan

C. Inilagay

D. Naglagay

Answers: 1C 2A 3D 4C 5D 6C 7A 8A 9D 10B 11C 12D 13B 14C 15A 16B 17D 18B 19C 20C

1. Robert Frost wrote the poem Acquainted with the Night from which the stanza is taken:

I have been one acquainted with the night.

I have walked out in rain-back in rain.

I have out walked the farthest city light

The poet in the stanza talks of?

a. isolation and loneliness

b. joy getting out of the house

c. youthful delight playing in the rain

d. happiness in having been acquainted with the night

2. Which is the BEST WAY to write the underlined portion of this sentence? Researchers also
speculate that some teachers might have given boys more computer time because parents and
teachers expected boys to need computers for future careers.

a. expected

b. expecting

c. will expect

d. will have expected

3. The wounded soldiers were visited by the president who honored them with ____ for their
_____.

a. medals – valor

b. gun salute – bravery

c. appointments – dedication

d. money – sacrifice

4. Every June, Manila has its festival of outstanding Filipino films. This was a project initiated
by

a. Arsenio Lacson

b. German Moreno

c. Antonio Villegas

d. Ramon Bagatsing

5. Which among the sounds below is voiceless?

a. /b/

b. /z/

c. /g/

d. /p/

6. “Only the heart can see rightly.” This statement is lifted from what particular novel?
a. The Prince and the Pauper

b. The Little Prince

c. The Right One

d. The Pearl

7. He was the American President who said, “Ask not what America will do for you, but what
together we can do for the freedom of man.”

a. Gerald Ford

b. Franklin Roosevelt

c. Henry Truman

d. John F. Kennedy

8. History is the witness that ______ passing of time.

a. testifies

b. will testify

c. testifies for

d. testifies for the

9. When I met Liza yesterday, it was the first time I _____ her since Christmas.

a. saw

b. had seen

c. have seen

d. have been seen

10. The commander ordered his men to hold on the fort. What was the message?

a. Surrender in arms

b. Keep on with the fight

c. Disregard the peace negotiation

d. Rescue the hostage victims fast and early

11. “She is a vision of feminine pulchritude.” This stands for the following EXCEPT

a. Loveliness

b. Comeliness

c. Homeliness

d. Physical beauty

12. The Nibelungenlied is a

a. Latin Myth

b. Chinese legend

c. Russian folk song

d. Medieval German epic

13. An association wherein the name of something is substituted by something that represents it.

a. Metonymy

b. Comparison

c. Euphemism

d. Personification

14. Because the moon rotates on its axis at the same time as it ______ around the earth, we see
the same side

a. Revolve

b. Revolves

c. Is revolving

d. Has been revolving

15. In English verse, a poetic foot having 1 stressed syllable followed by 1 unstressed syllable is
______.
a. Trochaic

b. Iambic

c. Dactylic

d. Anapaestic

16. Senators were accused by activists of washing their hands with the perfumes of Arabia. This
state is commonly known as

a. Guilt

b. Triumph

c. Indecision

d. Aggression

17. It is a collection of religious poetry written by Rabindranath Tagore.

a. Mahabharata

b. Gitanjali

c. The Ramayana

d. Bhagavad Gita

18. I suggest that he _____ in the room for one week.

a. Stay

b. Stayed

c. Staying

d. Stays

19. The manager told his workers, “We have to reduce our workforce.” What did he mean?

Workers are free to leave

Workers are warned of possible lay off

Workers have to double time on their jobs

Workers should submit themselves to a reducing gym

20. The parent remarked, “__________ I come late, just lock the door.”

a. In the absence

b. In the process

c. In the event

d. In the case

21. The copyreader found the news story boring. He found it full of _____.

a. Adjectives

b. Verbs

c. Pronouns

d. Adverbs

22. There were three guests on the stage. They were made up of a parent, the governor and the
principal. Who should be acknowledged first by the valedictorian?

a. The classmates

b. The principal

c. The governor

d. The parent

23. What is suggested in the opening line? June 13, 1986 - they came from all over America -
200,000 heroes strong, with their families.

a. The writer holds great admiration for the veterans

b. The writer is opposed to the Vietnam War

c. The writer was a veteran of the war

d. The writer is a flag-waving patriot

24. A readability mismatch happens when the reading levels of books exceed the reading levels
of the students. In this situation, the students experience frustration and they fall short of the
expected or desired output. A student who finds himself/ herself in such a mismatch will likely
do which of the following?

a. Give an intelligent critique of the selection or story read

b. Write a comprehensive reaction paper regarding the selection or story read

c. Present an argument that the selection or story read was not properly written

d. Manifest an expected and commensurate emotional reaction to the selection or story read

25. What does this mean: Excuses are for losers… those who take responsibility for their actions
are real winners in life. This tells of?

a. losers often fail because they find reasons for losing

b. a winner can also be a quitter

c. accountability of one’s action tells of bravery

d. excuses are needed to justify any failure

26. A couple accepted a wedding invitation. They showed pleasure in these remarks

a. All guests congratulated the organizers and the couple

b. Guests came in and out of the ceremonies

c. The ceremonies were very impressive

d. The couple felt uneasy with the priest

27. What correction should be made to this sentence?

One of the theories is that the first child receives more of the parents' attention than other
children so first-borns tend to be more intellectual.

a. Change is to are

b. Insert a comma after children

c. Change parents' to parent's

d. Change theories to theory's

28. Carl Sundburg wrote "Jazz Fantasia" which has for its first stanza:
Drum on your drums, batter on your banjos, sob on the long cool winding saxophones. Go to it,
O jazzmen.

Which words illustrate alliteration?

a. Batter and banjos

b. Sob and winding

c. Long and cool

d. To and it

29. What is meant by AT SIXES AND SEVENS in this sentence?

We moved into the house last week, but I'm afraid everything, is still at sixes and sevens.

a. The things have not been shipped.

b. In a state of confusion

c. In an orderly manner

d. The boxes are still intact

30. What is the mood of these lines?

Daylight, I must wait for the sunrise

I must think of a new life

And I mustn't give in.

When the dawn comes

tonight will be a memory, too

And a new day will begin.

a. Afraid

b. Sarcastic

c. Depressed

d. Hopeful
Answers: 1A 2D 3A 4C 5D 6B 7D 8D 9C 10B 11C 12D 13A 14B 15A 16A 17B 18A 19B 20C
21C 22C 23A 24C 25C 26C 27B 28A 29B 30D

1. He is more concerned with MUNDANE matters like the movement of stock market. The
capitalized word means:

A. Simple

B. Financial

C. Worldly

D. Investments

2. The DEPRAVITY of the criminal’s behavior shocked us all. The capitalized word means:

A. Harshness

B. Gravity

C. Deprivations

D. Viciousness

3. INDULGENT parents spoil their children by giving in to their every demands and whims.

A. Loving

B. Beneficial

C. Generous

D. Yielding

4. Open:Secretive::Forthright: __________

A. Spiteful

B. Mask

C. Outspoken

D. Honest

5. Negligent; Requirement:: Remiss :__________

A. Task

B. Duty

C. Injury

D. Problem

6. It is _________ to try to destroy pest completely with pesticides, for as each new chemical
pesticide is introduced, the pests gradually become _________ to it.

A. useless, drawn

B. futile, resistant

C. worthwhile, immune

D. pointless, vulnerable

7. The famous Dr. C. Drew’s technique for preserving and storing blood plasma for emergency
use proved so _________ that it became the _______ for the present blood bank system by the
Red Cross.

A. irrelevant, inspiration

B. effective, model

C. complex, blueprint

D. urgent, pattern

8. An A-rating represents the ULTIMATE honor a film will ever have. Which of the following is
the opposite of the capitalized word?

A. Greatest

B. Pinnacle

C. Least

D. Supreme

9. The VINDICTIVE politician spread rumors about his opponent. Which of the following is an
antonym of the capitalized word?

A. Revengeful
B. Forgiving

C. Spiteful

D. Malicious

10. Vegetarians have a variety of reasons for their beliefs. Some refuse to eat meat because they
believe that the killing of animals is unnecessary or barbaric. They feel that processes such as
butchering are degrading to the people who practice them and cruel to the animals slaughtered.
Others believe that meat is harmful to the human body and that a purely vegetable diet is more
nutritious. Still others choose vegetarianism because they believe that raising animals for meat is
an inefficient use of land. They say that farmland could be put to better use growing crops for
human consumption. Which of the following statements is best supported by the above passage?

A. Some vegetarians choose not to eat meat mainly for health reasons.

B. A purely vegetable diet is more nutritious than a diet that includes meat.

C. Vegetarians are opposed to any use of animals for the benefit of humans.

D. Vegetarians favor laws to reduce the consumption of meat.

11. The amount of your retirement benefits from Social Security depends, in part, on when you
retire. The earliest that you can begin to receive benefits is age 62. The longer you wait to begin
receiving benefits (up to age 70), the higher your benefits will be. If you were born between
1938 and 1960, you cannot receive “full retirement” benefits until age 66. If you were born in
1960 or later, your full retirement age will be 67. If you wait to receive benefits past your full
retirement age, the amount you receive will continue to increase until you reach age 70. There is
no advantage to waiting past age 70 to begin receiving benefits. You can continue to work while
you receive retirement benefits. If you do, the amount of your benefits will be reduced by one
dollar for every two dollars you earn above a certain limit, until you reach your full retirement
age. Once you reach your full retirement age, this limit no longer applies. The amount you earn
will have no effect on your benefits. According to this passage, which of the following
statements is true?

A. You cannot receive retirement benefits from Social Security while you are still working.

B. If you were born in 1950, your full retirement age is 66.

C. If you continue to work past your full retirement age, your benefits will be reduced by one
dollar for every two dollars you earn.

D. There is no advantage to waiting past your full retirement age to begin receiving benefits.

12. The volunteers from the fire department ________ quickly and extinguished a fire on North
Country Road.
A. will respond

B. responded

C. will have responded

D. have responded

13. In Tuesday’s paper, the owner of the supermarket was recognized for helping a customer
who ________ on the icy sidewalk.

A. falls

B. had fallen

C. would fall

D. has fallen

14. We arranged the flowers and placed ________ in the center of the table.

A. them

B. it

C. this

D. that

15. The person ________ made this delicious cheesecake has my vote.

A. that

B. who

C. which

D. whose

16. Being too _______ will undoubtedly make other men hate you.

A. vane

B. vein

C. vain
D. vanity

17. Because they did not accept his basic _______ they were ______ by his argument.

A. assumption, convinced

B. bias, impressed

C. supposition, justified

D. motivation, confused

18. The failed July 27, 2003 mutiny was believed by many as a plan by the Magdalo group as an
attempt to stage a takeover of government. It was viewed as a desperate attempt by the mutineers
who were supported by influential and politically motivated men who financed the mutiny,
according to the Feliciano Commission. The action was found to be unconstitutional as it
violates both the Articles of War and the Revised Penal Code. Such act can lead to either Court
Martial or Civilian proceedings or even both. The best title for the above article is:

A. Failed Mutiny

B. Illegal Soldiers Uprising

C. Coup d’etat

D. Articles of War and Punishment

19. Determine which may be the best order in which the sentences should be arranged to result in
a well- organized paragraph.

A. Now we shall do everything we can to enforce this law.

B. In the struggle against crime, government and people should join hands

C. Republic Act 7659, the death penalty law is government’s response in law against cruelty and
heartlessness.

D. The law’s main objective is not retribution but reform and rehabilitation of offenders and
would be offenders.

E. All countries in the world are presently siege by violent crime.

A. CEBAD

B. EBCDA
C. CEDAB

D. ACEBD

20. Determine which may be the best order in which the sentences should be arranged to result in
a well- organized paragraph.

A. Tagaytay is the destination for us who love nature.

B. It provides an ideal picnic ground for outdoor lovers.

C. Unfortunately, the place ends up abused by outdoor lovers who litter the place.

D. It is a place which can be easily reached by a two-hour drive from Makati City.

A. CDAB

B. ADBC

C. CBDA

D. CABD

Answers: 1A 2D 3C 4A 5B 6C 7C 8C 9B 10A 11B 12B 13B 14A 15B 16C 17D 18B 19B 20B

GENERAL SCIENCE with answer key.. 1-100

POST – TEST
Multiple Choices:
1. These are living things that use sunlight, chlorophyll, water and carbon dioxide to produce
food.
a. Autotrophs c. Heterotrophs
b. Consumers d. Food chain
2. It is describe as the lifeline of the body. IT is the body’s “pickup” and delivery system.”
a. Blood c. circulatory system
b. nervous system d. heart
3. It carries the oxygen-rich blood to the head, arms, and chest and down to the waist and the
legs.
a. heart c. aorta
b. ventricles d. arteries
4. They are the transmitters of message from the different parts of the body to the brain and vice
versa.
a. spinal cord c. brain
b. neurons or nerve cells d. arteries
5. Which part of the brain controls the following activities: breathing, blood pressure, heart rate,
alertness?
a. brainstem c. cerebrum
b. hypothalamus d. spinal cord
6. Refers to a sequence of organism in a community that constitutes a feeding chain.
a. photosynthesis c. consumers
b. ecosystem d. food chain
7. Is a group of interacting plants, animals and human in a particular area?
a. ecological community c. living organism
b. environment d. food chain
8. Excessive presence of carbon dioxide in the air, trapping heat near the earth’s surface causing
a rise in temperature in the environment.
a. El Nino c. Deforestation
b. “Greenhouse Effect” d. Weather disturbance
9. The Earth’s shield against sun’s harmful radiation.
a. Atmosphere c. Ozone layer
b. Air d. Forest
10. The use of product containing ______ is discouraged because they contribute to the depletion
of_____.
a. Chlorofluorocarbon-solar radiation
b. Gas-ozone layer
c. Ozone layer air
d. Chlorofluorocarbon-ozone layer
11. What causes high and low tides?
a. Earth’s rotation on its axis
b. Moon’s gravitational pull
c. Sun’s solar energy
d. Earth’s gravitational pull
12. How is coral a tool formed?
a. Volcanic eruption
b. Corals growing around a volcanic island
c. Underwater bedrock formations
d. Earthquake
13. What is a long shore drift?
a. Movement of sand and shingles along the coast
b. Sand bars
c. Accumulation of sad at the river mouth
d. Island formed by volcanic eruptions
14. How does an occlusion form?
a. Cold air moving up from the ground
b. Cold front pushing warm air up of the ground
c. Unbalance electrical reaction in the air
d. Cold and warm air mixing in the atmosphere
15. What is a eat haze?
a. A reflection caused by pollutants in the air
b. A distorted image resulting from the bending o sun’s light rays by changes in air temperature
c. A movement o warm air over a vast expanse of land
d. Caused by extremely high temperature common in dessert areas
16. What sort of rock formation do the world’s greatest mountain ranges consist of?
a. Magma c. Fold eruptions
b. Chalk deposit d. Slip formation
17. What is the fore that wears down mountains?
a. Earthquake c. Volcanic eruptions
b. Erosion d. Deforestation
18. How are volcanic island formed?
a. Collision of two oceanic plates
b. Cooling of lava by seawater
c. Volcanic eruptions
d. Accumulation of corals
19. When the Theory of plate Tectonics was generally accepted?
a. 1900’s c. 1950’s
b. 1930’s d. 1980’s
20. The weathering away of rocks by water, wind and ice.
a. Denudation c. Volcanic rock
b. Erosion d. Metamorphic rock
21. How do hormones work?
a. By releasing adrenaline
b. By controlling cell chemistry
c. By regulating water loss
d. By controlling blood pressure
22. Name the male and female sex hormones
a. Sperm cell & Ovum c. Chromosomes
b. Testosterone d. Red & white blood cells

23. The unit of measurement of energy in a given an mount of food

a. Pound c. Olfactory system
b. Kilo d. calorie
24. Nitrogen compounds known as the building blocks of proteins
25. The growth of roots towards water is an example of?
a. Chemotropism c. Hydrotropism
b. Geotropism d. Phototropism
26. DNA means
a. Data nurturing analysis c. Deoxyribonucleic acid
b. Deoxytribonucleic acid d. Deotrixyl nucleic acid
27. What are the three products of oxygen when it has been burned?
a. Water, carbon dioxide and air
b. Energy, water and carbon dioxide
c. Energy, carbon and oxide
d. Energy, air and water
28. In flowering plants, fertilization happens in the?
a. Pollen tube c. Ovules
b. Stamen d. Pollen grain
29. The development of egg without fertilization
a. Mitosis c. Spermatogenesis
b. Parthenogenesis d. Mitochondria
30. Which of the following is a source of energy needed for photosynthesis?
a. Water c. Light
b. Soil d. Fertilizer
31. Chemistry is primarily concerned with the composition and changes of?
a. Nature c. Man
b. Matter d. Earth
32. A scientific theory is
a. A hypothesis not yet subjected to experimental test
b. An idea that correctly predict the result
c. An imagination
d. A guess
33. Which of the following units of measure is equivalent to cubic centimeter?
a. Milligram c. Millimeter
b. Milliliter d. Centiliter
34. Which of the following is NOT a compound?
a. acetic acid c. magnesium
b. alcohol d. Zinc Oxide
35. The easier the atom to receive electrons is measured by its?
a. Elecrtonegativity c. Number of shells
b. Atomic radius d. Valence electrons
36. The willingness o an atom to receive electron is measured by its?
a. Electronegativity c. Atomic size
b. Ionization potential d. Electron affinity
37. A molecule is said to be polar or dipole if?
a. Its positive and negative charges are at different places
b. It possesses polar bonds
c. Its’ polar bond have unsymmetrical charge distribution
d. All of the above
38. Which of the following is NOT a physical property of water?
a. freezing point at 0 degree C
b. boiling point at 100 degrees C
c. its’ heat of fusion at 80 cal/g.
d. its’ density at 4 degrees at 1 lb/cu. Ft
39. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Molecular weight does not influence boiling and melting point of a substance
b. Boiling and melting point tend to increase with molecular weight
c. Boiling and melting point tend to decrease with molecular weight
d. None o the above
40. A Mole is the amount of substance or a mass of a substance that contains?
a. 6.02 x 1023 particles c. 6.02 x 1023 particles
b. 60.2 x 1023 particles d. 60.2x 1023 particles
41. It is the measure of the amount of matter in an object
a. Weight c. Volume
b. Mass d. Quantity
42. It is the distance traveled by the body per unit time and tell how fast or slow the body moves
a. Velocity c. Acceleration
b. Speed d. None of the above
43. The rate of change of the distance traveled per unit time in a stated direction
a. Velocity c. Acceleration
b. Speed d. None of the above
44. This law states that the force acting upon an object is equal to the product o the mass and
acceleration of the object
a. Newton’s 2nd law of motion
b. Newton’s 3rd law of motion
c. Newton’s 1st law of motion
d. None of the amount
45. When a force is applied to a body, several effects are possible. Which one of the following
effect CAN”T occur?
a. the body rotates
b. the body changes direction
c. the body increase its mass
d. the body changes shape
46. It is the reluctance of the object to change either its’ state of rest or uniform motion in a
straight line
a. Force c. Inertia
b. Friction d. Motion
47. This law states that energy cannot be created nor destroyed but only changes from one form
to another
a. Energy law
b. Kinetic Theory of Matter
c. Law of Conservation Energy
d. None of the above
48. This law states that matter is made up of a large number of molecules which are in
continuous motion
a. Boyles’s Law c. Law of Conservation Energy
b. Kinetic Theory d. None of the above
49. The lowest possible temperature that a substance can reach
a. Freezing point c. Steam point
b. Absolute Zero d. Threshold
50. It is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of kg. of a substance by degree C
a. Calorie c. Specific heat capacity
b. Watt d. Joule
51. The relationship of give-and-take of living organism in the biosphere is a balance of nature
called________.
a. universal relationship
b. symbiotic relationship
c. spontaneous relationship
d. abiogenetic relationship
52. Process of removing excess odor in water.
a. sedimentation c. distillation
b. chlorination d. aeration
53. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
a. As altitude increases, atmospheric pressures corresponding
b. Throughout the available space, gas tends to contract
c. Equal chances are always given to all in life
d. Shadow is formed when a colored object is projected against the wall
54. The earth rotates on its axis from west to east. This causes the sun to _______?
a. appear with a fiery orange color
b. cause the appearance of solar eclipse
c. rise room the east and sets in the west
d. emit solar radiation
55. One of these planets has the greatest gravitational pull. Which one is it?
a. Mars b. Earth c. Mercury d. Jupiter
56. It is the law which explains why one can pull a piece without topping a glass in a quick
motion.
a. energy in motion c. law of inertia
b. gravity d. force
57. Which of the following is NOT a source of energy?
a. water c. geothermal heat
b. nuclear d. inertia at rest
58. Which instrument will one use to convert mechanical energy to electrical energy?
a. rotor b. generator c. motor d. circuit
59. Sun’s energy is generated by?
a. nuclear fission
b. sun enacting with gravity
c. nuclear fusion reaction
d. reaction with magnetic field
60. Application of energy is called _______?
a. work c. kinetics
b. inertia d. simulation
61. The falling of any form of water from the air to the earth’s surface
a. Condensation c. Water vapor
b. Precipitation d. Rainwater
62. The part of the atmosphere that filters the ultraviolet rays of the sun
a. stratosphere c. Ozone layer
b. Troposphere d. Ionosphere
63. The point in the earth’s orbit nearest to the sun
a. Solstice c. Aphelion
b. Eclipse d. Perihelion
64. A property of minerals which gives off rays of light when exposed to ultraviolet light.
a. Luminescence c. Radiation
b. Phosphorescence d. Fluorescence
65. Which process involves chemical weathering?
a. Carbonation c. Hydration
b. Oxidation d. All of the above
66. How long does it take for the earth to complete one rotation
a. 365 days c. 24 hours
b. 30 days d. 12 hours
67. What is the principal function of gravity in the universe?
a. Provision for energy
b. Keeps the stars and other heavenly bodies in orbit
c. Causes movement in space
d. Part of universal design
68. What does the word “monsoon” mean?
a. Moon will soon come c. Seasons
b. Rains d. Wet weather
69. Its’ discovery enable geologist to date rocks accurately
a. layering c. Radioactivity
b. Evolutionary staging d. Carbon-dating
70. It occurs when the earth is between the sun and the moon, with the earth’s shadow cast over
the moon.
a. Total eclipse c. Eclipse
b. Lunar eclipse d. Partial Eclipse
71. Male and female reproductive part of a flower
a. Pollen grains and ovules c. Pollen grains and pistil
b. Stamen and pistil d. Stamen and ovules
72. In the human body, the cell that most nearly resembles a one-celled animals
a. Red Blood cell c. Nerve cell
b. White Blood cell d. Antibodies
73. The main energy source of a plant-eating animals
a. Glucose b. Starch c. Cellulose d. Glycogen
74. These are cellular secretions which help regulate the breakdown and buildup of various
substance in the body
a. Enzymes c. Plasma
b. Amino Acids d. Hormones
75. It is the energy source of the cell which it uses for growing, reproducing and other activities
a. Adenosine Triphosphate c. Chloroplast
b. Amino Acids d. Sunlight
76. It is a segment of DNA molecule which controls the appearance of a given trait
a. Chromosomes c. Gametes
b. Genes d. Zygotes
77. Group of similar cells performing similar functions together
a. Organs b. System c. Nucleus d. Tissue
78. The diffusion of water through a semi permeable membrane
a. osmosis c. Transfusion
b. permeability d. Capillary
79. It shows the complex food relationship of organism in a given area and the cyclic flow of
food through organisms
a. Food chain c. Food pyramid
b. Food web d. Biological cycle
80. Which of the following does NOT occur to both respiration and fermentation?
a. energy is released
b. sugar is broken down
c. carbon dioxide is produced
d. alcohol is formed
81. Energy removal is best illustrated in
a. boiling of liquid substances
b. changing water to ice
c. changing water to stem
d. none of the above
82. Refers to the maximum amount of solute expressed in grams that can be dissolved in 100
grams of water at a specific temperature
a. Solubility c. Molarity
b. Stability d. Molality
83. Compounds with the same molecular formula but with different structural formulas
a. Cellulose c. Polymers
b. Isomers d. Monomers
84. The most penetrating type of radiation given of by radioactive elements
a. Alpha particle c. Gamma particle
b. Beta particle d. None of the above
85. The basic unit for expressing the masses o individual atoms
a. Atomic number c. Nucleus
b. Atomic mass unit d. Atomic weight
86. A substance that speeds up a chemical reaction without itself undergoing a chemical change
a. catalyst c. Electrolytes
b. Enhancer d. Ionizer
87. The temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the pressure of the
surroundings atmosphere
a. Melting point c. Boiling Point
b. Critical point d. None of the above
88. the warming of the earth’s surface due to an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide
a. “Greenhouse effect” c. Atmospheric pressure
b. Ozone d. El Nino phenomena
89. Describe the force of gravity on an object
a. mass c. capacity
b. weight d. pressure
90. When gaseous molecules are compressed, they tend to?
a. increase in volume c. repel each other
b. decrease in volume d.attract and liquefy
91. It is the union of two light nucleus to form a heavier nucleus, resulting in a mass defect and
release of energy
a. Radiation c. Nuclear Fusion
b. Nuclear Fission d. Radioactivity
92. Which of the following statements is a characteristic of an electronic spectrum?
a. They all travel at the same speed in fire space
b. The exhibit diffraction and interference phenomena
c. They follow the laws of refraction and reflection
d. All of the above
93. The term “RADAR” is derived from the phrase?
a. “Radiation Detection and Ranging “
b. “Radiation Diffusion and Ranging”
c. “Radio Diffraction and Resolution”
d. “Radiation Diffraction and Resolution”
94. A material whose ability to conduct electricity lies between those of conductors and
insulators
a. Integrated Circuits c. Semiconductors
b. Silicon Chips d. Insulators
95. “LASER” is derived from the phrase?
a. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
b. Light Application by Simulated Emission of Radiation
c. Light Amplification by Simulated Ejection of Radiation
d. None of the above
96. What is the color of a transparent substance?
a. The color of the light it absorbs
b. The color of light it reflects
c. The color of light it transmit
d. The color of light it refracts
97. What is a rotating electromagnetic called?
a. Motor b. Rotor c. Phasor d. Sensor
98. What happens with the centripetal force when sped is doubled?
a. remains the same c. triples
b. force is increase 4x d. force is doubled
99. What is an electrochemical cell in which the reacting materials can be renewed by the use o
reverse current
a. Storage cell c. Fuel cell
b. Primary cells d. Chemical cell
100. What will make an object move in a circular path?
a. Central force c. Frictional force
b. Gravitational d. Electromagnetic force
***** THE END *****
WORK HARD, DREAM HARDER
science and health
1 a 51 b
2 c 52 d
3 d 53 a
4 b 54 c
5 a 55 d
6 d 56 c
7 a 57 d
8 b 58 b
9 c 59 c
10 d 60 a
11 b 61 b
12 b 62 c
13 a 63 d
14 b 64 b
15 b 65 d
16 c 66 c
17 b 67 b
18 a 68 c
19 c 69 c
20 b 70 b
21 b 71 b
22 b 72 b
23 d 73 c
24 d 74 d
25 c 75 a
26 c 76 b
27 b 77 d
28 c 78 a
29 b 79 b
30 c 80 d
31 b 81 b
32 a 82 a
33 b 83 b
34 c 84 c
35 d 85 b
36 d 86 a
37 b 87 c
38 b 88 a
39 b 89 b
40 c 90 a
41 b 91 c
42 b 92 d
43 c 93 a
44 a 94 c
45 c 95 a
46 d 96 c
47 b 97 b
48 b 98 d
49 b 99 a
50 c 100 a

PARTS OF THE CELL

The parts of the plant cell are as follows:
Cell wall is the outermost rigid covering of the plant cell. It is a salient feature of plant cell.
Cell membrane or the plasma membrane is the outer lining of the cell inside the cell wall.
Cytosol or cytoplasm is the gel-like matrix inside the cell membrane which constitutes all other
cell organelles.
Nucleus is the control center of the cell. It is a membrane bound structure which contains the
hereditary material of the cell - the DNA
Chloroplast is a plastid with green pigment chlorophyll. It traps light energy and converts it to
chemical energy by the process of photosynthesis.
Mitochondria carries out cellular respiration and provides energy to the cells.
Vacuoles are the temporary storage center of the cell.
Golgi body is the unit where proteins are sorted and packed.
Ribosomes are structures that assemble proteins.
Endoplasmic reticulum are membrane covered organelles that transport materials.
The parts of the animal cell are as follows:
Cell membrane
• It is a semi-permeable barrier, allowing only a few molecules to move across it.
• Electron microscopic studies of cell membrane shows the lipid bi-layer model of the plasma
membrane, it also known as the fluid mosaic model.
• The cell membrane is made up of phospholipids which has polar(hydrophillic) heads and non-
polar (hydrophobic) tails.
Cytoplasm
• The fluid matrix that fills the cell is the cytoplasm.
• The cellular organelles are suspended in this matrix of the cytoplasm.
• This matrix maintains the pressure of the cell, ensures the cell doesn't shrink or burst.
Nucleus
• Nucleus is the house for most of the cells genetic material- the DNA and RNA.
• The nucleus is surrounded by a porous membrane known as the nuclear membrane.
• The RNA moves in/out of the nucleus through these pores.
• Proteins needed by the nucleus enter through the nuclear pores.
• The RNA helps in protein synthesis through transcription process.
• The nucleus controls the activity of the cell and is known as the control center.
• The nucleolus is the dark spot in the nucleus, and it is the location for ribosome formation.
Ribosomes
• Ribosomes is the site for protein synthesis where the translation of the RNA takes place.
• As protein synthesis is very important to the cell, ribosomes are found in large number in all
cells.
• Ribosomes are found freely suspended in the cytoplasm and also are attached to the
endoplasmic reticulum.
Endoplasmic reticulum
• ER is the transport system of the cell. It transports molecules that need certain changes and also
molecules to their destination.
• ER is of two types, rough and smooth.
• ER bound to the ribosomes appear rough and is the rough endoplasmic reticulum; while the
smooth ER do not have the ribosomes.
Lysosomes
• It is the digestive system of the cell.
• They have digestive enzymes helps in breakdown the waste moelcules and also help in
detoxification of the cell.
• If the lysosomes were not membrane bound the cell could not have used the destructive
enzymes.
Centrosomes
• It is located near the nucleus of the cell and is known as the 'microtubule organizing center' of
the cell.
• Microtubules are made in the centrosome.
• During mitosis the centrosome aids in dividing of the cell and moving of the chromosome to
the opposite sides of the cell.
Vacuoles
• They are bound by single membrane and small organelles.
• In many organisms vacuoles are storage organelles.
Vesicles are smaller vacuoles which function for transport in/out of the cell.
Golgi bodies
• Golgi bodies are the packaging center of the cell.
• The Golgi bodies modify the molecules from the rough ER by dividing them into smaller units
with membrane known as vesicles.
• They are flattened stacks of membrane-bound sacs.
Mitochondria
• Mitochondria is the main energy source of the cell.
• They are called the power house of the cell because energy(ATP) is created here.
• Mitochondria consists of inner and outer membrane.
• It is spherical or rod shaped organelle.
• It is an organelle which is independent as it has its own hereditary material.
Peroxisomes
• Peroxisomes are single membrane bound organelle that contain oxidative enzymes that are
digestive in function.
• They help in digesting long chains of fatty acids and amino acids and help in synthesis of
cholesterol.
Cytoskeleton
• It is the network of microtubules and microfilament fibres.
• They give structural support and maintain the shape of the cell.
Cilia and Flagella
• Cilia and flagella are structurally identical structures.
• They are different based on the function they perform and their length.
• Cilia are short and are in large number per cell while flagella are longer and are fewer in
number.
• They are organelles of movement.
• The flagellar motion is undulating and wave-like whereas the ciliary movement is power stroke
and recovery stroke.
Cell membrane
• It is a semi-permeable barrier, allowing only a few molecules to move across it.
• Electron microscopic studies of cell membrane shows the lipid bi-layer model of the plasma
membrane, it also known as the fluid mosaic model.
• The cell membrane is made up of phospholipids which has polar(hydrophillic) heads and non-
polar (hydrophobic) tails.
Cytoplasm
• The fluid matrix that fills the cell is the cytoplasm.
• The cellular organelles are suspended in this matrix of the cytoplasm.
• This matrix maintains the pressure of the cell, ensures the cell doesn't shrink or burst.
Nucleus
• Nucleus is the house for most of the cells genetic material- the DNA and RNA.
• The nucleus is surrounded by a porous membrane known as the nuclear membrane.
• The RNA moves in/out of the nucleus through these pores.
• Proteins needed by the nucleus enter through the nuclear pores.
• The RNA helps in protein synthesis through transcription process.
• The nucleus controls the activity of the cell and is known as the control center.
• The nucleolus is the dark spot in the nucleus, and it is the location for ribosome formation.
Ribosomes
• Ribosomes is the site for protein synthesis where the translation of the RNA takes place.
• As protein synthesis is very important to the cell, ribosomes are found in large number in all
cells.
• Ribosomes are found freely suspended in the cytoplasm and also are attached to the
endoplasmic reticulum.
Endoplasmic reticulum
• ER is the transport system of the cell. It transports molecules that need certain changes and also
molecules to their destination.
• ER is of two types, rough and smooth.
• ER bound to the ribosomes appear rough and is the rough endoplasmic reticulum; while the
smooth ER do not have the ribosomes.
Lysosomes
• It is the digestive system of the cell.
• They have digestive enzymes helps in breakdown the waste moelcules and also help in
detoxification of the cell.
• If the lysosomes were not membrane bound the cell could not have used the destructive
enzymes.
Centrosomes
• It is located near the nucleus of the cell and is known as the 'microtubule organizing center' of
the cell.
• Microtubules are made in the centrosome.
• During mitosis the centrosome aids in dividing of the cell and moving of the chromosome to
the opposite sides of the cell.
Vacuoles
• They are bound by single membrane and small organelles.
• In many organisms vacuoles are storage organelles.
Vesicles are smaller vacuoles which function for transport in/out of the cell.
Golgi bodies
• Golgi bodies are the packaging center of the cell.
• The Golgi bodies modify the molecules from the rough ER by dividing them into smaller units
with membrane known as vesicles.
• They are flattened stacks of membrane-bound sacs.
Mitochondria
• Mitochondria is the main energy source of the cell.
• They are called the power house of the cell because energy(ATP) is created here.
• Mitochondria consists of inner and outer membrane.
• It is spherical or rod shaped organelle.
• It is an organelle which is independent as it has its own hereditary material.
Peroxisomes
• Peroxisomes are single membrane bound organelle that contain oxidative enzymes that are
digestive in function.
• They help in digesting long chains of fatty acids and amino acids and help in synthesis of
cholesterol.
Cytoskeleton
• It is the network of microtubules and microfilament fibres.
• They give structural support and maintain the shape of the cell.
Cilia and Flagella
• Cilia and flagella are structurally identical structures.
• They are different based on the function they perform and their length.
• Cilia are short and are in large number per cell while flagella are longer and are fewer in
number.
• They are organelles of movement.
• The flagellar motion is undulating and wave-like whereas the ciliary movement is power stroke
and recovery stroke.
Famous Scientists
Archimedes of Syracuse (287 - 212 BC)
Due to the fact that Archimedes was a person with multiple interests, including math, physics,
astronomy and engineering, he managed to become a successful inventor. He became famous for
his innovative thinking and was the one to come up with a lot of innovative machines, including
the Archimedes screw that is still used today to pump liquids, coal, grain and more. But probably
his most famous discovery is the way of finding the volume of objects that have an irregular
shape. It is worth mentioning that most of his works were meant to help his home city.
Leonardo Da Vinci (1452 - 1519)
Leonardo Da Vinci was a great inventor, being fond of engineering, astronomy, aeronautics,
mathematics and more. His drawings include a number of various inventions, the basics of which
more or less can be found in different technologies today. Da Vinci is considered to be the father
of modern science. Some of his most important inventions include the hydraulic machine, the
boat and design of a flying machine.
Evangelista Torricelli (1608-1647)
The famous Italian physicist and mathematician is the author of the barometer (scientific tool
used in the field of meteorology to estimate atmospheric pressure), built in 1643. It would be
interesting to note that a number of Italian Navy submarines were named after the inventor.
Ferdinand Verbiest (1623 - 1688)
Verbiest was an astronomer and a mathematician. He was the one to invent the world's first
automobile. The inventor came up with the idea to create an automobile while visiting China as a
missionary. His automobile was powered by steam, but could not carry humans.
Karl Drais (1785 - 1851)
The German inventor is the author of the Laufmaschine (German for "running machine"), which
was later called the velocipede and is believed to be the forerunner of the bicycle and
motorcycle. His invention represented the first means of transport to use the two-wheeler
principle and the starting point of the mechanized personal transport.
Louis Pasteur (1822-1895)
The famous French chemist and microbiologist was the one who has come up with the process of
pasteurization, a process that involves heating a food, usually liquid, to a certain temperature for
a specific length of time, and then cooling it instantly. Pasteurization is used today to slow the
development of microorganisms in food.
Levi Strauss (1829 - 1902)
Everyone knows that jeans were invented in the United States, some know that Levi Strauss was
the author of this invention but few know that Strauss was an immigrant from Germany managed
to found in San Francisco, California the world's first firm to manufacture blue jeans. The
company called Levi Strauss & Co., started its operation back in 1853.
Gottlieb Daimler (1834 - 1900)
Daimler is another representative of German intelligentsia, being an engineer, industrial designer
and industrialist. He was the first to develop internal-combustion engine and a pioneer in the
field of automobile development. Daimler is the author of the first high-speed petrol engine and
the world's first four-wheel vehicle.
Wilhelm Conrad Röntgen (1845 - 1923)
The famous German physicist Röntgen is the one who discovered the X-rays (also known as
Röntgen rays).
This invention allowed the German scientist to win the first Nobel Prize in Physics in 1901
Thomas Edison (1847 - 1931)
He is the author of a large number of inventions, but the most well-known one is the electric
bulb. Among other discoveries of Thomas Edison there are telegraph devices, phonograph,
carbon transmitter, direct current generator, universal electric motor, and more.
Emile Berliner (1851 - 1929)
The German-born Jewish American scientist became known thanks to his disc record
gramophone (in the United States known as phonograph or record player). Used for recording
and reproducing sounds on a gramophone record, vinyl record, the device (with certain
modifications made once in a while) was popular until 1980s.
Alexander Graham Bell (1857 - 1922)
During the experiments he carried out with the telegraph, Bell came up with the idea of the
telephone.
The inventor of one of the most popular devices today thought that the telephone was intruding,
which is why he did not have one in his workplace.
Rudlf Christian Karl Diesel (1858 - last seen alive 1913)
Being a mechanical engineer, Rudolf Christian Karl Diesel managed to discover the diesel
engine.
The German inventor was also a well-known thermal engineer, a polyglot, an expert in arts, and
a social theorist
Amalie Auguste Melitta Bentz (1873 - 1950)
She was born Amalie Auguste Melitta Liebscher. Bentz was a German business lady, who
invented the coffee filter back in 1908. Today her grandchildren, Thomas and Stephen, are
managing the family business (Melitta Group KG) based in Minden in eastern North Rhine-
Westphalia.
Albert Einstein (1879 - 1955)
One of the greatest scientists of the 20th century is the author of numerous inventions and
theories that transformed a lot of concepts linked to space and time, with the most important
discovery being the theory of relativity. Other discoveries of Einstein include the photoelectric
effect and the Einstein calculator.
Sir Alexander Fleming (1881 - 1955)
During the World War I Fleming worked as an army medical corp.
He is the inventor of penicillin that prevented a lot of soldiers from being infected.
The discovery of penicillin managed to significantly boost the evolution of medicine industry.
Fritz Pfleumer (1881 - 1945)
The German-Austrian engineer is the author of the magnetic tape used for recording sound.
Pfleumer decided to grant the right of use to the AEG, a German manufacturer of electrical
equipment. The event took place on December 1, 1932. Based on Pfleumer's magnetic tape, the
German firm created the world's first practical tape recorder dubbed Magnetophon K1.
Frederick Banting (1891 - 1941)
Initially Banting was dedicated to politics but later decided to shift to medicine. In 1916 he
completed his MD and during the World War I worked as a doctor. He was very interested in
diabetes and continuously worked on a cure for it. It would be worth noting that the Banting
searcher for cure for diabetes together with Dr. Charles Best. In 1923 the researcher was awarded
with the Nobel Prize for discovering insulin.
Edwin Herbert Land (1909 - 1991)
The co-founder of the Polaroid Corporation was the first who came up with low-cost filters for
polarizing light (useful system of in-camera instant photography). His most popular invention,
Polaroid instant camera, was officially launched in late 1948 and allowed users to take and
develop a picture in just under 60 seconds.

ORGAN SYSTEMS OF THE BODY

• INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
• Forms the external body covering
• Composed of the skin, sweat glands, oil glands, hair, and nails
• Protects deep tissues from injury and synthesizes vitamin D
• SKELETAL SYSTEM
• Composed of bone, cartilage, and ligaments
• Protects and supports body organs
• Provides the framework for muscles
• Site of blood cell formation
• Stores minerals
• MUSCULAR SYSTEM
• Composed of muscles and tendons
• Allows manipulation of the environment, locomotion, and facial expression
• Maintains posture
• Produces heat
• NERVOUS SYSTEM
• Composed of the brain, spinal column, and nerves
• Is the fast-acting control system of the body
• Responds to stimuli by activating muscles and glands
• CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
• Composed of the heart and blood vessels
• The heart pumps blood
• The blood vessels transport blood throughout the body
• LYMPHATIC SYSTEM
• Composed of red bone marrow, thymus, spleen, lymph nodes, and lymphatic vessels
• Picks up fluid leaked from blood vessels and returns it to blood
• Disposes of debris in the lymphatic stream
• Houses white blood cells involved with immunity
• RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
• Composed of the nasal cavity, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs
• Keeps blood supplied with oxygen and removes carbon dioxide
• DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
• Composed of the oral cavity, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, anus,
and liver
• Breaks down food into absorbable units that enter the blood
• Eliminates indigestible foodstuffs as feces
• URINARY SYSTEM
• Composed of kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra
• Eliminates nitrogenous wastes from the body
• Regulates water, electrolyte, and pH balance of the blood
• MALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
• Composed of prostate gland, penis, testes, scrotum, and ductus deferens
• Main function is the production of offspring
• Testes produce sperm and male sex hormones
• Ducts and glands deliver sperm to the female reproductive tract
• FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
• Composed of mammary glands, ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, and vagina
• Main function is the production of offspring
• Ovaries produce eggs and female sex hormones
• Remaining structures serve as sites for fertilization and development of the fetus
• Mammary glands produce milk to nourish the newborn

ASTRONOMY NOTES
• Largest circular storm in our solar system is found in Jupiter.
• The rapidly moving stream of charged particles that is being driven away from the sun is
known as Solar Wind.
• Biggest known asteroid is Ceres.
• One Mercurian year is equal to 88 Earth days.
• Largest volcano in the solar system is Olympus Mons found on Mars.
• One Jupiter day is equal to 9 hours 50 minutes.
• Between 1979 and 1998, the farthest planet from the sun was Neptune.
• The sunspot cycle is 11 years.
• The Hertzsprung-Russel Diagram directly compares temperature and luminosity of stars.
• The Andromeda galaxy is spiral.
• The Milky Way galaxy is 100,000 light years across.
• The smallest planet in our solar system is Pluto.
• The only planet with a moon almost as big and as heavy as the planet itself is Pluto.
• Neil Armstrong landed on the moon on 1969.
• The only planet with a day longer than its year is Venus.
• Pluto’s moon is called Charon.
• The area between Saturn’s two rings is called Cassini’s division.
• Heliocentric means around the sun; geocentric means around the earth.
• Neptune’s moon Triton has an ocean made of liquid Nitrogen.
• The first man to classify stars according to their brightness was Hipparchus.
• The nearest star to the sun is Proxima Centauri, also known as Alpha Centauri.
• The greatest distance of a planet from the sun is called aphelion (A for Away). The smallest
distance of a planet from the sun is called perihelion (P for Proximal or near).
• The main component of the atmosphere of Mars is Carbon Dioxide.
• Jupiter has a mass greater than the combined masses of all the planets.
• The summer solstice usually occurs on June 21.
• The only two planets that do not have their moons or natural satellites are Venus and Mercury.
• The constellation Andromeda is also called the Chained Maiden.
• Taurus is the brightest star in Aldebaran.
• A comet’s tail always points away from the sun.
• Spectral line splitting due to the influence of magnetic fields is called Zeeman Effect.
• 99.8 percent of asteroids have orbits between Mars and Jupiter.
• A Red Giant has a low effective temperature (3000 to 4000 Kelvin) and a radius of around 100
times the Sun’s.
• When three celestial bodies are in a line or collinear, it is called a syzygy.
• Pluto has the most eccentric orbit around the sun.
• Beads of light visible around the rim of the moon at the beginning and end of a total solar
eclipse are called Baily’s Beads.
• The last planet Voyager II visited is Neptune.
• Only 0.001% of the Sun’s mass has been converted into energy.

BRANCHES OF SCIENCE
• Geology: the science that deals with the earth's physical structure and substance, its history, and
the processes that act on it.
• Meteorology: the branch of science concerned with the processes and phenomena of the
atmosphere, especially as a means of forecasting the weather.
• Paleontology: the branch of science concerned with fossil animals and plants.
• Oceanography: the branch of science that deals with the physical and biological properties and
phenomena of the sea.
• Volcanology: the scientific study of volcanoes.
• Chemistry: the branch of science that deals with the identification of the substances of which
matter is composed; the investigation of their properties and the ways in which they interact,
combine, and change; and the use of these processes to form new substances.
• Physics: the branch of science concerned with the nature and properties of matter and energy.
The subject matter of physics, distinguished from that of chemistry and biology, includes
mechanics, heat, light and other radiation, sound, electricity, magnetism, and the structure of
atoms.
• Thermodynamics: the branch of physical science that deals with the relations between heat and
other forms of energy (such as mechanical, electrical, or chemical energy), and, by extension, of
the relationships between all forms of energy.
• Mechanics: the branch of applied mathematics dealing with motion and forces producing
motion.
• Astronomy: the branch of science that deals with celestial objects, space, and the physical
universe as a whole.
• Biology: the study of living organisms, divided into many specialized fields that cover their
morphology, physiology, anatomy, behavior, origin, and distribution.
• Zoology: the scientific study of the behavior, structure, physiology, classification, and
distribution of animals.
• Botany: also called plant science(s), plant biology or phytology, is the science of plant life and
a branch of biology.
• Genetics: the study of heredity and the variation of inherited characteristics.
• Agriculture: the science or practice of farming, including cultivation of the soil for the growing
of crops and the rearing of animals to provide food, wool, and other products.
• Forestry: the science or practice of planting, managing, and caring for forests.
• Engineering: the branch of science and technology concerned with the design, building, and use
of engines, machines, and structures.
• Metallurgy: the branch of science and technology concerned with the properties of metals and
their production and purification.
• Optics: the scientific study of sight and the behavior of light, or the properties of transmission
and deflection of other forms of radiation.

LABORATORY TOOLS AND SAFETY MEASURES

a. Beaker: hold and heat liquids
b. Reagent bottle: storage, mixing and displaying
c. Bunsen burner: heating and exposing items to flame
d. Buret: chemical analysis; measure precisely how much liquid is used in titration
e. Crucible: heat small quantities of substances in very high temperatures
f. Erlenmeyer flask: heat and store liquids; bottom is wider than the top
g. Evaporating dish: heat and evaporate liquids
h. Florence flask; heat substances that need to be heated evenly; mostly used in distillation
experiments
i. Funnel: transfer liquids into another container to avoid spillage
j. Microspatula: transfer small amounts of solid from one container to another
k. Mortar and pestle: crush solids into powders
l. Pipet: move small amounts of liquid from one container to another
m. Ring stand: used to items being heated; used with clamps or rings
n. Stirring rod/ glass rod: stir solutions to dissolve substances
o. Stopper/cork: seal test tubes and flasks
p. Test tube brush: easily clean the inside of a test tube
q. Test tube holder: hold test tubes while being heated
r. Test tube rack: hold test tubes upright while observing reactions
s. Thermometer: take temperature
t. Tongs: hold flasks, crucibles and evaporating dish when they are hot
u. Clay triangle: used to hold crucibles when they are being heated
v. Volumetric flask: measure one specific volume; used in preparing solutions