SPM Trial 2010 BI Q&A (Melaka)

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SULIT 1119/1
1119/1
B.Inggeris
Kertas 1
September
1 3/4 jam
PERSIDANGAN KEBANGSAAN PENGETUA-PENGETUA

SEKOLAH MENENGAH MALAYSIA (PKPSM) CAWANGAN MELAKA
DENGAN KERJASAMA
JABATAN PELAJARAN MELAKA
____________________________________________________
PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN
SIJIL PELAJARAN MALAYSIA 2010
BAHASA INGGERIS
Kertas 1
Satu jam empat puluh lima minit
JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN INI SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU

Arahan
1. Kertas soalan ini mengandungi dua bahagian: Bahagian A dan Bahagian B.
2. Jawab kedua-dua bahagian.
3. Anda dinasihati supaya mengambil masa 45 minit untuk menjawab soalan Bahagian A
dan satu jam untuk Bahagian B.
Instructions
1. This question paper consists of two sections: Section A and Section B.
2. Answer both sections.
3. You are advised to spend 45 minutes on Section A and one hour on Section B.
Kertas soalan ini mengandungi 3 halaman bercetak
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SULIT 1119/1
Section A : Directed Writing

[35 marks]
As a concerned teenager, you are worried about the increasing truancy problem in schools.
Write a letter to a local newspaper stating the possible reasons for truancy and giving
suggestions on how to overcome the problem.
Use the following notes to write your letter.
REASONS
Peer influence Lack of Disinterest in Stress

attention from learning
parents
SUGGESTIONS
Monitoring Have Organize Hold

by teachers interesting awareness motivational
school campaigns talks
activities
Give warnings Send for Strict Dialogues with

counselling punishment parents
courses
When writing the letter, you must:

 provide the following:
- sender’s address
- date
- salutation
- opening
- closing
- signature
 use all the notes given
Note:
For your letter, you will receive up to 15 marks for the format and content points and up to
20 marks for the quality of your writing.
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Section B : Continuous Writing

[50 marks]
Write a composition of about 350 words on one of the following topics.
1 Describe an unforgettable person.
2 Write a story ending:

“… Thank goodness, I was all right.”
3 Mobile phones benefit our lives. Do you agree?
4 Things that I would do for my family.
5 Teachers
KERTAS SOALAN TAMAT
3
SULIT 1119/2
Nama: ________________________________________
NO. KAD PENGENALAN

I.C. NUMBER
ANGKA GILIRAN/
INDEX NUMBER
1119/2
B.Inggeris
Paper 2
September
1 1/4 jam

DENGAN KERJASAMA
__________________________________________________
BAHASA INGGERIS
Kertas 2
Satu jam lima belas minit
Arahan
1. Tulis nombor kad pengenalan dan angka giliran anda pada ruang yang disediakan.
2. Kertas soalan ini mengandungi empat bahagian: Bahagian A, Bahagian B, Bahagian C
dan Bahagian D.
3. Jawab semua bahagian dalam kertas soalan ini.
4. Soalan-soalan dalam Bahagian A mempunyai empat pilihan jawapan. Jawab setiap soalan
dengan menghitamkan ruang yang betul di halaman 18.
Anda dinasihati supaya mengambil masa 25 minit untuk menjawab soalan Bahagian A, 25
5. minit untuk Bahagian B, 50 minit untuk Bahagian C dan 35 minit untuk Bahagian D.
Instructions
1. Write your I.C. number and index number in the space provided.
2. This question paper consists of four sections: Section A, Section B, Section C and
Section D.
3. Answer all sections in this question paper.
4. Questions in Section A have four options. Answer each question by blackening the correct
space on page 18.
5. You are advised to spend about 25 minutes on Section A, 25 minutes on Section B, 50
minutes on Section C and 35 minutes on Section D.
________________________________________________________________________
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SULIT 1119/2
Section A
[15 marks]
Buy Data Supersaver Light Bulbs

Saves 50% on energy
Other features:
Gives as much light as an ordinary bulb

Comes in several colours
Comes in many shapes
1 What is the most important feature of this product?
A Its shapes
B Its colour
C Its efficiency
D Its energy saving aspect
VACANCIES FOR NURSES
REQUIREMENTS:
 Malaysian citizenship
 Possess distinctions in English and Science
 Not more than 23 years of age
 Willing to work shift
 Patient, polite and soft spoken
2 To apply for the vacancy as a nurse, one must
A be 24 years old.
B work the whole day.
C pass English and Science.
D have a pleasant personality.
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3 When Mr. Wavering said “I lost her” he meant that his wife
A had died.
B had remarried.
C had lost her way.
D had played hide-and-seek.
Encik Jamal’s Monthly Budget

Food (Groceries) RM 350.00
Entertainment RM 120.00
Loan Repayment RM 850.00
Health RM 250.00
Children’s Expenses RM 300.00
Transport (Fuel for two cars) RM 180.00
Savings RM 200.00
4 From the table above, Encik Jamal spends

A the least on food.
B the most on loan repayment.
C more on transport than savings.
D more on entertainment than health
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SUNRISE RESTAURANT
Business Hours
12.00 p.m. – 3.00 p.m.

7.00 p.m. – 10.00 p.m.
Open daily except Tuesdays
5 The Sunrise Restaurant is open for business

A daily.
B on Tuesdays.
C from morning till night.
D during lunch and dinner time.
6 The poster above tells us that we can

A wash our cars at Hospis Malaysia.
B participate in the Car Wash Day for free.
C help Hospis Malaysia by participating in the Car Wash Day.
D have a splashing charity drive by washing our own cars every day.
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AEON Melaka Safe
All of us just cannot wait to go shopping at AEON Jusco. The Melaka

Chief Minister said that members of the public need not worry about their
safety when they visit the shopping complex once it opens its doors. The
newest Jusco outlet in the country was supposed to open on 15 December
last year but its grand opening had to be postponed due to an explosion
that killed two workers. Well, we must have faith in our Chief Minister.
Read the full news on page 14.
7 According to the news report, AEON Melaka

A was closed for a year.
B will soon be open to the public.
C must wait another year before it opens its doors.
D had an explosion that killed members of the public.
8 The word “ faith” in the text above can best be replaced with
A trust.
B respect.
C pride.
D dignity.
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Questions 9 – 15 are based on the following passage.
How does a camel survive in the desert? Many people think that the camel stores
water in its hump, but the hump is really made 9_ of fats. A firm and tall hump
indicates good __10 while a soft and flabby one is a sign of weakness.
When a camel cannot find water, it passes less urine to conserve 11 small
amount of water it has in its body. Furthermore, the camel has a higher body temperature
than that of most mammals. This means that it starts to 12 at a higher temperature
than human beings. __13 __, in man, the loss of water thickens the blood. This is __14
man needs water more frequently.
These _ 15_ the reasons why a camel can go without water for up to thirty-four
days at a time. Because of this, the camel is the chief means of travel in the desert.
9 A in 13 A Similarly
B up B Moreover
C at C However
D on D Otherwise
10 A health 14 A who
B situation B why
C manner C what
D structure D where
11 A a 15 A is
B an B are
C the C was
D were
12 A sweating
B sweated
C sweats
D sweat
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Section B
[10 marks]
Questions 16 – 25
Read the information on the different tourist attractions and answer the questions that
follow.
Cheng Ho Seafood Restaurant Bukit Jalil Golf and Country Resort
This restaurant is a halal Chinese Muslim Designed by Australian Max Wexler, the
seafood eatery in Wangsa Maju. There are course boasts well-kept greens and
at least 140 types of seafood dishes ranging challenging fairways. Besides golf, one can
from Sweet Sour Salmon to Seafood enjoy tennis, squash, badminton and
Dimsum but their specialty is Butter-fried bowling. A swimming pool and gym cater to
Lobsters with Jumbo Shrimps, served with the tourists who are health conscious.
Oriental dip.
Pulau Perhentian Sam Poh Tong Temple
A diving attraction that is popular among This is the biggest temple in the country.
Malaysians and international travellers Impressive works of art are built into natural
alike, this beautiful island is surrounded by stalactites and stalagmites. A popular place
clear waters rich in marine life. for cave exploration.
Kuala Gula Sanctuary Gunung Gading National Park
A must for nature-lovers and bird-watching The park is open to avid mountain climbers.
enthusiasts. Learn more about the different The main attraction here is the Rafflesia, the
types of birds and their behaviour. Enjoy biggest flower in the world. This is one of the
the beautiful flora and fauna here. best places in Borneo to see this rare and
stinky flower.
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Questions 16 – 21
Using the information on the different tourist attractions, suggest the most suitable place
for the tourists to choose from. Write the names of the places in the boxes.
16 Annie and her husband love to observe

birds and their habits.
17 Takashi wants to photograph the world’s

largest bloom.
18 En. Ahmad and his family want to taste

authentic Chinese food.
19 Mr. Johnson, who cares about his health,

loves to play golf.
20 Mr. Lim is a marine biologist who wants

to study more about fish.
21 Mr. Raman and his friends would like to

explore caves.
Questions 22 – 25
Using the information on the different tourist attractions, complete the sentences with
suitable answers.
22 Diving is the main attraction in Pulau Perhentian as it is…………………………

...….……………………………………...…….…………………………. [1 mark]
23 The most popular dish at Cheng Ho Seafood Restaurant is ……………………….
……………..…………………………………………………………….. [1 mark]
24 Tourists going to Gunung Gading National Park must see ………………………
…………………………………………………………………………….[1 mark]
25 A golf enthusiast will go to Bukit Jalil and Country Resort because it has
……………………………………………………………….……………………
…………………………………………………………………………..... [1 mark]
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Section C
[25 marks]

The passage below describes how the writer and her sister escaped a shooting that broke
out in her town. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
1 “Hurry up children, your ong ngoai must be hungry by now,” Mother called
out from the front room of our family home in Tay Ninh, Vietnam. She had
carefully placed steamed rice, fried chicken and vegetables in each compartment of
the lunch rack, all set to be delivered to ong ngoai, our grandfather. My father, a
staff sergeant with the Philippine Air Force, worked as a surgical technician for 5
eight years and had married Mother, a local girl. Because of his work, he was away
from home for weeks at a time. Mother was a housewife who took great care of
Trang and me. She gave us the daily noontime job of taking lunch to our
grandfather, who lived alone in a small rented apartment.
2 “Here, send the food to ong ngoai quickly. Be careful not to spill the food,” 10
she added.
3 I was six years old. Trang, my sister, who was eight years older, was
helping me get dressed. I was excited at the thought of getting out of the house.
4 Mother, ever-concerned, recited her list of reminders as she always did
every day: “Stay on the side of the road. Look both ways before crossing the street. 15
Don’t stop to talk to strangers. Come back straight to the house after you have
delivered the food. Do not stop anywhere along the way. Run along now.”
5 So hand in hand, with Trang carrying the lunch rack, we scurried one block
down the road to our grandfather’s place. He was a retired judge and I was happy to
see him every day. It was he who gave me my first cac (the equivalent of cents at 20
that time).
6 It was 1974 and war was spreading all over Vietnam, but in Tay Ninh life
was peaceful and continued as usual. However, on that particular day, as Trang and
I made our way to grandfather’s place, whizz!
7 “Duck down!” Trang cried as we walked along. “Stay low and take cover!” 25
8 Ratatatatat! Somewhere in the mountains just outside town, Vietcong
soldiers fired their flying bullets down our path. I bent so low that I actually
dragged my face along the ground as I ran.
9 As we squatted at the side of the road, covering our heads, I started to worry
about ong ngoai. He liked his food served hot. If we did not get there on time and 30
his lunch turned cold - oh, I did not like the thought of it! I refused to let this
outbreak of shooting slow us down. “Let’s just run for it!” I said.
10 Trang suggested duckwalking down the road but it was not a good idea.
After a few paces, my short little legs began cramping. We tried all the manoeuvres
that could save our lives but nothing seemed to work. We were ready to sit things 35
out until the shooting was over. Then I suddenly remembered. If we ever came
under fire, our elders had told us time after time, we should run from side to side.
“Bullets travel in a straight line,” they said. “Run in a zigzag.”
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SULIT 1119/2
11 So taking a deep breath, we set off again, running wildly back and forth
across the road. After what seemed forever, the shooting ceased. “God Almighty be 40
praised, the food is still warm,” was all I could say after we arrived at our
grandfather’s apartment, completely unaware of the danger from which we had just
escaped. Five cents awaited each of us!
12 As an adult, I sometimes look back on that eventful day. I now know what
my young mind could not understand then: it is impossible to go through life without 45
hardship and struggles being thrown at you. They come when you least think they
would, like when you are happily walking down a street and bullets start flying at
you. You can try to avoid them all you want, but as long as you are alive, they will
keep coming, from all directions. Sure, you might get wounded, but you just have to
bandage your wounds, pick yourself up and start walking again. 50
(Adapted from Reader’s Digest, May 2006)

26 (a) From paragraph 1, what did the writer and her sister have to do every day at noon?
……………………………………….………………………………….......[1 mark]
(b) From paragraph 3, what made the writer feel happy and enthusiastic?
…………………………………………………………………………....... [1 mark]
27 From paragraph 5,
(a) which word has the same meaning as the word ‘hurried’?
…………………………………………………………………………....... [1 mark]
(b) how did the writer feel when she met her grandfather each day?
…………………………………………………………………………....... [1 mark]
28 From paragraph 6,
(a) how was life in Tay Ninh different from the rest of Vietnam?
.…………………………………………………………………………….. [1 mark]
(b) what do you think had made the ‘whizz’ sound?
.……………………………………………………………………………. [1 mark]
29 (a) From paragraph 11, what did the grandfather give the writer as a reward?
……………………………………………………………………….…...... [1 mark]
(b) From paragraph 12, what does the word ‘they’ in line 46 refer to?
…………………………………………………………………………....... [1 mark]
30 Do you agree with the writer that when we are facing problems, we need to pick
ourselves up and walk again? Give a reason for your answer.
...............................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................. [2 marks]
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SULIT 1119/2
31 Based on the passage given, write a summary on:

 the advice the writer’s mother gave her and her sister and
 what the writer and her sister did during the shooting
Credit will be given for use of own words but care must be taken not to change
the original meaning.
Your summary must

 be in continuous writing (not in note form)
 use materials from lines 10 to 40
 not be longer than 130 words, including the 10 words given below
Begin your summary as follows:
The writer’s mother reminded her and her sister not to…
[15 marks]
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ANSWER SHEET FOR QUESTION 31
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Section D
[25 marks]
32 Read the following poem Sonnet 18 and answer the questions that follow.
Shall I compare thee to a summer’s day?

Thou art more lovely and more temperate.
Rough winds do shake the darling buds of May,
And summer’s lease hath all too short a date:
Sometime too hot the eye of heaven shines,
And often is his gold complexion dimm’d;
And every fair from fair sometimes declines,
By chance, or nature’s changing course, untrimm’d;
But thy eternal summer shall not fade
Nor lose possession of that fair thou grow’st.
Nor shall Death brag thou wand’rest in his shade,
When in eternal lines to time thou grow’st.
So long as men can breathe, or eyes can see,
So long lives this, and this gives life to thee.
William Shakespeare
(a) What winds blow in May?
……………………………………………………….…………….... [1 mark]
(b) What does the line “And every fair from fair sometimes declines” in line 7
means?
……………………………………….……………………………… [1 mark]
(c) What does the phrase “eternal summer’ in line 9 refer to?
………………………………………………………………………. [1 mark]
(d) Do you think beauty is important when choosing your life partner?
Give a reason to support your answer.
…………………………………………………………………………………
………..…………………………………………………………………………
….…………………………………………………………………… [2 marks]
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33 Read the extract from the story The Drover’s Wife below and answer the questions
that follow.
She brings the children in and makes them get on this table. They are two boys
and two girls – mere babies. She gives them supper and then, before it gets dark,
she goes into the house and snatches up some pillows and bedclothes – expecting
to see or lay her hand on the snake at any minute. The woman finally decides to
make the children sleep on the table in the kitchen.
(a) Name two things that the drover’s wife took from the house.
(i) ……………………………………………………………….. [1 mark]
(ii) ……………………………………………………………….. [1 mark]
(b) Give a word to describe the drover’s wife.
…. ……………………………………………………………………. [1 mark]
(c) If you were one of the children, what two things would you do to help your
mother in this situation?
(i) ……………………………………………………………………. [1 mark]
(ii) ……………………………………………………………………. [1mark]
14
SULIT 1119/2
34 The following are the novels studied in the literature component in English
Language.
Jungle of Hope - Keris Mas
The Pearl - John Steinback
The Return - K.S. Maniam
Choose any one of the novels above and answer the question below.
Choose a character from a novel you have studied, and describe a dream that he or
she had. Describe three things that he or she did to achieve that dream.
Support your answer with close reference to the text.

[15 marks]
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KERTAS SOALAN TAMAT
17
SULIT 1119/2
FOR SECTION A
Blacken only one space for each question. If you wish to change your answer, erase the
blackened mark that you have made. Then blacken the space for the new answer.
EXAMPLE:
▬A▬ =B= =C= =D=
1 =A= =B= =C= =D= 9 =A= =B= =C= =D=
2 =A= =B= =C= =D= 10 =A= =B= =C= =D=
3 =A= =B= =C= =D= 11 =A= =B= =C=
4 =A= =B= =C= =D= 12 =A= =B= =C= =D=
5 =A= =B= =C= =D= 13 =A= =B= =C= =D=
6 =A= =B= =C= =D= 14 =A= =B= =C= =D=
7 =A= =B= =C= =D= 15 =A= =B= =C= =D=
8 =A= =B= =C= =D=
For examiner’s use

Section Marks
A 15
B 10
C 25
D 25
Total 75
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1119/1
B.Inggeris
Paper 2
September

DENGAN KERJASAMA
__________________________________________________
BAHASA INGGERIS
Kertas 1
PERATURAN PEMARKAHAN
1
Section A: Directed Writing (35 marks)
Format - 3 marks
Content Point - 12 marks
Language - 20 marks
Total - 35 marks
:
A CONTENT (15 marks)
.
Format: 3 marks
Award 1 mark each:
F1 Sender’s address and date

F2 Salutation and opening
F3 Closing and signature
Content Points: 12 marks
Award one mark each for each content used appropriately.

Do not award marks for mere mention of key words.
C1 Peer influence
C2 Lack of attention from parents
C3 Disinterest in learning
C4 Stress
C5 Monitoring by teachers
C6 Have interesting school activities
C7 Organize awareness campaigns
C8 Hold motivational talks
C9 Give warnings
C10 Send for counselling courses
C11 Strict punishment
C12 Dialogues with parents
2
B LANGUAGE (20 marks)
Band & Description of Criteria

Mark Range
 Language - accurate with only occasional first draft slips
 Sentence structures - varied
 Vocabulary - wide and precise
A  Punctuation - accurate
19 - 20  Spelling - accurate
 Paragraphs - have unity and are well-linked
 Style - relevant to an article
 Tone – appropriate
 Language - almost always accurate with more first draft slips
 Errors - found in more complex structures
 Sentences - some variation in length and type (with some
complex structures)
B  Vocabulary - wide enough
16 - 18  Punctuation - almost always accurate
 Spelling - almost always accurate
 Paragraphs - linked and show some unity
 Style - relevant and informative
 Language - largely accurate
 Simple structures - used without errors. Mistakes occur in more
complex structures
 Sentences - some variety of length and type but some repetitive
C structures give a monotonous effect
13 - 15  Vocabulary - adequate
 Punctuation - generally accurate
 Paragraphs – have some unity but links may be absent or
inappropriate
 Style - quite relevant and informative
 Tone - still appropriate
 Language - sufficiently accurate
 Sentence structures - Patches of clarity seen in simple structures
 Mistakes in more complex structures
 Vocabulary - adequate but lacks precision
D  Punctuation - generally correct
10 – 12  Spelling mistakes - may be found in unfamiliar words
 Paragraphs - show some unity
 Style - relevant and informative but may not be sustained
 Tone - may not always be appropriate for an article
3
 Meaning - never in doubt

 Single word errors - sufficiently frequent and serious to hamper
E reading and precision
7-9  Sentence structures - mainly simple but accuracy is not sustained
 Vocabulary - limited
 Punctuation - sometimes not correct
 Spelling mistakes - found in more difficult words
 Paragraphs - do not show unity and links are incorrectly used
 Style and tone - may not be relevant or informative
 Meaning - fairly clear
 Single word errors - numerous and impede reading
 A few simple structures - used accurately
U (i)  Vocabulary - very limited
4–6  Punctuation - sometimes used correctly
 Spelling errors - more frequent
 Style and tone - may not be appropriate for an article
 Sense - decipherable
 Content - generally comprehensible
U (ii)  Some errors - multiple in nature
2-3  Maybe only one or two accurate sentences
 Style and tone - hidden by too many errors
 Errors - mostly multiple in nature (meaning is not clear)
 Structures - distorted and ambiguous
U (iii)  Whole sections may make no sense at all
0-1  Award ‘1’ mark if some sense can be obtained
 Award ‘0’ mark if the article makes no sense at all from
beginning to end
4
Section B: Continuous Writing (50 marks)
1 The assessment of the candidate’s response will be based on impression.
2 The examiner shall read and re-read the response carefully and at the same time underline
for gross or minor errors or put in omission marks (^) where such errors occur.
3 The examiner should also mark for good vocabulary or expressions by putting a merit
tick (√) at the end of such merits.
4 The examiner shall fit the candidate’s response against the most appropriate band having
most of the criteria as found in the band. The examiner may have to refer to upper or lower
bands to the band already chosen to BEST FIT the student’s response to the most
appropriate band. The marks from the band decided on for the script also depend on the
number of criteria that are found in the script.
5 Justify the band and marks given, if necessary, by commenting on the strengths and
weaknesses of the candidate’s response, using the criteria found in the band.
Band &
Mark range Description of Criteria
 Language - entirely accurate, with occasional first draft slips
A  Punctuation - accurate and helpful
44 – 50  Spelling - entirely accurate
 Paragraphs - well-planned, unified and linked
 Topic - consistently relevant
 Interest - aroused and sustained throughout writing
 Language - accurate, with occasional minor errors

 Sentences of some varied lengths and types, some complex sentences
 Vocabulary - wide enough to show shades of intended meaning with some
B precision
38 – 43  Punctuation - almost always accurate
 Spelling - nearly always accurate
 Paragraphs with some evidence of planning, unity and appropriately linked
 Interest - mostly aroused and sustained

 Simple structures – free of errors; errors with more ambitious structures
 Vocabulary - wide enough to convey meaning but lack precision
 Punctuation in simple sentences - accurate, with errors in more complex
C sentences
32 – 37  Simple words - spelt correctly but misspelt when used with more
sophisticated words
 Paragraphs - used with some unity or at times not unified or
inappropriately linked
 Writing - relevant but lacks originality and planning
 Some interest aroused but not sustained
5
 Language - sufficiently accurate, communicates clearly

 Simple structures and vocabulary, with patches of clear, accurate language
 Some variety of sentence types and length but purpose is not clearly seen
D  Vocabulary - usually adequate to show intended meaning but not
26 – 31 developed to precision
 Punctuation - generally correct but does not clarify meaning
 Spelling of simple words - correct but more errors occur
 Writing of some relevance but lacking in liveliness and interest value
 Errors - sufficiently frequent and serious to hamper reading
 Simple structures - some accurate but unlikely to sustain accuracy for long
 Vocabulary - limited, too simple or more ambitious but imperfectly
E understood
20 - 25  Simple words - spelt correctly but with frequent mistakes in spelling and
punctuation
 Paragraphs - lack unity or haphazardly arranged
 Some relevance, but partially treated
 High incidence of linguistic errors distract from merits of content in
composition
 High incidence of errors impede reading
 Vocabulary - many serious errors of various kinds, mainly single-word
type, but could be corrected without rewriting
U (i)  Sentences - very few accurate ones
14 – 19  Sentences - simple but often repetitive
 Errors - frequently causing blurring
 Punctuation - used correctly, also with sentence separation errors
 Paragraphs - lack unity or no paragraphs at all
 Some sense, with multiple word errors
 Requires re-reading before being understood
 Only a few accurate simple sentences
U (ii)  Content - comprehensible
8 – 13  Incidence of linguistic error - high
 Meaning - blurred
 Far short of required length
 Almost entirely impossible to read
 Whole sections make little or no sense at all
U (iii)  Occasional patches of clarity (marks awarded)
0–7  Vocabulary - simple words used
 Frequent errors cause blurring
 “0” for scripts with no sense from beginning till the end
PERATURAN PEMARKAHAN TAMAT
6
1119/2
B.Inggeris
Paper 2
September

DENGAN KERJASAMA
__________________________________________________
BAHASA INGGERIS
Kertas 2
Section A
1 D
2 D
3 A
4 B
5 D
6 C
7 B
8 A
9 B
10 A
11 C
12 D
13 C
14 B
15 B
Section B
16 Kuala Gula Sanctuary

17 Gunung Gading National Park
18 Cheng Ho Seafood Restaurant
19 Bukit Jalil Golf and Country Resort
20 Pulau Perhentian
21 Sam Poh Tong Temple
22 surrounded by clear waters rich in marine life
23 Butter-fried Lobsters with Jumbo Shrimps, served with Oriental dip.
24 Rafflesia (the biggest flower in the world)
25 well-kept greens and challenging fairways
Section C
26 (a) take lunch to their grandfather (who lived alone in a rented apartment).
(b) The thought of getting out of the house
27 (a) scurried
(b) (She was) happy to see him.
28 (a) Life was peaceful (and continued as usual).
(b) (The Vietcong soldiers’) bullets
29 (a) Five cents
(b) Hardship and struggles
30 Accept any reasonable answer.
Award either 0 mark or 2 marks. If answer is only ‘Yes’ or ‘No’, award 0 mark.
31 Summary
Content - 10 marks (award up to a maximum of 10 marks)

Style & Presentation - 5 marks
Total - 15 marks
Content
Each point is awarded 1 mark.
1 spill the food

2 stay on the side of the road
3 look both ways before crossing the street.
4 do not stop to talk to strangers.
5 come back straight to the house after they have delivered the food.
6 do not stop anywhere along the way.
7 ducked down / stayed low and took cover
8 bent so low (that she actually dragged her face along the ground) as she ran
9 squatted at the side of the road
10 covered their heads
11 duckwalked down the road
12 tried all the manoeuvres that could save their lives
13 ran from side to side / ran in a zigzag / ran wildly back and forth across the road
Style & Presentation
Mark Paraphrase Mark Use of English

5 - Sustained attempt to rephrase text 5 - Language is accurate
- Expression is secure - Occasional errors
- Sentence structure is varied
- Marked ability to use original
complex syntax
- Punctuation is accurate
- Spelling is secure
4 - Noticeable attempt to rephrase 4 - Language is almost always
text accurate
- Free from stretches of - Serious errors are isolated
concentrated lifting - Some original syntax and
sentence variety
- Punctuation is generally
accurate
- Spelling is nearly always secure
3 - Intelligent & selective lifting 3 - Language is largely accurate
- Limited attempt to rephrase - Simple structures dominate
text - Serious erros are not frequent
- Expression may not always be but noticeable
secure - Sentences are generally lifted
from the text
- Punctuation is largely accurate
- Spelling is mostly secure
2 - Wholesale copying of text 2 - Serious errors are frequent
material - Accuracy is not sustained for
- Originality is barely noticeable long
- Simple punctuation is correct
- Irrelevant/distorted detail will
destroy the sequence in places
1 - Complete transcript of the text 1 - Heavy frequency of serious
- Originality is barely errors
noticeable - Fractured syntax
- Mindless copying of the text
- Irrelevant sections of the text are included
Award 0 when candidates copy totally from outside the prescribed text.
Section D
32 a) Rough / strong (winds)

b) Beauty will fade over time
c) the woman’s beauty
d) Accept any suitable answer.
*Award either 0 mark or 2 marks. If answer is only ‘Yes’ or ‘No’, award 0

mark. Accept response if yes/no answer is implied.
33 a) (i) pillows
(ii) bedclothes interchangeable
b) responsible / caring / loving / concerned / protective / Accept any suitable

answer
c) Accept any suitable answers.
34 AWARDING CONTENT MARKS :
Please refer to the band descriptors below before deciding which band BEST FITS the mark
for CONTENT.
SCORE BAND DESCRIPTORS

The response contains a majority of the following :
 Response – relevant to specified task
 Dream and what character did – well supported and linked with
9 – 10
evidence/knowledge from text
 Main and supporting ideas – relevant to specified task
 Ideas – clearly presented, well-organised and easily understood
 Response – relevant to the task
 Dream and what character did – usually supported and linked with
7–8
knowledge/evidence from text
 Mains and supporting ideas – mostly relevant to specified task
 Ideas – clear and can be understood
 Response – intermittently relevant to specified task
 Dream and what character did – supported and linked with some
5–6
knowledge or evidence to specified task
 Ideas – some are relevant to the specified task
 Ideas – generally clear, can be understood but lack organisation
 Response – barely relevant to specified task
 Dream and what character did – unlikely identified or even when
3–4
identified, not likely to be linked to the text
 Ideas – hardly relevant to specified task
 Ideas – difficult to understand
 No understanding of task requirement

1–2
 Disorganised writing – incoherent; ideas – irrelevant to the specified
task
 Response in language other than English

0  No response
 Response – not related to the novel
AWARDING LANGUAGE MARKS :
for LANGUAGE.
MARK USE OF LANGUAGE
 Language – accurate, with very occasional slips

 Occasional minor errors, first draft slips
5  Sentence structure – varied
 Punctuation – accurate and helpful
 Spelling – secure throughout response
 Language – almost always accurate

 Sentences – some variation
4
 Punctuation – accurate and generally helpful
 Spelling – nearly always secure
 Language – largely accurate

 Simple structures dominate
 Serious errors – not frequent although noticeable
3
 Serious errors with sophisticated structures
 Punctuation – largely accurate
 Spelling – mostly secure
 Meaning – not in doubt

 Serious errors – becoming more frequent
 Simple structures – accurate but not sustained
2
 Simple punctuation, usually correct, with occasional separation
errors
 Spelling – largely accurate but mistakes with more difficult words
 Serious errors – heavy frequency, impeding reading

0–1  Fractured syntax – more pronounced, with punctuation faltering
 Sentence separation errors – frequent

SULIT 1119/1
1119/1
B.Inggeris
Kertas 1
September
1 3/4 jam

DENGAN KERJASAMA
____________________________________________________
BAHASA INGGERIS
Kertas 1
Satu jam empat puluh lima minit

Arahan
1. Kertas soalan ini mengandungi dua bahagian: Bahagian A dan Bahagian B.
2. Jawab kedua-dua bahagian.
3. Anda dinasihati supaya mengambil masa 45 minit untuk menjawab soalan Bahagian A
dan satu jam untuk Bahagian B.
Instructions
1. This question paper consists of two sections: Section A and Section B.
2. Answer both sections.
3. You are advised to spend 45 minutes on Section A and one hour on Section B.
1
SULIT 1119/1
Section A : Directed Writing

[35 marks]
As the atheletics captain of your school, you have been asked to write an article for the
school magazine about the benefits of co-curricular activities.
Use the following notes to write your article.
 can make friends

 instill leadership qualities
 spend time usefully
 learn and practise values like teamwork
 acquire new skills and talent
 help in university entry
When writing your article, you must:
 provide a title
 include your name
 write in paragraphs
 use and elaborate all the notes given
Note:
For your article, you will receive up to 15 marks for the format and content points and up to
20 marks for the quality of your writing.
2
SULIT 1119/1
Section B : Continuous Writing

[50 marks]
Write a composition of about 350 words on one of the following topics.
1 Describe an unforgettable event.
2 Write a story beginning with:

“I am so glad to see you...”
3 Living in the city – good or bad?
4 My favourite time of the year
5 Movies
KERTAS SOALAN TAMAT
3
SULIT 1119/2
Nama: ________________________________________
NO. KAD PENGENALAN

I.C. NUMBER
ANGKA GILIRAN/
INDEX NUMBER
1119/2
B.Inggeris
Paper 2
September
1 1/4 jam

DENGAN KERJASAMA
__________________________________________________
BAHASA INGGERIS
Kertas 2
Satu jam lima belas minit
Arahan
1. Tulis nombor kad pengenalan dan angka giliran anda pada ruang yang disediakan.
2. Kertas soalan ini mengandungi empat bahagian: Bahagian A, Bahagian B, Bahagian C
dan Bahagian D.
3. Jawab semua bahagian dalam kertas soalan ini.
4. Soalan-soalan dalam Bahagian A mempunyai empat pilihan jawapan. Jawab setiap soalan
dengan menghitamkan ruang yang betul di halaman 18.
Anda dinasihati supaya mengambil masa 25 minit untuk menjawab soalan Bahagian A, 25
5. minit untuk Bahagian B, 50 minit untuk Bahagian C dan 35 minit untuk Bahagian D.
Instructions
1. Write your I.C. number and index number in the space provided.
2. This question paper consists of four sections: Section A, Section B, Section C and
Section D.
3. Answer all sections in this question paper.
4. Questions in Section A have four options. Answer each question by blackening the correct
space on page 18.
5. You are advised to spend about 25 minutes on Section A, 25 minutes on Section B, 50
minutes on Section C and 35 minutes on Section D.
________________________________________________________________________
1
SULIT 1119/2
Section A
[15 marks]
FRUITS SOLD ON TWO DIFFERENT DAYS BY A LOCAL MARKET
70
60
50
Kilogrammes
40 Day 1
30 Day 2
20
10
0
Papaya
Papayas Star fruit
Starfruits Mangoes
Mangoes Oranges
Oranges
Types of fruits
TYPES OF FRUITS
1 Based on the bar chart, which fruit did customers buy the least?
A Papayas
B Starfruits
C Oranges
D Mangoes
Weather Forecast
Peninsular Malaysia (7 a.m. – 7 p.m.)
A.M. Cloudy with occasional heavy rain over Melaka, Johor and Negeri Sembilan.
Cloudy with thunderstorms in Penang, Kedah, Perlis, Perak and Selangor.
Elsewhere fair.
P.M. Fair and sunny over all states.
2 What type of weather will you be experiencing if you were in Johor in the afternoon?
A Stormy
B Cloudy
C Sunny
D Rainy
2
SULIT 1119/2
City Shopping Centre

Service upon Request
- First Aid - Facsimile (10 a.m. – 2 p.m.)

- Baby Stroller - Baby Room
- Kiddy Car - Prayer Room for Muslims
- Wheel Chair - Disabled-friendly Toilets
Call our helpline at 1-300-80-3535 for inquiries and service (9 a.m. - 9 p.m.) or
book any of these facilities with the information counter (10 a.m. - 10 p.m.)
3 Based on the notice above, we can

A call the helpline anytime.
B book the service at the information counter.
C book the facsimile from 10.00 p.m. to 2.00 a.m.
D call the information counter from 10.00 a.m. to 10.00 p.m.
Dear Buddy,

When I was very young, my uncle played a joke on me. Hiding behind the
attic door, he pushed me in and switched off the lights outside. I was so
frightened that I developed a fear of darkness from then on. How can I
overcome this fear now?
Timid girl,
Merlimau
4 What is the problem faced by Timid Girl?
A Frightening others
B Being young
C Playful uncle
D Dark places
3
SULIT 1119/2
5 From the letter, we know that Timid Girl’s uncle was
A brave.
B loving.
C frightening.
D mischievous.
Yummy! Durians! I
wouldn’t miss them
for the world!
Hey, watch your
step! Durians have
sharp thorns.
6 The phrase “ Watch your step!” means the boy should

A be careful.
B not eat durians.
C walk elsewhere
D not step on the durians.
4
SULIT 1119/2
NO ENTRY
7 The sentence that best explains the above sign is

A vehicles may enter this area if they have permission to do so.
B all vehicles except taxis are allowed to enter this road.
C vehicle owners enter this area at their own risk.
D all vehicles cannot enter this road.
MOST POPULAR NOVELS IN 2009

TYPES OF NOVELS Percentage
Romance 25
Thriller 40
Horror 20
Science fiction 15
8 From the table, we know that

A few people like horror novels.
B most people enjoy reading thrillers.
C science fiction is read the most.
D romance novels are the most popular.
5
SULIT 1119/2
How do we cook instant noodles? Normally, we put the noodles into a pot
____9___ water. After that, we will put in the seasoning and let 10 cook for about
three minutes before they are ready to be 11 .
By doing this, we will boil the ingredients in the seasoning containing
monosodium glutamate. The process will change the molecular 12 of the
monosodium glutamate causing it to be toxic. The noodles are also coated with wax and
it will take about four to five days for the body to excrete it after you have taken the
noodles.
Now, here is the correct method of cooking instant noodles. First, boil the noodles
in a pot of water. Once the noodles are cooked, _13 _ them from the pot and pour away
the water which contains the wax. 14 , boil another pot of water and put the noodles
into this boiling water before _ 15_ off the stove. Only at this stage when the fire has
been put out do you put in the ingredients with the powder into the hot instant noodle
soup.
9 A in 13 A remove
B off B removes
C with C removed
D from D removing
10 A it 14 A Next
B its B Instead
C them C Otherwise
D they D Alternatively
11 A ate 15 A switching
B eat B shutting
C eaten C turning
D eating D pressing
12 A type
B building
C structure
D framework
6
SULIT 1119/2
Section B
[10 marks]
Questions 16 – 25
Read the following information and answer the questions that follow.
PETROMAS PRIVILEGE CARD

CAR CRAZE CONTEST 2010
It’s BIG , it’s CRAZY!
HERE’S HOW TO WIN
We’re giving away four different cars in four months. Just use your Privilege Card with
any purchase at PETROMAS service stations nationwide and you could drive home a
winner. There are other great prizes too worth up to RM 50,000 each month. Drive to a
PETROMAS service station near you today. You’d be crazy to miss this opportunity!
 This contest is open to all Malaysians and permanent residents of Malaysia, 18

years and above.
 A minimum purchase of RM40 with use of Privilege Card automatically
qualifies you for this contest.
 All completed contest forms must be dropped into the Contest drop boxes at any
PETROMAS Service Station nationwide.
 Contest ends 30 December 2010
 This contest is divided into two (2) categories:
i) Early Bird Contest

Prizes: RM10,000 and 100,000 Privilege Card Points (5 winners monthly)
RM1,000 and 10,000 Privilege Card Points (5 winners fortnightly)
RM100 and 1,000 Privilege Card Points (10 winners weekly)
ii) Grand Contest

Grand Prize: A brand new Exora MPV
CAR CRAZE CONTEST 2010

1 September – 30 December 2010
7
SULIT 1119/2
Questions 16 – 25
Based on the information given, complete the diagram below.
ORGANISER CLOSING DATE
16 ___________________________ 18 _____________________________
DURATION MINIMUM AGE OF PARTICIPANTS
17 ___________________________ 19 _____________________________
CONTEST CATEGORIES
20 _____________________________
21 _____________________________
Privilege Card
Car Craze Contest
2010
ENTRY QUALIFICATION
22_____________________________
______________________________
PRIZES OFFERED EVERY WEEK
WHERE TO SEND CONTEST
24 ____________________________ FORMS
_______________________________ 23 __________________________
GRAND PRIZE OFFERED ___________________________
25 ____________________________
_______________________________
8
SULIT 1119/2
Section C
[25 marks]

The passage below describes how Erma Mata struggled to get treatment for her son.
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
1 “Momma, I’m going to die,” the boy whispered, lying on his bed in the
children’s ward of the Philippine General Hospital.
2 “No, darling, you’ll be okay,” his mother murmured, stroking his brow.
Erma Mata and her husband had spent everything they had to get help for the
incurable blood disease that was eating up their son’s body. Nearly nine years old, 5
Caesar Mata weighed 30 pounds and stood three feet two inches tall. Doctors had
given him only a few more years to live.
3 Caesar had always seemed small for his age. His stomach was bloated out
of proportion to his tiny arms and legs, and sometimes he had problems urinating.
But he never complained. Like his mother Erma, Caesar was quiet and determined. 10
Then, after his fourth birthday in 1978, the boy grew sickly pale. “You must take
him to a Manila hospital right away,” a local doctor warned Erma.
4 That night, Erma cried as she broke the news to her husband, Marco. They
had only eight pesos, about US$1, and the Manila hospital was 210 miles away.
Erma and Marco borrowed some money and they then hitched a ride to Manila 15
with an uncle in a borrowed truck.
5 Doctors at the hospital identified Caesar’s problem: thalassemia, a genetic
disorder that disrupts the production of haemoglobin and causes severe anaemia.
The long words meant nothing to Erma, but she understood what the doctors said
next: There is no cure for the disease. 20
6 “There is nothing we can do except give your son blood transfusions
whenever his haemoglobin count falls dangerously low,” they told her. However,
there would be complications. Iron, an essential ingredient for the formation of
haemoglobin, would build up in Caesar’s body because of the frequent
transfusions, slowing down his growth and eventually damaging his heart, liver and 25
endocrine system. Patients with severe thalassemia rarely lived beyond their teens.
7 “Don’t worry,” Erma told Caesar as they boarded a crowded bus for the
long ride home. “God will take care of us.” In the privacy of her own thoughts, she
was less certain.
8 Every six to twelve weeks for the next few years, Erma and Caesar made 30
the 420-mile round trip to Manila for life-saving blood transfusions. Erma begged
for passes from the National Railway and a bus company. One day, she walked for
hours to Malacanang, the presidential palace. Her pleas to a palace secretary earned
her a red card that allowed free laboratory tests for Caesar at government hospitals.
9 All across Manila, Erma knocked on doors and stood in hallways. Word of 35
her quest touched the heart of a newspaper editor. “Caesar is not even aware that
death is coming closer to him,” read a story on June 15, 1979. The newspaper also
published a picture of Caesar looking sad and pitiful.
9
SULIT 1119/2
10 A television celebrity who read about Caesar’s illness visited Caesar in the
hospital, bringing him gifts and helping his mother with money for expenses. 40
Another lady who was a secretary in a government department was moved too. She
helped Erma to find a job in the tax office near her home.
11 Two years later, Caesar’s health worsened. Doctors at the Philippine
General Hospital considered removing his spleen, but he was too tiny and weak.
Watching her son suffering on a hospital bed, Erma decided to write to the 45
president of the United States to ask for help.
12 Finally, in late 1993, Erma received a letter from a children’s hospital in
Memphis, Tennessee informing her that the hospital was willing to treat Caesar for
free, and could provide air transportation within the United States as well as
accommodation in Memphis. The excited Erma contacted her celebrity friend who 50
arranged free airplane tickets for the mother and son. In the summer of 1994, their
plane touched down in the USA. Caesar, almost 20, was just over four feet tall but
his spirits were high as he and his mother walked into the children’s hospital.
(Adapted from Reader’s Digest, July 1998)
26 (a) From paragraph 1, what did the patient think would happen to him?
……………………………………….………………………………….......[1 mark]
(b) From paragraph 2, who does the word ‘their’ in line 5 refer to?
…………………………………………………………………………....... [1 mark]
27 (a) From paragraph 3, how was Caesar similar to his mother Erma?
……………………………………….…………………………………...... [1 mark]
(b) From paragraph 4, give evidence to prove that Erma and her husband were poor.
……………………………………….…………………………………...... [1 mark]
28 From paragraph 5, which word has the same meaning as the word ‘serious’?
……………………………………….………………………………………....... [1 mark]
29 (a) From paragraph 6, state two ways how too much iron could harm Caesar’s health.
(i) …………………………………………………………………….......... [1 mark]
(ii)………………………………………………………………………….. [1 mark]
(b) From paragraph 7, how did Erma comfort Caesar as they got on a bus to go home?
.…………………………………………………………………………….. [1 mark]
30 In your opinion, what kind of person is Erma? Using your own words, give a reason to
support your answer.
...............................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................. [2 marks]
10
SULIT 1119/2
31 Based on the passage given, write a summary on:
 what Erma did to help her son and
 how others helped her
Credit will be given for use of own words but care must be taken not to change
the original meaning.
Your summary must

 be in continuous writing (not in note form)
 use materials from lines 30 to 51
 not be longer than 130 words, including the 10 words given below
Begin your summary as follows:
Trying to do her best to save her son, Erma …
………………………………………………………………………………..……
…….………………………………………………………………………………
…..……….…………………………………………………………………………
………..……….……………………………………………………………………
……………..……….………………………………………………………………
…………………..……….…………………………………………………………
……………………..………….……………………………………………………
……………………………..……….………………………………………………
…………………………………..……….…………………………………………
………………………………………..…….………………………………………
…………………………………………..……….…………………………………
……………………………………………..………….……………………………
……………………………………………………..……….………………………
…………………………………………………………..……….…………………
………………………………………………………………..……….……………
…………………………………………………………………..……….…………
……………………………………………………………………..………….……
……………………………………………………………………………..……….
…………………………………………………………………..……….…………
……………………………………………………………………..………….……
11
SULIT 1119/2
………………………………………………………………………………..……
…….………………………………………………………………………………
…..……….…………………………………………………………………………
………..……….……………………………………………………………………
……………..……….………………………………………………………………
…………………..……….…………………………………………………………
………………………..……….……………………………………………………
……………………………..……….………………………………………………
…………………………………..……….…………………………………………
………………………………………..……….……………………………………
……………………………………………..……….………………………………
………………………………………………..………….…………………………
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[15 marks]
12
SULIT 1119/2
Section D
[25 marks]
32 Read the following stanzas of The Road Not Taken and answer the questions that
follow.
Two roads diverged in a yellow wood,
And sorry I could not travel both
And be one traveller, long I stood
And looked down one as far as I could
To where it bent in the undergrowth;
Then took the other, as just as fair,

And having perhaps the better claim,
Because it was grassy and wanted wear;
Though as for the passing there
Had worn them really about the same,
And both that morning equally lay

In leaves no step had trodden black.
Oh, I kept the first for another day!
Yet knowing how way leads on to way,
I doubted if I should ever come back.
I shall be telling this with a sigh

Somewhere ages and ages hence:
Two roads diverged in a wood, and I -
I took the one less travelled by
And that had made all the difference.
Robert Frost
(a) What do the two roads represent?
……………………………………………………….…………….... [1 mark]
(b) From the second stanza, which word suggests that one road had not been used
much?
…………………………………………….………………………… [1 mark]
(c) What is meant by ‘equally lay’ in stanza 3?
………………………………………………………………………. [1 mark]
(d) Would you choose a road that seems more challenging? Give a reason for
your answer.
………..………………………………………………………………..……
.…………………………………………….…………..…………... [2 marks]
13
SULIT 1119/2
33 Read the extract from the story Looking For A Rain God below and answer the
questions that follow.
Only the children, Neo and Boseyong, were quite happy in their little girl
world. They carried on with their game of making house like their mother and
chattered to each other in light, soft tones. They made children from sticks
around which they tied rags and scolded them severely in an exact imitation of
their own mother. Their voices could be heard scolding the day long: …
(a) How did the two girls feel in spite of the situation around them?
…….…………………………………………………………….. [1 mark]
(b) What did the two girls do in their little girls’ world?
(i) ………………………………………………………………. [1 mark]
(ii) ………………………………………………………………. [1 mark]
(c) If the two young girls had been boys, do you think they would have been
killed? Give a reason to support your answer.
……………………………………………………………………..………
………..……………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………….. [2 marks]
14
SULIT 1119/2
34 The following are the novels studied in the literature component in English
Language.
Jungle of Hope - Keris Mas
The Pearl - John Steinback
The Return - K.S. Maniam
Choose any one of the novels above and answer the question below.
Choose an important moral lesson that you have learnt from the novel and
describe how it affects a character in the novel.
Support your answer with close reference to the text.
[15 marks]
…….…………………………………………………………………………………………….
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15
SULIT 1119/2
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16
SULIT 1119/2
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KERTAS SOALAN TAMAT
17
SULIT 1119/2
FOR SECTION A
Blacken only one space for each question. If you wish to change your answer, erase the
blackened mark that you have made. Then blacken the space for the new answer.
EXAMPLE:
▬A▬ =B= =C= =D=
1 =A= =B= =C= =D= 9 =A= =B= =C= =D=
2 =A= =B= =C= =D= 10 =A= =B= =C= =D=
3 =A= =B= =C= =D= 11 =A= =B= =C= =D=
4 =A= =B= =C= =D= 12 =A= =B= =C= =D=
5 =A= =B= =C= =D= 13 =A= =B= =C= =D=
6 =A= =B= =C= =D= 14 =A= =B= =C= =D=
7 =A= =B= =C= =D= 15 =A= =B= =C= =D=
8 =A= =B= =C= =D=

For examiner’s use
Section Marks
A 15
B 10
C 25
D 25
Total 75
18
1119/1
B.Inggeris
Paper 2
September

DENGAN KERJASAMA
__________________________________________________
BAHASA INGGERIS
Kertas 1
Section A: Directed Writing (35 marks)
Format - 3 marks
Content Point - 12 marks
Language - 20 marks
Total - 35 marks
A CONTENT (15 marks)
Format: 3 marks
Award 1 mark each:

F1 Title
F2 Name (if signature only, the name must be legible)
F3 Paragraphing
Content Points: 12 marks

Award one mark each for each content used appropriately.
Do not award marks for mere mention of key words.
C1 can make friends

E1 Elaboration of C1
C2 instill leadership qualities
C3 spend time usefully
C4 learn and practise values like teamwork
C5 acquire new skills and talent
C6 help in university entry
B LANGUAGE (20 marks)
Band & Description of Criteria

Mark Range
 Language - accurate with only occasional first draft slips
A  Punctuation - accurate
19 - 20  Spelling - accurate
 Paragraphs - have unity and are well-linked
 Style - relevant to an article
 Language - almost always accurate with more first draft slips
 Errors - found in more complex structures
 Sentences - some variation in length and type (with some
complex structures)
B  Vocabulary - wide enough
16 - 18  Punctuation - almost always accurate
 Spelling - almost always accurate
 Paragraphs - linked and show some unity
 Style - relevant and informative
 Simple structures - used without errors. Mistakes occur in more
complex structures
 Sentences - some variety of length and type but some repetitive
C structures give a monotonous effect
13 - 15  Vocabulary - adequate
 Punctuation - generally accurate
 Paragraphs – have some unity but links may be absent or
inappropriate
 Style - quite relevant and informative
 Tone - still appropriate
 Language - sufficiently accurate
 Sentence structures - Patches of clarity seen in simple structures
 Mistakes in more complex structures
 Vocabulary - adequate but lacks precision
D  Punctuation - generally correct
10 – 12  Spelling mistakes - may be found in unfamiliar words
 Style - relevant and informative but may not be sustained
 Tone - may not always be appropriate for an article

 Single word errors - sufficiently frequent and serious to hamper
E reading and precision
7-9  Sentence structures - mainly simple but accuracy is not sustained
 Vocabulary - limited
 Punctuation - sometimes not correct
 Spelling mistakes - found in more difficult words
 Paragraphs - do not show unity and links are incorrectly used
 Style and tone - may not be relevant or informative
 Single word errors - numerous and impede reading
 A few simple structures - used accurately
U (i)  Vocabulary - very limited
4–6  Punctuation - sometimes used correctly
 Spelling errors - more frequent
 Style and tone - may not be appropriate for an article
 Sense - decipherable
 Content - generally comprehensible
U (ii)  Some errors - multiple in nature
2-3  Maybe only one or two accurate sentences
 Style and tone - hidden by too many errors
 Errors - mostly multiple in nature (meaning is not clear)
 Structures - distorted and ambiguous
U (iii)  Whole sections may make no sense at all
0-1  Award ‘1’ mark if some sense can be obtained
 Award ‘0’ mark if the article makes no sense at all from
beginning to end
Section B: Continuous Writing (50 marks)
1 The assessment of the candidate’s response will be based on impression.
2 The examiner shall read and re-read the response carefully and at the same time underline
for gross or minor errors or put in omission marks (^) where such errors occur.
3 The examiner should also mark for good vocabulary or expressions by putting a merit
tick (√) at the end of such merits.
4 The examiner shall fit the candidate’s response against the most appropriate band having
most of the criteria as found in the band. The examiner may have to refer to upper or lower
bands to the band already chosen to BEST FIT the student’s response to the most
appropriate band. The marks from the band decided on for the script also depend on the
number of criteria that are found in the script.
5 Justify the band and marks given, if necessary, by commenting on the strengths and
weaknesses of the candidate’s response, using the criteria found in the band.
Band &
Mark range Description of Criteria
 Language - entirely accurate, with occasional first draft slips
A  Punctuation - accurate and helpful
44 – 50  Spelling - entirely accurate
 Paragraphs - well-planned, unified and linked
 Topic - consistently relevant
 Interest - aroused and sustained throughout writing
 Language - accurate, with occasional minor errors

 Sentences of some varied lengths and types, some complex sentences
 Vocabulary - wide enough to show shades of intended meaning with some
B precision
38 – 43  Punctuation - almost always accurate
 Spelling - nearly always accurate
 Paragraphs with some evidence of planning, unity and appropriately linked
 Interest - mostly aroused and sustained

 Simple structures – free of errors; errors with more ambitious structures
 Vocabulary - wide enough to convey meaning but lack precision
 Punctuation in simple sentences - accurate, with errors in more complex
C sentences
32 – 37  Simple words - spelt correctly but misspelt when used with more
sophisticated words
 Paragraphs - used with some unity or at times not unified or
inappropriately linked
 Writing - relevant but lacks originality and planning
 Some interest aroused but not sustained
 Language - sufficiently accurate, communicates clearly

 Simple structures and vocabulary, with patches of clear, accurate language
 Some variety of sentence types and length but purpose is not clearly seen
D  Vocabulary - usually adequate to show intended meaning but not
26 – 31 developed to precision
 Punctuation - generally correct but does not clarify meaning
 Spelling of simple words - correct but more errors occur
 Writing of some relevance but lacking in liveliness and interest value
 Errors - sufficiently frequent and serious to hamper reading
 Simple structures - some accurate but unlikely to sustain accuracy for long
 Vocabulary - limited, too simple or more ambitious but imperfectly
E understood
20 - 25  Simple words - spelt correctly but with frequent mistakes in spelling and
punctuation
 Paragraphs - lack unity or haphazardly arranged
 Some relevance, but partially treated
 High incidence of linguistic errors distract from merits of content in
composition
 High incidence of errors impede reading
 Vocabulary - many serious errors of various kinds, mainly single-word
type, but could be corrected without rewriting
U (i)  Sentences - very few accurate ones
14 – 19  Sentences - simple but often repetitive
 Errors - frequently causing blurring
 Punctuation - used correctly, also with sentence separation errors
 Paragraphs - lack unity or no paragraphs at all
 Some sense, with multiple word errors
 Requires re-reading before being understood
 Only a few accurate simple sentences
U (ii)  Content - comprehensible
8 – 13  Incidence of linguistic error - high
 Meaning - blurred
 Far short of required length
 Almost entirely impossible to read
 Whole sections make little or no sense at all
U (iii)  Occasional patches of clarity (marks awarded)
0–7  Vocabulary - simple words used
 Frequent errors cause blurring
 “0” for scripts with no sense from beginning till the end

1119/2
B.Inggeris
Paper 2
September

DENGAN KERJASAMA
__________________________________________________
BAHASA INGGERIS
Kertas 2
Section A
1 B
2 C
3 B
4 D
5 D
6 A
7 D
8 B
9 C
10 C
11 C
12 C
13 A
14 A
15 C
Section B
16 PETROMAS/ PETROMAS Service Station

17 1 – 30 December (2010) / Four (4) months
18 30 December (2010)
19 18 (years)
20 Early Bird (Contest)
21 Grand (Contest) interchangeable
22 (Make) a minimum purchase worth RM40 (with use of Privilege Card)
23 dropped into the Contest drop boxes (at any PETROMAS Service Station nationwide)
24 RM100 and 1,000 Privilege Card Points
25 A brand new Exora MPV
Section C
26 (a) He was going to die.

(b) Erma Mata and her husband
27 (a) Caesar was quiet. / Caesar was determined.
(b) They had only eight pesos (US$1). / They borrowed some money.
28 severe.
29 (a) (i) slowing down his growth
(ii) damaging his heart, liver and endocrine system.
(b) God would take care of them / Not to worry.
30 Accept any reasonable answer.
*Award 1 mark for a word that describes Erma and 1 mark for a reason to support
your answer.
31 Summary
Content - 10 marks (award up to a maximum of 10 marks)

Style & Presentation - 5 marks
Total - 15 marks
Content
Each point is awarded 1 mark.
1 Made the (420-mile round) trip to Manila for life-saving blood transfusions
2 Begged for passes from the National Railway
3 Begged for passes from a bus company
4 (Walked to Malacanang / the presidential palace and) pleaded for a red card (that
allowed free laboratory tests for Caesar at government hospitals)
5 Knocked on doors
6 Stood in hallways
7 A newspaper editor published a picture of Caesar
8 A television celebrity (visited Caesar in the hospital, bringing him gifts and) helped
Erma with money for expenses
9 A lady (secretary in a government department) helped Erma to find a job (in the tax
office near her home)
10 Erma decided to write to the president (to ask for help)
11 A children’s hospital (in Memphis, Tennessee informed her that the hospital) was
willing to treat Caesar for free
12 and could provide air transportation (within the United States)
13 (as well as) accommodation (in Memphis)
14 Celebrity friend arranged free airplane tickets (to the United States)
Style & Presentation
Mark Paraphrase Mark Use of English

5 - Sustained attempt to rephrase text 5 - Language is accurate
- Expression is secure - Occasional errors
- Sentence structure is varied
- Marked ability to use original
complex syntax
- Punctuation is accurate
- Spelling is secure
4 - Noticeable attempt to rephrase 4 - Language is almost always
text accurate
- Free from stretches of - Serious errors are isolated
concentrated lifting - Some original syntax and
sentence variety
- Punctuation is generally
accurate
- Spelling is nearly always secure
3 - Intelligent & selective lifting 3 - Language is largely accurate
- Limited attempt to rephrase - Simple structures dominate
text - Serious erros are not frequent
- Expression may not always be but noticeable
secure - Sentences are generally lifted
from the text
- Punctuation is largely accurate
- Spelling is mostly secure
2 - Wholesale copying of text 2 - Serious errors are frequent
material - Accuracy is not sustained for
- Originality is barely noticeable long
- Simple punctuation is correct
- Irrelevant/distorted detail will
destroy the sequence in places
1 - Complete transcript of the text 1 - Heavy frequency of serious
- Originality is barely errors
noticeable - Fractured syntax
- Mindless copying of the text
- Irrelevant sections of the text are included
Award 0 when candidates copy totally from outside the prescribed text.
Section D
32 a) choices (in life)

b) grassy
c) Both roads were just as inviting / Accept any other suitable answer
d) Accept any suitable answer.
33 a) happy
b) - game of making house (like their mother)
- chattered (to each other in light, soft tones)
- made children from sticks (around which they tied rags)
- scolded the stick children (severely in an exact imitation Accept any
of their own mother) two
c) Accept any suitable answer.

34 AWARDING CONTENT MARKS :
for CONTENT.
SCORE BAND DESCRIPTORS

 Response – relevant to specified task
 Moral lesson and how character affected– well supported and linked
9 – 10
with evidence/knowledge from text
 Main and supporting ideas – relevant to specified task
 Ideas – clearly presented, well-organised and easily understood
 Response – relevant to the task
 Moral lesson and how character affected – usually supported and
7–8
linked with knowledge/evidence from text
 Main and supporting ideas – mostly relevant to specified task
 Ideas – clear and can be understood
 Response – intermittently relevant to specified task
 Moral lesson and how character affected – supported and linked with
5–6
some knowledge or evidence to specified task
 Ideas – some are relevant to the specified task
 Ideas – generally clear, can be understood but lack organisation
 Response – barely relevant to specified task
 Moral lesson and how character affected – unlikely identified or even
3–4
when identified, not likely to be linked to the text
 Ideas – hardly relevant to specified task
 Ideas – difficult to understand
 No understanding of task requirement

1–2
 Disorganised writing – incoherent; ideas – irrelevant to the specified
task
 Response in language other than English

0  No response
 Response – not related to the novel
AWARDING LANGUAGE MARKS :
for LANGUAGE.
MARK USE OF LANGUAGE
 Language – accurate, with very occasional slips

 Occasional minor errors, first draft slips
5  Sentence structure – varied
 Punctuation – accurate and helpful
 Spelling – secure throughout response
 Language – almost always accurate

 Sentences – some variation
4
 Punctuation – accurate and generally helpful
 Spelling – nearly always secure
 Language – largely accurate

 Simple structures dominate
 Serious errors – not frequent although noticeable
3
 Serious errors with sophisticated structures
 Punctuation – largely accurate
 Spelling – mostly secure
 Meaning – not in doubt

 Serious errors – becoming more frequent
 Simple structures – accurate but not sustained
2
 Simple punctuation, usually correct, with occasional separation
errors
 Spelling – largely accurate but mistakes with more difficult words
 Serious errors – heavy frequency, impeding reading

0–1  Fractured syntax – more pronounced, with punctuation faltering
 Sentence separation errors – frequent

SPM Trial 2010 BI Q&amp;A (Melaka)

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PERSIDANGAN KEBANGSAAN PENGETUA-PENGETUA

JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN INI SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU

Kertas soalan ini mengandungi 3 halaman bercetak

Section A : Directed Writing

Use the following notes to write your letter.

Peer influence Lack of Disinterest in Stress

Monitoring Have Organize Hold

Give warnings Send for Strict Dialogues with

When writing the letter, you must:

Section B : Continuous Writing

Write a composition of about 350 words on one of the following topics.

1 Describe an unforgettable person.

2 Write a story ending:

3 Mobile phones benefit our lives. Do you agree?

4 Things that I would do for my family.

KERTAS SOALAN TAMAT

NO. KAD PENGENALAN

PERSIDANGAN KEBANGSAAN PENGETUA-PENGETUA

Buy Data Supersaver Light Bulbs

Gives as much light as an ordinary bulb

1 What is the most important feature of this product?

D Its energy saving aspect

VACANCIES FOR NURSES

2 To apply for the vacancy as a nurse, one must

Encik Jamal’s Monthly Budget

4 From the table above, Encik Jamal spends

12.00 p.m. – 3.00 p.m.

5 The Sunrise Restaurant is open for business

6 The poster above tells us that we can

AEON Melaka Safe

All of us just cannot wait to go shopping at AEON Jusco. The Melaka

7 According to the news report, AEON Melaka

Questions 9 – 15 are based on the following passage.

Cheng Ho Seafood Restaurant Bukit Jalil Golf and Country Resort

Pulau Perhentian Sam Poh Tong Temple

Kuala Gula Sanctuary Gunung Gading National Park

16 Annie and her husband love to observe

17 Takashi wants to photograph the world’s

18 En. Ahmad and his family want to taste

19 Mr. Johnson, who cares about his health,

20 Mr. Lim is a marine biologist who wants

21 Mr. Raman and his friends would like to

22 Diving is the main attraction in Pulau Perhentian as it is…………………………

Questions 26 – 31 are based on the following passage.

(Adapted from Reader’s Digest, May 2006)

31 Based on the passage given, write a summary on:

Your summary must

Begin your summary as follows:

Shall I compare thee to a summer’s day?

(a) What winds blow in May?

(i) ……………………………………………………………….. [1 mark]

(ii) ……………………………………………………………….. [1 mark]

(b) Give a word to describe the drover’s wife.

(i) ……………………………………………………………………. [1 mark]

(ii) ……………………………………………………………………. [1mark]

Jungle of Hope - Keris Mas

The Pearl - John Steinback

The Return - K.S. Maniam

Support your answer with close reference to the text.

KERTAS SOALAN TAMAT

▬A▬ =B= =C= =D=

1 =A= =B= =C= =D= 9 =A= =B= =C= =D=

SPM Trial 2010 BI Q&A (Melaka)

SPM Trial 2010 BI Q&A (Melaka)